Post-Book Review Flashcards

1
Q
Which characteristic do insects have that other arthropods (insect relatives) do not have?
A. Exoskeleton
B. Three body regions
C. Six pairs of legs
D. Cephalothorax
A

B

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2
Q
Which of the following insect stages is generally the most damaging?
A. Larva
B. Egg
C. Adult
D. Pupa
A

A

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3
Q
Which of the following features do all arthropods share?
A. Wings
B. Antennae
C. Complete metamorphosis
D. Segmentation
A

D

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4
Q

Systemic insecticides:
A. Are applied only to plants.
B. Are insecticides that are particularly effective against sucking pests.
C. Are produced by the plant under attack.
D. Are usually effective in killing insects feeding on bark.

A

B

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5
Q

Insecticide resistance most often occurs:
A. When you only spray as needed.
B. When chemicals from different classes are alternated from one application to the next.
C. When insecticide is applied to both the upper and lower surfaces of leaves.
D. In insect species with multiple generations rather than a single generation per year.

A

D

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6
Q

How do parasites differ from predators?
A. Parasites attack and devour many prey organisms over their lifetime.
B. Parasites are usually larger than their prey.
C. Parasites are usually smaller than their prey.
D. Parasites kill their prey instantly.

A

C

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7
Q
What are cutworms?
A. A form of earthworm
B. Nematodes
C. Beetle grubs
D. Moth larvae
A

D

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8
Q
How are spiders and mites different from insects?
A. Three body regions
B. Four pairs of legs
C. Wings
D. An exoskeleton
A

B

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9
Q

Biological control is:
A. Always cost effective.
B. Too complicated for the average person to try.
C. A form of management that can become self-sustaining.
D. Never harmful to the environment.

A

C

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10
Q
Which of the following insects have sucking mouth parts?
A. Aphids
B. Beetles
C. Termites
D. Bees
A

A

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11
Q
Which of the following have chewing mouthparts? 
A. Adult moths
B. Earwigs
C. Leafhoppers
D. Mites
A

B

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12
Q
Which of the following insecticide classes are generally more persistent?
A. Pyrethroids
B. IGRs (insect growth regulators)
C. Organophosphate insecticides
D. Chlorinated hydrocarbons
A

D

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13
Q
Which of the following insecticide types are most likely to kill exposed insect eggs and overwintering insects?
A. Organophosphates
B. Pyrethroids
C. Chlorinated hydrocarbons
D. Spray oils
A

D

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14
Q

(True or False)

Beetles undergo complex (complete) metamorphosis.

A

True

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15
Q
Light trap/electrocution grids are a form of:
A. Cultural control
B. Biological control
C. Chemical control
D. Mechanical control
A

D

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16
Q
An adjuvent is:
A. A type of disinfectant for pruners.
B. In the pyrethroid chemical class.
C. A spreader-sticker or other application enhancer.
D. All of the above.
A

C

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17
Q
Which of the following formulations is most hazardous to bees?
A. Malathion dust
B. Malathion wettable powder
C. Malathion emulsifiable concentrate
D. Malathion granules
A

A

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18
Q

(True or False)

Insects are the only animals with wings.

A

False

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19
Q

(True or False)

Botanical insecticides are not toxic to humans.

A

False

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20
Q

(True or False)

Insects that undergo complex metamorphosis go through egg, nymph, and adult stages.

A

False

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21
Q
Primarily, how do bacteria enter plants?
A. By producing enzymes
B. Through wounds and stomates
C. Mechanically
D. By hyphae
A

B

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22
Q
A plant disease is:
A. A condition in which a plant varies in appearance or function compared to a healthy plant.
B. A dead plant.
C. A fungus.
D. Transmitted by insects.
A

A

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23
Q

Sanitation methods for disease control include:
A. Repeat fungicide applications and crop rotation.
B. Crop rotation and a vector control.
C. Planting resistant varieties, removing infected plants, and crop rotation.
D. Pruning out infected twigs and destroying diseased plant material.

A

D

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24
Q
Virus diseases are:
A. Commonly managed with fungicide applications.
B. Caused by submicroscopic particles.
C. Always transmitted by insect vectors.
D. Cured by antibiotics.
A

B

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25
Q
Of the four major groups of plant pathogens, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ have the most number of species.
A. Viruses
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Nematodes
A

B

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26
Q

Usually when should fungicides be applied to control the disease?
A. When the plant is diseased, but before it’s dead
B. When the plant needs to be protected from infection
C. Several times to cure the disease
D. Prior to rainfall

A

B

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27
Q
Synthetic organic fungicides include:
A. Metalaxyl
B. Lime sulfur
C. Chlorpyrifos
D. Bordeaux mixture
A

A

28
Q
Leaf spots that are generally round, uniformly distributed over the leaf, and have a sharp margin between healthy and affected tissue are typical of:
A. Fungal leave spots.
B. Chemical spray injury spots.
C. Bacterial leafspots.
D. Powdery mildew spots.
A

B

29
Q

Which cultural methods are part of an IPM approach for foliar fungal disease?
A. Proper timing of fungicide applications
B. Reduce plant spacing to limit sunlight to lower stems and leaves
C. Increase plant spacing to increase air circulation
D. Insect vector management

A

C

30
Q
Which two environmental factors strongly influence fungal disease development?
A. Soil pH and humidity
B. Moisture and soil pH
C. Temperature and moisture
D. Sunlight and humidity
A

C

31
Q

Disease control principles include:
A. Eradication, protection, and mating disruption.
B. Sterile male release, exclusion, and chemigation.
C. Exclusion, chemigation, and mating disruption.
D. Genetic resistance, exclusion, and eradication.

A

D

32
Q
During which stage of the disease cycle is a chemical application usually most effective?
A. Penetration
B. Infection
C. Inoculation
D. All of the above
A

C

33
Q

Disease develops when:
A. Inoculum has built up to an epidemic level.
B. Several pathogens are present to infect a plant.
C. A plant is weakened.
D. A susceptible host plant, favorable environment, and a pathogen are present.

A

D

34
Q
For which of the following would antibiotics be a chemical management?
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Nematodes
A

B

35
Q
How do viruses spread?
A. Only by insect vectors
B. By the transfer of soil
C. On contaminated tools and by blowing rain
D. Through vegetative propagation
A

D

36
Q

This question relates to the SELECTO label on pages 53 and 54 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

SELECTO 75 WSP can be applied:
A. To blooming crops or weeds at anytime.
B. To blooming crops or weeds at noon.
C. The blooming crops or weeds in the morning.
D. To plants and weeds that are not in bloom and when bees are not present.

A

D

37
Q

This question relates to the SELECTO label on pages 53 and 54 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

SELECTO 75 WSP product cannot be applied to:
A. Turf grasses.
B. Flowers.
C. Christmas trees.
D. Evergreens.
A

C

38
Q

This question relates to the SELECTO label on pages 53 and 54 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

If 10,890 square feet of foliage plants and shrubs are to be treated, what is the maximum amount of SELECTO 75 WSP that can be applied?
A. 1.2 oz
B. 4.8 oz
C. 2.1 oz
D. 8.4 oz
A

C

39
Q

This question relates to the SELECTO label on pages 53 and 54 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

How many pounds of SELECTO 75 WSP can be used on 5 acres of a commercial turf sod farm?
A. 0.4 lb
B. 0.5 lb
C. 2 lbs
D. Not a legal application
A

D

40
Q

This question relates to the SELECTO label on pages 53 and 54 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

How much SELECTO 75 WSP could you legally apply to treat 1/2 acre of lawn for a crane fly infestation?
A. 3.2 oz
B. 6.4 oz
C. 12.8 oz
D. Not a legal application
A

A

41
Q

This question relates to the SELECTO label on pages 53 and 54 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

How long after a SELECTO 75 WSP treatment can food crops be planted?
A. No restriction
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. More than 365 days
A

D

42
Q

This question relates to the SELECTO label on pages 53 and 54 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

SELECTO 75 WSP cannot be applied:
A. With a boom sprayer for broadcast.
B. By soil injection.
C. By chemigation (through irrigation systems).
D. By drenching.
A

C

43
Q

This question relates to the SELECTO label on pages 53 and 54 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

(True or False)
It is legal to tank-mix SELECTO 75 WSP with a foliar fungicide to reduce the number of applications see you need to make.

A

True

44
Q

This question relates to the SELECTO label on pages 53 and 54 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

How much SELECTO 75 WSP should you add to 100 gallons of water to treat for spittlebug insects on roses?
A. 0.5
B. 1.6
C. 4.8
D. Not a legal application
A

A

45
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

Personal protective equipment required when applying PLANTGUARD 50W fungicide includes:
A. Long-sleeved shirt and pants, gloves, and goggles.
B. Long pants, gloves, goggles, and boots.
C. Long-sleeved shirt and pants, gloves, and boots.
D. Apron, long-sleeved shirt and pants, goggles, gloves, and boots.

A

C (applying- not mixing)

46
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

How much PLANTGUARD 50W product should be applied as a soil drench to 20,000 sq ft of established rhododendrons in flats if the lowest rate and concentration our applied?
A. 1.2 gal
B. 1.6 gal
C. 2.4 gal
D. 3.1 gal
A

A

47
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

PLANTGUARD 50W is toxic to:
A. All wildlife.
B. Birds.
C. Fish and birds.
D. Fish and other aquatic organisms.
A

D

48
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

If 6 oz of PLANTGUARD 50W is mixed in 100 gallons of water and applied to 400 sq ft, how much active ingredient is being applied?
A. 30 oz
B. 6 oz
C. 100 gallons
D. 1 gallon per 4 sq ft
A

A

49
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

What is the Key human concern associated with PLANTGUARD 50W?
A. Death
B. Severe illness
C. Permanent eye damage
D. Little to no human concern
A

C

50
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

How often may PLANTGUARD 50W be applied?
A. At 3- to 4-week intervals
B. As often as necessary to obtain good disease control
C. Only once during a season
D. At 7-day intervals if applied as a foliar application

A

A

51
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

PLANTGUARD 50W maybe phytotoxic to plants not specifically listed on the label. What are some symptoms of phytotoxicity?
A. Skin irritation
B. Irreversible eye damage
C. Fish kill
D. Foliage burn and reduced rooting
A

D

52
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

Which type of nozzle should you avoid using with PLANTGUARD 50W?
A. Brass
B. Ceramic
C. Stainless steel
D. Nylon
A

D

53
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

(True or False)
PLANTGUARD 50W can legally be applied to Rodendrons in landscaped areas of a shopping mall.

A

False (only registered for use in nursery and greenhouse production)

54
Q

This question relates to the PLANTGUARD label on pages 55 and 56 in your Introduction to Insect and Disease Management study manual.

(True or False)
PLANTGUARD 50W is a systemic fungicide.

A

False

55
Q
The cutworm is a larva for a:
A. Ladybird
B. Beetle
C. Moth
D. Barn fly
A

C

56
Q
Which mite is beneficial?
A. Two-spotted spider mite
B. Typhlodromus
C. McDaniel spider mite
D. Clover mite
A

B

57
Q
Winged adults that have a thickened and slightly leathery-looking area on the front half of the outer wing is a characteristic of:
A. True Bugs
B. Reproductive ants
C. Leafhoppers
D. Thrips
A

A

58
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are small, delicate, powdery insects appearing most often on the underside of leaves.
A. Thrips
B. Whiteflies
C. Wingless aphids
D. San Jose Scale
A

B

59
Q
If you have a plant with light, delicate webs over buds and between leaves, you probably are dealing with:
A. Jumping spiders
B. Parasitic wasps
C. Thrips
D. Spider-mites
A

D

60
Q
Which of the following have chewing mouthparts?
A. Earwigs
B. Aphids
C. True bugs
D. Leafhoppers
A

A

61
Q
Which of the following is a beneficial?
A. Lady bird
B. Squash bug
C. Leafhoppers
D. Thrips
A

A

62
Q
Which of the following is a beneficial?
A. Lydia bug
B. Tarnished plant bug
C. Big-eyed bug
D. Stink bug
A

C

63
Q
What is the largest group of plant pathogens?
A. Fungi
B. Bacteria
C. Virus's 
D. Nematodes
A

A

64
Q

What insect quality increases the probability of insecticide tolerance?
A. Multiple year lifespan
B. Social colonies
C. Hard exoskeleton
D. Short life cycle, and multiple generations in a year

A

D

65
Q
Which are modes of dissemination of virus's
A. Wind and rain
B. Water and soil
C. Insects and vegetative propagation
D. Rain and water
A

C

66
Q
At this population density, the pest causes a reduction in the value of the crop greater than the cost of control.
A. Economic Injury Level
B. Economic Threshold
C. Introduction level
D. Infestation threshold
A

A

67
Q
The point at which it is advisable to begin pest control measures is called
A. Economic Injury Level
B. Economic Threshold
C. Introduction level
D. Infestation threshold
A

B