Post it Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnosis and management of placenta accretta

A

MRI

Deliver at 35-36 weeks

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2
Q

Scan dates for placenta praevia

A

Identify at 20wk
If major, rescan at 32wk
If minor, rescan at 36wk

If symptomatic, deliver 34-36 weeks (corticosteroids)
If asymptomatic, deliver 36-37 weeks

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3
Q

What would you see on biopsy of Crohn’s

A

non caseating granuloma
intraepithelial lymphocyte infiltration
transmural inflammation
skip lesions

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4
Q

What would you see on biopsy of UC

A

neutrophils forming crypt abscesses

continuous circumferential inflammation

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5
Q

Early CT signs of a CVA

A

hypodense basal ganglia
hyperdense MCA
loss of white/grey matter differentiation
loss of sulci

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6
Q

Describe malignant MCA sydrome

A

stroke followed by rapid neurological decline and headache
Ix: midline shift and displaced lateral ventricles
Rx: craniotomy

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7
Q

O/E for TGA

A

no murmur
loud S2
cyanosis

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8
Q

Management of nappy rash

A

Child asymptomatic: barrier cream
Child >1mo in discomfort: topical hydrocortisone 1% 7 days
Persistent rash/Candida: topical azole plus barrier cream
Bacterial infection: PO flucloxacillin 7 days

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9
Q

Which tracts are affected in anterior cord syndrome? What pattern does this produce?

A

Spinothalamic and corticospinal

Bilateral paralysis
Loss of pain/temp
Autonomic dysfunction

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10
Q

UTI management in children

A

Lower:
<3mo, IV amoxicillin + gentamycin
>3mo, PO trimethoprim

Upper
PO cefalexin
IV coamoxiclav

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11
Q

Caput seccundem vs cephalohaematoma

A

caput saccadenim = immediate, crosses sutures, ventouse, resolves quickly (think hickey)

Cephalohaematoma - takes a few days to show, doesn’t cross sutures, instrument delivery, resolves in 3-4 months

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12
Q

Which side does the uvula deviate to

A

contralateral

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13
Q

When to do lithium levels

A

one week after starting treatment, one week after every dose change, and weekly until the levels are stable. Once levels are stable, levels are usually measured every 3 months.
Always measure 12 hours after the last dose

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14
Q

What areas of the brain cause expressive and receptive dysphasia?

A

expressive: Brocas, frontal, left
receptive: Wernickes, temporal, sylvian fissure

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15
Q

What types of ovarian tumours are most common

A

young women: dysgerminoma, terratoma
older women: serous adenocarcinoma (epithelial)
secondary: breast, GI

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16
Q

3 symptoms of peroneal nerve palsy

2 symptoms of L5 palsy

A

peroneal - foot drop, weak dorsiflexion, weak eversion

L5 - weak inversion, weak hip adduction

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17
Q

FBC and LFT results in GCA

A

NN anaemia
high plts
high ALP

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18
Q

Who gets a statin?

A

10yr CVD risk >10%
T1DM and >40yo
CKD

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19
Q

Abx for NEC

A

ampicillin/gentamycin + metronidazole

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20
Q

Breast cancer FU

A

annual mammograms until they enter the routine screening programme. if they are already in the screening programme, offer annual mammogram for 5 years then back to routine recall

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21
Q

What measures are used for pregnancy dating and at what times?

A

6-12 weeks: crown rump length

14-20 weeks: biparietal

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22
Q

At what gestation should monoamniotic twins be born and by what route?

A

32-33 weeks

CS

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23
Q

Abx for toxic shock?

A

vancomycin and clindamycin

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24
Q

Pattern in anterior cord syndrome

A

loss of pain, temperature and motor

preserved touch

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25
How does varenicline work?
partial nicotinic receptor agonist to reduce euphoria
26
How does inclusion body myositis present?
50yo | weak quads/finger/throat
27
How does myotonic dystrophy present?
``` 20-40yo Distal weakness and weak sternocleidomastoids Myotonia Haggard face Cataracts Small testes/atrophic ovaries LD cardiomyopathy ```
28
Treatment of myotonic dystrophy
mexilitine
29
1st and 2nd line treatment of vertigo in MS
1: gabapentin 2: memantine
30
What sounds does mitral valve prolapse (Fragile X) make?
mid systolic | opening click
31
bowel cancer screening programme
55yo one off flexisig | 60-74, home kit every 2 years
32
describe C diff
gram +ve bacilli
33
How do you difference E.coli/Klebsiella from Proteus and pseudomonas?
MacConkey/XLD agar | E.coli/Klebsiella are lactose fermenters
34
How often should prolactin be checked on SGA?
Initiation 6 monthly Yearly
35
How often should fasting BM be checked on SGA?
baseline 1 month 6 monthly (more with olanzipine)
36
How often should HbA1c be checked?
3-6 monthly then 6 monthly once stable
37
length of latent first stage for a. nulli b. multip
nulli - 10 hours | multip - 6 hours
38
length of 2nd stage for a. nulli b. multip
nulli - 3 hours | multip - 2 hours
39
school exclusion for impetigo
48hrs after starting abx | until lesion have crusted if untreated
40
school exclusion for chickenpox
5 days and all lesions crusted
41
Vision loss - where is the lesion for a. contralateral loss b. ipsilateral loss c. macular sparing loss
a. optic tracts b. optic radiation c. occipital lobe
42
1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatments of painful periods
1. mefenamic acid 2. COCP 3. both
43
Describe intranuclear ophthalmoplegia
affected eye can't adduct other eye gets nystagmus on abduction diplopia
44
Articles 2, 3, 8, 12
2 - right to life 3 - right to be free from inhumane and degrading treatment 8 - right to privacy/family 12 - right to marry and found a family
45
Where does the jaw deviate in trigeminal damage?
towards the lesion
46
myoclonic seizure EEG
normal background with generalised polyspike and wave
47
how do thiazides work
inhibit Na+/Cl- channel in DCT
48
how do loop diurectics work
inhibit Na+/Cl-/K+ channels in ascending limb
49
how do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors work
inhibit bicarb secreiton in PCT
50
how does spironalactone work
aldosterone antagonist (competitive binding) in DCT
51
which cranial nerves are midline and how does a midline stroke present
``` 3,4,6,12 corticospinal weakness medial lemniscus (prop/vib) medial fasiculus (eye) motor functions of those CNs ```
52
what cranial nerves are lateral (side) and how does a side stroke present
``` 5,7,8,9,10,11 spinothalamic (pain.temp) syndrome (horners) spinocerebellar (apraxia) sensory of those CNs ```
53
how does ACE-i affect potassium
high
54
how do thiazides affect potassium and sodium
low
55
how do sulphonylureas work
increase insulin relase from pancreas
56
how do DPP4i work
increase incretin levels to indirectly increase insulin
57
how do thiazolidinediones work
increase peripheral insulin sensitivity | decrease FFA release causing weight gain and fluid retention
58
how does metformin (biguanide) work
increase peripheral insulin sensitivity increase glucose uptake in liver decrease gluconeogenesis in liver
59
name 2 features of ASD/VSD on CXR
cardiomegaly | enlarged pul arteries
60
what will ASD show on ECG
partial RBBB
61
what will VSD show on ECG
biventricular hypertrophy | upright t waves
62
how will ToF look on CXR
small boot heat with uptilted apex | pul artery bay
63
how will TGA look on CXR
narrow mediatinum egg on side cardiac shadow increased pul vascular marking
64
what is the suffix for quinolones
-ofloxacin
65
name 2 macrolides
erythromycin | clarithryomycin
66
name 3 aminoglycasides
gentamycin streptomycin neomycin
67
name 2 glycopeptides
vancomycin | teicoplanin
68
which DM drugs cause weight gain?
pioglitazone | glicazide (sulphonylurea)
69
which DM drug is CI in HF?
pioglitazone
70
which DM drug causes bladder cancer
pioglitazone
71
which DM drug causes hypoglycaemia
sulphonylurea
72
who is metformin CI in
very elderly liver/renal failure alcholism
73
management of hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
IV saline to drop by by 5mmol/L/hr | then low dose insulin to target