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3A Public Health > Post it Notes > Flashcards

Post it Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnosis and management of placenta accretta

A

MRI

Deliver at 35-36 weeks

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2
Q

Scan dates for placenta praevia

A

Identify at 20wk
If major, rescan at 32wk
If minor, rescan at 36wk

If symptomatic, deliver 34-36 weeks (corticosteroids)
If asymptomatic, deliver 36-37 weeks

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3
Q

What would you see on biopsy of Crohn’s

A

non caseating granuloma
intraepithelial lymphocyte infiltration
transmural inflammation
skip lesions

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4
Q

What would you see on biopsy of UC

A

neutrophils forming crypt abscesses

continuous circumferential inflammation

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5
Q

Early CT signs of a CVA

A

hypodense basal ganglia
hyperdense MCA
loss of white/grey matter differentiation
loss of sulci

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6
Q

Describe malignant MCA sydrome

A

stroke followed by rapid neurological decline and headache
Ix: midline shift and displaced lateral ventricles
Rx: craniotomy

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7
Q

O/E for TGA

A

no murmur
loud S2
cyanosis

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8
Q

Management of nappy rash

A

Child asymptomatic: barrier cream
Child >1mo in discomfort: topical hydrocortisone 1% 7 days
Persistent rash/Candida: topical azole plus barrier cream
Bacterial infection: PO flucloxacillin 7 days

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9
Q

Which tracts are affected in anterior cord syndrome? What pattern does this produce?

A

Spinothalamic and corticospinal

Bilateral paralysis
Loss of pain/temp
Autonomic dysfunction

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10
Q

UTI management in children

A

Lower:
<3mo, IV amoxicillin + gentamycin
>3mo, PO trimethoprim

Upper
PO cefalexin
IV coamoxiclav

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11
Q

Caput seccundem vs cephalohaematoma

A

caput saccadenim = immediate, crosses sutures, ventouse, resolves quickly (think hickey)

Cephalohaematoma - takes a few days to show, doesn’t cross sutures, instrument delivery, resolves in 3-4 months

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12
Q

Which side does the uvula deviate to

A

contralateral

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13
Q

When to do lithium levels

A

one week after starting treatment, one week after every dose change, and weekly until the levels are stable. Once levels are stable, levels are usually measured every 3 months.
Always measure 12 hours after the last dose

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14
Q

What areas of the brain cause expressive and receptive dysphasia?

A

expressive: Brocas, frontal, left
receptive: Wernickes, temporal, sylvian fissure

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15
Q

What types of ovarian tumours are most common

A

young women: dysgerminoma, terratoma
older women: serous adenocarcinoma (epithelial)
secondary: breast, GI

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16
Q

3 symptoms of peroneal nerve palsy

2 symptoms of L5 palsy

A

peroneal - foot drop, weak dorsiflexion, weak eversion

L5 - weak inversion, weak hip adduction

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17
Q

FBC and LFT results in GCA

A

NN anaemia
high plts
high ALP

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18
Q

Who gets a statin?

A

10yr CVD risk >10%
T1DM and >40yo
CKD

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19
Q

Abx for NEC

A

ampicillin/gentamycin + metronidazole

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20
Q

Breast cancer FU

A

annual mammograms until they enter the routine screening programme. if they are already in the screening programme, offer annual mammogram for 5 years then back to routine recall

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21
Q

What measures are used for pregnancy dating and at what times?

A

6-12 weeks: crown rump length

14-20 weeks: biparietal

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22
Q

At what gestation should monoamniotic twins be born and by what route?

A

32-33 weeks

CS

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23
Q

Abx for toxic shock?

A

vancomycin and clindamycin

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24
Q

Pattern in anterior cord syndrome

A

loss of pain, temperature and motor

preserved touch

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25
Q

How does varenicline work?

A

partial nicotinic receptor agonist to reduce euphoria

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26
Q

How does inclusion body myositis present?

A

50yo

weak quads/finger/throat

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27
Q

How does myotonic dystrophy present?

A 
20-40yo
Distal weakness and weak sternocleidomastoids
Myotonia
Haggard face
Cataracts
Small testes/atrophic ovaries
LD
cardiomyopathy
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28
Q

Treatment of myotonic dystrophy

A

mexilitine

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29
Q

1st and 2nd line treatment of vertigo in MS

A

1: gabapentin
2: memantine

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30
Q

What sounds does mitral valve prolapse (Fragile X) make?

A

mid systolic

opening click

31
Q

bowel cancer screening programme

A

55yo one off flexisig

60-74, home kit every 2 years

32
Q

describe C diff

A

gram +ve bacilli

33
Q

How do you difference E.coli/Klebsiella from Proteus and pseudomonas?

A

MacConkey/XLD agar

E.coli/Klebsiella are lactose fermenters

34
Q

How often should prolactin be checked on SGA?

A

Initiation
6 monthly
Yearly

35
Q

How often should fasting BM be checked on SGA?

A

baseline
1 month
6 monthly

(more with olanzipine)

36
Q

How often should HbA1c be checked?

A

3-6 monthly then 6 monthly once stable

37
Q

length of latent first stage for

a. nulli
b. multip

A

nulli - 10 hours

multip - 6 hours

38
Q

length of 2nd stage for

a. nulli
b. multip

A

nulli - 3 hours

multip - 2 hours

39
Q

school exclusion for impetigo

A

48hrs after starting abx

until lesion have crusted if untreated

40
Q

school exclusion for chickenpox

A

5 days and all lesions crusted

41
Q

Vision loss - where is the lesion for

a. contralateral loss
b. ipsilateral loss
c. macular sparing loss

A

a. optic tracts
b. optic radiation
c. occipital lobe

42
Q

1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatments of painful periods

A
  1. mefenamic acid
  2. COCP
  3. both
43
Q

Describe intranuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

affected eye can’t adduct
other eye gets nystagmus on abduction
diplopia

44
Q

Articles 2, 3, 8, 12

A

2 - right to life
3 - right to be free from inhumane and degrading treatment
8 - right to privacy/family
12 - right to marry and found a family

45
Q

Where does the jaw deviate in trigeminal damage?

A

towards the lesion

46
Q

myoclonic seizure EEG

A

normal background with generalised polyspike and wave

47
Q

how do thiazides work

A

inhibit Na+/Cl- channel in DCT

48
Q

how do loop diurectics work

A

inhibit Na+/Cl-/K+ channels in ascending limb

49
Q

how do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors work

A

inhibit bicarb secreiton in PCT

50
Q

how does spironalactone work

A

aldosterone antagonist (competitive binding) in DCT

51
Q

which cranial nerves are midline and how does a midline stroke present

A 
3,4,6,12
corticospinal weakness
medial lemniscus (prop/vib)
medial fasiculus (eye)
motor functions of those CNs
52
Q

what cranial nerves are lateral (side) and how does a side stroke present

A 
5,7,8,9,10,11
spinothalamic (pain.temp)
syndrome (horners)
spinocerebellar (apraxia)
sensory of those CNs
53
Q

how does ACE-i affect potassium

A

high

54
Q

how do thiazides affect potassium and sodium

A

low

55
Q

how do sulphonylureas work

A

increase insulin relase from pancreas

56
Q

how do DPP4i work

A

increase incretin levels to indirectly increase insulin

57
Q

how do thiazolidinediones work

A

increase peripheral insulin sensitivity

decrease FFA release causing weight gain and fluid retention

58
Q

how does metformin (biguanide) work

A

increase peripheral insulin sensitivity
increase glucose uptake in liver
decrease gluconeogenesis in liver

59
Q

name 2 features of ASD/VSD on CXR

A

cardiomegaly

enlarged pul arteries

60
Q

what will ASD show on ECG

A

partial RBBB

61
Q

what will VSD show on ECG

A

biventricular hypertrophy

upright t waves

62
Q

how will ToF look on CXR

A

small boot heat with uptilted apex

pul artery bay

63
Q

how will TGA look on CXR

A

narrow mediatinum
egg on side cardiac shadow
increased pul vascular marking

64
Q

what is the suffix for quinolones

A

-ofloxacin

65
Q

name 2 macrolides

A

erythromycin

clarithryomycin

66
Q

name 3 aminoglycasides

A

gentamycin
streptomycin
neomycin

67
Q

name 2 glycopeptides

A

vancomycin

teicoplanin

68
Q

which DM drugs cause weight gain?

A

pioglitazone

glicazide (sulphonylurea)

69
Q

which DM drug is CI in HF?

A

pioglitazone

70
Q

which DM drug causes bladder cancer

A

pioglitazone

71
Q

which DM drug causes hypoglycaemia

A

sulphonylurea

72
Q

who is metformin CI in

A

very elderly
liver/renal failure
alcholism

73
Q

management of hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state

A

IV saline to drop by by 5mmol/L/hr

then low dose insulin to target

3A Public Health (2 decks)

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