Pollution Flashcards

1
Q

What are 3 properties of pollutants

A

Toxicity
Persistence
Solubility in water

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2
Q

What is mutagenic action and its two effects?

A

Mutagenic action cause changes in the chemical structure of DNA - ( mutations)

  • Gonadic effect ( cells in ovaries and testes )
  • Somatic effect ( general body cells )
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3
Q

What is the difference between carcinogenic action and teratogenic action?

A

Carcinogenic action - Carcinogens are mutagens that cause cancer.

Teratogenic action - cause birth abnormalities by preventing normal gene expression.

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4
Q

What is the term bioaccumulation mean?

A
  • process by which the amount of a substance within an organism increases.
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5
Q

What does the term biomagnification mean?

A

Substances become more concentrated as they pass along a food chain.
- Organisms in the later trophic levels are more at risk.

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6
Q

What are the 5 factors that affect degradation?

A
  • temperature ( rapid breakdown )
  • light levels ( activation energy for chemical reactions )
  • oxygen ( aerobic bacterial decomposition of sewage )
  • pH ( solubility )
  • pollutant interactions
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7
Q

What are the two factors that affect dispersal

A
  • wind and water currants - this can also affect dilution.
  • temperature inversions ( warm pollutant gases are more buoyant than the cooler surrounding air causing them to rise and disperse )

However if effluent becomes colder than air it cannot rise.

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8
Q

What can temperature inversions cause?

A

smoke smogs and photochemical smogs

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9
Q

What is the purpose of the Critical Path Analysis?

A
  • involves identifying
    the most likely route a material will take, based on its properties and features of the environment,
  • asses severity and location of the pollution that may occur.
  • monitor harmful discharges like radioactive materials, heavy metals and
    persistent organic pollutants
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10
Q

What are three factors taken into consideration when conducting critical path analysis ( think abiotic factors)

A
  • wind and water current velocity and direction
  • geology and hydrology
  • food chain pathways.
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11
Q

What factors of environmental sampling can be used to identify the pathway? (4)

A
  • atmospheric dust
  • soil
  • water
  • seaweeds, molluscs, fish
  • milk, vegetables, meat.
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12
Q

What is critical group monitoring?

A
  • to identify
    members of the public most at risk
  • monitoring the health risks caused by
    pollutants such as radioactive discharges and heavy
    metals.
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13
Q

What factors would be considered in identifying the critical group?

A
  • where individuals live in relation to the source
  • time spent outside, for example farmers
  • sources of food, for example local food i.e seafood, milk, seafood
  • sources of water i.e local well
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14
Q

What is it meant by emission location?

A

Increased concentrations in valleys, enclosed water
bodies.

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15
Q

what is it meant by emission timing?

A

Restriction of activities during temperature inversions.

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16
Q

What are the 4 strategies to control pollutants based on their properties and
features of the environment

A
  • Critical path Analysis
  • Critical group monitoring
  • Emission Timing
  • Emission location
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17
Q

What is the main source of hot water that causes thermal pollution?

A
  • Hot water from steam turbine power station
    condensers.
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18
Q

What are the effects of thermal pollution

A
  • Deoxygenation of water.
  • Aquatic organisms killed by the high temperatures due to the denature of enzymes.
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19
Q

What is the control of thermal pollution

A
  • cooling towers are used to cool power station effluent water so that it does not cause deoxygenation
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20
Q

what are the 4 properties of organochlorines?

A
  • high toxicity to insects
  • low toxicity to invertebrates so farm workers unlikely to suffer acute effects
  • high persistence
  • high liposolubility
  • low solubility so not easily washed off from fields
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21
Q

What is are 2 examples of an organochlorine?

A
  • DDT
  • Lindane
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22
Q

What properties do organophosphate persticides have?

A
  • low persistence
  • low liposolubility reducing biomagnification
  • ## high mammalian toxicity so risk to farmer of acute exposure
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23
Q

What is the effect of organophosphates?

A
  • neurotoxins that inactivate the enzyme acetylcholinerase so nerve function is damaged.
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24
Q

What are is an example of organophosphates?

A

Ethion

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25
Q

What are 2 effects of pesticides in general?

A
  • direct toxic impacts to non target species
  • indirect effects like food chain impacts and interspecies relationships
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26
Q

What are pyrethroids?

A

-Synthetic insecticides

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27
Q

What are three properties of pyrethroids?

A
  • high insect toxicity and to fish but low mammal toxicity
  • not persistent so they do not bioaccumulate or biomagnify
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28
Q

what are three methods of reducing pesticide pollution?

A
  • Use of systematic pesticides
  • Application timing
  • use of non persistent pesticides i.e organophosphates
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29
Q

What are the effects of noise on non living objects?

A
  • acoustic fatigue (stress cracking and structural failure)
  • vibration damage (repetitive vibration can cause structural damage to buildings)
  • shock impacts (a sudden very loud noise)
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30
Q

What are the 4 effects of noise on humans?

A
  • hearing damage
  • stress related health problems i.e ulcers and high blood pressure
  • communication issues
  • behavioural changes i.e lack of concentration.
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31
Q

What are the 4 effects of noise on other organisms?

A

livestock injuries
* disturbance of breeding birds
* reduced feeding success: bats, owls, dolphins
* hearing damage/behavioural
changes: cetaceans (whales)

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32
Q

What the sources of noise from aircraft?

A
  • air turbulence
  • engine noise, especially at high thrust.
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33
Q

What are three factors that can be controlled to reduce noise pollution in terms of airport design and location?

A
  • location away from major population centres
  • taxi areas away from residential areas
  • provision of acoustic insulation ( double glazing windows)
  • land-use restrictions ( allow industry not housing )
  • baffle mounds/acoustic insulation.
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34
Q

How can the aircraft design be altered to reduce noise pollution?

A
  • aerodynamic surfaces i.e fairings covering wing flap hinges.
  • high by pass ratio engines ( smoothing the flow of the exhaust air )
  • chevron nozzles used on top of hy bypass engines.
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35
Q

what are 3 examples in which airport operation can change to reduce noise pollution?

A
  • night flight restrictions
  • noisy aircraft banned
  • fines for excessive noise
  • constant descent angle ( no periods of high thrust
  • flight path planning (avoiding residential areas)
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36
Q

What is the Quota count system?

A
  • aircraft types are allocated points depending on their noise level
  • each airline is allocated a certain number of points.
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37
Q

What are the 5 sources of noise by railway?

A
  • wheel vibration
  • engine noise
  • pantograph turbulence
  • wheel squeal on corners
  • braking squeal
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38
Q

What are the 5 controls of noise pollution by railway?

A
  • Wheel vibration – track polishing, sound
    absorbing ballast.
  • Engine noise – sound
    absorbing suspension.
  • Pantograph turbulence – aerodynamic fairing.
  • Wheel squeal on corners – lubrication of wheels/track.
  • Braking squeal – use of composite material
    brakes i.e steel fibres.
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39
Q

What are three sources of noise pollution by road traffic?

A
  • Wheel vibration/tyre noise
  • Engine noise
  • Air turbulence
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40
Q

What are three controls of noise pollution by road traffic?

A
  • wheel noise - sound absorbing road surfaces like asphalt.
  • Engine noise - acoustic insulation around the engine; quieter exhaust pipes.
  • Improve vehicle aerodynamics i.e paint.
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41
Q

What are 4 sources of noise pollution from industry?

A
  • Air compressors.
  • Pile drivers, stamping machines.
  • Drills.
  • Mine blasting, military sonar.
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42
Q

What are 5 controls of noise pollution by industry?

A
  • Worker ear protection/remote operation.
  • Acoustic insulation/mats/baffle mounds.
  • Restrictions on timing of operations.
  • Alternative procedures, eg pressing instead of
    stamping.
  • Drilling instead of pile-driving.
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43
Q

What are 6 uses of ionizing radiation.

A
  • Nuclear weapons ( fission and fusion )
  • Nuclear electricity.
  • Ship propulsion
  • Manufacturing industry
    (thickness of paper)
  • Healthcare ( X rays )
  • Agriculture (pest control)
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44
Q

Why do ships use nuclear fuel?

A
  • high energy density
  • therefore reactors rarely need to be filled up
  • useful for submarines
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45
Q

what is it meant by half life?

A
  • the time it takes for half of the unstable nuclei in a sample to decay or for the activity of the sample to halve
  • longer half life (dangerouse long term)
  • shorter half ( dangerous short term)
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46
Q

What are the 3 types of radiation and which poses the most dangerous?

A
  • Beta
  • Alpha (dangerous if ingested as can’t penetrate out)
  • Gamma ( only dangerous if continuously exposed)
47
Q

What does RBE stand for?

A
  • A measure of the biological damage caused by a
    particular type of ionising radiation
    Depends on the distance over which the energy is
    absorbed
    -Gamma radiation has the lowest RBE of 1
    -Internal alpha sources have the highest RBE of 20
  • absorbed over short distances
  • produce higher concentrations of free radicals
  • more damage than beta or gamma radiation
48
Q

What is the difference between exposure and contamination

A
  • Exposure involves the absorption of ionising radiation
  • Contamination refers to physically carrying radioactive materials which when they release may cause exposure
49
Q

What are activation products?

A
  • used in structures of nuclear reactors
  • exposure to neutrons can cause a previously stable nuclei to become radioactive.
50
Q

What does the Becquerel, Gray, and Sievert measure?

A
  • Becquerel - the activity of the source
  • Gray - measure of absorbed dose
  • Sievert - measure of effective dose that allows for the differing effects of the different types of radiation.
51
Q

What are 3 sources of radiation exposure?

A
  • cosmic radiation (altitude)
  • medical exposure (X ray)
  • occupational exposure ( flight crew, radiographers, miners)
52
Q

What is the difference between somatic effects and gonadic?

A
  • Gonadic effects - damage to cells in ovaries or testes
  • Somatic effects - damage to general body cells and organs
53
Q

What is the chronic effects vs acute effects?

A
  • chronic effects appear slowly.
  • acute effects appear quickly
54
Q

What does ionizing radiation cause to the DNA?

A
  • Mutation - this can lead to cancer
55
Q

What do free radical production lead to?

A
  • the unstable molecules build up in cells causing damage to other molecules i.e protein
56
Q

What are the 3 principles of control?

A
    • Exposure should be: As Low As Reasonably
      Achievable (ALARA).
  • Equipment should be: Best Available
    Technology Not Entailing Excessive Cost
    (BATNEEC).
  • The use of Risk:Benefit analysis.
57
Q

What is the risk benefit analysis?

A
  • the analysis to identify the risks of engaging in the activity compared to the benefits.
  • can the risks be reduced?
58
Q

What are three problems with creating a risk,benefit analysis for ionising radiation?

A
  • symptoms may take a long time to develop ( chronic )
  • alternative causes of the symptoms
  • accurate data on the impacts on humans is often not available
59
Q

5 methods of control of ionizing radiation

A
  • Closed sources to prevent contamination.
  • Radiation absorbers
  • Distance from source: the inverse square law.
  • Reduced period of exposure.
  • Worker monitoring at work/on leaving work.
60
Q

What is are examples of a radiation absorber material?

A

-Single-walled carbon nanotubes
-Lead absorbs radiation.

61
Q

What is an example of a closed source?

A

Nuclear fuel is enclosed in sealed metal tubes. This
prevents the release of gaseous fission products.

62
Q

Whats the storage mechanism for high level waste i.e uranium fuel rods?

A
  • vitrification
  • dried powdered solid waste with molten glass - allowed to solidfy in stainless steel containers
63
Q

What is the storage mechanism for intermediate waste?

A
  • ## mix with cement and stored in stainless steel drums.
64
Q

What is the storage mechanism for low level waste - solid?

A
  • solid ( sealed in thick polyethene bags, inside steel drums.
65
Q

What is the storage mechanism for low level waste - liquid?

A

filtered, including ion exchange, then discharged

66
Q

What is the storage mechanism for low level waste - gas?

A
  • filtered and then released
67
Q

What are sources of organic pollutants?

A

Organic wastes:
- sewage
- manure
- silage fluids
-effluent from processing of wood and paper

68
Q

What are the effects of organic nutrient pollution?

A
  • Deoxygenation caused by microbial aerobic
    decomposition
69
Q

What are the 5 main stages in treatment of organic wastes?

A
  • pre-treatment
  • primary treatment
  • secondary treatment
  • tertiary treatment
  • anaerobic sludge digestion.
70
Q

What is the role of pre treatment and what does it consist of?

A
  • the removal of solid objects such as paper, plastic, road grit.
  • consists of screens (metal grills) and grit traps
71
Q

What is the role of primary treatment?

A
  • the separation of most organic solids from fluids
72
Q

What does primary treatment consist of?

A
  • primary sedimentation
  • this is where effluent is left to stand
  • faecal solids sink to the bottom so they can be removed
73
Q

What is sludge treatment after primary treatment?

A
  • the sludge removed from primary treatment is put in an anaerobic digestor
  • kills remaining pathogens
74
Q

What are two uses of sludge?

A
  • agricultural fertiliser
  • biogas
75
Q

What is the role of secondary treatment?

A
  • the digestion and breakdown of remaining organic matter in the fluids
76
Q

What does secondary treatment consist of?

A
  • aeration tanks enabling aerobic bacterial decomposition.
  • secondary sedimentation tanks - return the suspended bacteria back to aeration tanks
77
Q

What is the final product from secondary treatment?

A
  • clear effluent which is discharged into the river
  • it could cause eutrophication due to potential inorganic nutrients
78
Q

what is the role of the tertiary treatment?

A
  • additional treatment to remove phosphates or bacteria
79
Q

what does tertiary treatment consist of?

A
  • phosphate removal ( by adding a solution of iron sulfate producing insoluble iron phosphate.
  • bacterial microfilters (remaining bacteria killed by UV light or addition of chlorine)
80
Q

what are two examples of inorganic nutrients?

A
  • phosphate and nitrate
81
Q

How can these inorganic nutrients cause pollution?

A
  • nitrate = leachate or runoff
  • phosphate = sewage effluent
82
Q

what is the effect of inorganic pollution?

A
  • eutrophication
83
Q

what are the effects of nitrates on human health?

A
  • blue baby syndrome
  • Possible human carcinogen.
84
Q

what are control mechanisms for phosphates?

A
  • use of phosphate free detergents
  • sewage tertiary treatment- phosphate removal ( adding iron sulfate - insoluble iron phosphate - fertiliser
  • timing when applying phosphate rich fertiliser = iron phosphate precipitation.
85
Q

what are the control mechanisms for nitrate?

A
  • nitrate vulnerability zones
  • ## use of low solubility fertilisers
86
Q

What are 3 examples of sources of oil pollution?

A
  • waste engine lubricating oil
  • oil pipeline leaks
  • ship accidents especially oil tankers
87
Q

what are 3 effects of oil pollution?

A
  • toxicity to organisms in particular aquatic species
  • less time to feed young ( too busy cleaning the oil off)
  • loss of insulation ( cause birds feathers to stick together)
88
Q

what are 3 controls of oil pollution?

A
  • Reduced leakage: equipment maintenance.
  • recycling of waste lubrication oil
  • bund wall (an embankment or wall of brick, stone, concrete)
89
Q

what are 3 treatments of oil pollution?

A
  • dispersants ( break up the oil to produce an emulsion )
  • polymerising agents ( cause oil molecules to join together )
  • booms (inflatable tubes that restrict movement of floating oil)
90
Q

What are 3 ways an oil tanker can improve its operation to prevent oils spills?

A
  • better shipping routes
  • better navigation systems i.e GPS
  • inert gas systems ( prevent explosions occurring when unloading oil)
91
Q

What are 3 ways an oil tanker can improve its design to minimise risk of oil spills?

A
  • double hull ( damage to outer hull prevents damage to the hull containing the oil)
  • twin engine (if one breaks down)
  • separate oil and ballast tanks)
92
Q

what are three sources of solid wastes?

A
  • mining wastes i.e overburden heap
  • domestic waste i.e domestic appliances and equipment
  • packaging
93
Q

what are properties of solid wastes?

A
  • toxicity
  • release of radioactivity
  • flammability
  • conditions that affect degrability
94
Q

How has affluence had a significant effect on solid waste?

A
  • throw items away rather than fix them
  • purchase more disposable items
  • built in oblescence
95
Q

what are factors that affect waste disposal methods?

A
  • waste properties (how well it can degrade)
  • land availability (land shortage for landfill)
  • infrastructure for recycling
96
Q

what are the 4 treatment options for solid wastes?

A
  • landfill
  • incineration
  • recycling
  • composting
97
Q

what are the advantages of landfill?

A
  • low cost
  • less labour intensive
  • low transport cost as bulk
98
Q

what are 3 disadvantages of landfill sites?

A
  • loss of material use
  • pollution for landfill site including leaching into ground
  • land use require deforestation
99
Q

what are 3 features of a good landfill management site?

A
  • methane collection - energy source for local area
  • fences to stop litter
  • leachate collection and treatment - prevent percolating into aquifers
100
Q

what are 3 management of spoil heaps?

A
  • landscaping - increase aesthetics
  • collect toxic leachate and treat
  • slope control of the spoil heap to prevent landslides
101
Q

what is it meant by incineration and what is it used for?

A
  • a waste treatment process that involves the combustion of substances.
  • used for flammable waste materials like paper, card
102
Q

what are the advantages of incineration?

A
  • volume of waste is reduced
  • less land area needed compared to landfill
  • heat produced can be harnessed - district heating.
103
Q

what are the disadvantages of incineration?

A
  • resource value of the material is lost.
  • atmosphere pollution risk
  • dioxins may be released if temp below 100 degrees
104
Q

what are advantages of recycling?

A
  • saves finite resources like aluminum
  • diverts waste away from landfill
  • saves energy
105
Q

what are the disadvantages of recycling?

A
  • requires public cooperation
  • labour intensive
  • separation of i.e alloy metals
106
Q

how can asbestos be treated?

A
  • double wrapped in heavy duty polyethene bags
  • in a specialised landfill site
107
Q

how can cyanide wastes be treated?

A
  • incineration
108
Q

how can radioactive wastes be treated?

A
  • vitrification - process of changing into glass
109
Q

How can heavy metals be treated?

A
  • mix with alkaline - becomes insoluble
110
Q

what are the properties of lead?

A
  • Neurotoxicity.
  • Liposolubility.
  • Bioaccumulation.
  • Biomagnification.
111
Q

what are the controls of lead pollution?

A
  • Discontinued uses, eg paint, petrol additives,
    lead pipes, solder for water pipes, lead fishing
    weights.
  • Waste storage at high pH to reduce solubility.
112
Q

What are the properties of Mercury?

A
  • Neurotoxicity.
  • Liposolubility.
  • Bioaccumulation.
  • Biomagnification