Poss Exam Q's Flashcards
1
Q
What am I? Bacterial pathogen, at minimum should be vaccinated against.
A
Coxiella burnetti (Q fever)
2
Q
Earlier this year a report was released that stated there is a 42% probability of major animal disease outbreak in the next 5 years. What are the 4 most likely diseases?
A
- African Swine Fever (highest)
- Foot & Mouth Disease (second highest)
- Lumpy skin
- African horse sickness
3
Q
What am I? Most common reported bacterial cause in humans, zoonotic food-borne illness
A
Campylobacter
4
Q
What am I? Causative agent of black death
A
Yersinia Pestis
5
Q
What am I? Category 3 EAD, zoonotic, humans get 3 different forms of disease depending on the route of exposure, not exotic to Aus, causes sudden death in sheep / cattle
A
Anthrax
6
Q
Why is head to back electrical stunning irreversible?
A
Causes cardiac arrest
7
Q
Common to both risk analysis & HACCP, what is the first thing to identify? (what H stands for)
A
Hazards
8
Q
What legislation in SA requires private vets to notify government of notifiable disease?
A
Livestock act 1997
9
Q
Event of EAD in sheep. What is NLIS primarily used for?
A
Tracing animals
10
Q
Which foodborne bacterial pathogen is most commonly associated with haemolytic uraemic syndrome?
A
E. Coli
11
Q
What am I? Foodborne zoonosis, before 2018 not known to occur in Aus until outbreak in NSW & VIC. Primarily transmitted to humans from egg.
A
Salmonella enteriditis
12
Q
True / False: pork tapeworm (taenia solium) not endemic in Aus.
A
True
13
Q
Which zoonotic species of brucella occurs in Aus?
A
Brucella suis
14
Q
Name one way to break transmission cycle of echinococcus granulosis
a) Parasite prevention in dogs
b) Preventing eating of offal
c) Stop infected dogs contaminating waterways with faeces
A
b) Preventing eating of offal
15
Q
Name a superficial skin zoonosis humans catch from livestock:
a) Mange
b) Scabby mouth
c) Ringworm
d) Erysipeloid
e) Pseudocowpox
A
c) Ringworm
16
Q
Are pigs considered essential intermediate host for infection with Nipah virus in humans?
A
No
17
Q
More than one answer. Name one clinical sign to make you suspect HPAI in chickens.
A
Sudden and high mortality in the flock
Other signs may include severe depression, respiratory distress, swelling of the head, comb, and wattles, and a significant drop in egg production
18
Q
If outbreak of African Swine Fever (ASF) occured in Aus, what is Aus’s basic response policy?
a) Stamping out
b) Control & eradicate in shortest time to minimise socioeconomic effects, by stamping out
A
b) Control & eradicate in shortest time to minimise socioeconomic effects, by stamping out
19
Q
Sheep & cattle abattoirs. Brain samples are submitted for what?
A
TSE’s (spongiform encephalopathies)
20
Q
True / false: vets at export abattoirs are employed directly by the abattoir.
A
False
- They are employed by the department of agriculture, water & environment
21
Q
Antemortem inspection. What is the most likely outcome for a cow with a severely broken leg?
A
Emergency slaughter
22
Q
Client rings vet clinic in SA. Dog attacked by bat, rescue bat - dead. Client scratched by bat. What do you do? Multiple answers possible.
a) Tell to go to hospital / GP or SA health
b) Call EAD hotline
c) Don’t throw bat away - can be tested (use gloves & a towel or get someone vaccinated to do it. Take to ACDP)
d) Take dog to veterinarian to be assessed
A
a) Tell to go to hospital / GP or SA health
23
Q
Name at least one disease covered by surveillance program known as NAMP.
a) BEF
b) Akabane
c) Bluetongue
A
c) Bluetongue
24
Q
What is the only disease reported to have been successfully eradicated?
a) Smallpox
b) Rinderpest (animals)
A
a) Smallpox
25
Which species is often referred to as amplifying host for FMD?
Pigs
26
Name one of the 3 pillars of EAD management / policy:
a) Quarantine to prevent transmission
b) Reduce susceptible individuals
c) Biosecurity to reduce number in first place
d) Put in place management plans for future
e) Vaccination
f) Tracing exposed / infected people
g) Notify
a) Quarantine to prevent transmission
3 pillars from lectures:
- Early detection
- Stop infection spreading (quarantine, livestock standstills, tracing)
- Eliminate infection quickly
27
Where is Aus's high containment facility located?
Geelong
28
Which of the following pathogens is/are zoonotic?----
- All of the listed pathogens are zoonotic
- Yersinia pestis
- Salmonella typhimurium
- Australian bat lyssavirus
- All of the listed pathogens are zoonotic
29
Which of the following factors can reduce final meat quality by decreasing the amount of
glycogen present in the muscle tissue at the point of slaughter?---- Poor nutrition and stress prior to slaughter
- Rate of carcase cooling/chilling
- Ante mortem inspections
- Use of electrical stunning (particular head to back, as opposed to head only, electrical
stunning)
- Poor nutrition and stress prior to slaughter
30
Which of the following steps of HACCP involves determining the points or steps in a food
procedure process that pose the most risk for introduction of hazards?----
- Critical control points
- Hazard analysis
- Critical limits
- Critical control monitoring
- Critical control points
31
Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with foodborne disease
from eggs or egg products?---
- Salmonella spp
- Campylobacter spp.
- Listeria monocytogenes
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Salmonella spp
32
Which of the following are the most commonly reported notifiable pathogens associated
with gastrointestinal disease in humans?----
- Salmonella and campylobacter
- Listeria and shiga toxin producing E. coli
- Salmonella and shiga toxin-production E. coli
- Campylobacter listeria
- Salmonella and campylobacter
33
Which of the following is responsible for conducting risk assessments and then setting
import conditions, for the importation of live animals or animal products into Australia, if
those products may then end in South Australia?----
- Department of Agriculture, water and the environment (national/federal
government)
- World organisation for animal health (OIE)
- Department of primary industries and regions south Australia (state government)
- Animal health Australia
- Department of Agriculture, water and the environment (national/federal
34
You attend a farm visit whilst working as a private veterinarian in south Australia in the
Murray mallee. The farmer went out this morning to find 24 sheep dead in one paddock.
The farmer saw them yesterday and they seemed fine, so they appear to have just died
suddenly overnight. No other sheep showing any obvious signs of illness. You are
concerned that there is a chance this might be anthrax. What MUST you do?----
- Contact the department of primary industries and regions south Australia
- Conduct a post-mortem
- Quarantine the farm immediately
- Contact a work colleague immediately
- Contact the department of primary industries and regions south Australia
35
Which of the following Brucella species are both considered to be exotic to (do not occur
in) Australia?----
- Brucella melitensis and brucella abortus
- Brucella abortus and brucella ovis
- Brucella ovis and brucella melitensis
- Brucella suis and brucella abortus
- Brucella melitensis and brucella abortus
36
Which of the following would be the highest risk activity for contracting Q fever (Coxiella
burnetti) infection in unvaccinated humans on a dairy farm?----
- Assisting with calving (helping to pull the calf)
- Farm visit to inspect healthy cattle
- Farm visit to inspect health cattle
- Working in the dairy to assist with milking
- Assisting with calving (helping to pull the calf)
37
Which of the following zoonotic parasites is not present (endemic) in Australian livestock?----
- Taenia solium
- Echinnococcus granulosus
- Taenia saginata
- Toxoplasma gondii
- Taenia solium
38
At ante-mortem inspection in the lairage of an export abattoir, a sheep is found to have a
severely broken leg and is not able to bear weight on the leg. The sheep is not showing
any other signs of disease. Which of the following for slaughter would apply in this case?----
- Emergency slaughter
- Passed for unconditional slaughter (unrestricted)
- Passed for restricted slaughter (suspect)
- Condemned
- Emergency slaughter
39
Which of the following methods of stunning is not reversible (the animal cannot
spontaneously regain consciousness)?----
- Penetrative captive bolt
- Percussive stunning
- Head-only electrical stunning
- Both head only electrical stunning and percussive stunning are not reversible
- Penetrative captive bolt
40
Export abattoirs for cattle, sheep and goats are required to submit brain samples (to the
relevant laboratories) from fallen and casualty slaughter animals. These brain samples
re-tested as part of Australia’s surveillance and evidence of absence for which the
following programs?----- ------ - Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE) freedom assurance project
- National arbovirus monitoring program (NAMP)
- National granuloma submission program
- Enhanced abattoir surveillance (EAS) program
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE) freedom assurance project
41
Which of the following conditions would result at condemnation of the affected organ
and/or the entire carcase at slaughter?----
- All of the listed conditions
- Sheep measles (Cysticercus ovis)
- Nephritis
- Liver abscess
- All of the listed conditions
42
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the stun to stick interval, which is an
important factor to monitor in an abattoir?----
- The time from application of stunning equipment to the start of bleeding the animal
out
- The time it takes for an animal to lose conscious following stunning
- The amperage required to effectively stun an animal using electrical stunning
- The time it takes for irreversible insensitivity following incision of the critical blood
vessels (i.e., bleeding out)
- The time from application of stunning equipment to the start of bleeding the animal
out
43
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) in humans (often children), which is usually
characterised by progressive kidney failure, is associated with which of the following
foodborne bacterial species?----
- E. coli
- Campylobacter jejuni
- Salmonella enteritidis
- Salmonella typhimurium
- E. coli
44
Which of the pathogens listed below is not zoonotic?----
- Humanmetapneumovirus
- Rabies virus
- Clostridium tetani
- Brucella melitensis
- Humanmetapneumovirus
45
Which of the pathogens listed below is not of animal origin?----
- Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- SARS-COV1
- SARS-COV2
- HIV
- Neisseria gonorrhoeae
46
Which of the pathogens listed below would be considered as an emerging infectious
disease in Australia if discovered where in 2021?
- Nipah virus
- Coxiella burnetti
- Chlamydia psittaci
- Toxoplasma gondii
- Nipah virus
47
Foot and mouth disease is an emergency which has not been seen in Australia for many
years. As a vet tech you need to know about this disease. Which of the following
statements is most likely to be correct?----
- Cattle are the indicator hosts, sheep the maintenance host. Clinical signs in cattle are
mostly associated with oral vesicle formation and lameness
- Sheep are the indicator hosts, cattle the maintenance host. Clinical signs in sheep are
mostly associated with oral vesicle formation and lip smacking
- Pigs are the amplifier host and cattle are the maintenance host. Clinical sign in pigs
are mostly associated with oral vesicles formation but no sign of lameness
- Sheep are the amplifier host and pigs are the indicator host. Clinical signs in cattle
are mostly associated with lameness and fever
- Cattle are the indicator hosts, sheep the maintenance host. Clinical signs in cattle are
mostly associated with oral vesicle formation and lameness
48
Of the list of clinical signs which are not of concern when considering notifiable disease----
- Increase in percentage of thicker shelled eggs in chickens
- Unusual nervous signs in several animals
- Lameness, drooling or salivating excessively
- Sudden onset and rapid deterioration and death in horses
- Increase in percentage of thicker shelled eggs in chickens
49
Rinderpest is an emergency animal disease that was eradicated in 2011. But it is important
for vets and vet techs not to forget about the disease. Of the following combination of
species, clinical signs and mortality rate is likely to be correct?----
- Seen in European cattle with discharge from nose and eyes up to 90% mortality
- Seen in African buffalo, with discharge from nose and eyes up to 90% mortality
- Seen in European sheep, with erosive/necrotic lesions in the mouth and 80%
mortality
- Seen in zebra, with watery/haemorrhagic diarrhoea and 95% mortality
- Seen in European cattle with discharge from nose and eyes up to 90% mortality
50
Hendra virus can cause disease in horses. Which of the following list of epidemiological
features is most likely to be correct?
- It is transmitted by flying foxes and is most commonly seen in Queensland in July
- It is transmitted by insectivorous bats and is most commonly seen in NSW in January
- It is transmitted by flying foxes and is most commonly seen in Vic in Nov
- It is transmitted by insectivorous bats and is most commonly seen in SA in Feb
- It is transmitted by flying foxes and is most commonly seen in Queensland in July
51
Of the following list of diseases, which is not a differential diagnosis for foot and mouth
disease?----
- Laminitis
- BVD
- Foot rot
- IBR
- Laminitis
52
During the bovine tuberculosis eradication programme in Australia, whole herd testing
was implemented? Which of the following statements is correct?---- A single intradermal TB test using bovine purified protein derivative (PPD) was given
into the caudal fold of the tail
- A single intradermal TB test using bovine purified protein derivative (PPD) was given
into the neck skin
- A comparatively intradermal TB test using bovine and avian purified derivative (PPD)
was given into the caudal fold of the tail
- A comparative intradermal TB test using bovine and avian purified protein derivative
(PPD) was given into the neck skin
- A single intradermal TB test using bovine purified protein derivative (PPD) was given
into the caudal fold of the tail
53
Which of the following drugs was not used in the Hydatids eradication programme in New
Zealand?----
- Triclabendazole
- Niclosamide
- Arecoline
- Praziquantel
- Triclabendazole
54
Stamping out is a strategy used to control emergency animal disease outbreaks. Which of
the following statements is the correct description of stamping out?----
- Killing of diseased, infected, exposed animals followed by cleaning and disinfection
- Killing of diseased, infected, exposed animals using a blanket or contiguous strategy
- Killing of diseased, infected, exposed animals used pre-emptive slaughter strategy
- Killing of diseased, infected, exposed animals using a test and remove strategy
- Killing of diseased, infected, exposed animals followed by cleaning and disinfection
55
Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis for Rinderpest?----
- Bovine atypical interstitial pneumonia
- Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
- Malignant catarrhal fever
- Haemorrhagic septicaemia
- Bovine atypical interstitial pneumonia
56
Emergency animal diseases in Australia into categories which is related to the amount of
the government contributes to its control and eradication. Which of the following
statements is correct?
- Disease caused by Australian bat lyssavirus is a category 1 disease
- Disease called by Nipah virus is a category 3 disease
- Heartwater disease is a category 2 disease
- Disease caused by Hendra virus is a category 4 disease
- Disease caused by Australian bat lyssavirus is a category 1 disease
57
Event of EAD in sheep. NLIS used for primarily what?
- Tracing animals
58
If outbreak of ASF occurred in Aus, what is Aus' basic response policy?
Stamping out
Control and eradicate in shortest time to minimise socioeconomic effects, by stamping out
59
Sheep and cattle abattoirs. Brain samples submission for what?
TSE
60
Define food safety.
Food safety refers to handling, preparing & storing food in a way to best reduce the risk of individuals becoming sick from foodborne illnesses.
61
Which programs regulate food safety on the farm
National Livestock Identification System (NLIS):
- All livestock are identified by a visual or electronic earing / device
- All physical locations with livestock are identified by menas of a Property Identification Code (PIC)
- Each time livestock are moved off a PIC (buying / selling / movement) it must be recorded on the NLIS database
Livestock Production Assurance (LPA):
- On farm assurance program - undertaking on-farm practices to support integrity of supply chain
- Animal welfare - complete training in Australian Animal Welfare Standards & Guidelines
- National Vendor Declaration
National Feedlot Accreditation Scheme (NFAS):
- Independent quality assurance scheme for beef feedlots
62
Which programs regulate food safety in the sale / transportation phase.
National Saleyards Quality Assurance (NSQA):
- Started in 1996-97 ensures saleyards meet & maintain recognised national standards in the handling of livestock through all stages of the red meat market
Australian Livestock & Road Transporters Association:
- Promoting positive animal welfare outcomes at various transport stages
63
Which programs regulate food safety in the processing & distribution phase.
- The Department of Agriculture, Fisheries & Forestry & State Food Authorities regualate the meat / food industry to ensure it is safe to eat
- Throughout the processing of meat, through to the packing & distribution of the final product, robust & auditable standards must be met to ensure product safety & quality
64
List the key steps in meat processing & the difference between cattle & pig processing.
Key steps:
- Ante-mortem examination
- Stunning
- Bleeding (sticking)
- Dressing
- Evisceration
- Post-mortem examination
- Chilling
- Further processing (cutting, boning)
Key difference between cattle & pig processing:
- Pig carcasses need to be dehaired & scalded (because the skin isn't removed)
65
What is the role of the ante-mortem inspector?
- Prevent animals that are diseased and/or grossly contaminated with faeces, dirt, dust or other material entering the slaughter floor
- Identify welfare issues: ensuring high levels of animal welfare standards are maintained
66
What is the purpose / aim of stunning for slaughter?
- Ensures animal is unconscious & insensible before being bled out at slaughter
- Animal should not gain consciousness before slaughter
67
Discuss captive bolt stunning.
- Blow causes damage to blood vessels / nerves leading to brain dysfunction / diminished blood circulation
- Penetrative (irreversible) stunners = bolt is inserted into the skull > brain damage. More efficient than non-penetrative stunners where animals can return to consciousness.
- Disadvantage of penetrative stunners = sometimes not compliant with Halal (the first drop of blood should be drawn by incision - sometimes penetrative stunning > blood dripping from skull which means the meat cannot be classed as Halal)
68
Discuss electrical stunning.
- Pass sufficient current through the brain (head only) to interrupt its normal activity, so the animal becomes immediately unconscious & unable to feel pain
- Head only = reversible (animal can regain consciousness)
- Head to back & head to leg = irreversible, cardiac arrest occurs
- Electrical stunners must have sufficient amperage to induce a 'grand-mal' seizure ensuring instant insensibility
- Highest current required for pigs > cattle > calves > sheep / goats > lambs / kids
Electronarcosis phases:
- First (tonic) phase (8-20 secs) - when the current flows through the brain the animal collapses & stops breathing, with the front legs extended rigidly & the hind legs flexed into the body
- Second (clonic) phase (15-60 secs) - animal relaxes & starts involuntary kicking of both the fore & hind limbs
- Third (recovery / exhaustion) phase (30-60 secs) - occurs as the clonic activity subsides. Normal breathing resumes & animal attempts to stand
69
Discuss carbon dioxide gas stunning.
- Aversive gas, min. 80% concentration needed
- Mostly used in pigs as it is difficult forcing pigs to move through a single file race
- Only group stunning method
- Benefits over electrical stunning = stunning with minimal restraint, less handling & therefore possibly less stress before stunning & less human errors
- Effective stunning = 2.5-3 mins of CO2 gas exposure, no corneal reflex post-stunning
Significant welfare concerns:
- Not rendered unconscious immediately
- High (up to 88%) concentrations of CO2 gas can cause significant pain
- Irritation to the upper respiratory tract & distress
- No non-aversive gas commercially available
70
Discuss the process of exsanguination / "sticking"
- Must incise critical blood vessels: carotid arteries, jugular veins
- Animals can recover fully from head-only stunning which does not stop the heart, therefore animals must be bled within an average of 15 seconds of stunning in most cases to ensure rapid death
- Death occurs via lack of blood & O2
- Most effective method = chest stick which severs all the major blood vessels close to the heart & shortest time to loss of brain function
71
Discuss the different types of religious slaughter.
9 abattoirs & poultry processors in Aus approved to conduct slaughter without prior stunning:
- Cattle - stunning is required but occurs immediately after the throat is cut
- Sheep & goats - stunning is not required unless the animal is distressed
Halal (Arabic for "permissible"):
- Can only be done by trained Muslim slaughtermen
- Reversible stunning allowed
- Throat is then cut to incise blood vessels
- Halal slaughter requires that the animal is not injured (i.e. no crack in the skull from stunning) at the time of slaughter
Kosher (Hebrew for "fit"):
- Done by trained Jewish slaughtermen
- No prior stunning
- Throat is then cut
- Kosher slaughter requires that the animal is not injured (i.e. no crack in the skull from stunning) at the time of slaughter
Jhatka:
- Done by Sikh trained slaughtermen
- Practiced in sheep & goats
- Involves instant decapitation with a heavy, sharp cutlass in a single stroke
72
What did the 1900 Meat Supervision Act (VIC) legislate?
- Introduced a requirement for meat to be inspected at the time of slaughter. Closely linked to the beginning of the export of frozen beef & mutton to England.
73
List common findings at meat inspection for beef, lamb & pork.
Beef:
- Beef measles (cysticercus bovis)
- Bovine TB
- Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia (CBPP)
- Brucellosis
- Onchocerca nodules
- Actinomycosis
- Actinobacillosis
- Hydatid cysts
- Liver flukes
- Kidney worms
Lamb:
- Caseous lymphadenitis (Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis)
- Brucellosis
- Actinobacillosis
- Hydatid cysts
- Liver flukes
- Onchocerca nodules
- Actinomycosis
Pork:
- Diamond disease (Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae)
- Pleurisy
- Arthritis
- Hernia (scrotal, inguinal)
74
Define food safety & food security.
Food safety = handling, preparing & storing food in a way to best reduce the risk of individuals becoming sick from foodborne illnesses.
Food security = all people at all times have physical, social & economic access to sufficient, safe & nutritious food that meets their food preferences & dietary needs to an active & healthy life.
75
What is a foodborne disease?
- Diseases caused by contamination of food & occur at any stage of the food production, delivery & consumption chain
- Can be due to unsafe food storage & processing but also many forms of environmental contamination including pollution in water, soil or air
- Can cause mild illnesses to cancers. Most present as GI issues but neurological, gynaecological & immunological symptoms are also observed
76
List potential food contamination sources at the different stages of production from farm > consumption.
- Rearing - diseased animals
- Transport - Transmission / contamination from diseased animals
- Slaughter & processing - dehiding / evisceration. Product handling & storage. Further processing. Packaging & transport.
- Retail / restaurants - Unhygienic food handling / environment, preparation & storage.
77
Which foods are most frequently implicated in foodborne outbreaks?
- Eggs most common - associated with salmonella
- Seafood second most common - associated with Norovirus
78
Discuss Campylobacter infection.
- Commensal organism in food animals. C. jejuni associated primarily with poultry, also cattle, sheep & domestic pets. C. coli associated with pigs & poultry.
- Poultry most significant source of campylobacter infection in humans: colonisation in chickens at 2-3 weeks (environmental?), faecal contamination during processing, undercooked meat & meat products (high risk), a single drop of juice from raw chicken contains enough bacteria for infection!
- Other transmission sources: raw milk, water contaminated with faeces (birds, cow, others), direct contact with infected animals
- Person to person transmission - not washing hands properly after toilet, changing nappies
Clinical signs in humans:
- Symptoms usually develop 2-5 days after becoming infected with the bacteria, lasts up to 10 days
- All age groups can be affected but infection is more common in children <5 years of age & young adults
- Severe symptoms in elderly people & those with other medical conditions
- Common symptoms: diarrhoea (with blood or mucous), stomach cramps, fever, nausea, severe abdominal pain & vomiting
- Post-infection complications: reactive arthritis, neurological disorders such as Guillain-Barre syndrome (a polio-like form of paralysis that can result in respiratory & severe neurological dysfunction in a small number of cases)
Prevention:
- On farm:
o Proper hygiene & biosecurity, monitoring counts
o Avoid environmental transmission of Campylobacter in birds in closed housing
o Good feed withdrawal practices
- At the abattoir:
o Cattle, pigs, sheep: control measures during dehiding & evisceration ensures low Campylobacter contamination of carcasses
o Poultry: washing cages, well controlled scalding (reduce contamination from feathers onto carcass), disinfection, chilling, HACCP (microbial contamination), monitoring counts & mandatory target counts (NZ program)
o Workers: training in hygienic food handling, restrict movement from “dirty” to “clean” areas
- In the kitchen:
o Cook all raw foods, especially meat
o Wash raw vegetables properly
o Store food below 5 degrees or above 60 degrees
o Wash tongs, knives & cutting boards between using them for raw foods & cooked or ready-to-eat foods
o Ensure internal temperature of reheated foods reaches at least 75 degrees
o Keep all kitchen surfaces & equipment clean
79
Discuss Salmonella infection
Aetiology:
- Don’t have typhoid causing Salmonella spp. In Aus (S. typhi)
- In Australia, most Salmonella infections occur after eating contaminated food or sometimes after contact with another person with the infection.
- Prevalent in - Food animals: poultry, pigs & cattle. Pets: cats, dogs, birds & reptiles such as turtles
Risk factors:
- Eggs (most commonly), milk, meat or poultry are particularly high risk foods
- Contamination in fruit & vegetables if manure is used as fertiliser
Transmission:
- Person-to-person transmission through the faecal-oral route
- Contact with infected animals including pets
Clinical signs:
- Symptoms often start 6-72 hours (usually 12-36 hours) after exposure to the bacteria & usually last for 4-7 days (sometimes longer)
- Acute gastroenteritis: abdominal cramps, nausea, diarrhoea, fever, vomiting, headache
- Severe disease (with dehydration) sometimes in young children, elderly & people with immune suppression
- Extra-intestinal localised infection e.g. osteomyelitis, endovascular infection or focal abscess
- Asymptomatic chronic carrier state
Salmonella in poultry:
- A range of paratyphoid Salmonella have been found in Australian chickens. However, not all capable of causing disease in humans
- S. typhimurium: implicated in majority of egg associated foodborne outbreaks in Australia
- S. sofia: most common paratyphoid Salmonella found in chickens
- S. enteritidis: causing major problems in the European & North American poultry industry, rare but recent 2018 outbreaks in NSW & VIC farms
- Pullorum disease (S. pullorum): present in the commercial Australian poultry industry at a low level until the early 1970s but is now absent from the commercial industry
- Fowl typhoid (S. gallinarum): has never been reported in Aus
- Neither S. Pullorum or S. gallinarum can infect humans
Salmonella & eggs:
- Salmonella is the principal pathogen of concern associated with eggs & egg products
- Primary: faecal, environmental
- Secondary: processing, manufacturing of egg products (minimal cooking), handling & preparation
Prevention:
- Control measures similar to Campylobacter plus vaccination on-farm
In kitchen:
- Discard cracked or dirty eggs
- Don’t serve foods containing raw eggs to children <2 years old, pregnant women, people >65 years old & those with serious illness
- Cook eggs until the white is completely firm & yolks begin to thicken
- Store raw foods such as meat in sealed containers in the bottom of the fridge to prevent any fluid dripping onto other ready-to-eat food
- Follow good food handling procedures, hand washing & keeping areas clean
80
Discuss Escherichia coli (E.coli) infection.
- Commensal organism in cattle & almost all other animals & humans
- Most E.coli strains are harmless but others can cause mild to severe disease
- Shiga-toxin producing E.coli (STEC) can cause serious disease - Also called Verocytotoxin-producing E.coli (VTEC) or enterohemorrhagic E.coli (EHEC)
Risk factors:
- Contaminated food or water
- Especially undercooked minced meat in hamburgers
- Unpasteurised dairy products (e.g. raw milk)
- Contact with infected animals or people
Clinical signs:
- Incubation times: 2-10 days, more commonly 3-4 days
- Symptoms: diarrhoea (sometimes bloody), vomiting & sometimes haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)
- Elderly people, young children & people with a compromised immune system at greatest risk of contracting a severe disease
Shiga-toxin producing E.coli - causes haemolytic uraemic syndrome:
- Destroys RBC’s and/or vascularisation in the kidneys
- 5-10% with STEC develop HUS
- Dehydration, reduced urination frequence
- Lethargy, pale skin (due to anaemia)
- Yellow skin & eyes (due to jaundice)
- Puffiness from fluid retention, seizures (fits)
- Life threatening
80
Discuss Listeria Monocytogenes infection.
- Causes listeriosis
- Listeria spp. widespread in the environment
- Sewage, silage, sludge, birds & wild & domestic animals
- Causes abortion in sheep & cattle, commonly isolated from poultry
- Can grow at refrigeration temperatures
Risk factors:
- Unpasteurised dairy products, raw milk
- Soft-serve ice cream
- Soft cheeses: brie, camembert, ricotta, blue & feta
- Raw seafood (e.g. oysters)
- Pre-prepared fruit or vegetables
- Rockmelon, unwashed raw vegetables
- Pate or meat spreads
- Cold meats or chicken
Clinical signs:
- Long incubation period: 3 days – 10 weeks (subclinical infections)
- Doesn’t usually cause illness in healthy people – mild flu-like symptoms
- Pregnant women: miscarriage, premature birth or stillbirth, newborn babies can be affected (meningitis)
- Elderly / vulnerable / immunocompromised: sepsis & meningitis, can be fatal
81
Discuss Staphylococcus aureus infection.
- Ubiquitous: live on skin, nasal & oral mucosa of all animals & man
- Only occasionally causes disease
Risk factors:
- Grows best on cooked foods: no competition from other bacteria
- Facultative anaerobe: can grow under both aerobic & anaerobic conditions
- Produces enterotoxin: common cause of foodborne illness, heat stable
- Enterotoxin production decreases with temperature
- Major food sources: milk from mastitis cows, food contamination from human handlers with staphylococcal infections (boils & pimples), custard bakery products, prepared salads & pastries
Clinical signs:
- Symptoms start to appear around 3hrs (1-6 hours) after ingestion
- Diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps
- Recovery usually 1-3 days
- Systemic / invasive staph infection can be life threatening: pneumonia, septic arthritis, sepsis, osteomyelitis, toxic shock syndrome, endocarditis
Prevention:
- Good hygiene practices, refrigerating cooked foods
82
Discuss Clostridium infection.
- C. botulinum: common in soil & GI tract of normal animals & fish, produces neurotoxin causing paralysis.
- Higher risk in bottled / canned foods
- Food-borne botulism can be severe & may lead to death but rare in Aus. Infants at risk > especially honey
- C. perfringens: common in soil & GI tract of people & animals. Cool cooked food quickly.
- Both produce spores & toxins resistant to cooking / boiling
83
Discuss Toxoplasma gondii infection.
Foodborne transmission:
- Undercooked meat (tissue cysts) in pork, lamb, venison or shellfish, not washing hands thoroughly, contaminated knives, utensils, cutting boards or other foods
- Drinking unpasteurised goat's milk (tachyzoites)
Other transmission modes:
- Oocyst: consuming food or water contaminated with cat faeces or by contaminated environmental samples (such as faecal-contaminated soil or changing the litter box of a pet cat)
- Congenital: from mother to foetus
Clinical signs:
- 30-50% humans infected across the world
- Flu-like symptoms (e.g. tender lymph nodes, muscle aches etc.)
- Tissue cyst remains in the person’s body in an inactive state for years
- Pregnant women: abortion, stillbirth, congenital toxoplasmosis (abnormal enlarged / small head)
- Later in life: potential vision loss, mental disability, seizures, eye disease (retinochoroiditis)
84
Discuss Taeniasis (Taenia spp. / tapeworm) infection.
- Cestodes (tapeworm): Taenia saginata & Taenia solium (exotic to Aus.)
- Humans are the definitive host for both species
- Intermediate host: cattle for T. saginata & pigs for T. solium
Risk factors:
- Eating raw or undercooked meat, such as beef, pork or fish
- Tapeworm eggs in water or contaminated food
Cysticercus bovis in cattle:
- Small bilster-like cysts 5-10mm in diameter that occur most commonly in cardiac, jaw, tongue, diaphragm musculature
- Infected muscle has the appearance of measles (beef measles)
- $$ losses: carcass condemned / downgraded
Human infection clinical signs:
- Symptoms may appear from weeks – years after infection
- Many infections are largely asymptomatic but the larval stage of T. solium may cause fatal cysticercosis (neurocysticercosis).
- Chronic tapeworm infections contribute to malnutrition in developing communities in many parts of the world
- Freezing meat below -5 degrees for more than 4 days will kill cysticerci
85
Discuss Trichinellosis infection.
- Caused by Trichinella spiralis
- Main reservoir host = domestic pig
- T. spiralis never reported in Aus. – EU export pork product tested for Trichinella
- T. pseudospiralis in wildlife (birds, marsupials) & one human case in Tas.
Risk factors:
- Human infection by undercooked meat containing encysted larvae
Clinical signs:
- Symptoms range from very mild to severe & relate to the number of infectious worms consumed in the meat
- First symptoms within 1-2 days: nausea, diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain
86
Discuss Norovirus infection.
Risk factors:
- Contaminated oysters & other shellfish
- Person to person contact
- Contact with infected vomit / stool
Clinical signs:
- Most common cause of virus gastroenteritis from seafood: vomiting, nausea, diarrhoea, stomach cramps, fever, muscle aches
- Incubation period: 24-48 hours (sometimes 12 hours)
Prevention:
- Good hygiene practices especially after an episode of vomiting or diarrhoea
- Avoid food preparation until feeling better
87
Discuss Ciguatera fish poisoning infection.
- Caused by consumption of naturally occurring ciguatoxins
- Toxin produced by dinoflagellate group (Gambierdiscus spp. & potentially Fukuyoa spp.) & passes through food chain
Toxins:
- Fat-soluble, odourless & colourless: determined by analytical methods only
- Heat / freezing stable
Clinical signs:
- Most historical cases in QLD & NT (warm tropical waters)
- Symptoms varies by amount of fish, concentration of toxin, susceptibility
- Neurological: sensation of hot-cold temperature reversal, tingling & numbness in fingers, toes, around lips, tongue, mouth & throat
- GI: nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal cramps
- Others: dizziness, headache, fatigue, fainting, muscle ache, extreme itchiness & difficulty breathing in severe cases
Prevention:
- Avoiding head, roe, liver or other viscera & avoid areas known to harbour ciguatera affected fish
88
Discuss Scombroid (histamine) poisoning.
Risk factors:
- Consuming fish from: Scombridae family (tuna, mackerel & bonito) & non-scombroid fish (anchovies, bluefish, sardines, marline, mahi-mahi)
Clinical signs:
- Varies by amount of fish, histamine levels in fish, tolerance
- Initially similar to allergic reactions: sweating, nausea, headache, tingling / burning in mouth & throat, rash (hives), headache
- Onset varies from minutes to hours post consumption of fish
- Symptoms generally persist for 8-12 hours & resolve with no or limited medication (e.g. anti-histamine) within 24 hours of consumption
- Severe form: blurred vision, respiratory distress, tongue swelling
Prevention:
- Histamine cannot be destroyed by cooking, smoking, freezing or canning
- Rapid chilling of fish immediately after death followed by good temperature control in the supply chain (HACCO), buying from reputable suppliers
89
Discuss Variant Cretzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD)
- Belongs to group of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE) or prion diseases
- Caused by Prion protein: damages brain cells, not infectious
- Resistant to inactivation via normal heat / chemical sterilisation procedures
Human cases:
- Eating meat from cattle that had mad cow disease (Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy)
- Very rare & serious disease, long disease period (up to 14 months)
- 229 cases reported worldwide by never reported in Aus
- Affects younger people: mostly fatal
- Clinical signs: psychiatric symptoms, involuntary movements
- Prevention: avoiding brain & lymphoid tissues, good slaughter practices, restricted blood donations
90
Discuss the veterinarian's role in food safety.
Production:
- Livestock practitioners & company vets (e.g. chicken industry, beef feedlots, corporate pig production)
- Key on-farm role
Processing:
- Compliance
- OPV (on-plant vet) role in export abattoirs
Regulation:
- Commonwealth & State Gov’s (DAFF & Health), FSANZ
- International agencies (Codex Alimentarius)
- Few vets in Health Departments or Food organisation
Research:
- CSIRO, universities, state / commonwealth department of agriculture
91
Define biosecurity.
National biosecurity = protection of the economy, environment & human health from the negative impacts associated with the entry, establishment or spread of exotic pests & diseases
92
Define veterinary biosecurity & list what it concerns.
Veterinary biosecurity = protecting the economy, environment & people from emerging & remerging diseases of animals.
It concerns the following
- Movement of domestic animals, terrestrial wildlife, marine wildlife
- Movement of people
- Movement of ships & their ballast
- Movement of insect vectors – vector control & management
- Disease preparedness – notifiable disease procedures
- Transboundary disease knowledge & recognition
- Disease surveillance
- Disease investigation
- Data collection & analysis
- Disease risk analysis
- Farm or enterprise biosecurity standard operating procedure
- PPE, personal hygiene & disease prevention
93
What is the group WOAH & what is their role / aims.
WOAH = World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH), formally known as Office International des Epizooties (OIE).
- Was created in 1924 by an international treaty signed by 28 countries in response to Rinderpest (cattle plague) in Europe.
Aims:
- To ensure transparency in the global animal disease & zoonosis situation
- To collect, analyse & disseminate scientific veterinary information
- To provide expertise & encourage international solidarity in the control of animal diseases
94
What are the 3 pillars of infectious disease control?
1. Find the infection fast
- Surveillance
- Public awareness
2. Eliminate infection quickly
- Culling & disposal
- Cleansing & disinfection
- Compensation
3. Stop infection spreading
- Biosecurity
- Movement restrictions
- Public awareness
- Vaccination
95
What is the vet's role regarding notifiable diseases?
- Any serious or unusual symptoms, or behaviour, seen in livestock or birds should be reported to
- Emergency animal disease watch hotline 1800 675 888
- Even if unsure, report suspicion of disease immediately
- This means there is a legal requirement for anyone including the owner, manager, vet, vet tech or livestock consultant who suspects or diagnoses a notifiable disease to immediately report it
- Failure to report a suspicious case could result in a fine or prosecution
96
What are some clinical signs suggestive of a notifiable, serious or unusual disease.
- A large number of sick or dead animals
- Rapid spread of disease through a herd or flock
- Animals that are lame, drooling or salivating excessively
- Animals that have ulcers, erosions or blisters around the feet, muzzle, udder or teats and/or in the mouth
- Unusual nervous signs
- Discharge e.g. diarrhoea – especially if it has blood in it or excessive nasal discharge in a group of animals
- Birds with dullness, swollen heads or respiratory distress
- Production drop: Milk yield in livestock, egg production in birds
- Increase in percentage of thin-shelled eggs
- Sudden onset & rapid deterioration or death in horses
- Any unusual or unfamiliar disease symptoms in animals or birds
- Any associated interstate or overseas human / animal movement
97
Emergency Animal Disease (EAD) Categories.
EAD Category 1:
- All – Rabies, Japanese encephalitis, ABLV, Nipah Virus, Equine encephalomyelitis
EAD Category 2:
- HPAI, BSE, Brucellosis, FMD, Hendra
EAD Category 3:
- ND, African horse sickness, CSF, BTB, SVD
EAD Category 4:
- Dourine, Aujesky’s disease, sheep scab, heartwater
98
What is the National Arbovirus Monitoring Program (NAMP) & what does it cover?
- Monitors the distribution of economically important arboviruses (i.e. insect-borne viruses) of livestock & their vectors in Australia
- Includes: Bluetongue, Akabane, Bovine ephemeral fever (BEF)
- NAMP is jointly funded by the cattle, sheep & goat industries, livestock exporters & the state, territory & Australian governments
99
Define disease control & disease eradication.
Disease control:
- Implementation of measures to interfere & reduce the unrestrained occurrence of disease. It is a continuous process unless the disease is eradicated.
- Therapy control treat diseased animals & reduces prevalence
- Prophylactic control (preventative medicine) protect naïve animals & reduces both incidence & prevalence
Disease eradication:
- Eradication is a time limited campaign
- Extinction of infectious agent worldwide (e.g. rinderpest in 2011)
- Extinction of infectious agent in a region (most common)
- Reduce prevalence so transmission stops
- Reduce prevalence so not a health concern anymore
100
What are the 3 main control principles for disease control.
1. Infected host population - reduce the amount of pathogen (source, reservoir, infected hosts)
2. Transmission - reduce transmission between infected & susceptible hosts
3. Naive host population - reduce the number of susceptible hosts
101
List the 9 control strategies of disease control.
1. Do nothing
- Sometimes the incidence of disease decreased with time by doing nothing
2. Quarantine
- Isolation of infected (control) or suspected (prevention) animals from susceptible animals
- Animals may be quarantined at their housing location (e.g. outbreak control) or at specialised facilities (post-entry quarantine)
3. Slaughter
- Removal by killing of deceased, infected, exposed or at-risk animals
4. Emergency vaccination
- Strategic immunisation (or chemotherapy) of susceptible animals to reduce the number of susceptible and/or created barriers between infected & susceptible
5. Movement control of animals
- Restricted movements or relocation of animals to reduce the number of suscpetibles and/or separate susceptible & infected
6. Biosecurity
- Range of measures to manage & prevent the spread of infectious diseases & secure / protect susceptible populations
- Bioexclusion
- Bio-containment
7. Control of vectors
- Restricted free movement or removal of vectors suscpetible to transmit the infection to susceptible hosts
8. Mixed / alternative / sequential grazing
- Strategies to manage & reduce parasite burden on pasture
9. Miscellaneous
- Chemical treatment (prophylaxis & therapy)
- Disinfection of fomites
- Niche filling (natural competitor or predator)
- Improvement of environment, husbandry & feeding
- Genetic improvement
102
List the 7 principles of Hazard Analysis & Critical Control Points (HACCP).
1. List all the potential hazards
- Conduct a hazard analysis
2. Determine the critical control points (CCPs)
- Identify the hazards at each step & put control methods in place to control them
- If a later step will not eliminate the hazard or control it to an acceptable level then the step is classed as a CCP
3. Establish critical limits for each CCP & validate
- Should be measurable & observable
4. Establish a monitoring system for each CCP
- Can be paper based but best if electronic
- Able to be stored long term
- Must be reliable, honest & auditable & able to defend the company in court
5. Establish corrective actions
- Able to effectively respond to deviations when they occur
- Also to bring the process back under control
6. Validation of the HACCP plan & verification procedures
- Control of the significant hazards
- Valid = will it work
- Verification, monitoring = are we doing what we said we'd do & can we provie it? What records do we need?
7. Establish a documentation & record keeping system
- It's your insurance policy
- It proves while the product was under your control it was wholesome
- It's your defence if implicated in a food poisoning case
103
Define health, animal health & public health.
Health:
- Health is a state of complete physical, psychological & social well-being & does not only consist in the absence of diseases or disabilities”
Animal health:
- Preservation of public & consumers’ health
- Preservation of economic interests represented by the activities related to livestock production & use
- But also, animal protection
Public health:
- Public health = preventing disease, prolonging life & promoting health through a variety of efforts
104
When was the World Health Organisation (WHO) created & why?
- World Health Organisation was created in 1918 after the Spanish flu pandemic
o Spanish flu killed more people than WW1
o Spanish flu killed people between 20-40 years old
o Rapid spread due to the war > movement of people
105
What is "One Health"?
- Global Health, One Health & EcoHealth approaches are: integrated, unifying approach that aims to sustainably balance & optimise the health of people, animals & ecosystems
- Global Health, One Health & Eco Health approaches are: holistic approach to preventing epidemic / epizootic disease & for maintaining ecosystem integrity for the benefit of humans, their domesticated animals, & the foundational biodiversity that supports us all
106
Which disease is NZ eradicating?
Echinococcosis granulosis
107
What is not a factor in aiding in eradication?
?
108
What percentage do animals contribute to human diseases?
- 10%
- 25%
- 65%
- 40%
?
109
Minimum detection percentage testing of meat products can detect?
1%
110
What do export pathogens test?
Salmonella & E. Coli
111
What causes HUS?
E.Coli shiga-like toxin
112
How is Q fever transmitted to humans?
- By parturient cats
113
Chlamyodphila psittaci is associated with which species?
- Birds
114
Which state would you be concerned about Brucella suis?
- QLD
115
Which Brucella is zoonotic?
- Brucella suis
116
Select the most appropriate definition for stock provenance:
- Use of quality assurance systems for stock
- The origin of animals on farm
- The inspection of animals prior to purchase
- Isolation of animals before introduction on farm
- The origin of animals on farm
117
When is probang sampling of FMD cattle recommended?
- During active infection
- Infection at least one week old
- As a first-line diagnostic test
- For nasopharyngeal testing
- Infection at least one week old (lesions not present)
118
Which of the following is not essential for PPE when investigating a suspected FMD outbreak?
- P2 mask / respirator or higher
- Two pairs of gloves
- Overalls
- Boots
- P2 mask / respirator or higher
(Only needed when there is potential of a zoonotic disease which can be spread via aerosol / respiratory route)
119
What is the most contaminated food group (i.e. highest contamination by microbes)?
- Meat
- Egg
- Dairy
- Fish
- Dairy (25% of recalls)
120
Which food group is implicated in the highest number of food borne illnesses?
- Fish
- Eggs
- Molluscs
- Poultry
- Eggs (20% of outbreaks)
121
What pathogen is responsible for the most food recalls in Aus?
- Bacillus
- Listeria monocytogenes
- E coli
- Salmonella
- Listeria monocytogenes
122
What pathogen is the most commonly involved in nationally notifiable gastrointestinal disease in Aus (i.e. has the highest notification rate per 100,000 people)?
- E coli
- Campylobacter
- Salmonella
- Listeria
- Campylobacter (146 out of 100,000 population)
123
Which pathogen is implicated in the greates number of foodborne outbreaks & hospitalisations in Aus?
- Listeria
- Salmonella
- Campylobacter
- Clostridium perfringens
- Salmonella (41% of outbreaks, 86% of hospitalisation)
124
What is the most significant source of Campylobacter infections?
- Eggs
- Poultry
- Beef
- Dairy
- Poultry
125
Which of the following food-borne diseases are linked with development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
- Salmonellosis
- Campylobacteriosis
- Listeriosis
- E coli Shiga toxin associated infections
- Campylobacteriosis
126
What are the major hazard points associated with poultry processing & risk of salmonella contamination?
- Scalding & washing
- Chilling & washing
- Evisceration & de-feathering
- De-feathering & processing
- Evisceration & de-feathering
(major CCPs are washing, scald (high temp) & air chilling)
127
What is the principal pathogen of concern associated with eggs?
- Salmonella typhimurium
- Campylobacter spp
- E coli
- Listeria monocytogenes
- Salmonella typhimurium
128
What proportion of E coli infections cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome?
- 0-5%
- 5-10%
- 10-15%
- 15-20%
- 5-10%
129
Which of the following regarding Listeria monocytogenes is true?
- Can grow at refrigeration temperatures
- Can only grow at temperatures above 4 degrees
- Can be destroyed by freezing
- Does not grow at temperatures above 25 degrees
- Can grow at refrigeration temperatures
130
Which of the following regarding Staphylococcus aureus is true?
- Grows best under aerobic conditions on uncooked foods
- Grows best under anaerobic conditions on uncooked foods
- Grows best under both aerobic & anaerobic conditions on cooked foods
- Grows best under anaerobic conditions on cooked foods
- Grows best under both aerobic & anaerobic conditions on cooked foods
131
What is a possible complication of toxoplasmosis in humans?
- Retinal scarring
- Liver failure
- Acute kidney injury
- Guillain-Barre syndrome
- Retinal scarring
132
What is the best definition of maximum residue limit?
- Maximum concentration of a residue from an agvet chemical that is accepted in food, agricultural commodity or animal feed
- Maximum concentration of a residue of a drug accepted in food producing animals
- Maximum concentration of a residue of a chemical accepted in milk or eggs
- Maximum concentration of a residue of a drug accepted in crops for grazing food producing animals
- Maximum concentration of a residue from an agvet chemical that is accepted in food, agricultural commodity or animal feed
133
What is an ESI (export slaughter interval)?
- Time between administration or feeding of a chemical & slaughter
- Time between administration of medicine & slaughter
- Time between administration of an agvet chemical & grazing
- Time between administration of a pesticide & slaughter
- Time between administration or feeding of a chemical & slaughter
134
Which subtypes of avian influenza are implicated in mutation from LPAI to HPAI?
- H5 & H7
- H2 & H5
- H1 & H5
- H3 & H7
- H5 & H7
135
What percentage of emergent infectious diseases originated from animals?
- 50%
- 55%
- 60%
- 65%
- 65% (75% emerge from wild fauna)
136
What percentage of world mortality does environmental degradation cause?
- 20%
- 30%
- 40%
- 50%
- 40%
137
What is the most likely source of infection of Q fever to humans?
- Dog with respiratory symptoms
- Feline placental tissue
- Ingestion of unpasteurised milk
- Contact with steer on a feedlot
- Feline placental tissue
138
What is the correct definition of amphixenosis?
- Disease transmitted from humans to animals
- Require inanimate site or object to complete lifecycle
- Both humans & animals are hosts
- Vertebrates & invertebrates must be involved
- Both humans & animals are hosts
139
Select the most correct option regarding Leptospirosis.
- Can cause fatal disease in calves, causes production losses & low weight in sheep
- Can cause fatal disease in sheep, causes production losses & low weight in calves
- Causes fatal disease in both calves & sheep
- Causes respiratory disease in both calves & sheep
- Can cause fatal disease in calves, causes production losses & low weight in sheep
140
Which Aus state would you be concerned about Brucella suis?
- Is not present in any Aus state
- QLD
- WA
- NT
- QLD
141
Which of the following does not affect humans?
- Brucella ovis
- Brucella suis
- Brucella melitensis
- Brucella abortus
- Brucella ovis
142
Which of the following is zoonotic in Aus?
- Brucella ovis
- Brucella suis
- Brucella melitensis
- Brucella abortus
- Brucella suis
143
What is NOT a type of anthrax contracted by humans?
- Cutaneous (death in 20%)
- Inhalation (death in 55%)
- Gastrointestinal (death in 50%)
- Musculoskeletal (death in 25%)
- Musculoskeletal (death in 25%)
144
What government department is responsible for meeting & negotiating with trade partners regarding animal products?
- DAFF
- PIRSA
- DEW
- FSANZ
- DAFF
145
Which of the following groups of animals requires certification only (i.e. no inspection) by the RVO for export?
- Equine
- Livestock
- Companion animals
- Avian animals
- Companion animals
146
What is the most appropriate definition for a tier 1 abattoir with regards to the products produced?
- For Aus market only & do not require an OPV
- For Aus market only & do require an OPV
- Works under Aus standarsd only & do not require an OPV
- Works under Aus standards only & do require an OPV
- Works under Aus standarsd only & do not require an OPV
147
Which department is responsible for undertakign BIRA's?
- DAFF
- PIRSA
- DEW
- FSANZ
- DAFF
148
Which list ranks risk mitigation methods from most effective to least effective:
- Physical removal of hazard, PPE, isolation of the hazard, substitution of the hazard
- PPE, physical removal of the hazard, isolation of the hazard, substitution of the hazard
- PPE, isolation of the hazard, physical removal of the hazard, substitution of the hazard
- Physical removal of hazard, substitution of the hazard, isolation of the hazard, PPE
- Physical removal of hazard, substitution of the hazard, isolation of the hazard, PPE
149
Define bio-exclusion (1 mark).
- Bio-exclusion = in a disease-free farm employing biosecurity measures to stop introduction of infectious diseases of concern
150
Define bio-containment (1 mark).
- Bio-containment = infected farms employing biosecurity measures to stop the infectious disease of concern spreading outside the farm or to other areas of the farm
151
What is a suitable disinfectant to use for decontamination of PPE & equipment on a farm visit where FMD is a differential diagnosis? (1 mark)
Virkon
152
What does the diagnostic lab of ACDP offer? (2 marks)
- Virology, bacteriology, electron microscopy, serology, pathology, bacteriology, molecular diagnostics
153
What are the objectives of the NAMP (National Arbovirus Monitoring Program? Describe the project briefly (3 marks).
- Trade support, early warning of Bluetongue, risk management
- Sentinel herds & vector collection:
o Sentinel animals sampled monthly for serology & some for virus isolation (blue tongue virus)
o Vectors collected in all states – tracks species populations
154
Which human activities increase zoonotic disease transmission (2 marks)?
- Wildlife trade
- Urbanisation
- Agricultural or land use change
- Mass travel
155
What 2 factors make up risk quantification? (2 marks)
- Likelihood A.K.A probability
- Consequences A.K.A impact
156
What is a critical control point?
a) A hazard with an easy solution
b) An area of the premise where food safety is most important
c) The point in a process where hazards don’t exist
d) The point in a process where a hazard must be prevented, eliminated or controlled
d) The point in a process where a hazard must be prevented, eliminated or controlled
157
True or false? HACCP exclusively evaluates and addresses potential biological and physical
hazards.
False answer: it also addresses chemical hazards, e.g. veterinary drugs
These hazards may be introduced from;
o raw materials
o the process
o equipment
o the environment
o employees
158
True or false? HACCP is a science-based system used to ensure that food safety hazards are
controlled to prevent unsafe food from reaching the consumer.
True answer It is particularly important to:
* minimise the likelihood of food poisoning bacteria contaminating meat and associated
products
* avoid physical and chemical contamination of meat
* reduce the potential for growth of food poisoning bacteria on meat and associated
products
159
True or false - The SPS agreement requires governments to apply SPS measures only to the extent required to
protect human, animal and plant health
True- answer: The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures sets out the basic rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards. It allows countries to set their own standards, but regulations must be based on science. They should be applied only to the extent necessary to protect human, animal or plant life or health. And they should not arbitrarily or unjustifiably
discriminate between countries where identical or similar conditions prevail.
160
True or false - Compared to traditional food safety programs, HACCP places less ownership of the responsibility on the food processor to identify and control hazards and to document the effectiveness of the system?
FALSE Answer: it is more ownership. This includes constant verification that the system is
working by the food processor
161
True or false - For food safety, the terms international standards, guidelines and recommendations refer to those
established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission relating to:
● food additives;
● veterinary drug and pesticide residues;
● contaminants;
● methods of analysis and sampling; and
● codes and guidelines of hygienic practices
True
162
True or false - The Codex Alimentarius Commission provide a forum for consultations about food safety and
animal and plant health measure which affect trade, and to ensure the implementation of the SPS
Agreement
False answer: Under the SPS agreement there are 3 organisations responsible for the 3 different subjects:
- Food -Codex Alimentarius Commission
- Animal disease – OIE terrestrial/aquatic codes
- Plant health - FAO
163
True or false - The SPS agreement is a way to help industrialised countries to regulate import from developing
countries
False answer – it can often make it easier for developing countries to have products accepted.
Developing countries benefit from the SPS Agreement as it provides an international framework for
sanitary and phytosanitary arrangements among countries.
164
True or false - A risk analysis should be performed if members wish to adopt measures that provide a higher level
of sanitary and phytosanitary protection than international standards.
False answer - it should only be a risk assessment (the scientific part of risk analysis)
Risk analysis is a systematic approach to examining and assessing public health and safety risks
associated with food. It is used to formulate, implement and communicate risk management
decisions. Risk analysis = risk assessment, risk management and risk communication
Risk assessments estimate the likelihood and severity of an adverse health effect occurring from
exposure to a hazard. In this context, risk is a function of both the hazard and the level of exposure
to that hazard. A food risk assessment therefore consists of an assessment of the hazard and an
assessment of exposure which together enable characterisation of the risk.
165
True or false - An importing country should recognise that sanitary measures different from the ones proposed
may be capable of providing the same level of protection
True Answer as it helps developing countries
166
True or false - The SPS Agreement requires WTO Members to take regional conditions into account when
imposing biosecurity measures such as recognition of pest or disease-free geographic areas
True Answer: Due to differences in climate, existing pests or diseases, or food safety conditions, it
is not always appropriate to impose the same sanitary and phytosanitary requirements on food,
animal or plant products coming from different countries. Therefore, sanitary and phytosanitary
measures sometimes vary, depending on the country of origin of the product.
Governments should also recognize disease-free areas which may not correspond to political
boundaries, and appropriately adapt their requirements to products from these areas.
Examples: African swine fever in EU – Western parts are free of this.
White spot in prawns in Australia, only found in Queensland
167
True or false - When an importing country wants to change their SPS measures they always have to have a 60
day period for other members to comment on this
False answer: Two ways it can vary from the 60 days
1) Extension of the period:
Notifying countries should grant requests for extension of the comment period wherever
practicable, in particular with regard to notifications relating to products of particular interest to
developing countries.
e.g. delays in receiving and translating the relevant documents needed for further
clarification of the measure notified.
A 30-day extension should normally be provided
2) Shortening of the period (“emergency measures”): e.g. FMD
The routine consultation process can be reduced or eliminated in genuine emergencies, ("where
urgent problems of health protection arise or threaten to arise“)
Emergency measures may be notified either before or immediately after they come into effect, with
an explanation of the reasons for resorting to emergency action
168
What was the main cause of the die off & decline of Gyps vultures in the Indian subcontinent in 1999?
- Disease due to avian malaria
- Toxicity due to diclofenac
- Disease due to herpes virus
- Toxicity due to organophosphates
- Toxicity due to meloxicam
- Toxicity due to diclofenac
169
Which statement is correct?
- The initial popular theory regarding the Cholera outbreak was that such diseases were caused by miasma or 'bad' or smelly air
- All new cholera cases stopped almost instantly after the access to the contaminated water was disabled
- All of the answers are correct
- There had been a cholera pandemic in London in 1832 which spread throughout the country & went on to kill an estimated 55,000 people in the UK. Another outbreak in 1848-49 killed 52,000 people in England & Wales & the outbreak of 1854 killed over 100,000 people in London
- None of the answer is correct
- Dr John Snow' theory was different than the one of the medical community, he though & proved that cholera was caused by contamination of drinking water
- All of the answers are correct
170
Which statement is correct regarding the One Health Concept?
- The One Health concept relies on a collaborative & interdisciplinary approach to help solving emerging global problems
- All of the answers are correct
- Human health, animal health, environmental health & social heatlh are all interlinked
- None of the answers are correct
- Interdisciplinary collaboration is required to prevent & control zoonoses & that such collaboration should include not only physicians & veterinarians, but also wildlife specialists, environmentalists, anthropologists, economists & sociologists among others
- The One Health approach is a holistic approach to preventing epidemic / epizootic disease AND for maintaining ecosystem integrity for the benefit of humans, their domesticated animals & the foundational biodiversity that supports us all.
- All of the answers are correct
171
Which statement is incorrect?
- All of the answers are correct - none are incorrect
- Zoonotic disease were the cause of more than 65% of emergent infectious disease events in the last 60 years
- A zoonosis is any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from vertebrate animals to humans
- Zoonoses may be bacterial, viral or parasitic or may involve unconventional agents
- All of the answers are incorrect
- Infectious diseases are illnesses caused by the spread of microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites) or prions to humans from other humans, animals or the environment including food & water
- All of the answers are correct - none are incorrect
172
Which statement is incorrect regarding the Nipah Outbreak in Malaysia?
- The fruit bats of Pteropid sp were identified as the natural reservoir hosts of the virus & its transmission to pig
- Nipah had a 100% mortality rate in human & pigs
- Nipah spilled over from its natural reservoir which are bats to pigs. Pigs act as an intermediate host to humans.
- None of the answers are incorrect
- This emerging virus was closely related to Hendra Virus
- Nipah had a 100% mortality rate in human & pigs
173
Which statement is incorrect regarding Nipah transmission?
- Nipah had minimal economic impact on the swine industry in Malaysia
- Nipah virus had multiple pathways of emergence
- The first Nipah outbreak occurred in the northern part of Peninsular Malaysia in 1998
- It is the interplay of multiple ecological & anthropogenic factors that lead to Nipah virus emergence
- All of the answers are incorrect
- None of the answers are incorrect
- Bats' habitat loss may have triggered Nipah outbreak
- The transmission of NIV most likely happened in piggeries in Malaysia because of direct pig contact with infected excretions in high intensity pig farms with insufficient biosecurity
- Nipah had minimal economic impact on the swine industry in Malaysia
174
Which of the following viruses is a lyssa virus like ABLV?
- Ebola
- Rabies
- Zika
- SARS
- MERS-CoV
- Rabies
175
What is the incubation period for ABLV in humans?
- Months to years
- Weeks
- Days to weeks
- Weeks to months
- Days to years
- Days to years
176
Human cases have all the following common exposure to ABLV:
- Scratches from bats
- Bites from bats
- Scratches and/or bites from bats
- Exposure to urine from bats
- Exposure to blood from bats
- Scratches and/or bites from bats
177
What is the estimated prevalence of ABLV in healthy bats in Australia?
- 1%
- 10%
- 15%
- 30%
- 40%
- 1%
178
The risk of species of animals other than bats transferring ABLV infection to humans or other animals is:
- Proved from dogs only
- Proved from horses only
- Unknown
- Suspected from horse only
- Proved to be not possible
- Unknown
179
Effective / curative treatment of ABLV after occurrence of clinical signs include:
- It does not exist
- Vaccination & post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
- Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
- Vaccination
- Symptomatic treatment
- It does not exist
180
What is the most important protection against ABLV for humans handling live bats?
- Handler is trained in handling bats
- If bat does not show clinical signs it can be handled
- Handler is rabies vaccinated
- Only handle young bats
- Handler is rabies vaccinated
181
ABLV clinical signs in bats can be best described as:
a. Including CNS signs and non-specific clinical signs
b. Mainly respiratory signs
c. Only gastrointestinal signs
d. Sudden death
e. Mainly aggression
a. Including CNS signs and non-specific clinical signs
182
Where are gastrointestinal diseases ranked among notifiable disease categories?
a. First
b. Top 3
c. Bottom half
d. More common than sexually transmitted diseases
e. Last
b. Top 3
183
Cryptosporidiosis is caused by:
a. Bacteria
b. Virus
c. Toxin
d. Parasite
e. Prion
d. Parasite
184
Which of the following diseases is not notifiable in all states and territories?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Typhoid
c. Botulism
d. Listeriosis
e. Campylobacteriosis
e. Campylobacteriosis
185
Which is the most commonly notified human GI disease in Australia?
a. Salmonellosis
b. Cryptosporidiosis
c. Botulism
d. Shigellosis
e. Campylobacteriosis
e. Campylobacteriosis
186
HUS (haemolytic uraemic syndrome) is a potential sequelae to:
a. Hepatitis E
b. Listeriosis
c. Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)
d. Salmonella typhoid
e. Botulism
c. Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)
187
What is the trend in notifications for Salmonellosis in the period 2009 - 2014?
a. Decreasing
b. Stable
c. Varying
d. Almost doubling every year
e. Increasing
e. Increasing
188
Reservoir for Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi is?
a. Cattle/ruminants
b. Poultry
c. Pigs
d. Humans
e. Aquatic birds
d. Humans
189
In which age group(s) were the notifications of listeriosis highest?
a. 80 years and above
b. 9 years and below
c. 20-29 years
d. 60-60 years
e. 10-19 years
a. 80 years and above
190
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Dz eradication as an objective is solely based on economic evaluations
b. Eradication of a dz may not be practically or economically feasible
c. Dz control should always lead to eradication
d. Dz intervention should never include economic evaluations
e. Eradication in only relevant at country level and not zone level
b. Eradication of a dz may not be practically or economically feasible
191
In addition to animal and public health, which topics should also be given consideration in dz
control programs?
a. Food safety
b. Food security
c. Biodiversity
d. Socioeconomic aspects
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
192
Which of the following is not a component of a surveillance system?
a. Action
b. Disease reporting
c. Case studies
d. Data and sample collection
e. Epidemiological and laboratory investigations
c. Case studies
193
Which statement is true in relation to using vaccination as part of a control program?
a. Vaccinated animals should be adequately and permanently marked to allow
traceability when relevant for the control program
b. Vaccinated animals should always be permanently marked to allow traceability in a control
program
c. It is rarely necessary for vaccinated animals to be permanently marked to allow for
traceability in a control program
d. Vaccinated animals should always be permanently marked to allow traceability in an
eradication program
e. It is necessary for vaccinated animals to be permanently marked to allow for traceability in a
control program of a zoonotic dz
a. Vaccinated animals should be adequately and permanently marked to allow
traceability when relevant for the control program
194
A systematic procedure to identify the source of cases of infection with a view to control and
prevent possible future occurrence is what?
a. Case study
b. Survey
c. Outbreak investigation
d. Eradication program
e. Control program
c. Outbreak investigation
195
Which of the following issues could lead to lack of compliance with dz control measures among
farmers according to the pre-reading?
a. Lack of compensation
b. Rigid control measures
c. Zoonotic dz
d. Non-zoonotic dz
e. Only providing dz control information online
a. Lack of compensation
196
Who should be involved in planning a dz control program?
a. Agriculture department
b. Agriculture and health department
c. Veterinary authorities
d. Veterinary authorities and stakeholders
e. Veterinary authorities and politicians
d. Veterinary authorities and stakeholders
197
Which Brucella’s are endemic in Australia?
Brucella suis- biovar 1 in feral pigs (sus scrofa)
198
Brucella a notifiable disease?
Yes, reportable to the DPI
199
A risk factor for Brucella?
Handling and consumption of raw undercooked meat from a feral pig
200
Who is at risk of Brucella?
Lab staff, veterinarians, pregnant women, dogs hunting
201
Which statement is true in regards to ovine jones (OJD) and ovine footrot?
a. OJD and footrot are notifiable diseases in SA
b. OJD and footrot must be reported to PIRSA
c. Sheep with not automatically be inspected for OJD at abattoirs
d. Buyer needs to check the NVD and national sheep health declarations (NSHAD) prior to buying
e. All options are correct
e. All options are correct
202
Which statement is false (NOT TRUE) regarding OJD
a. Properties with OJD will be under movement restrictions and cannot trade animals
b. On-farm investigations will be mandatory on infected farms
c. Neighbors will not be notified of farms diagnosed with OJD
d. Owners will not have to declare OJD status when selling sheep
e. Sheep from OJD properties cannot be sold for breeding under any circumstances
a. Properties with OJD will be under movement restrictions and cannot trade animals
203
How do farmers best protect themselves from getting OJD onto their property
a. Buy from properties where NSHD state that property is not infected with OJD
b. Buy Vaccinated sheep
c. Buy from farms where they know the owner
d. Buy only from sheep MAP accredited properties
e. Buy interstate
d. Buy only from sheep MAP accredited properties
204
Which statement is true in relation to footrot? Sheep from properties
a. Virulent to intermediate strains cannot be sold to other producers
b. Intermediate to benign virulence strains can be sold via sales yards
c. All virulence strains can be sold via sale yards
d. Very virulent strains cannot be sold to feedlots
e. Intermediate to benign strains are required to be declared on NSHD
b. Intermediate to benign virulence strains can be sold via sales yards
205
Sheep from properties with footrot
a. Cannot under any circumstances be moved on public roads
b. Can be moved without restrictions if under the suspicion for footrot until diagnosis is made
c. A period of 14 days is required to decontaminate land after sheep with footrot has been on it
d. Can be moved on public road if neighbors are notified
e. All the other statement are true
d. Can be moved on public road if neighbors are notified
206
Which statement is true in regard to notification of OJD and footrot
a. When footrot but not OJD is diagnosed PIRSA will notify neighbours and buyers of sheep
from the property
b. When footrot and OJD is diagnosed PIRSA will notify neighbours and buyers of sheep from the
property
c. When OJD but not foot root is diagnosed PIRSA will notify neighbours and buyers of sheep pro
d. Producers with OJD will not need to inform buyers
e. On suspicion of footrot, farmers are required to inform PIRSA, but vets will not
a. When footrot but not OJD is diagnosed PIRSA will notify neighbours and buyers of sheep
from the property
207
