POM summative prep QS Flashcards

1
Q

How is the rate of glycolysis controlled?
A) Phosphoglucose isomerase is an allosteric enzyme
B) Glucose-6-phosphate inhibits hexokinase
C) Pyruvate saturation within the cytoplasm
D) Phosphofructokinase activityis controlled by ATP, ATP is an inhibitor

A

Answer: D

A:Phosphoglucose isomerase is not an
allosteric enzyme, however
phosphofructokinase is
B: This is partly true; however not the best
answer since glucose-6-phosphate
concentrations are reliant on
phosphofructokinase activity
C: Pyruvate saturation does not inhibit
glycolysis (anaerobic respiration, conversion
to lactate or enter into mitochondria)
D: Phosphofructokinase is an allosteric
enzyme, therefore ATP concentrations that are
elevated express an inhibitory effect on the
enzyme → Reduction in activity.

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2
Q

Which enzyme can be used as a diagnostic tool for a myocardial infarction?
A) Hexokinase-IV
B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C) Lactate dehydrogenase
D) Creatine phosphatase
Explain Why?

A

Answer: C

Lactate dehydrogenase is present predominantly in heart, liver, kidneys, skeletal muscles, blood and lungs. Cell necrosis → LDH released into circulation, influencing LDH serum levels.

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3
Q

What are the 7 molecules that arise from degradation of all 20 AAs?

A

Pyruvate, Acetyl CoA, Acetoacetyl CoA, Oxaloacetate, alpha-ketoglutarate, Succinyl CoA, fumarate

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4
Q

What is incorrect regarding the glycerol-phosphate shuttle?
A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate→ Glycerol-3-phosphate
B) Reduced FAD transfers electrons to coenzyme Q
C) Inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to NADH & NAD+
D) Mitochondrial glycerol dehydrogenase uses FAD

A

Answer: B

A: Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) is
reduced to form glycerol-3-phosphate by
reduced cytosolic NADH
B: Reduced FAD directly transfers electron to
complex II within the ETC → Coenzyme Q
C: True
D: Mithoncrial glycerol dehydrogenase is a
transmembrane protein that used FAD as an
electron carrier; to shuttle electrons into the
electron transport chain.

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5
Q

What type of inhibitor does orlistat behave?

A

Potent inhibitor of gastric and pancreatic lipases, behaving as competitive inhibitor

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6
Q

Why can’t acetyl CoA be used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis?

A

This is because it cannot be recovered back into pyruvate effectively

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7
Q

Why is hexokinase IV effective?

A

Hexokinase IV found in the liver is less sensitive to blood glucose concentrations, therefore less susceptible to the inhibitory effect of glucose-6-phosphate

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8
Q

Which substrate is most suitable for
the brain during prolonged fasting?
A) Glucose
B) Ketone bodies
C) Fatty acids
D) Amino acids

A

Answer: A

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9
Q

Which does not increase erythropoiesis?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Increased serum iron inhereditary haemochromatosis
C) Renal cell carcinoma
D) Polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

Answer: B
A: Chronic bronchitis is associated with
anoxia due to reduced oxygenation of the
blood, this results in hypoxic conditions →
Increased hypoxia inducible factor
B: Hereditary haemochromatosis causes a
reduction in hepcidin therefore increased iron
enterocyte absorption through ferroportin into
circulation → This causes increased iron
levels; ion overload and damage kidneys
reducing epo synthesis
C: Increases epo synthesis and secretion
influencing the rate of erythropoiesis
D: Increased testosterone stimulates the
release of erythropoietin, PCOS is associated
with elevated testosterone levels.

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10
Q

How are excess iron levels regulated?

A

Increased ferritin iron sequestration

Increased iron levels suppress ferroportin integration into enterocyte basolateral membrane, therefore increasing sequestration of iron as storage as ferritin → shed across
epithelium into lumen

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11
Q

Why does inflammation cause anaemia?

A

Inflammation causes hepcidin production this led to a decreased ferroportin expression in enterocytes and thus decreases iron entry into plasma.

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12
Q

Which molecules’ internal shape is
independent of the external
environment?
A) Glucose
B) NaCl
C) Insulin ligand receptor
D) Phosphoglucose isomerase

A

Answer:A
Glucose consists of covalent bonding,
therefore its configuration does not dissociate
into ions.
B: Sodium chloride is an ionic compound
dissociating into ions when in solution
C: Insulin receptor ligand gated hence changes
domain of tyrosine kinases and undergoes
conformational change
D: Enzyme undergoes conformational change
upon substrate binding at active site; also can
be denatured depending on temperature & pH
of external environments
Receptors and enzymes are proteins →
Denatured

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13
Q

Which is the correct function of
FOXP3?
A) Exclusively found in Treg
cells
B) Promotes cellular division
C) Exerts local suppressor
effects during immune
response
D) Synthesized only in the
thymus
E) Found in Th3, Tr1, Treg cells

A

Answer: E

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14
Q

Which is not a cause of pernicious
anaemia?
A) Achlorhydria
B) Veganism
C) Autoimmune disorder on
gastric chief cells
D) Atrophic gastritis

A

Answer: C
Pernicious anaemia concerns a B12
deficiency
A: Achlorhydria refers to insufficient
secretion of hydrochloric acid from parietal
cells → Inability to liberate B12, to bind onto
intrinsic factor.
B:Vegan leads to an inadequate intake of
sources containing the compound
C: Gastric cells do not secrete intrinsic factor
of HCl, parietal cells do
D: Atrophy of parietal cells causes a reduction
in intrinsic factor secretion, reduced B12-IF
complex formation reduces serum
transportation to enterocyte.

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15
Q

How are erythrocytes recycled?

A

Splenic reticuloendothelial macrophages hydrolyse erythrocytes within the spleen

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16
Q

Which one provides a more reliable count: polychromasia or reticulocyte count?

A

Reticulocyte count is less subjective and more reliable

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17
Q

What is used to stain reticulocyte and why are they a suitable choice?

A

Methylene blue
Reticulocytes in general young cells have a higher RNA content so hence it binds to methylene blue causing a blue tinge on the cytoplasm

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18
Q

Target cells, elliptocytes and spherocytes are examples of what?
A) Anisocytosis
B) Poikilocytosis
C) Spherocytosis
D) Microcytosis

A

Answer: B
Poikilocytosis: Erythrocytes illustrate more variation in shape than is normal. Poikilocytes can exist as spherocytes, irregularly contracted cells, sickle cells, target
cells, elliptocytes, and as fragments.

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19
Q

Why do white cells stain blue?
A) Application of H&E stain
B) Application of Giemsa stain
C) Application of Ziehl-Neelson
stain
D) Application of Leischman’s
stain

A

Answer: D
A: Used to stain basophilic structures with
purplish blue colour
B: Giemsa stains binds to chromosomes and is
responsible for lighter and darker regions
C: Binds to acid fast bacteria (TB)
D: Red cells look red, white cells look blue

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20
Q

What are the four main fluid compartments are there in your body? (In order from highest to lowest and include the percentages).

A

Intracellular fluid (55%)
Interstitial fluid (36%)
Blood plasma (7% )
Transmembrane fluid (2%)

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21
Q

Where does lipogenesis and beta-oxidation occur respectively?

A

Lipogenesis - Cytoplasm
Beta-Oxidation - Mitochondrial matrix

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22
Q

How does increased iron in hereditary haemochromatosis led to a reduce in erythropoiesis?

A

Hereditary haemochromatosis causes a reduction in hepcidin therefore increased iron enterocyte absorption through ferroportin into circulation → This causes increased iron levels; ion overload and damage kidneys reducing erythropoietin synthesis

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23
Q

What is the definition in terms of tumour of:
a) differentiation
b) growth pattern

A

a) Differentiation refers to how much of the cells of the tumour resemble of the cells of the tissue it derived from.

b) Growth pattern refers to how much the architecture of the tumour resemble the architecture of the tissues it derived from

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24
Q

Where do erythropoietin synthesis occur?

A

Kidney

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25
Q

How does symptoms of scurvy develop due to vitamin C deficiency?

A

Vitamin C is a co-factor for the enzymes Prolyl hydroxylase and Lysyl Hydroxylase.

These enzymes hydroxylate the proline and lysine residues of collagens for cross-linking which is needed for stability.

Thus deficiency of Vitamin C would eventually led to an impaired hydroxylation between collagens thus leading to symptoms of scurvy

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26
Q

A patient is suspected to be
experiencing a Hypersensitivity
reaction. If the reaction is Type III,
which of the following would NOT
be seen?
A. Elevated IgG antibodies
B. Inflammation of joints
C. Lowered Haptoglobin levels
D. Neutrophilia

A

Answer: C
Type III Hypersensitivity is characterized by
failure to clear immune complexes made of
IgG and/or IgM antibodies.
This failure to clear can cause deposition of
the immune complexes in various tissues such
as the joints, which leads to inflammation via
complement activation.
Neutrophils are therefore rapidly recruited to
the area of inflammation via chemotaxis.
Haptoglobin is an alpha-2 globulin found in
plasma. It forms complexes with haemoglobin
which can be used to diagnose a haemeolytic
anaemia, a probable result of a type II
hypersensitivity reaction where RBCs are
destroyed faster than they are produced.

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27
Q

What is the therapeutic use of haptoglobin in plasma?

A

Haptoglobin is an alpha-2 globulin found in
plasma. It forms complexes with haemoglobin
which can be used to diagnose a haemeolytic
anaemia

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28
Q

What is the difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity in terms of the location of tissue damage in relation of the location of immune complexes?

A

Type II hypersensitivity - Damage where immune complexes are formed (tissue specific)

Type III hypersensitivity - Damage where immune complexes are deposited (not tissue specific)

29
Q

What is the mechanism of wafarin?

A

mechanism of warfarin → interferes with the carboxylation of glutamic acid residues and thereby interrupting the function of factors II, VII, IX, and X

30
Q

What is the name of the ligand present in the endothelial surface that is involved in tight adhesion step of neutrophil extravasation?

A

ICAM1

31
Q

What molecule mediates cytoskeletal arrangement and extension of pseudopodia in the transmigration step on neutrophil extravasation?

A

PECAM

32
Q

Which of these immune evasionmechanism proteins is involved in preventing C3 and C5 convertase
formation?
A= SpA
B= SKIN
C= SCIN
D= CHIPs

A

C

33
Q

How does SpA help S. Aureus to evade immune response?

A

SpA binds to Fab region of antibody therfore preventing normal opsonisation

34
Q

Which of these isn’t a soluble
effector mechanism in humoral
immunity?
A= Iron chelation to prevent
replication
B= Antibiotic-like peptides
C= Lectin-binding to neutralise cell
attachment
D= Digestion with phagosomes

A

Answer: D
D is a cellular effector mechanism in humoral
immunity NOT a soluble effector

35
Q

How is natural anti-coagulation
performed?
A) Thrombin binds to
thrombomodulin, activating
protein S
B) Thrombin and factor IXa are
inactivated by antithrombin
C) t-PA binds to glycine residues
D) Plasmin stimulates further
plasmin generation

A

Answer: D
A: Thrombin binds to thrombomodulin
activating Protein C, in the presence of
cofactor protein S
B: Thrombin and factor Xa are inactivated by
antithrombin
C: Tissue plasminogen activator binds to
lysine residues
D:Correct, plasmin further stimulates plasmin
generation by producing more active forms of
both tissue plasminogen activator and
urokinase

36
Q

Does plasmin stimulates further plasmin generation? Explain your choice

A

Plasmin further stimulates plasmin generation by producing more active forms of both tissue plasminogen activator and urokinase

37
Q

Which drug is a synthetic derivative of lysine?
A) Tranexamic acid
B) Urokinase
C) Recombinant t-PA
D) DOACs

A

A

38
Q

How is tranexamic acid able to cease fibrinolysis?

A

Tranexamic acid is a synthetic derivative of lysine, works by binding to plasminogen thereby behaves as a competitive inhibitor by preventing plasmingeon from binding to lysine residues of fibrin → Fibrinolysis is ceased

39
Q

How does lovastatin treat familial hypercholesterolaemia?

A

Inhibition of de novo cholesterol synthesis by the liver. Lovastatin works by being a competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA-reductase.

40
Q

What are adherens junctions composed of? What is their main role?

A

Composed of cadherins
Cell to cell junction

41
Q

How is HPV infection a mechanism of epithelial proliferation?

A

HPV infections controls cellular machinery of stratified squamous epithelia and inducing increased cell proliferation.

42
Q

Which collagen molecule is non-fibrillar?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

A

Answer: D
Types 1-3 are fibrillar
Type 4 is non-fibrillar and forms the basement membrane

43
Q

What is a formation of corns an example of?

A

Corns (or calluses) is an example of hyperproliferation, cells accumulate into thick hard layers due to frequent abrasion and pressure

44
Q

Which of the following is not a multi-adhesive glycoprotein?
A) Decorin
B) Fibronectin
C) Laminin
D) Fibrogen

A

A - Decorin is a proteoglycan

45
Q

What kind of proteoglycans are decorin, syndecans 1-4, aggrecan and perlecan?

A

Decorin = Small leucine-rich proteoglycans

Syndecans 1-4 = Cell surface proteoglycans

Aggrecan = aggregating proteoglycans (interact w/hyaluronan)

Perlecan = BM proteoglycans

46
Q

Which of the following plasma
proteins is most positively charged?
A) Gamma globulins
B) Albumin
C) Alpha-1 globulins
D) Alpha-2 globulins

A

A - Gamma globulins

Order of plasma proteins from the least positively charged to the most positively charged : Albumin, Alpha1, Alpha2, Beta,. Gamma globulins

47
Q

Which cell regulates immediate-type
hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Th2 cells
B) Th1 cells
C) Neutrophils
D) Eosinophils

A

D - eosinophils

48
Q

Which cell is associated with killing tumour cells and virus-infected cells?
A) CD8 cytotoxic T killer cells
B) CD4+ Cells
C) NK cells
D) Neutrophils

A

Answer: C
A: Cytotoxic CD8 T cells are mainly for the
specific immune system, secrete perforins and
granzymes to form pores within cell surface
membrane, however they are not the main cell
to target virus infected cells.
B: CD4+ cells are not capable to exhibit
cytotoxic effects effectively
C: NK cells are similar to CD8 cells, secreted
perforins and granzymes, and play a more
significant role in virus-infected cells ;
secreting IFN-Y which activates macrophages.
D: False

49
Q

What condition is asssociates with hypersegmentation of neutrophils and what other condition causes non-segmented (left shift) neutrophils?

A

Neutrophillia - Hypersegmented neutrophils
Neutropenia - Non-segmented neutrophils

50
Q

What type of condition is Epstein-Barr infection?

A

Infectious mononucleosis which is a type of lymphocytosis.

51
Q

What are the three features you can see in blood film of those infected with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)?

A

Intensely basophilic cytoplasm (purplish patina)
Scalloped margins and hugging of nearby RBCs
Large irregular nuclei

52
Q

What are the two things that increases hepcidin production?

A

Increased iron intake
Pro-inflammatory cytokines

53
Q

Why does increased iron intake will result in increased hepcidin production?

A

In order to down-regulate the translation and expression of ferroportin within enterocytes -> reducing iron uptake

54
Q

Patient V liked to Wear his favourite
shirt everyday, he found out he is
allergic to Cotton and has redness on
his chest. What are plausible
effect/causes
A Type 4 Hypersensitivity
B Wheal and flare Reaction
D He was scratching his chest
D The shirt was rubbing against his
chest a lot

A

Answer:A
Contact dermatitis of the shirt on his chest.
Whilst scratching excessively may lead to
redness around his chest this is unlikely the
sole cause. The shirt rubbing against a chest
will lead to more contact rather than the action
of friction causing the redness. Wheal and
Flare reactions are type 1 and are the reason
for this example.. This is a type 4 reaction on
skin.

55
Q

Which cardiac MI after 7 days is the best?

A

LDH

56
Q

Which category of Acyl CoA
dehydrogenases does not exist?
A) Very Short Chain
B) Short Chain
C) Long Chain
D) Very Long Chain

A

A

57
Q

What are the four causes of target cells production?

A

Obstructive jaundice
Liver disease
Heamoglobinopathies e.g. sickle cell and thalessaemia
Hyposplenism - Spleen removed/doesn’t work

58
Q

What are the 5 things that affect different cells to divide at different rates?

A
  • Embryonic vs adult
  • necessity for renewal
  • complexity of system
  • state of differentiation
  • tumour
59
Q

Cellular adaptation observed due to
compensatory mechanism in one
kidney upon donation of the other.
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia

A

A

60
Q

Example of injury that leads to scar formation as part of repair
A) Superficial skin wound
B) Myocardial Infarction
C) Partial hepatectomy
D) Cancer

A

Answer: B

It is not A because the epidermis comprises several layers of cells, which are naturally very good at regenerating. As such, superficial injuries such as scrapes tend not to scar. Underneath the epidermis is the dermis, or the deeper layer of the skin.

61
Q

Which statement is correct regarding
centrosomes?
A) Centrioles are made from a
globular protein, actin
B) Centrioles occur in triplets at
right angles to each other
C) Microtubules elongate from
mother centriole within
centrosome
D) Centrosome forms
microtubule packaging
centre

A

Answer: C
A: Centrioles are made from tubulin
B: Occurs in pairs (mother and daughter) at
right angles
C: Correct
D: Microtubule organising centre is formed

62
Q

Which statement is false regarding
the quiescent phase?
A) Cells enter phase during an
absence of stimulus
B) Cells are dormant and non-
dividing
C) Most differentiated cells are
in this phase
D) Exist from G0 requires
growth factors and
intracellular signalling
cascades

A

Answer: B
Cells are not dormant, but are non-dividing

63
Q

A 19 year old fresher comes in after
sports night to the hepatology ward;
a biopsy of hepatocytes were
sampled. Which result is most
likely?
A) Alcoholic fatty change due to
increased beta oxidation
B) Hepatic steatosis
C) Ballooning degeneration,
hepatocytes decrease in size
D) Irreversible fatty change

A

Answer: B

A: Beta-oxidation is inhibited, there is an
accumulation of fat within the liver. Induction
of lipogenesis due to ethanol activation of
sterol regulatory element binding protein I.
B: Fatty liver begins as hepatic steatosis
C: Ballooning degeneration is associated with
increasing hepatocyte size
D: Fatty change is reversible

64
Q

What does an increase in gamma globulin fraction indicates?

A

Increase in Gamma globulin fraction indicates infection and inflammation

65
Q

Which sugar is encoded by the B-
gene?

A) Fucose stem (H-antigen)
B) N-acetyl galactosamine
C) Galactose
D) H-antigen only

A

Answer: C

A: The fucose stem is the common
glycoprotein for both the A & B genes
B: This is encoded by the A gene
C: This is encoded by the B gene

66
Q

Which chemokine is a neutrophil
attractant?
A) CXCL7
B) CXCL8
C) IL-1
D) ICAM-1

A

Answer: B
B: CXCL8 (IL-8) is secreted by macrophages,
are a chemotactic attractant for neutrophils;
stimulates neutrophil migration to the site of
infection; associated with G-coupled 7-
transmembrane proteins (CXCR1/2)
C: IL-1 form a chemotactic signal, released by
macrophages, activates T-cells.
D: ICAM-1 is a ligand on the endothelial
surface aiding with neutrophil migration

67
Q

A 21-year old female was bitten a
second time by a venomous snake, a
week soon after; she notices
increased swelling, inflammation,
fever and a rash. What mechanism is
happening?
A) IgM/IgG mediated cytotoxic
response against snake
venom
B) Antibody-snake venom
immune complexes forming
C) Delayed type T cell mediated
hypersensitivity
D) Antibodies reacting against
anti-venom antibodies

A

Answer: D
This is an example of serum sickness, a type
III hypersensitivity.
A: Type I response, incorrect
B: Partially correct however , the symptoms
best associate with serum sickness
C: This is a type IV response, therefore
incorrect
D: Correct; the patient was given anti-serum
for the initial venomous bite (Antibodies
specific to snake venom proteins). Foreign
proteins neutralise venom, however the body
will react against them to produce antibodies
that recognise the antivenom antibodies. Onset
takes several weeks. Re-exposure to snake
venom and anti-serum will result in rapid
synthesis and activation of antibodies,
resulting in inflammation

68
Q

4) For use in the TaqMan method of quantitative Real Time PCR (qPCR) which desirable
properties should probes and primers have?
A) The gene-specific probe and reverse primer should be able to bind to each other
B) The gene-specific probe and reverse primer should be at least 50 nucleotides in length
C) The gene-specific probe and reverse primer should bind to the same template strand of DNA
D) The gene-specific probe and reverse primer should have a complementary sequence to each
other
E) The gene-specific probe should be labelled with a fluorophore and quencher.

A

E