PopMed MUST MEMORIZE FACTS Flashcards

1
Q

a. Provide a formula that can quantitate the burden of disease in a population.

A
  • DALY = YLL + YLD where,*
  • YLL = number of deaths x standard life expectancy at age of premature death*
  • YLD = number of incidence cases x number of years lived with disability x disability weight*
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1
Q

b. List three health conditions which are most responsible for the YLL in developed countries

A
  • Cardiovascular disease*
  • Cancer*
  • Injury*
  • Chronic respiratory conditions*
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2
Q

c. List three conditions or situations which contribute most significantly to the DALYs in developing countries (ie: associated with a high attributable fraction)

A
  • Malnutrition*
  • Unsafe sex*
  • Poor water sanitation*
  • Poor hygiene*
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3
Q

d. Provide a definition for prevalence

A

The number of cases within a population at a particular time

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4
Q

e. Provide a definition for incidence

A

The number of new cases per set time period (often per year)

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5
Q

a. List four broad categories of causes of health inequality.

A
  • Risk factors*
  • Environmental*
  • Biological*
  • Behavioural*
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6
Q

b. Identify a primary prevention strategy which may be employed to reduce health inequity

A

Reduce social inequality

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7
Q

c. Identify a secondary prevention strategy which may be employed to reduce health inequity.

A

Target disease prevention to the disadvantaged population

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8
Q

d. Identify a tertiary prevention strategy which may be employed to reduce health inequity

A

Target health care services for disadvantaged sick people

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9
Q

a. Which level of government provides the greatest level of funding for healthcare

A
  • Federal (46%)*
  • Private (32%)*
  • States (22%)*
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10
Q

a. List at least three strategies you could employ to reduce communicable diseases in general. (ie: These could be applied to TB, HepB, HIV, etc)

A
  • Immunisation*
  • Education of the population regarding hygiene, etc*
  • Needle and syringe exchange programs*
  • Surveillance and contact tracing*
  • Infection control*
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11
Q

b. List at least two sources of data you could use to assess the prevalence of a particular disease, such as TB or HepA, in a population.

A
  • Notifiable disease database*
  • Lab specimens*
  • Deaths records*
  • Patient data collections*
  • Sentinels*
  • Surveys*
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12
Q

c. An outbreak of HepA has been suggested to be associated with a batch of infected oysters. List atleast 3 things you would look for to clearly establish a causation, rather than just an association.

A

Strength of association (size of odds ratio)
Dose response
Timing (exposure
Consistency of results with other studies
Plausible

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13
Q

a. What is an appropriate tertiary management strategy for tuberculosis

A

DOTS Directly Observed Therapy Shortcourse (sputum microscopy, guaranteed supply of drugs, directly observed therapy to ensure compliance)

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14
Q

b. List at least three effects TB may have on society.

A
  • Loss of a worker*
  • Threat of serious infection*
  • Need to screen migrants, HCW, others*
  • Costs (treatment, screening, FU)*
  • Discrimination*
  • Impact on institutions*
  • Local economical effect*
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15
Q

c. How does society respond to TB in terms of attempting to minimize its impact on society List at least two responses.

A
  • TB is a notifiable disease*
  • TB screening performed on migrants*
  • Investigations and treatment is free*
  • Treat infectious people*
  • Provide preventative therapy if exposed*
  • Chest clinics located across NSW*
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16
Q

d. List at least three factors which may limit a migrants access to quality health care

A
  • Language barrier*
  • Cost and low SES*
  • Discrimination*
  • Unfamiliarity with system*
  • Fear (of deportation)/mistrust*
  • Lack of transport*
  • Cultural differences not suitable for receiving health care (eg: female patient vs male doctor)*
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17
Q

a. Identify three risk factors which may contribute to the higher incidence of low birth weight babies in the ATSI population

A
  • Drug and alcohol use during pregnancy*
  • Poor maternal nutrition*
  • Poor antenatal care/support* ½ Effect duration of pregnancy
  • SES disadvantage*
  • Illness during pregnancy*
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18
Q

b. What is the most common reason for hospitalization in the ATSI population

A

Dialysis

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19
Q

a. What are the three most common anatomical sites fractured in the elderly population

A
  • Wrist*
  • Vertebrae*
  • Hip*
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20
Q

b. List at least three strategies which may be employed as a primary preventative method for hip fractures.

A
  • VitD monitoring and supplements*
  • Ca monitoring and supplements*
  • Regular weight bearing exercise*
  • Provision of hip protectors*
  • Reduction in obesity*
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21
Q

c. List at least three strategies which may be employed to prevent falling by the National Fall Prevention for Older People Initiative (established 1999/2000 by the Federal Gov.)

A
  • Provision of walking aids*
  • Risk factor screening by multidisciplinary team*
  • Muscle strengthening and balance retraining*
  • Home hazard assessment and modification*
  • Withdrawal of psychotropic medication*
  • Cardiac pacing for fallers with carotid sinus hypersensitivity*
  • Thai Chi group intervention*
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22
Q

a. Identify one strategy which has been shown through a RCT to reduce the number of fractures resulting from children falling from play equipment.

A
  • Increased depth of bark*
  • NB: Engineer visits and support to implement playground safety guidelines reduces observable playground hazards*
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23
Q

a. What are three factors which may contribute to the abnormal stress or abnormal cartilage leading to the development of osteoarthritis

A
  • Stress: Trauma, Dysplasia, Obesity, Malalignment, Muscle weakness, loss of proprioception*
  • Cartilage: Ageing, inflammation, metabolic changes, endocrine factors*
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24
Q

b. List at least four strategies which may be considered treatment options for osteoarthritis.

A
  • Weight reduction*
  • Exercise (lower limb strengthening + range of motion exercises)*
  • Gait modifications*
  • Braces, innersoles, footwear*
  • NSAIDs at lowest effective dose, but long term use should be avoided*
  • Intra-articular hyaluronan*
  • Glucosamine + chondroitin dietary supplements*
  • Avocado/soybean*
  • TENS (Trans cutaneous electro nerve stimulation)*
  • Capsaicin cream (Zostrix)*
  • NB: all of the above have varying degrees of evidence, top 3-4 are in the OARSI (2009) guidelines*
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25
Q

a. Identify at least two features of acute alcohol intoxication which may cause it to be associated with the problems listed above.

A
  • Disinhibition*
  • Impaired judgement*
  • Slowed response time*
  • Incoordination*
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26
Q

a. The Asthma 3+ Visit Plan was developed by the National Asthma Council in an effort to improve the management of asthma. Identify the three things this plan includes.

A
  • Patient self management education*
  • Development of a written asthma management plan*
  • Practitioner review*
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27
Q

b. List three indicators which may be used in order to assess the success of strategies employed to better prevent and manage asthma.

A
  • Prevalence rate of asthma*
  • Rate of asthma related GP visits*
  • Average number of sick days due to asthma per year*
  • Death rate for asthma*
  • Proportion of patients with a written Asthma Action Plan*
  • Proportion of schools, etc using asthma education programs*
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28
Q

a. List at least three respiratory conditions which have an attributable fraction of 10% with regards to occupational exposure.

A
  • Asthma: 15 20%*
  • Lung cancer: 10 30%*
  • COPD: 12%*
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29
Q

b. What control strategies have been employed to prevent the impact of Asbestos on the health of individuals List at least three.

A
  • Eliminate exposure*
  • Substitute for a less toxic compound*
  • Isolate exposure from work (eg: spray both, enclosed lab)*
  • Engineer safety (eg: ventilation)*
  • Personal protective equipment*
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30
Q

c. You wish to assess if a 56 year olds presentation with respiratory symptoms is related to occupational exposure. Identify three features in the history you would ask.

A
  • Activities undertaken at work and likelihood of exposure*
  • Use of protective equipment*
  • Timing of symptoms relative to work and holidays*
  • If co-workers experience similar symptoms*
  • Exposure to other non-occupational risk factors (eg: smoking)*
  • Prior exposure to toxins in other occupation*
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31
Q

a. During which age range is the incidence of upper respiratory tract infections at its peak

A
  • 2 4 years old (8 to 10 episodes annually)*
  • vs average adult levels of 4 to 6 per year reached by 8 to 10 yrs old*
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32
Q

b. List the three most common causes of viral acute respiratory tract infections.

A
  • Respiratory syncytial virus*
  • Influenza*
  • Parainfluenza*
  • Adenoviruses*
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33
Q

c. Identify two important bacterial causes of acute respiratory infections.

A
  • Streptococcus pneumonia*
  • Haemophilus influenzae*
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34
Q

a. List at least two disorders/situations in which a platelet transfusion is indicated.

A
  • Bleeding due to thrombocytopaenia (chemotherapy, DIC)*
  • Bleeding due to functionally abnormal platelets (myelodysplastic disorders, congenital platelet dysfunction)*
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35
Q

b. Identify an indication for using fresh frozen plasma.

A

Control bleeding due to coagulation factor deficiency (liver disease, warfarin OD)

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36
Q

c. Identify an indication for using cryoprecipitated plasma.

A

Control bleeding due to hypofibrinaemia (congenital, acquired DIC)

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37
Q

d. What can be some adverse consequences for an individual receiving blood products

A
  • Infection (eg: Staphylococcus)*
  • Transfusion Associated Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)*
  • ABO incompatibility*
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38
Q

a. Identify at least three risk factors predisposing to thrombosis.

A

Stasis/alterations in venous flow (long flight, bed rest, obesity, polycythaemia, severe dehydration)
Hypercoaguable state (pregnancy)
Family hx/genetics (Factor V Leiden deficiency)
OCP platelets or coagulation factors increased
Release of pro-coagulant material into circulation (malignancy metastatic adenocarcinoma, crush injury)
Previous DVT

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39
Q

b. List at least two preventative methods which may be employed for individuals at an abnormally high risk of thrombosis (ie: secondary prevention).

A

Wearing compression stockings
Early post-op mobilization
Anti-platelet agents
Heparin

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40
Q

a. There are many conditions associated with causing or worsening heart failure. List at least three of these conditions.

A
  • Increasing age*
  • Hypertension esp. China and Hong Kong*
  • Diabetes*
  • Obesity*
  • Cardiomyopathy*
  • Valvular disease (eg: Rheumatic HD) esp. Sub-Saharan Africa*
  • Obstructive Sleep Apnoea*
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41
Q

b. Identify two modifiable behaviours which contribute to the development of heart failure.

A
  • Smoking*
  • Physical inactivity*
  • Poor diet*
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42
Q

c. Society has responded to the problem of cardiac failure through the introduction of a number of health promotions. Identify at least two risk factors which have been targeted.

A
  • Measure up obesity*
  • Go for 2 and 5 diet*
  • Target alcohol consumption*
  • National tobacco campaign*
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43
Q

a. Identify at least two patient factors which should be considered when deciding on the choice of valve.

A
  • Age length of valve life required (metal tissue)*
  • Patient preference and lifestyle (reoperation may be required if tissue; consider remote residence)*
  • Able to be anti-coagulated (not required for tissue replacement)*
  • Availability of prosthesis (homograft from cadaver rare)*
  • Valve anatomy*
  • Coexistent disease*
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44
Q

b. What two broad choices of a valve type may be offered to patients

A
  • Mechanical*
  • Bioprostheses (Xenograft, Homograft, Autograft)*
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45
Q

a. List at least three risk factors which may contribute to the higher incidence of Rheumatic heart disease.

A
  • Poor access to public dental and medical care*
  • Psychosocial stressors family or friend death, serious injury*
  • Higher incidence of dental caries*
  • Low education, low income*
  • High BP, High cholesterol*
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46
Q

b. It has been demonstrated that it is not only the delivery of health care which impacts upon the health of a population. List at least three social determinants of health.

A
  • Employment status*
  • Education level attained*
  • Transport available*
  • Food available (fresh vs fast food)*
  • Accommodation available*
  • Social support*
  • Stress*
  • Early life conditions*
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47
Q

a. Identify at least two factors which need to be considered when counseling families regarding their decision to have screening for Down Syndrome.

A
  • The specificity and sensitivity of the test*
  • The risks and negative consequences associated with the tests*
  • The proposed action following the receipt of a positive result ( availability of treatment, ethical dilemmas)*
  • The consequences for other family members (ie: genetics wise)*
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48
Q

a. List two conditions which an individual is at a higher risk of suffering from if they have hypertension.

A
  • Stroke*
  • Myocardial infarct*
  • Peripheral vascular disease*
  • Heart failure*
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49
Q

b. Identify two factors which are thought to cause hypertension.

A
  • Family hx*
  • High salt intake*
  • High cholesterol*
  • Obesity and physical inactivity*
  • Diet low in fruit and vegetable and high saturated fat*
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50
Q

c. What are three primary prevention strategies for hypertension

A
  • Maintaining healthy weight*
  • Reducing dietary salt intake*
  • Undertaking regular exercise*
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51
Q

d. Identify one secondary prevention strategy for hypertension.

A

Screening (and then early treatment)

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52
Q

a. List at least three causes for a non-traumatic spinal cord injury.

A
  • spinal stenosis*
  • disc herniation*
  • rheumatoid arthritis*
  • vascular*
  • inflammatory (infection or non-infectious (MS, transverse myelitis))*
  • Tumour*
53
Q

b. With regards to traumatic spinal cord injuries, the mechanism of injury can predict the resultant injury. What type of movement would you expect to have caused a unilateral dislocation

A

flexion with rotation injury

54
Q

c. List two consequences of a spinal cord injury on an indivudual

A
  • Loss of bowel and bladder function*
  • Loss of movement*
  • Loss of sensation*
  • Fertility and sexuality effected*
  • Psychosocial impact*
  • Inadequate respiratory function*
  • Suffer from autonomic dysreflexia*
55
Q

d. Autonomic dysreflexia may be one complication suffered by a patient with a spinal cord injury. List three potential triggers for this condition.

A
  • Full bladder*
  • Full rectum*
  • Unnoticed wound infected below level of lesion (eg: pressure sore, fracture, in-grown toe-nail, burn)*
  • Bladder infection*
  • Epididymo-orchitis*
  • Intra-abdominal cuase*
56
Q

e. 50 80% of patients with a SCI will develop a pressure ulcer. Identify at least three risk factors for skin breakdown.

A
  • Loss of sensation on pressure region (level of lesion)*
  • Lack of carer support to move patient*
  • Co-morbidities: moisture from bladder or bowel incontinence; infectious*
  • Postural deformities*
  • Poor equipment* ½ unrelieved pressure
  • Psychosocial distress (depression, poorly managed frustration)*
  • Cognitive impairment (eg: coexistent TBI)*
  • Smoking*
  • Alteration to vascular supply*
  • Aging*
  • Scar tissue or altered tissue viability*
57
Q

f. What causes of death are most significantly increased in the SCI population

A
  • Septicaemia (172.3 x)*
  • Pneumonia and influenza (32.5 x)*
  • Diseases of the urinary system (22.8 x)*
58
Q

g. Identify two secondary prevention strategies for SCI.

A
  • Careful retrieval from traumatic situation*
  • Early decompression*
59
Q

h. Identify two tertiary prevention strategies for SCI.

A
  • Rehabilitation programs*
  • Self education and management*
  • Catheterisation*
  • Equipment provision (eg: wheelchairs)*
  • Accommodation and housing accommodation*
  • Support organizations (eg: ParaQuad)*
60
Q

a. The outcome for individuals who suffer from stroke may be described by the rule of thirds. What are these three outcomes for stroke sufferers

A
  • die*
  • recover*
  • persistent disability*
61
Q

b. The pneumonic FAST has been used as an educational tool to allow the general population to readily recognise a stroke. What does FAST stand for

A
  • Facial asymmetry*
  • Arm weakness*
  • Speech disturbance*
  • Time to act fast!*
62
Q

c. Evidence suggests that a multidisciplinary team in a discrete stroke ward provides the best outcome for patients who have suffered a stroke. What kind of management strategies may this team employ

A
  • Early mobilization/physiotherapy*
  • Monitoring nutrition; assisted feeding; screen for swallowing difficulties*
  • Monitoring and maintaining BP, BSL*
  • Assessing for psychological distress*
  • Maintain hydration*
63
Q

d. What pharmacological methods may be used as secondary prevention of a stroke

A
  • Anticoagulants*
  • Statins*
  • Anti-hypertensives*
64
Q

a. Identify at least three risk factors for Multiple sclerosis.

A
  • Female*
  • Scandinavian or Finnish descent*
  • Latitudinal location (closer to the poles)*
  • Low sun exposure during childhood*
  • Family hx/genetics (presence of HLA-DRB1*1501)*
65
Q

a. Identify two risk factors for Alzheimers disease.

A
  • Increasing age*
  • Family hx of dementia or AD*
  • Causative genetics: amyloid protein precursor (APP), presenillin-1 (PS-1), presenillin-2 (PS-2)*
  • Promote early onset genetics: APOE4 allele*
  • Trisomy 21 (Downs Syndrome)*
  • Low level of education*
66
Q

b. What impact does Alzheimers disease have on people, other than the patient themselves

A
  • Carer burden*
  • High emotional stress*
  • Loss of work hours*
  • Significant amount of time dedicated to patient, thus restricting social activities and opportunity for exercise*
  • Physically demanding activities required (eg: bathing, feeding)*
67
Q

c. The Living with Memory Loss program supports recently diagnosed patients and their carers. What objectives does this program have

A
  • Decreased isolation and depression*
  • Highlight need for future planning*
  • Make aware of support groups available*
  • Assist education of carers with coping strategies*
  • Help understand dementia*
68
Q

a. Identify a prevention strategy suitable for a population approach to reducing lung cancer.

A
  • Ban tobacco advertising*
  • ie: everyone in population effected by intervention, regardless of level of risk*
69
Q

b. Identify a prevention strategy suitable for an individual approach to reducing lung cancer.

A
  • Clinicians target anti-smoking messages to known smokers*
  • ie: screen and then target intervention to those at high risk*
70
Q

a. Identify three factors which may increase a communitys perception of a situation to be risky.

A
  • event is sudden/acute, rather than chronic*
  • exposure to risk factor is coerced, rather than voluntary*
  • agent is industrial, rather than natural*
  • agent is exotic, rather than familiar*
  • true hazard unknown*
  • unfair exposure*
  • sources untrustworthy*
  • process unresponsive*
71
Q

b. Despite the commonly held belief that patients with psychiatric illness are prone to violence, ~15% of all homicides committed in Australia are carried out by subjects suffering from mental illness. Saying that however, at any point in time 10 15% of the population is suffering from a mental illness. Identify three symptomatic predictors for a significant risk of violent behaviour.

A
  • Past hx of violence*
  • Persecutory delusions*
  • Agitation and anxiety about their own safety*
  • Command hallucinations*
72
Q

a. What type of service sees the majority of serious mental disorders (including schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and some affective/anxiety/substance abuse disorders)

A

Public mental health services

73
Q

b. What type of service sees the majority of any mental disorder (ie: of any severity)

A

General practitioners

74
Q

c. Identify two mental health disorders which may be considered having a high prevalence with a lower individual risk or behavioural disturbance to society.

A
  • Depression*
  • anxiety*
  • Substance abuse disorder*
  • Personality disorder*
75
Q

d. What is an approximate prevalence of any mental health disorder in Australia

A

1 in 5 people½

76
Q

e. Mental disorders only accounted for 8% of the total health system costs in 2000/1 despite depression and dementia being the top ranked conditions contributing to YLDs. Identify two possible reasons for spending so little on mental health.

A
  • Stigma* ½ discrimination
  • Ignorance of disorders and effective treatments*
  • Diversity of mental health disorders too difficult to implement a system to treat*
  • Providers and infrastructure lacking*
77
Q

a. List three causal risk factors for uterine/endometrial cancer.

A
  • Late menopause*
  • Nulliparity*
  • Prolonged unopposed oestrogen exposure*
  • Obesity*
  • Polycystic ovarian disease*
  • Other cancer*
  • Familial cancer syndromes*
78
Q

b. List two casual risk factors for uterine/endometrial cancer.

A
  • Hypertension*
  • Diabetes mellitus*
79
Q

c. List three factors associated with a decreased risk of uterine cancer

A
  • OCP*
  • Alcohol*
  • Progestogens*
80
Q

a. List three factors which may contribute to a patients non-compliance with their diabetes management.

A
  • lack of understanding of management requirements*
  • lack of appreciation of the seriousness of the condition*
  • funding not available to financially support management*
  • emotionally draining*
  • not prioritizing management to fit in with everyday life*
  • unwilling to accept Dx of diabetes*
81
Q

a. What non-pharmacological strategies could you employ to further reduce her BSL

A
  • Regular exercise*
  • Diet low in GI*
  • Weight loss*
82
Q

b. What should you investigate (through hx, examination or investigations) to assess her risks for diabetic complications

A
  • Cardiac: CV exam, LDL, HDL, TG, waist:hip ratio, BMI, smoking hx, level of exercise, family hx of CVD, BP*
  • Nephropathy: GFR, urine dipstick, creatinine, urine albumin*
  • Neuropathy: neuro exam, foot exam, ulcers, pain on walking*
  • Retinopathy: fundoscopy, blurred vision*
  • Diabetes control: HbA1c, BSL readings, polyuria, thirst, hypo events*
83
Q

a. What factors may cause a couples chance of falling pregnant to fall

A
  • Increasing maternal age* ½ poorer quality of eggs
  • Endometriosis*
  • Abnormal uterine architecture*
  • Blocked uterine tubes*
  • PCOS*
  • Low sperm count*
  • Poor quality sperm (motility, morphology, etc)*
  • STI*
  • Smoking, high BMI*
84
Q

b. Identify some management options for a couple suffering from infertility.

A
  • IVF*
  • ICSI*
  • Use of donated sperm/eggs*
  • Adoption*
85
Q

c. What sort of outcomes would departments and/or committees be interested in collecting to establish evidence for the success and safety of infertility treatments

A
  • Number of live births*
  • Rate of congenital malformations in IVF conceived babies*
  • Number of multiple pregnancies*
  • Health risks associated with IVF for the mother*
86
Q

d. One cause of infertility is if the woman suffers from anovulation. What may be the cause of her anovulation

A
  • PCOS*
  • Primary ovarian failure Turners syndrome*
  • Hyperprolactinaemia*
  • Hypothalamic disturbances (anxiety, stress, anorexia)*
87
Q

e. What may be the cause of a woman having tubal disease

A
  • PID*
  • Development of adhesions following a previous surgery*
  • Hydrosalpinx (blind ended uterine tube)*
  • Congenital abnormalities*
88
Q

a. Identify three strategies which may be employed to prevent weight gain.

A
  • Reduce portion sizes*
  • Reduce intake of high energy dense food*
  • Reduce level of food prepared outside the home*
  • Regular physical activity*
  • Reduce time spent doing sedentary behaviours*
  • Increase incidental activity*
  • Increase participation in active recreation*
  • Increase use of active transport*
89
Q

b. List some strategies which may be considered to prevent obesity at a population level.

A
  • Make outside environment inviting (eg: grassy areas for exercise)*
  • Make health foods (eg: fruit, veggies) cheaper*
  • Design*
  • Reduce advertising for junk foods*
  • Reduce portion sizes across the food industry*
90
Q

a. List two screening tests currently available in Australia.

A
  • PSA + DRE* ½ prostate cancer
  • Pap smears* ½ cervical cancer
  • Mammograms* ½ breast cancer
  • FOB test* ½ colorectal cancer
91
Q

a. What are the two most likely outcomes for a patient with CKD.

A
  • Premature death due to CVD*
  • Progressive kidney disease requiring dialysis or transplantation*
92
Q

b. Identify at least two problems associated with a kidney transplant.

A
  • Major operation* ½ increased stress + risks
  • Lifelong immunosuppression required* ½ decreased immune surveillance
  • Regular clinic visits required*
93
Q

c. Which mode of treatment is cheaper: Hospital haemodialysis or kidney transplant

A
  • Kidney transplant ($80 000 + $10 000/yr) vs Hospital HD ($100 000)*
  • NB: Home HD ~$55 000*
94
Q

a. Identify at least two potentially treatable or preventable causes of CRF.

A
  • Diabetic renal disease*
  • Hypertensive diseases*
  • Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis*
  • Drug-related interstitial nephritis*
  • Drug toxicity (cyclosporine, penicillamine)*
  • Obstructive uropathy*
  • Early onset chronic infection (ATSI population)*
  • Early onset vascular disease (ATSI)*
95
Q

b. Identify strategies available to prevent the development of renal failure.

A
  • Detection and control of diabetes*
  • Detection and control of hypertension*
  • Early detection of clinical RPGN*
  • ACEI and ARGs* ½ reno-protective effects beyond BP control
  • Education + change in lifestyle (ATSI)*
  • Urinary screening for infection or protein (ATSI)*
96
Q

a. Identify at least three determinants of poor child health.

A
  • Malnutrition*
  • Low birth weight*
  • Prematurity*
  • Chronic illness*
  • Unsupported parent* ½ Maternal exhaustion
  • Low income of family*
  • Smoking in family*
  • Discrimination*
  • Social unrest and war*
97
Q

b. Which population groups are the largest contributors to the prevalence of poverty in Australia

A
  • Lone people*
  • Couples with children*
  • ATSI population (40% of ATSI in lowest income bracket)*
98
Q

c. List at least two strategies which may be employed to protect children from poor health.

A
  • Full term pregnancy*
  • No prolonged separation from family*
  • Supported family*
  • Adequate spacing of children*
  • Adequate income*
  • Employment*
  • Good education*
  • Government benefits*
99
Q

d. List two features which are unavailable to a person who is living in relative poverty (rather than absolute poverty).

A
  • Water sanitation*
  • Public transport*
  • Recreation facilities*
  • (rather than food, clothing, shelter)*
100
Q

a. List at least three factors which may contribute to poor compliance in the elderly population

A
  • Poor memory*
  • Multiple medications*
  • Poor instruction provided*
  • Arthritis and child-proof containers*
  • Fear of toxicity; distrust*
  • Unpleasant side effects*
101
Q

b. Identify two strategies which may be used to improve compliance.

A
  • Webster packs*
  • Prescribe least number of medications possible*
  • Involve another person in care*
  • Simple dosing*
  • Clearer medication card*
  • Monitoring self medication*
102
Q

c. Beers criteria lists medications that are deemed inappropriate in the elderly. Identify at least two of these listed medications.

A
  • Benzodiazepines*
  • NSAIDs*
  • TCAs*
  • Digoxin*
  • Antihistamines*
  • Anticholinergics*
  • Serotonin*
103
Q

d. Identify why the elderly may be prone to drug problems

A
  • Polypharmacy* ½ drug interactions
  • Age alters pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics*
  • Being unwell*
  • Impaired homeostasis*
104
Q

a. What is the predominant mode of transmission of HepB in developed countries

A

IVDU and sexual transmission

105
Q

b. What is the predominant mode of transmission of HepB in developing countries

A

Vertical transmission

106
Q

c. What prevention strategies does society employ for Hepatitis B

A
  • Vaccination*
  • Screening blood donations*
  • Universal infection control precautions (eg: for HCWs)*
107
Q

a. List some causes of food-borne diseases in Australia.

A
  • Salmonella*
  • Campylobacter*
  • Shigella*
  • Norovirus*
  • Rotavirus*
  • Enteroviruses*
  • Giardia*
  • Cryptosporidium*
  • Prions*
108
Q

b. Identify two causes of food to be ingested carrying infectious agents.

A
  • Poor storage*
  • Being undercooked*
  • Contaminated equipment*
  • Poor hygiene*
109
Q

a. List three foods which definitely or probably protect against some cancers.

A
  • Non-starchy vegetables* ½ mouth, pharynx, larynx, oesophagus, stomach
  • Fruits* ½ mouth, pharynx, larynx, oesophagus, lung, stomach
  • Dietary fibre* ½ colorectal cancer
110
Q

b. List foods which have been identified to cause some cancers.

A
  • Alcohol* ½ mouth, pharynx, larynx, oesophagus, colon, rectum, breast
  • Salt and salty foods* ½ stomach cancer
  • Red meat and processed meats* ½ colon, rectum
  • Aflatoxin* ½ liver
111
Q

c. Identify what society could do to encourage people to consider their diet as a way to protect their health.

A
  • Education campaigns*
  • Food supply policy*
  • Price adjustment*
112
Q

a. What type of justice principle is employed if the action aims to provide the best situation for the greatest number of people

A

Utalitarianism

113
Q

b. What type of justice principle is employed if the action aims to focus on the benefit for the individual.

A

Libertarianism

114
Q

c. Identify one strategy which would be of a high priority to employ if the rationing of health care was driven by a utalitarinism type principle.

A

Focus on cancer, CVD and respiratory disease as these contribute most significantly to YLL

115
Q

a. How has the incidence and mortality of lung cancer changed in Australia in the last 25 years for men

A

Falling (by 15%)

116
Q

b. How has the incidence and mortality of lung cancer changed in Australia in the last 25 years for women

A

Increasing (by 88%)

117
Q

a. List three occupational agents classed by the International Agency for Research on Cancer as category 1 lung carcinogens (ie: sufficient evidence in humans)

A
  • Arsenic*
  • Chromium and compounds*
  • Crystalline silica*
  • Mustard gas*
  • Nickel and compounds*
  • Soots containing polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons*
  • Tobacco smoke*
  • Vinylidene chloride*
118
Q

b. Identify at least two industries classified as Category 1 carcinogenic exposures.

A
  • Aluminium production*
  • Coal gasification*
  • Coke production*
  • Iron and steel founding*
119
Q

c. What primary preventative measures could be employed against occupationally induced lung cancer.

A
  • Control exposure at source*
  • Use of respiratory protective equipment*
  • Bans on carcinogen use*
  • Use of alternative materials*
  • Giving up smoking*
  • Screening in high risk groups*
120
Q

a. What are the six major components of the national screening program

A
  • Improve communication and education for women and health professionals*
  • Establish infrastructure for systematic approach to screening*
  • Facilitate regular participation of women in screening programmes*
  • Improve quality control in smear taking and lab processing*
  • Institute fail safe approach for follow up and management*
  • Monitor and evaluate the organised approach*
121
Q

a. List at least two risk factors for breast cancer.

A
  • Female sex*
  • Increasing age*
  • Family hx*
  • Parity*
122
Q

b. A 25 year old woman is concerned about her risk for breast cancer due to a strong family history. What management options are available for her

A
  • Breast surveillance MRI, mammogram, ultrasound + clinical examination*
  • Genetic screen from living, affected family member and then testing for presence of gene, if found, in concerned patient*
  • Prophylactic mastectomy (reduce risk by ~95%)*
  • Ovarian surveillance NB: should not rely on CA-125*
  • Prophylactic bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy*
123
Q

c. What gene is associated with FAP (Familial adenoma polyposis)

A

APC

124
Q

d. List some potential benefits for those found to carry a mutation which increases their risk of cancer.

A
  • Uncertainty about whether or not they are at risk is removed*
  • More accurate estimate of risk can be made*
  • Informed of chances of children carrying mutation* ½ assist family planning
  • Advised on surveillance and preventative measures*
125
Q

a. Identify conditions which favour the rapid spread of HIV

A
  • Receptive anal sex*
  • Multiple partners*
  • Unprotected penetrative sexual intercourse*
  • Presence of ulcerative disease*
  • Acute infection* ½ high HIV viral load
  • Sex in homosexual population (due to high prevalence)*
126
Q

b. What factors may help reduce the spread of HIV

A
  • Prevent unprotected sexual behaviour*
  • Reduce HIV viral load* ½ treat HIV
  • Post exposure prophylaxis*
  • Knowledge of HIV status* ½ reduces risky behaviour
  • Perception of risk to self and others (ie: education of travellers)*
  • Access to condoms*
  • Self esteem* ½ power to negotiate safe sex
  • Avoid sex, drugs and alcohol combination*
  • Avoid needle sharing* ½ needle syringe exchange program
127
Q

a. List four AIDS defining events.

A
  • Opportunistic infections: Pneumocystis carinii, reactivation of toxoplasmosis*
  • Specific malignancies: Non Hodgkins lymphoma, Kaposis sarcoma*
  • Severe neurological disease: AIDS dementia*
  • Metabolic derangement: Wasting syndrome with profound weight loss*
128
Q

b. What is one opportunistic infection which only requires a relatively slight immundepletion to occur

A

TB

129
Q

c. What is one opportunistic infection which requires a more significant immundepletion to occur

A

CMV