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Question 1

Atropine: Pedi

Answer 1

0.02mg/kg

Question 2

Atropine: Adult

Answer 2

0.5-1.0mg

Question 3

Bicarb: Pedi

Answer 3

1mEq/kg

Question 4

Bicarb: Adult

Answer 4

1mEq/kg

Question 5

Bretylium: Pedi

Answer 5

5mg/kg

Question 6

Bretylium: Adult

Answer 6

5mg/kg

Question 7

EPI 1:1000: Pedi

Answer 7

0.01 mg/kg………CODE 0.1 mg/kg

Question 8

EPI 1:10,000: Adult

Answer 8

0.3-0.5 mg

Question 9

EPI 1:10,000 Pedi

Answer 9

CODE ONLY 0.01 mg/kg

Question 10

Haldol: Adult ONLY

Answer 10

2-5mg

Question 11

Lidocaine: Pedi

Answer 11

1.0 mg/kg

Question 12

Lidocaine: Adult

Answer 12

1.0-1.5 mg/kg

Question 13

Mag sulfate: Adult ONLY

Answer 13

1-2 grams over 1-2 minutes

Question 14

Morphine: Adult ONLY

Answer 14

2-5mg

Question 15

Narcan: Pedi

Answer 15

0.1mg/kg

Question 16

Narcan: Adult

Answer 16

0.4-2.0mg

Question 17

Oxytocin: Adult ONLY

Answer 17

10-20 units

Question 18

Valium: Adult ONLY

Answer 18

2-10 mg

Question 19

IV Tourniquet (Venous constricting band)

Answer 19

occludes venous return but allows arterial flow

Question 20

Colloids increases intravascular space the most but take longer to get in due to protein size and molecular weight

Answer 20

hespan/dextran

Question 21

IV solution closest to plasma

Answer 21

Lactated Ringers (LR)

Question 22

Hemorrhagic shock best fluids

Answer 22

blood (definitive), field-lactated ringers 3x loss

Question 23

Fluid replacement adult trauma

Answer 23

20 ml/kg or 3x estimated blood loss

Question 24

Tric OD

Answer 24

sodium bicarbonate

Question 25

Asthma

Answer 25

Albuterol 2.5 mg, EPI 0.3-0.5mg 1:1000 solution SQ, Bronkosol…NO BENADRYL (adult doses)

Question 26

Heroin Demerol, and organophosphates

Answer 26

constricted pupils

Question 27

Administration of a HYPERtonic solution in a hydrated PT

Answer 27

draws water from cells to intravascular space

Question 28

Movement of gas from higher concentration to lower concentration

Answer 28

diffusion

Question 29

Decreased O2 in blood

Answer 29

hypoxemia

Question 30

Decreased O2 in lungs

Answer 30

hypoxia

Question 31

Hyperventilation syndrome in PT

Answer 31

resp. ALKALOSIS

Question 32

RESP. acidosis is corrected with

Answer 32

hyperventilation of PT

Question 33

Excretory function of blood is to

Answer 33

remove urea/creatine lactic acid and wastes; particularly lactic acids form cells

Question 34

Hypoxic drive or PT’s with COPD, stimulus to breathe

Answer 34

decreased O2 levels

Question 35

Normal CO2 levels

Answer 35

35-45

Question 36

pH above 7.45

Answer 36

alkalosis

Question 37

pH below 7.35

Answer 37

acidosis

Question 38

RESP. ACIDOSIS

Answer 38

pH less than 7.35 and pCO2 greater than 40

Question 39

METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

Answer 39

pH less than 7.35, pCO2 greater than 40 & HCO3 or PO2 less than 24

Question 40

RESP. ALKALOSIS

Answer 40

pH greater than 7.45 and pCO2 less than 40

Question 41

METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

Answer 41

pH greater than 7.45 and pCO2 less than 40 & HCO2 or PO2 greater than 24

Question 42

EXAMPLE: Blood gas

Answer 42

pH 7.15, pCO2, 60 and PO2 Resp. acidosis

Question 43

Resp. Acidosis

Answer 43

CNS/COPD/Narcotics/Asthma/Cardiac Arrest & Drowning

Question 44

Resp. Alkalosis

Answer 44

Sepsis/Cirrhosis/ASA OD/Anxiety & Pregnancy or Hyperventilation Syndrome

Question 45

Metabolic Alkalosis

Answer 45

Vomiting/Diuresis, sodium bicarb, Crushing dz (disease)

Question 46

Acidosis

Answer 46

not breathing or below normal rate (cardiac arrest)

Question 47

Alkalosis

Answer 47

breathing to fast (Hyperventilation syndrome)

Question 48

Fresh water drowning

Answer 48

hemodilution, electrolyte imbalance and hypoxia with resp. acidosis

Question 49

SCENARIO: Fresh water drowning

Answer 49

NOT RESP. ALKALOSIS

Question 50

Primary concern in treating a near-drowning victim

Answer 50

mgmt. of HYPOXIA and ACIDOSIS

Question 51

Intubation of a child under 8 years of age

Answer 51

uncuffed

Question 52

Intubation

Answer 52

check lung sounds, AFTER check cuffs for leaks, BEFORE ventilate via other means prior to intubation

Question 53

Kussmaul resp.

Answer 53

rapid breathing assoc. with DKA

Question 54

Not an airway sound

Answer 54

Cough: Stridor/wheezing/snoring are airway sounds

Question 55

Size of ET for Pedi

Answer 55

Pinky diameter of PT ET diameter

Question 56

Ventilation via other means

Answer 56

hyperventilate prior to intubation, if unsuccessful after 30 seconds of attempted intubation ventilate again

Question 57

Left the PT in the ER without turning over to equal or higher medical personnel

Answer 57

abandonment

Question 58

Negligence

Answer 58

breech of duty/duty to act/proximate cause, damages or harm; INTENT not needed

Question 59

Legal document that indicates end of life request regarding resuscitation

Answer 59

DNR; WHAT COLOR PAPER DOSE IT HAVE TO BE PRINTED ON YELLOW

Question 60

Malicious writing

Answer 60

libel

Question 61

Malicious spoken terms

Answer 61

slander

Question 62

Dyspnea

Answer 62

difficulty or painful breathing

Question 63

The Hering-breur reflex

Answer 63

prevents overexpansion of the lungs

Question 64

Hypoxia drive or PT’s with COPD, stimulus to breathe

Answer 64

decreased O2 levels COPD

Question 65

Wheezing

Answer 65

whistle sound on inspiration (lower airway)

Question 66

Wheezing

Answer 66

constriction

Question 67

Whistling sound during exhalation

Answer 67

consider asthmatic broncholitis

Question 68

Rhonchi

Answer 68

fluid/mucous in LARGE airway

Question 69

Croup

Answer 69

stridor at night with seal bark

Question 70

Rales usually heard in

Answer 70

lower airway (alveoli) fluid

Question 71

Tension pneumothorax treatment

Answer 71

O2, decompress, transport, IV enroute

Question 72

Pulmonary Emboli s/s

Answer 72

Dyspnea/SOB/pleuritic pain/Tachycardia

Question 73

Anaphylaxis

Answer 73

Classic sign is HYPOTENSION

Question 74

Anaphylaxis

Answer 74

Uticaria/SOB/facial swelling/tachypnea and HYPOTENSION hallmark of anaphylaxis

Question 75

Pneumonia

Answer 75

Fever/rhonchi/hot and dry skin NO PEDAL EDEMA

Question 76

EPI dose for asthma

Answer 76

0.3-0.5 mg SQ 1:1000

Question 77

Chronic bronchitis

Answer 77

blue bloater, fat, increased mucous production, chronic cough

Question 78

Emphysema

Answer 78

SOB, barrel chest/thin and pursed lip breathing pink puffer

Question 79

Cough up pink tinged sputum

Answer 79

s/s Left sided heart failure/Pulmonary edema

Question 80

CHF

Answer 80

Left sided ventricular damage

Question 81

Pink puffers (emphysema) and Blue Bloaters (Chronic bronchitis)

Answer 81

COPD

Question 82

Upper airway sound produced with inspiration difficulty

Answer 82

stridor

Question 83

Lung sounds to bronchoconstriction

Answer 83

wheezing

Question 84

Neurogenic/anaphylactic & septic shock cause HYPOtension due to

Answer 84

vasodilation

Question 85

Smaller airway sound with fine crackling

Answer 85

Rales

Question 86

Rumbling sound/fever/no edema

Answer 86

pneumonia

Question 87

Treatment Pulmonary edema

Answer 87

LMNO

Question 88

LMNO

Answer 88

O2, Lasix (40 mg) slow IVP, Morphine sulfate (2 mg) slow IVP and Nitro (0.4 mg) sublingual

Question 89

Primary concern near drowning

Answer 89

hypoxia and acidosis

Question 90

Fresh water drowning

Answer 90

Hemodilution or hemolysis

Question 91

21 y/o with chest pain after coughing

Answer 91

Spontaneous Pneumothorax

Question 92

**REMEMBER: 20-30 y/o, thin, smokers and males more prone to spontaneous pneumothorax**

Answer 92

prone to spontaneous pneumothorax

Question 93

Orthopnea

Answer 93

difficulty breathing while lying down

Question 94

As volume in thoratic cavity increases

Answer 94

pressure decreases exhalation (PASSIVE)

Question 95

Respirations

Answer 95

exchange of gases between internal/external environment

Question 96

Pink-puffer

Answer 96

increase RBC production to increase hemoglobin capacity to breathe, Skin color is pink not BLUE

Question 97

JVD best evaluated in

Answer 97

semi-fowler position @ 45 degrees

Question 98

Due to bronchiolar spasm a PT with asthmatic bronchiolitis will show

Answer 98

expiratory wheezing

Question 99

As approach any scene

Answer 99

make sure scene is safe

Question 100

Libel

Answer 100

malicious writing

Question 101

Slander

Answer 101

malicious spoken

Question 102

Triage

Answer 102

sort

Question 103

Last (Black) priority in MCI

Answer 103

is Cardiac Arrest

Question 104

START

Answer 104

Triage simple triage and rapid transport

Question 105

Separate the walking wounded

Answer 105

in MCI

Question 106

MCI

Answer 106

Can you walk, breathing, pulse, circulation

Question 107

In any MCI scenario you

Answer 107

treat airway, bleeding, AMS, and then FX’s. Immediate life threats are first except cardiac arrest/major burn PT (tagged dead/black) then potential life threats…BLS before ALS…

Question 108

First Medic on scene with MCI

Answer 108

Triage

Question 109

MCI- Most critical PT

Answer 109

person walking around aimlessly repeating things over & over with AMS

Question 110

MCI START System

Answer 110

RR greater than 30, Cap Refill less than 2 seconds- R to painful Stimulus/unconscious/alert & disoriented are all Critical, immediate PT’s (Key is any AMS)

Question 111

One of first signs hypovolemic shock

Answer 111

Tachycardia

Question 112

Earliest sign of any shock

Answer 112

AMS

Question 113

Jaw thrust or Modified jaw thrust

Answer 113

trauma PT to open airway

Question 114

Trauma

Answer 114

Give 3 times estimated blood loss of LR or 20 ml/kg

Question 115

Traumatic asphyxia most commonly caused

Answer 115

crush injury to chest or abdomen

Question 116

Tension pneumothorax s/s

Answer 116

dypnea/madiastinal shift away from affected area/JVD

Question 117

S/S Neurogenic shock

Answer 117

hypotension/bradycardic/warm/dry skin BELOW level of injury following trauma

Question 118

ICP will also see

Answer 118

bradycardia/vomiting/irregular or unequal pupils NOT HYPOTENSION CUSHINGS

Question 119

Trauma victim pulse 40 & BP 200/120

Answer 119

increased ICP Cushing’s triad

Question 120

Clear fluid leaking from ears/nose

Answer 120

Basilar skull fx

Question 121

Allow CSF/blood to drain from ears/nose with head trauma because

Answer 121

the bleeding relieves pressure and will decrease chance of ICP

Question 122

Glascow Coma Scale (GCS)

Answer 122

Motor (6), Verbal (5), Eye Opening (4) GCSscale 15

Question 123

Scenario Burn to Anterior chest and abdomen and anterior upper extremities (2)

Answer 123

rule of nines27

Question 124

Place for decompression

Answer 124

2nd or 3rd intercostals space (midclavicular line)

Question 125

Scenario

Answer 125

MVA PT. with HR 120, BP 40 palp, PT Hypovolemic shock

Question 126

a severly angulated fx

Answer 126

pinching or cutting of nerves and blood vessels

Question 127

Beck’s triad

Answer 127

Muffled/distant heart sounds, narrowing pulse pressure, decreased BP (NOT FLAT NECK VEINS)

Question 128

A PT with major burns has hypovolemic shock

Answer 128

due to plasma loss

Question 129

23 y/o sharp chest pain & increasing SOB

Answer 129

spontaneous pneumothorax

Question 130

Delivery of placenta

Answer 130

end of 3rd stage of labor

Question 131

26 y/o multi gravid with prior C-Sections, C/C

Answer 131

full term with contractions 3-4 minutes apart/TEARING pain, little amount of bleeding abruptio placenta

Question 132

Abruptio placenta

Answer 132

DARK red blood and Pain classic differentiation

Question 133

Abruptio placenta

Answer 133

minimal dark red bleeding, rigid uterus & shock/ can also be described as tearing pain

Question 134

Placenta previa

Answer 134

placenta covers cervical opening

Question 135

Placenta previa

Answer 135

BRIGHT red blood and Painless classic differentiation

Question 136

Placenta previa

Answer 136

placenta covers cervical opening

Question 137

Primary concern with prolapsed cord

Answer 137

Compromised blood supply to fetus

Question 138

APGAR

Answer 138

0-2 scale for appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, resp. rate (under 6 intervention required)

Question 139

APGAR

Answer 139

1 and 5 minutes

Question 140

OB PT over 3 months transport

Answer 140

On left at least 15 degrees to avoid SUPINE HYPOTENSIVE SYNDROME or pressure on inferior vena cava from uterus

Question 141

Seizures from TOXEMIA (ECLAMPSIA)

Answer 141

9th month (can occur all of 3rd trimester!) Tx: 5-10 mg valium Toxemia of pregnancy usually in 9th month pregnancy but again, can occur any time in 3rd trimester

Question 142

Preeclampsia presentation

Answer 142

Hypertension, edema

Question 143

Common cause uterine bleeding 1st trimester

Answer 143

Threatened abortion/incomplete abortion/ruptured ectopic pregnancy… NOT PLACENTA PREVIA

Question 144

1st Stage

Answer 144

contractions to dilation

Question 145

2nd Stage

Answer 145

dilation to crowning full dilation/delivery

Question 146

3rd Stage

Answer 146

delivery to placenta delivery

Question 147

Serous membrane covering abdominal organs

Answer 147

Visceral

Question 148

All s/s kidney stones

Answer 148

frequent urination

Question 149

Bilateral dilated pupils usually

Answer 149

cerebral hypoxia

Question 150

23 y/o working out in gym with explosive headache

Answer 150

subarachnoid aneurysm

Question 151

Severed C4

Answer 151

total paralysis motor and resp. paralysiscan’t breathe on own

Question 152

Countercoup

Answer 152

injury to opposite side of the head/or opposite side of impact

Question 153

T4 injury

Answer 153

paralysis below nipple line

Question 154

T10 injury

Answer 154

paralysis below the umbilicus PT loss of feeling below the nipple lineT4 spinal injury

Question 155

Part of the brain that effects vision

Answer 155

Occipital/injuryvision affected

Question 156

Seizures

Answer 156

valium/diazepam 5-10 mg

Question 157

Stimulation of Sympathetic NS

Answer 157

Increased HR and blood vessel constriction INCREASES Peripheral vascular resistance BETA RECEPTOR STIMULATION

Question 158

Cardiac Tamponade

Answer 158

JVD, narrowing pulse pressure (systolic closer to diastolic), clear lungs, muffled distant heart sounds

Question 159

Pain in chest that is searing and tearing with radiation to neck and No Pedal Pulses

Answer 159

Aortic Aneurysm

Question 160

If stroke volume does not change, but HR decreases

Answer 160

Cardiac output decreases

Question 161

Rapid Wide Bizarre

Answer 161

V-TACH

Question 162

Inotropic

Answer 162

contractility

Question 163

85 y/o with severe headache, NV, dizzy, BP 210/120

Answer 163

Hypertensive crisis

Question 164

60 y/o PT weighs 110 lbs., heart palpitations P-145, BP-110/60, RR-24, EKG-Wide complex tachycardia TREATMENT

Answer 164

Lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/kg or 50 mg IVP

Question 165

Rhythm strip shows some kind of 2nd degree type 2 block

Answer 165

O2/monitor and transport

Question 166

Adenosine

Answer 166

slows conduction through AV node… slows all cations

Question 167

Digitalis toxicity

Answer 167

A-Fib

Question 168

PT takes digitalis is weak/dizzy, VS WNL (WNL means we never looked in court do not use)(VS normal range)

Answer 168

monitor, IV and transport

Question 169

Pulse pressure

Answer 169

difference between systolic and diastolic

Question 170

Heat stroke

Answer 170

Aggressive cooling methods then 2 IV’s WIDE OPEN

Question 171

Profuse sweating

Answer 171

heat exhaustion

Question 172

Burns cause massive generalized swelling

Answer 172

due to plasma movement into interstitial tissues

Question 173

Best method on LSD PT

Answer 173

talk down/reorient

Question 174

Hypoglycemia S/S

Answer 174

weak and rapid pulse, weakness and incoordination, seizures cool and clammy

Question 175

Kussmauls

Answer 175

deep and gasping respirations seen in DKA/Hyperglycemia

Question 176

Hypoglycemia

Answer 176

stupor, stumbles, slurred speech, bizarre Bx, cool/clammy skin

Question 177

DKA

Answer 177

Kussmaul respirations-deep, rapid, gasping

Question 178

Tricyclic OD what is not treatment

Answer 178

Ipecac 30 mg

Question 179

Story does not match injury

Answer 179

suspect abuse (ALL AGES)

Question 180

Valium routes of administration for 17 lb seizure Pedi

Answer 180

RECTAL, IV & IM

Question 181

Bile

Answer 181

enzyme produced in liver and stored in gall bladder

Question 182

Occipital lobe

Answer 182

vision

Question 183

Orthopnea

Answer 183

place PT in sitting position

Question 184

Uticaria

Answer 184

Hives

Question 185

Pryrogenic reaction

Answer 185

fever, chills, nausea, vomiting (common in blood transfusions)

Question 186

Best defense

Answer 186

hand washing

Question 187

Hep-A

Answer 187

Fecal/oral route

Question 188

Fever/chills/night sweats and blood in cough

Answer 188

TB without hemotypsis-HIV

Question 189

Children (1-8) fluid replacement

Answer 189

20cc/kg (one year and up as 20cc/kg-adult fluid bolus dosage)

Question 190

Croup aka LARYNGOTRACHEOBRONCHITIS

Answer 190

occurs at night, seal bark, stridor… Do not lay flat and keep calm. Do not examine throat or laryngospasm can occur. Use humidified oxygen. THE MOST DANGEROUS DISORDER CAUSING UPPER AIRWAY STRIDOR—CROUP

Question 191

Life threatening infection…bacterial that causes upper airway obstruction with reluctance to swallow due to pain and high fever

Answer 191

Epiglotitis (DROOLING)…Do not lay flat. Keep calm. Do not examine throat or laryngospasm can occur. O2 humidified

Question 192

Epiglotitis scenario will say sitting upright/fever/drooling

Answer 192

don’t lay supine

Question 193

20 lbs. Pedi how you measure ET tube answers were 6 Cuff, 6 Uncuffed, Diameter of index finger, and length based tape. I picked 6 uncuffed, Broslow Tape

Answer 193

weight based tape

Question 194

Infant

Answer 194

uncuffed due to till 8 y/o-narrowest area of airway crichoid

Question 195

Pediatric Lidocaine dose

Answer 195

1 mg/kg of body weight

Question 196

Child 18 y/o or under C/C headache, stiff neck, vomiting

Answer 196

MENNINGITIS

Question 197

Asthma attack

Answer 197

primary problem-Bronchoconstriction with bronchospasms

Question 198

Epiglotitis

Answer 198

rapid ONSET fever higher than 101 degrees usually

Question 199

Croup

Answer 199

Slow onset fever usually between 100-104 degrees

Question 200

Spinal cord injury occurs above C4, what happens to the PT. I put quadriplegic with no ability to breathe.

Answer 200

0

Question 201

If a child burns their head, according to the rule of nines, what percentage is burning

Answer 201

18%.

Question 202

There were a couple of triage questions. One was which patient needs to be treated first

Answer 202

a 30 y/o with a sucking chest wound

Question 203

There was only one drug concentration question. It was about putting 1 gm of Lido into a 250cc bag

Answer 203

The answer is 4 mg/cc

Question 204

What kind of O2 should you give to a COPD PT

Answer 204

NON-REBREATHER

Question 205

You should expect what in an elderly patient that has had excessive fluid loss

Answer 205

an electrolyte imbalance.

Question 206

Shock

Answer 206

inadequate tissue perfusion.

Question 207

There is a question about a PT with a head injury that goes into shock;

Answer 207

the answer is organ damage and bleeding.

Question 208

Endotracheal intubation will NOT cause

Answer 208

dehydration

Question 209

COPD PT main treatment goal

Answer 209

Relieve hypoxemia or rapid transport??

Question 210

Crime scene with viable PT

Answer 210

treat PT and work with law enforcement.

Question 211

1 y/o with wheezes and normal temp

Answer 211

Asthma or bronchiolitis??????

Question 212

Pink puffer question,

Answer 212

emphysema.

Question 213

Responding to vehicle accident SO advises 1 serious PT, and 2 ambulatory.

Answer 213

Prepare for size up and rapid transport

Question 214

If PT loses 1L of blood give them

Answer 214

3L

Question 215

Lead II, II, and AVF

Answer 215

inferior MI.

Question 216

LBS. to KG question answers were a little off 86 lbs.

Answer 216

answer was 41 KG

Question 217

Main concern when treating heat stroke.

Answer 217

Rapid cooling

Question 218

RSI not indicated in:

Answer 218

HEAD INJURY WITH ICP

Question 219

Question PT on ventilator with resp distress,

Answer 219

remove vent and BVM

Question 220

Tearing chest pain with absent pedals

Answer 220

Aortic aneurism

Question 221

Pulse pressure

Answer 221

difference between systolic and diastolic.

Question 222

Sight controlled by occipital lobe?????

Answer 222

YES

Question 223

Blunt face trauma with epistaxis and Diplopia consider,

Answer 223

orbit fracture???

Question 224

Second stage of labor

Answer 224

Dilation to deliver of baby.

Question 225

Being old doesn’t increase

Answer 225

thirst

Question 226

Pink torso pulse blue Extremities P-130 strong crying cough sneezing active movement

Answer 226

APGAR approx. 9

Question 227

Rapid speech sign of

Answer 227

amphetamine

Question 228

QRS

Answer 228

0.12

Question 229

25 y/o 1st trimester bright red blood

Answer 229

Spontaneous abortion

Question 230

65 y/o male chest trauma, BP-80/64, HR-120 JVD, Muffled heart sounds

Answer 230

Tamponade

Question 231

1 concern with Status asthmaticus

Answer 231

Hypoxia

Question 232

Generalized muscle contraction & relaxation unconscious, incontinent

Answer 232

Grand Mal Seizure

Question 233

Anaphylaxis, septic, & neuro Shock what causes BP to drop

Answer 233

dilation of vessels

Question 234

Interfacility transport, flush face weak pulse BP 80/40

Answer 234

stop blood transfusion

Question 235

How to take orthostatic BP

Answer 235

sitting, standing, supine

Question 236

Infant having seizure route of valium

Answer 236

IV, IO, PR

Question 237

Pyruvic & Lactic acid causes what kind of condition in Cardiac Arrest

Answer 237

was not sure but Respiratory Acidosis

Question 238

Conscious alert & VS Normal refuse treatment due to religious Paramedic Treat PT

Answer 238

BATTERY

Question 239

PT refused treatment Paramedic starts IV

Answer 239

BATTERY

Question 240

Football Fan watching game C/C Nausea, stiff neck AMS

Answer 240

heat exhaustion

Question 241

BP 80/40 HR 120

Answer 241

Hemo VS Phenmo

Question 242

15 gtts macro in 1 hour @ 45 gtts/min how many ML administered

Answer 242

180cc

Question 243

Obese PT Resp Distress, cyanotic (BLUE Bloater)

Answer 243

Chronic Bronchitis

Question 244

SO on scene of MVA scene is safe SO advises 6 PTs 1st Paramedic on scene

Answer 244

scene size up

Question 245

PT loses 750cc of blood 3 Xs of blood lose

Answer 245

2250

Question 246

What does not cause pupil dilation

Answer 246

heroin

Question 247

PT @ gym states he felt ill VS Normal, enroute to ER PT complains of explosive headache

Answer 247

Aneurysm

Question 248

If a trauma PT loses a lot of blood, what fluids does he need?

Answer 248

Blood….not LR cause it does not specify were this PT is at if Scene or Hospital and this pt needs blood to replace blood.

Question 249

You are treating a patient with a compound femur fracture. The wound is actively bleeding. How would you treat this patient?

Answer 249

Control bleeding, bandage, splint

Question 250

According to OSHA, what must be available on site where hazardous materials are stored?

Answer 250

MSDS

Question 251

What is the correct hand position for CPR on an infant?

Answer 251

1 finger below the nipple line

Question 252

A hyperglycemic condition that only occurs during pregnancy is known as:

Answer 252

Gestational diabetes

Question 253

All of the following refer to chronic bronchitis except:

Answer 253

Pink puffer

Question 254

In a patient who has right-sided heart failure, which of the following S/S are characteristic?

Answer 254

JVD, pedal edema, hepatomegly

Question 255

What is the best way for a paramedic to prevent an anaphylactic reaction when giving medications to a patient?

Answer 255

ask about allergy history

Question 256

A telemetry system in which voice and an EKG can be transmitted from the field to the hospital at the same time is an example of a

Answer 256

multiplex system

Question 257

Malicious writing in a report is-

Answer 257

libel

Question 258

The less a paramedic uses a skill:

Answer 258

review of it should be more frequent

Question 259

Which of the following patients would not receive care based upon implied consent?

Answer 259

The severe asthmatic who refuses care

Question 260

What PPE should be worn during delivery?

Answer 260

gloves, mask, gown, protective eyewear

Question 261

Which of the following is true regarding bile?

Answer 261

An enzyme produced in the liver & stored in the gall bladder

Question 262

The colored portion of the eyeball which surrounds the pupil is called the:

Answer 262

Iris

Question 263

You have just delivered a newborn whose mother was hypovolemic due to blood loss. What is the recommended fluid replacement for the newborn?

Answer 263

10cc/kg

Question 264

The most frequently fractured bone due to its position & weakness is the:

Answer 264

clavicle

Question 265

All of the following are ignition sources for a hydrocarbon spill except: circular saw, sealed flashlight, match, air chisel……..ANSWER:

Answer 265

sealed flashlight

Question 266

You are treating a child hit by a car, the mother is screaming at you and appears emotionally OUT OF CONTROL. What is the best method to handle the situation?

Answer 266

KNOCK THAT BITCH OUT……(JK)…..Assign a crew member to calm the mother

Question 267

A head injury patient is presenting with a breathing pattern of several short, shallow breaths followed by irregular periods of apnea. This breathing pattern is called:

Answer 267

Biots

Question 268

Which of the following is NOT a normal part of the “fight-or-flight” response? skin becomes clammy, pupils constrict, heart rate increases, digestion slows………..ANSWER:

Answer 268

pupils constrict

Question 269

Laryngotracheobronchitis is characterized by:

Answer 269

drooling , tripod position

Question 270

You are called to treat a 22 y/o f with sudden onset of LLQ pain. She is 2 weeks late for her period, and is shocky. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 270

Ectopic pregnancy

Question 271

The established policies and procedures of an EMS system are known as:

Answer 271

protocols

Question 272

A physician at an EMS scene who is not the patient’s doctor, is known as a (n):

Answer 272

intervener physician

Question 273

You are called to a home of a 23 y/o obese f approximately 8 months pregnant that has just had a Grand Mal Seizure. You observe the patient is still having seizure activity. Rapid pulse 145/min., BP-240/130, 3+ edema of extremities. No history of epilepsy or head injury can be obtained. The most likely diagnosis is:

Answer 273

eclampsia

Question 274

A life threatening infection that causes upper airway obstruction in young children accompanied by a reluctance or pain on swallowing and a high fever and drooling:

Answer 274

epiglotitis

Question 275

The paramedic offers support to an upset family member. This is an example of:

Answer 275

empathy

Question 276

If a paramedic is charged in a negligence case, he/she is considered the:

Answer 276

defendant

Question 277

If a paramedic directly causes an injury or harm, that is known as

Answer 277

proximate cause in negligence case.

Question 278

The degree of care that would be expected of any reasonable paramedic acting under similar circumstances is known as the:

Answer 278

standard of care

Question 279

Abruptio placenta is a true emergency. It is characterized by:

Answer 279

abdominal pain and dark red bleeding

Question 280

When opening the airway of an infant, do not exaggerate the head tilt because:

Answer 280

it may obstruct the breathing passages

Question 281

A legal document that indicates a PT’s end of life request regarding resuscitation is known as:

Answer 281

DNR order

Question 282

After completing a PCR, the paramedic realizes that he forgot to enter the drug dose. What should he do?

Answer 282

Add a dated and signed written addendum

Question 283

You are treating a patient in July with hot, dry skin, a temperature of 106 degrees, and unconsciousness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 283

Heat stroke

Question 284

All of the following are elements of Cushing’s Triad except: elevated B/P, decreased pulse, irregular respirations,

Answer 284

decreased peripheral vascular resistance

Question 285

Maintaining equilibrium can be characterized as:

Answer 285

homeostasis

Question 286

All of the following are Schedule I drugs EXCEPT

Answer 286

heroin, mescaline, LSD, cocaine

Question 287

Which of the following bite is most neurotoxic?

Answer 287

Coral snake

Question 288

The most common cause of PID is:

Answer 288

gonorrhea

Question 289

The ability of the heart to generate its own electrical impulses is known as:

Answer 289

automaticity

Question 290

All of the following are signs or symptoms of organophosphate poisoning except:

Answer 290

dry mouth

Question 291

A 62 y/o female is taking digitalis. She complains of being weak and dizzy. She is awake and alert and her vitals are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate treatment:

Answer 291

monitor, IV, transport

Question 292

A PT presents with pulmonary edema. She should be given:

Answer 292

nitroglycerine to reduce preload

Question 293

A 55 y/o PT has a pulse rate of 50. There is a P for every QRS and the P-R interval is .16. The PT is cold and clammy and the B/P is 70/50. Indicate the rhythm and the initial treatment.

Answer 293

Sinus bradycardia and Atropine 0.5mg

Question 294

The local alcoholic found on a cold, windy night is unarousable, in V-Fib, and without respirations. Treatment by the Paramedic includes:

Answer 294

airway management, defibrillation x3, CPR, transport

Question 295

Which one of the following is not a central vein:

Answer 295

femoral veins, external jugular veins, subclavian veins, internal jugular veins

Question 296

Minidrip tubing is indicated for which of the following PT:

Answer 296

a 68 y/o in cardiac arrest, a 24 y/o in 24% burns, a 77 y/o in pulmonary edema, a 17 y/o stab wound

Question 297

Blood is administered with which IV solution?

Answer 297

Normal saline

Question 298

Which of the following is not a complication of an IV?

Answer 298

Thrombus formation, cellulitis, hypotension, infection

Question 299

Pharmacologic treatment of anaphylactic shock should include:

Answer 299

EPI and Benadryl

Question 300

Which one does not produce small pupils?

Answer 300

Heroin, Demerol, organo phosphate, valium

Question 301

All of the following are true regarding Lasix except

Answer 301

: works in the loop of Henle, increases preload, prevents reabsorption of sodium, causes venodilation within 5 minutes

Question 302

Medications that are combined with fat or oil are:

Answer 302

emulsions

Question 303

An intramuscular injection is given at a:

Answer 303

90 degree angle

Question 304

A 16 y/o fell while playing basketball. He injured his right ankle. The skin is warm and dry. B/P-110/80 and P-50. All of the following are appropriate except:

Answer 304

atropine 0.5mg IV, EKG monitor, splint leg, frequent circulation checks

Question 305

A PT was hit in the head with a board and fell down the steps. Vitals are P-120, B/P-40/P, and RR-10. These vitals indicate that the PT most likely:

Answer 305

has bleeding from other than the head

Question 306

What classification is Haldol?

Answer 306

Antipsychotic

Question 307

Hyperthyroidism which causes an increase in thyroid hormone circulating in the blood is also known as:

Answer 307

Graves’ disease

Question 308

Which of the following is not a cause of PEA?

Answer 308

Pneumonia

Question 309

The term ”pink puffer” refers to:

Answer 309

emphysema

Question 310

You are called to the workplace of a 20 y/o male who came to work feeling ill. He is c/o a stiff neck, high fever, headache and backache. He is most likely suffering from:

Answer 310

meningitis

Question 311

A 16 y/o male was hit in the head with a baseball bat and has suffered a closed head injury. Which IV fluids are appropriate for this PT?

Answer 311

NS & LR

Question 312

Patients with major burns may have massive generalized swelling. What causes this swelling?

Answer 312

Plasma movement into the interstitial tissues

Question 313

Atropine works by:

Answer 313

blocking the effects of the vagus nerve

Question 314

Ocular medications should be placed in the:

Answer 314

inner canthus

Question 315

The destruction of red blood cells during Venipuncture is:

Answer 315

hemolysis

Question 316

Which of the following is the most effective way of immobilizing a fractured foot?

Answer 316

A pillow

Question 317

Which of the following S/S are most indicative of shock?

Answer 317

Dizziness, thirst, cool skin, agitation

Question 318

All of the following are categories of the Glascow Coma Scale except:

Answer 318

pupils response, eye opening, movement, verbal response

Question 319

One way to build trust and rapport with a PT is to:

Answer 319

use a professional, but compassionate tone

Question 320

Rescue arrives on the scene of a one-car accident. The driver of the accident vehicle is dead. The passenger has been thrown from the car, has a badly lacerated scalp, and is unconscious, but breathing. Initial treatment should be

Answer 320

open the airway and stabilize C-Spine

Question 321

Critical burns consist of all of the following except: burns complicated by respiratory tract injuries and fractures, third degree burns involving the critical area of the face hands and feet, third degree burns covering more than 10% of the body surface

Answer 321

second degree burns involving 10-15% of the body surface

Question 322

A PT has lost feeling below the nipple line. This would indicate a spinal injury at the level of

Answer 322

T4

Question 323

By 4 to 6 months, a child should have

Answer 323

double the birth weight

Question 324

Which of the following are is not considered a part of the lower airway

Answer 324

Bronchi, larynx, trachea, alveoli

Question 325

A PT complains of SOB. He has, upon assessment, a barrel chest and pursed lips. What is the most likely diagnosis

Answer 325

Emphysema

Question 326

The pulmonary artery carries

Answer 326

deoxygenated blood to the lungs

Question 327

Which of the following is not a sign of dehydration

Answer 327

JVD

Question 328

A PT is presenting with a rapid onset dyspnea, Uticaria, tachypnea, and B/P-80/50. What is the most likely diagnosis

Answer 328

Anaphylactic shock

Question 329

The blue and purple colored lesions found on the face, mouth and other parts of the body of the AIDS PT is usually

Answer 329

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Question 330

A PT with blood gas values of pH

Answer 330

7.15, PCO260, PO260 is suffering from

Question 331

The movement of gas from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is

Answer 331

diffusion

Question 332

Decreased oxygen in the blood is called

Answer 332

hypoxemia

Question 333

The major drawback of mouth-to-mouth ventilations is

Answer 333

potential exposure of the rescuer to communicable disease

Question 334

A whistling sound heard in inspiration and expiration while auscultating lung fields is called

Answer 334

wheezing

Question 335

Paradoxical chest wall movement that lessens respiratory efficiency may suggest a

Answer 335

flail chest

Question 336

Extreme caution should be used when suctioning a tracheal stoma in order to avoid

Answer 336

soft tissue swelling

Question 337

All of the following drugs can be administered through an Endotracheal tube, except

Answer 337

Lidocaine, adenosine, atropine, EPI (REMEMBER WHAT NAVEL STANDS FOR Narcan, Atropine, Vasopressin, EPI, Lidocaine)

Question 338

The most common indication for a surgical cricothyrotomy is

Answer 338

massive facial or neck trauma

Question 339

When an endotracheal tube is inserted too far, it usually tends to enter the

Answer 339

right mainstem bronchus

Question 340

In a narcotic addict, Narcan can cause:

Answer 340

a withdrawal reaction

Question 341

Tissue anoxia from diminished blood flow, caused by narrowing or occlusion of the artery to the tissue is a definition of

Answer 341

ischemia

Question 342

An individual with known drug abuse is in respiratory distress, hypotensive, and stuporous. He has pinpoint pupils. The paramedic might suspect

Answer 342

morphine overdose

Question 343

Which of the following routes of administration is fastest

Answer 343

IM, ET, subcutaneous, sublingual

Question 344

The best protection of a paramedic is

Answer 344

proper training

Question 345

Order: Give 25gm of dextrose from a 100cc ampule of 50% Dextrose. How many cc’s of Dextrose will be given

Answer 345

50cc

Question 346

The main difference between the psychotic and neurotic PT is

Answer 346

Psychotic PT is not in touch with reality

Question 347

A PT in V-Tach, unconscious and no vital signs, you should first

Answer 347

defibrillate

Question 348

What types of frequencies are used for medical communications

Answer 348

UHF, FM

Question 349

The master gland responsible for excreting oxytocin and ACTH is

Answer 349

pituitary

Question 350

A PT has been burned on the entire anterior trunk of the body, both arms (front and Back) and the face and anterior neck; what % burn is it

Answer 350

40.5% (18 for the trunk, 9 for each arm 4.5 for the face and neck)

Question 351

Two common Tricyclic antidepressants are

Answer 351

Elavil and Tofranil

Question 352

Early signs of Lidocaine toxicity are

Answer 352

tremors and parasthesia

Question 353

You are called to the scene of a construction site accident. A 31 y/o male was working in a trench when the walls collapsed and he was completely covered by dirt. His co-workers have freed his abdomen, chest, and head, but he is still trapped from the waist down. The PT appears to be purple from the shoulders up and is having marked difficulty breathing. His eyes are bulging, and his lips appear swollen. You suspect

Answer 353

traumatic asphyxia

Question 354

The permission to provide care obtained from the PT after the nature and risk of care are explained is called

Answer 354

informed consent

Question 355

Dilated pupils means

Answer 355

cerebral hypoxia

Question 356

A child has overdose on ASA. You would expect to see all of the following except

Answer 356

hypoventilation, metabolic acidosis, vomiting and dehydration, diaphoresis and fever

Question 357

When do you not give Lidocaine

Answer 357

V-Fib, Bradycardia with PVC’s, V-Tach, PVC’s

Question 358

What do you do if during transmission you lose radio contact with the hospital

Answer 358

Continue to transport and follow standing protocol

Question 359

A crackling sensation in the neck due to air under the skin is called

Answer 359

SQ emphysema

Question 360

Of the following, which is not required for a successful legal action of negligence

Answer 360

proximate causation, breech of duty, intent, harm

Question 361

The pediatric dose of Lidocaine is

Answer 361

1mg/kg

Question 362

After a normal delivery of a full-term infant, the one-minute APGAR score is made. The baby has a pink body but the extremities are blue. Her pulse is 120/min. and she is crying lustily and jerking her arms and legs. The one-minute APGAR score is

Answer 362

9

Question 363

When performing CP on a infant, the paramedic should use

Answer 363

fingertip pressure and a faster compression rate than for an adult

Question 364

Which of the following is least important in the care of a newborn

Answer 364

monitor respiration, clear airway, monitor EKG, maintain body temperature

Question 365

When assessing a PT for hypovolemic shock, which of the following would you expect before the others

Answer 365

Hypotension, hypertension, tachycardia, cyanosis

Question 366

Your trauma patient is exhibiting signs of as tension pneumothorax. What would be your order of treatment

Answer 366

Oxygen-plural decompression-transport-IV

Question 367

Which of the following is not a type of muscle

Answer 367

Skeletal, cardiac, Involuntary, smooth

Question 368

Fluid replacement for an adult trauma PT is based on

Answer 368

20cc/kg bolus

Question 369

The universal donor blood type is

Answer 369

O-

Question 370

220lbs equals

Answer 370

100kg……………(220 divided by 2.2 100)

Question 371

When encountering a PT who is disoriented, the paramedic should

Answer 371

attempt to keep the PT aware of the time, place, person, and situation.

Question 372

Cardiac output

Answer 372

rate x stroke volume

Question 373

The Florida Emergency Medical Services Act, providing legislation governing all pre-hospital emergency medical services is known as Florida Statutes Chapter

Answer 373

401

Question 374

The major extracellular cation is

Answer 374

sodium

Question 375

Endocrine glands do what

Answer 375

Excrete hormones into blood stream

Question 376

Front windshields are made from

Answer 376

laminated safety glass

Question 377

Prior to entering a paramedic program, the student should be competent in

Answer 377

mathematics

Question 378

Mr. G has Orthopnea. What is the best position to transport him in

Answer 378

sitting

Question 379

Ms. J is in DKA. Her breathing pattern is hypernea and tachypnea. What is this respiratory pattern called

Answer 379

Kussmauls

Question 380

Blood under the dura is described as

Answer 380

subdural

Question 381

Joe, a 3 y/o, has a barking cough. The most likely diagnosis is

Answer 381

Croup

Question 382

The primary concerns in treating a near-drowning victim are management of

Answer 382

hypoxia and acidosis

Question 383

What is Urticaria

Answer 383

Hives

Question 384

A Minidrip IV set delivers how many drops per mL of solution

Answer 384

60

Question 385

An extrapyramidal reaction is caused by what classification of drugs

Answer 385

Antipsychotics

Question 386

A PT presents as follows-bizarre acting, cool, clammy skin, slurred speech, and staggers. The diagnosis for this PT is

Answer 386

hypoglycemia

Question 387

Radio frequencies are measured in

Answer 387

megahertz

Question 388

Which of the following do not have P waves?

Answer 388

A-Fib, sinus tach, PAC’s, 1st degree block

Question 389

If the heart rate increases, but the stroke volume remains the same, what happens to the cardiac output

Answer 389

Increases

Question 390

A traumatic thoracic injury caused by a puncture to the chest wall that permits exchange of air between the pleural cavity and the outside environment is called a

Answer 390

sucking chest wound

Question 391

Verapamil and Adenocard are both used for

Answer 391

SVT

Question 392

Stable angina normally occurs

Answer 392

during exercise or stress

Question 393

During a fire your partner falls down a flight of stairs. What method would you use to remove him from the burning building

Answer 393

Clothes drag

Question 394

When assessing an unconscious patient with a head injury, you note that the left pupil is dilated and nonreactive. This may indicate: could be

Answer 394

upward pressure on the left side of the brain or –pressure on the vagus nerve

Question 395

What is the appropriate dose of EPI for asthma in an adult

Answer 395

0.3 to 0.5mL of a 1:1000 solution administered SQ

Question 396

You are using an IV set with 15 drops per mL to administer 50mL per hour. How many drops per minute do you give

Answer 396

13

Question 398

What type of cerebral hemorrhage usually occurs slowly due to a venous bleed

Answer 398

Subdural

Question 399

The paramedic should assume that a patient wishes to be treated even though the patient is not conscious or has an altered mental status is

Answer 399

Implied Consent

Question 400

A patient was left by the paramedics unattended at the ER to respond to another call. The patient was unattended for 20 min. The paramedics are guilty of

Answer 400

Abandonment

Question 401

The permission to provide care obtained from the patient after the nature and risk of care are explained to the patient is

Answer 401

Informed Consent

Question 402

The best protection a paramedic has against legal involvement is

Answer 402

Proper Training

Question 403

Providing care equal to or that of similarly trained is

Answer 403

Standard of Care

Question 404

The Good Samaritan Law offers some protection to the paramedic

Answer 404

While off Duty

Question 405

Having essential supplies and equipment at the scene can be insured by

Answer 405

Developing an Inventory and replenish truck supplies after every run.

Question 406

Information to include on the patients report is the

Answer 406

Concise report of the patient’s condition

Question 407

The Emergency Medical Service Act, providing legislature governing all prehospital emergency medical services, is knows as

Answer 407

401

Question 408

Responsibility of the paramedic who is dispatched to the scene of a medical or trauma emergency is

Answer 408

The Duty to Act

Question 409

Paramedics that elect to help a patient and leaves without other help may be sued for

Answer 409

Abandonment

Question 410

In a multiple casualty vehicle accident, the patient with the lowest priority (this scenario) is the

Answer 410

Patient with paralysis from the waist down

Question 411

The issue not required for successful legal act of negligence is

Answer 411

Intent

Question 412

In cases of malpractice, courts compare the actions of the defendant to that of the actions of his peers would have taken, under the same circumstances. This comparison

Answer 412

Standard of Care

Question 413

When a paramedic is confronted with a patient who has a serious medical emergency and refuses to allow the paramedics to treat him, the paramedic should first

Answer 413

Try to explain to the patient the seriousness of his condition.

Question 414

The physician with the most scene authority is the

Answer 414

On Line Physician

Question 415

The final element that must be present for negligence to occur is

Answer 415

Proximate Cause

Question 416

The patient in the greatest chance of false imprisonment is the

Answer 416

Psychiatric Patient

Question 417

Which of the following patients would not receive care under implied consent is

Answer 417

The severe asthmatic that refuses treatment——(14 y/o AAOx3 who refuses, combative head trauma, cardiac patient whose friend says the patient has a DNR were other choices)

Question 418

If you cannot defibrillate because of a dead battery and the family of the patient learn this, you are considered

Answer 418

Negligent

Question 419

When surveying the scene, initially you do not have to report the

Answer 419

Life threatening injuries

Question 420

When confronted with a true emergency with a minor without parents and/or legal guardians present and cannot be contacted, you should

Answer 420

Consider consent for care to be implied and begin care

Question 421

Intent of the Good Samaritan Law is to

Answer 421

Protect a person who stops at a scene from a lawsuit

Question 422

The organization that establishes the qualifications for emergency medical service personnel on a national basis is the

Answer 422

National Registry EMT’s

Question 424

The process that sorts patients is called

Answer 424

Triage

Question 425

You have arrived on the scene of a building collapse involving at least 30 patients. One patient is in cardiac arrest. The first paramedic on the scene should classify the patient as

Answer 425

Lowest Priority

Question 426

A patient with a fractured clavicle typically sits or stands with

Answer 426

The injured shoulder forward

Question 427

The first step in immobilizing a patient on a short spine board is to

Answer 427

Maintain manual stabilization of patients C-Spine

Question 428

A patient found unconscious at the scene of a fire should be suspected to have

Answer 428

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

Question 429

Paradoxical respirations are a result of a

Answer 429

Flail Chest

Question 430

A car accident victim that has pain and deformity to both thighs may suffer from

Answer 430

Hemorrhagic or Hypovolemic Shock

Question 431

A fracture in which a break is straight across the bone shaft is called a

Answer 431

Transverse Fracture

Question 432

A fractured elbow should be immobilized

Answer 432

In the position found

Question 433

Some signs and symptoms of shock are

Answer 433

Dizziness, thirst, cool skin, and agitation

Question 434

A patient with a head injury suddenly has a left pupil that is fixed and dilated which now reacts slowly to light. This is considered a

Answer 434

Neurological crisis

Question 435

An injury with torn ligament, usually from motion forced beyond the normal range of the joints is called a

Answer 435

Sprain

Question 436

A patient is conscious, we should apply traction (when indicated)

Answer 436

Until the patient feels relief

Question 437

A patient has a pulse of 40, B/P of 200/20. This patient most likely has

Answer 437

ICP

Question 438

A situation that is indicated for the use of MAST suit is a

Answer 438

Ruptured, abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

Question 439

All are part of GLASCOW scale except

Answer 439

Pupil response (eye opening, movement, and verbal response were other choices)

Question 440

The most common organ injured in blunt trauma to the RUQ is the

Answer 440

Liver

Question 441

A sign that is not associated with an aortic aneurysm is

Answer 441

Groin pain

Question 442

The mechanism of injury can tell the medic about the patient’s condition. If the steering column is collapsed, the patient is most likely to have a

Answer 442

Flail segment

Question 443

In a cricoid stick, the landmark used to determine the proper insertion location is

Answer 443

The depression just inferior to the Adam’s Apple

Question 444

a patient in a MVA has a head injury, B/P 80/60, P 132, and is suspected to be in

Answer 444

Hypovolemic shock

Question 445

The shorting of an extremity (leg) could be caused by an injury to the

Answer 445

Hip

Question 446

A patient has fallen from 15’ roof. When assessed, the patient has dyspnea, flat neck veins, and his chest was dull to percussion. This most likely to be a

Answer 446

Hemothorax

Question 447

Cardiac Tamponade causes the following except

Answer 447

Flat neck veins (normal pulse pressure, decreased BP, and muffled heart sounds were other choices)

Question 448

A 23 y/o male with sharp chest pain of short duration and increasing shortness of breath is suspected to have

Answer 448

Spontaneous Pneumothorax

Question 449

The 1st thing to do when called to an MVA is to

Answer 449

Triage the patients and find the extent of the injuries

Question 450

Of the following chemicals, the ones that would cause the most burns are

Answer 450

Oven cleaners and Drano (alkaline)

Question 451

A patient has spinal injury and intercostals retractions. The site of the injury is in

Answer 451

C-Spine (C3 and C4)

Question 452

A finding that receives attention during the primary survey is an

Answer 452

Exsanguinating Hemorrhage

Question 453

A patient is AAOx4, has a 3” scalp wound, BP 80/50, P 120. The best IV choice would be

Answer 453

Lactated Ringers (or NS) wide open

Question 454

The most major complication of a joint injury is

Answer 454

Blood Vessel Damage (NOT nerve damage if both answers appear)

Question 455

Traumatic asphyxia is caused by a

Answer 455

Crush injury to the chest or abdomen

Question 456

When ventilating a patient with a head injury, the ventilation rate should be

Answer 456

20-24 breaths per min.

Question 457

A 35 y/o patient has a sudden, sharp; severe headache becomes unconscious and unresponsive. She is suspected to have a

Answer 457

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

Question 458

A 16 y/o fell while playing basketball and has injured his right ankle. His skin is warm and dry, BP 110/80, P 50. The appropriate action would be all except

Answer 458

Giving 0.5mg/kg Atropine

Question 459

Fluid replacement of the hypovolemic patient is

Answer 459

2000cc to 3000cc normal saline (or LR)

Question 460

A false statement referring to burns is that

Answer 460

There is insignificant damage to underlining tissue

Question 461

It is contraindicated in elbow fractures in elbow fractures to

Answer 461

Attempt one time to straighten the elbow

Question 462

A drug used to decrease intracranial pressure is

Answer 462

Mannitol

Question 463

When evaluating the symptoms of a patient with real complain, one must quickly establish several important factors except

Answer 463

Last physician’s appointment

Question 464

The patient is cyanotic, comatose, and has agonal breathing, so we

Answer 464

Initiate BLS (ABC’s)

Question 465

Best way to determine if the heart is pumping is to

Answer 465

Check for a pulse rate

Question 466

The single most important indicator of the patient’s brain function is his

Answer 466

Level of Consciousness (LOC)

Question 467

The most sensitive indicator of progressive disorder of the nervous system is

Answer 467

Change in mental status

Question 468

Kussmaul Respirations are described as

Answer 468

Rapid breathing (deep, gasping) associated with diabetic ketoacidosis

Question 469

The upper airway sound produced with inspiration difficulty is called

Answer 469

Stridor

Question 470

Lower airway obstruction

Answer 470

Wheezing

Question 471

Smaller airway, fine crackling

Answer 471

Rales

Question 472

Larger airway, fluid (mucus) in lungs

Answer 472

Rhonchi

Question 473

Bilateral, dilated pupils indicated

Answer 473

Cerebral Hypoxia

Question 474

The spleen is located in the

Answer 474

LUQ

Question 475

Central venous pressure is the same as

Answer 475

Right Atrial Pressure

Question 476

Cardiac Tamponade is indicated by

Answer 476

Distant Heart Sounds

Question 477

When checking lower extremities for paralysis, paramedics should ask the patient to

Answer 477

wiggle her toes

Question 478

Tendons connect

Answer 478

Muscles to bone

Question 479

The order in which a primary survey is conducted to search for immediate life-threatening emergencies is to check

Answer 479

Breathing-Pulse-Bleeding (A B C’s)

Question 480

Initial emergency evaluation directs towards all of the following except

Answer 480

Significant Internal Hemorrhage

Question 481

The systolic portion of the blood pressure is the

Answer 481

Pressure of blood against the atrial wall during the heartbeat

Question 482

Taking a palpable blood pressure only gives you

Answer 482

The systolic pressure

Question 483

Normal pulse rate of an adult is

Answer 483

60-100 beats per minute

Question 484

Death of tissue is called

Answer 484

Necrosis

Question 485

Normal breathing rate of an adult is

Answer 485

12-20 breaths per minute

Question 486

A patient complains of SOB. On assessment he has pursed lips and barrel chest which indicates

Answer 486

Emphysema (“Pink Puffers”) Chronic Bronchitis is called “Blue Bloaters”

Question 487

Blood pressure levels may vary according to age and sex. Normal systolic pressure in males is

Answer 487

100+his age

Question 488

The end of the femur which is toward the foot is referred to as

Answer 488

The distal end

Question 489

If the patient is laying face down on the floor, he is

Answer 489

Prone

Question 490

Ecchymosis over the mastoid bone (process) is known as

Answer 490

Battle signs

Question 491

Cardiovascular assessment involves determining the pulse and blood pressure. In the secondary survey, it also involves assessing venous pressure. Increased venous pressure is assessed by

Answer 491

Checking for JVD

Question 492

Homeostasis is the

Answer 492

Stability of the Internal environment

Question 493

During the Heimlich maneuver, the rescuer places his hand on the

Answer 493

Epigastrium

Question 494

In order to insert an ET tube properly, it is necessary to visualize the

Answer 494

Vocal Cords

Question 495

Due to bronchiole spasm, a patient with asthmatic bronchitis exhibits

Answer 495

Expiratory Wheezes

Question 496

A light image is changed into an electrical message that goes to the brain via the

Answer 496

Optic nerve

Question 497

Irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea gradually increasing and decreasing is called

Answer 497

Biots Respirations

Question 498

One of the least important things to assess neurological status is if the patient has

Answer 498

Deep tendon reflexes

Question 499

Dyspnea is

Answer 499

Difficulty or painful breathing

Question 500

A victim is found with bright red, frothy blood bubbling from the mouth with each exhalation. This is an indication of

Answer 500

Lung damage