Policies Flashcards
UOF: Levels of subjects resistance are:
Compliant
Obstructive
Assaultive
Life-Threatening
UOF: Levels of force or officers response:
Low level
Intermediate
Deadly force
UOF: Low Lethal shotgun is deadly force when:
Used at Less than seven yards
UOF: 40 mm specialty impact weapon is deadly force when:
Used at less than 5 yards
UOF: PIT is deadly force when:
Used at speeds more than 40 mph
Low Level force is used for what levels of resistance?
Compliant and Obstructive
Intermediate force is used for what levels of resistance ?
Assaultive
What is the main difference between obstructive and assaultive resistance?
Subjects intent to harm.
A form of identity referring to any gender identity that does not fall into the category of male or female or is not exclusively male or female. It has nothing to do with aspects of anatomy.
Non-binary
Every supervisor has the responsibility to prevent acts of harassment and/or discrimination, which includes:
Monitoring Refraining Counseling Stopping Reporting
Every member of this department has the responsibility to prevent acts of harassment and/or discrimination through:
Refraining
Reporting
Encouraging
All complaints of discrimination and harassment will be reviewed by:
The EDS director
The two types of discrimination are:
Adverse Impact
Disparate treatment
Even _______ incident if it is severe may constitute discrimination.
One
Complaints of harassment or discrimination over 300 days will be evaluated on:
A case by case basis
If a complainant is dissatisfied with an EDS investigation they can seek relief from:
NERC - Nevada Equal Rights Commission, EEOC or contact the EDS director.
Per MOVE, If the employee receiving the complaint is not the direct supervisor of the involved employee or IAB, the supervisor receiving the complaint will provide the complainant with:
The name of the involved employee’s bureau commander.
Per MOVE, IAB will be immediately notified on:
Major violations
Alcohol or drug abuse
Criminal acts
Per MOVE, IAB will classify a complaint within:
14 days of receipt
Per MOVE, adjudication of complaint process for PMSA members must be completed within how many days?
21
Per MOVE, for PPA and PPACE members, recommendations for discipline must be made within how many days?
15
Per MOVE, how many person panel is a Discipline Board?
3
Per MOVE, the Discipline Board decides discipline in cases where the recommendation from OLR is a:
Disciplinary transfer or higher, excluding termination
Per EIIP, first line supervisors will review their employees’ Blue Team dashboard how often?
On a monthly basis
Per EIIP, first line supervisors must respond to EIIP alerts within how many days?
14
Per EIIP, EIIP alerts will be completely coordinated through the employees chain of command and returned to EIIP vi Blue Team within how many days?
45
Per EIIP, EIIP alerts in blue team should be addressed and forwarded to a second line supervisor for review within how many days?
14
Between 1700-0800, media personnel are directed to contact who, regarding crimes in progress?
WC
The determination whether material will be released to the media is based upon what case law?
Donrey vs. Bradshaw
Information will not be disclosed to the media if it is either:
- Privileged by law
2. The interest in public disclosure is outweighed by privacy or law enforcement interests
Who at a disaster or crime scene is responsible for providing relevant, timely, and accurate information to the media?
The ranking department member
After a use of deadly force the officers names will be released within how many hours?
48
Media requests for information involving other agencies will be referred to:
Those agencies (even if LVMPD is lead investigator)
What is required for the media to access inmates in custody?
Written permission by the inmate
SARA stands for?
Scanning
Analysis
Response
Assessment
STAR stands for?
Supervisors tactic for armed subject response
Criteria for a STAR?
- Credible info subject is armed with dangerous weapon
2. Subject is acting in threatening manner
STAR Protocol requires how many officers respond?
1 supervisor
3 officers
If a STAR protocol incident resulted in a legitimate threat, the patrol supervisor will complete:
The information regarding a hazard on the property and the subject involved
An amnesty last chance agreement for self reporting will stay in an employees file consistent with:
Departments purge policy for a major suspension
If the employee is suspected of using alcohol and/or a prohibited drug, the bureau commander or designee will place the employee on:
Relief of duty
For Random Drug Testing, the sample collector will notify the squads supervisor no more than how many minutes prior to the test?
45 minutes
The random drug test sample
Collector will notify IAB when:
Employees request leave and do not report for duty after the notification of a random drug test
All commissioned personnel will be subject to alcohol and blood testing in instances of:
OIS’s or conduct that results in death or substantial bodily harm of another person
Commissioned supervisors will be subject to alcohol and drug testing immediately following a:
Traffic accident where the supervisor is at fault and driving a department vehicle that causes death or substantial bodily injury
For a positive result of a random drug test, who initiates the SOC?
Director of risk management
Following the initial notification of a positive drug test, the employee has how many hours to inform the MRO of a request to have the split sample tested by an independent lab?
72 hours
The 4th amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both:
Reasonable and
Legitimate
A non-investigative entry into a vehicle, structure, or curtilage to satisfy a legitimate community concern for life safety:
Community caretaking search
Occurs when there is probable cause that a person who is wanted for a serious felony is inside a home or other private place and is about to flee:
Fresh pursuit
A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” allowing entry into a structure when there is probable cause to believe a dangerous person has committed a serious felony. The suspect is fleeing from law enforcement and the officer has direct knowledge of the suspects location.
Hot pursuit
A reasonable suspicion stop allows an officer to ascertain a persons:
Identity and purpose
During an RS stop a person does not have to provide:
Government-issued ID.
To impound a firearm for safe keeping an officer needs to articulate:
Life safety
Or
To determine ownership
For officer and institutional safety, items that are transported to a detention facility as personal property will be thoroughly searched prior to entering a detention facility. This is called:
Personal property inventory search during arrest
The search of the arrestee must be conducted at the time of arrest or immediately thereafter.
Search incident to arrest of a person
The preferred method to collect evidence for a DUI is:
Voluntary breath sample
It is the policy of the department that subjects cannot consent to a:
Body cavity search
The section LT will use SWAT to serve a search warrant under the following circumstances:
- Forced entry required
- Unknown or violent criminal history
- Weapons may be encountered
Requests for keep the peace at an administrative search warrant service by an administrative agency must be approved by:
A LT and notification made to the WC
When a crime involves a dignitary or politician who will be notified?
Organized Crime Bureau, Criminal intelligence section LT
PD will be notified on property crimes as follows:
Burglaries of 50k
Grand Larceny over 75k
When a theft is over $250k of a retail product, who is notified?
RAPP task force
For incidents with multiple homicides, who will be notified?
Director of CSI
A non-investigative entry into a vehicle, structure, or curtilage to satisfy a legitimate community concern for life safety:
Community caretaking search
Occurs when there is probable cause that a person who is wanted for a serious felony is inside a home or other private place and is about to flee:
Fresh pursuit
A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” allowing entry into a structure when there is probable cause to believe a dangerous person has committed a serious felony. The suspect is fleeing from law enforcement and the officer has direct knowledge of the suspects location.
Hot pursuit
A reasonable suspicion stop allows an officer to ascertain a persons:
Identity and purpose
During an RS stop a person does not have to provide:
Government-issued ID.
To impound a firearm for safe keeping an officer needs to articulate:
Life safety
Or
To determine ownership
For officer and institutional safety, items that are transported to a detention facility as personal property will be thoroughly searched prior to entering a detention facility. This is called:
Personal property inventory search during arrest
The search of the arrestee must be conducted at the time of arrest or immediately thereafter.
Search incident to arrest of a person
The preferred method to collect evidence for a DUI is:
Voluntary breath sample
It is the policy of the department that subjects cannot consent to a:
Body cavity search
The section LT will use SWAT to serve a search warrant under the following circumstances:
- Forced entry required
- Unknown or violent criminal history
- Weapons may be encountered
Requests for keep the peace at an administrative search warrant service by an administrative agency must be approved by:
A LT and notification made to the WC
When a crime involves a dignitary or politician who will be notified?
Organized Crime Bureau, Criminal intelligence section LT
PD will be notified on property crimes as follows:
Burglaries of 50k
Grand Larceny over 75k
When a theft is over $250k of a retail product, who is notified?
RAPP task force
For incidents with multiple homicides, who will be notified?
Director of CSI
Code 3 has a maximum of how many mph over the speed limit (except pursuits)?
20 mph
Officers may respond code 3 under the following circumstances:
- Imminent danger to citizens and the officer’s arrival might save lives.
- Another officer requires assistance to control a volition situation.
- Reliable information exists of a felony in progress.
- Pursuits
What is the cornerstone for the departments pursuit philosophy?
The requirement for immediate supervisory authorization for a pursuit and ongoing supervisory control of a pursuit
Any officer who assumes the primary position at any point during a pursuit, at the conclusion, will:
Complete a separate pursuit report in Blue Team
During a pursuit, if an officer is involved in a traffic collision, they must stop unless:
- No unit is available to assume pursuit
- Damage to unit is minor
- There are no apparent injuries
Vehicular pursuits can only be conducted for:
- Violent felonies
2. Suspect presents a clear and immediate danger to public
Pursuit codes: Pursuit initiated and completed
PS
Pursuit codes: Pursuit initiated but canceled prior to completion:
PC
Pursuit codes: Potential pursuit situation observed but situation did not meet criteria:
PO
During a pursuit, which unit assumes responsibility for broadcasting progress of the pursuit?
The secondary unit
Vehicular pursuits will be discontinued when leaving Clark County unless approved by:
WC or field LT
During a pursuit, if an uninvolved citizen’s vehicle is damaged, who responds to assist the citizen?
The WC
An SOC will be filed on an officer after their _______ missed attendance at EVOC.
Second
Any occurrence in which a driver of a vehicle collided with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bike, debris, etc which results in bodily injury, a complaint of injury, death, or in total damage of $750 or more:
Collision
Any occurrence in which a driver of a vehicle collided with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bike, debris, etc which does not result in bodily injury, complaint of injury, death, or results in damage less than $750.
Incident
Vehicle collision BWCs will be labeled as?
“Pending review” - retains video for 5 years
If a vehicle incident did not involve another citizen and the damage was minor, what form will be completed?
LVMPD 393 - Supervisor’s report of department vehicle incident
If during a vehicle incident, another citizen was involved, but there were no injuries or complaint of injuries and the damage was minor, what form will be completed?
PD42 - department vehicle incident report
If during a vehicle collision, there were injuries and damage was moderate to major, what form is completed?
NHP5 - State of Nevada Traffic Collision Report
Who investigates and completes a LVMPD 393?
Commissioned Supervisor
Who investigates and completes a PD42?
Traffic officer or traffic supervisor
Who investigates and completes a NHP5?
Traffic officer AND traffic supervisor
If a training collision occurs with serious injury or death, or major property damage, what form will be completed?
PD42
Voting members on a VCB (vehicle collision board) are:
Tourist safety division commander as chairperson
Traffic bureau commander as vice-chairperson
Office of general counsel representative
mandatory appearances at a VCB will require the member’s:
FTO (if applicable)
immediate Supervisor
Bureau Commander
The VCB evaluates the causes of:
Collisions involving department vehicles operated by department members
VCB findings:
Excusable
Preventable
Non-Preventable
The BWC will be worn on the shoulder opposite of:
The members firearm
BWC retention for arrest
10 years
BWC retention for citation
5 years
BWC retention for report only
1 year
BWC minimum retention
1 year
BWC retention for OIS or SA
20 years
BWC retention mid-term for risk management or legal 401s
7 years
Short-Term BWC retention
4 years
BWC retention for homicides
Indefinite
BWC not labeled or associated with criminal or internal investigation will be automatically deleted at:
90 days
3 types of protests:
Peaceful Demonstration
Civil disobedience
Riot
During a protest, who is responsible for attempting communications with organizers or leaders?
Department supervisors
At a minimum who will be made aware of a protest that requires continuous oversight ?
Area command Captain
During a protest, the determination to give the dispersal order is the responsibility of the:
IC upon consultation with the on-scene LT
During a protest, who authorizes arrests?
On-scene LT
During a protest, what type of arrests are preferred ?
Selective arrests as opposed to mass arrests
During a protest if a professional member of the media or a legal observer is arrested, who will be notified ASAP?
IC
During a foot pursuit, who will establish the perimeter?
The first responding officer not actively engaged in the immediate apprehension of the subject
A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when:
- There is an injury
- Entry is made into a structure
- Reportable force
- Unusual occurrence
Who is the primary agency for all terrorist incidents?
The FBI
If a bomb threat is called against HQ:
Radio silence will be maintained
Who does communication immediately notify via phone for bomb threats against HQ?
The WC
In a high rise building, at least how many floors above and below the device should be evacuated?
2
When an explosive device is located what two control locations will be established?
Tactical operations center
Field command post
After a detonation of a device, the patrol officer will establish a perimeter around every item of evidence at a distance of:
300 ft
The Emergency Mobilization Plan is how many levels?
4
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, the A roster designates:
All area command day shift squads
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, the B roster designates:
All area command grave shift squads
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, the C roster designates:
All area command swing shift squads
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, the X roster designates:
Typically exempt specialized units
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, a level 1 activation is:
A and B squads move to 12 hour shifts 0600-1800/1800-0600
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, a level 2 activation is:
A, B, C move to 12 hour shift. C roster works regardless of RDO
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, a level 3 activation is:
A, B, C, all work 12 hour shifts and work regardless of RDO
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, a level 4 activation is:
All personnel moves to 12 hour shifts with RDOs cancelled
Who is the principle advisor to the department on unusual occurrences.
The Emergency Management Secrion
Shift watch commanders should not assume the position of ______ unless necessary, to allow for the continued oversight of the remainder of the jurisdiction.
IC
For a hostage plan the crisis negotiation team consists of:
- Primary negotiator
- Secondary negotiator
- Intelligence officer
- Scribe
- Intelligence crisis negotiator coordinator
In a confirmed hostage situation who will communications immediately notify?
The SWAT commander or designee
The SWAT commander is what rank?
Captain
The SWAT tactical commander is what rank?
LT
During a hostage situation, once the SWAT commander arrives and assumes command of the inner perimeter, the patrol IC will still remain in control of:
ICP
Staging area
Secondary perimeter
And other police operations
In a barricaded subject plan, the Crisis Negotiation Team consists of:
- Primary negotiator
- Secondary negotiator
- Intelligence Officer
- Scribe
- Intelligence coordinator
- SWAT logistics coordinator
Who will be in command of police operations in a barricade situation?
The area patrol supervisor
In a barricaded subject plan, who assumes command and control of the inner perimeter when they arrive?
SWAT commander or tactical commander
The first arriving officer on the scene of a barricade will take steps to:
Slow the momentum, De-escalate, and protect human life.
What is the difference between a STAR protocol response and MACTAC response?
STAR emphasizes slowed momentum
MACTAC response is immediate intervention
What is a MACTAC limited resource response?
1, 2, or 3 officers respond to an active assailant
In MACTAC what is the team called that first takes fire or observes a threat?
Support team
In MACTAC what is the team called that looks for a position of advantage as the support team engages the threat?
Assault team
Per MACTAC, A RTF (Rescue Task Force) is made up of:
4 law enforcement personnel
4 fire/medical personnel
Per MACTAC, what is the geographic area containing a known threat called?
Hot zone
Per MACTAC, what is an area where law enforcement has passed through and swept for immediate hostile threats called?
Warm zone
During a MACTAC incident, what should the first arriving supervisor on scene do?
Make entry with the initial officers
After a MACTAC incident, how long does the IC have to complete a LVMPD 422 form?
10 calendar days
After a MACTAC incident, what does the WC have to do reference the LVMPD 422 form?
Document on WC log which IC will be completing the form
In UOF, the objectively reasonable standard is that of a
Reasonable officer, without the benefit of 20/20 hindsight
Tennessee v. Garner: Officer are authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when:
- Protect themselves or others from an imminent threat of death or SBH
- Prevent escape of fleeing felon who the officer has PC to believe has committed a violent felony and is an imminent threat to human life if escape should occur
Failure to reassess each application of force can lead to
A violation of law and/or policy
Graham v. Conner objective factors for reasonableness are:
- Severity of the crime
- Whether the subject poses an imminent threat to the safety of officers or others
- Whether the subject is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight
- The influence of drugs/alcohol or the mental capacity of the subject
- The time available to an officer to make a decision
- The availability of officers or resources to de-escalate the situation
- The proximity or access of weapons to the subject
- The environmental factors and/or other exigent circumstances
If an officer observes a supervisor using unreasonable force, they will :
Report it to the next level of supervision
An officer/supervisor who observes unreasonable force has how many days to document it in writing?
10 days after occurrence
If a subject is fleeing while in control of a weapon, what level of resistance are they in?
Assaultive
Non-Uniformed Officers of the rank of what and below must carry at least 1 intermediate force option?
LT
Unless A pregnant women is in life-threatening resistance, officers will not use what force options on them?
Baton, ECD, or projectile weapons
After how many cycles will an ECD be deemed ineffective?
3
Pinching and Ramming require a:
UOF report
PIT successful uses or attempts require:
A UOF report and a Pursuit Report
True/False: A spark display of the ECD requires a UOF report?
True
Use of force reports must be completed by:
The end of shift
Any exceptions must be approved by a supervisor.
In use of deadly force incidents, the first arriving supervisor will act as:
The incident commander
When practical, who should be present during a PSS?
Only the shooting officer and a supervisor.
Should the PSS be recorded on BWC?
No
Who investigates unintentional discharges which occur on duty?
CIRT
AD’s which do not occur in a police operation (discharge of shotgun while Inspecting it in parking lot) will be investigated by:
IAB
Deadly force witness officers who refuse to provide information will be deemed:
In violation of Obedience and Insubordination
The CIRP chairperson is a voting member or which board?
TRB
CIRT conclusions for the CIRP will fall into one of what 3 categories:
Department Policy
training protocol
Tactics/decision making
The UFRB has 4 findings, which are:
- Administrative Approval
- Tactics/Decision-Making
- Policy/Training Failure
- Administrative Disapproval
UFRB is comprised of:
- CIRP chairperson - non voting
- Bureau commander of involved employee
- 1 commissioned department member at the rank of captain or above
- 1 peer member of same classification
- 4 citizen members
The differences in the TRB board as compared to the UFRB are:
In TRB:
Chairperson votes
A voting member who is an expert in tactics/training
In a standard sedan without a prisoner screen with one officer, the prisoner will be transported:
In front passenger seat
In a standard sedan without a prisoner screen with two officers, the prisoner will be transported:
Rear seat behind passenger and second officer behind driver
Under no circumstances will a prisoner be held in a transport vehicle longer than:
2 hours
When transporting a prisoner of the opposite sex, the officer will document the mileage down to:
Tenths of a mile
CIT1
Previous L2K
CIT2
Previous violence
CIT3
Weapon impounded or taken off subject
CIT4
Self/Doctor diagnosed mental disorder
CIT officer will be dispatched to:
- Subjects with known mental illness
- Threatening suicide under violent/volatile circumstances
- ED
- Taking walk away mental patients into custody
If subject is in a mental crisis and an active duty member of military or reservist, CIT officer will
Notify Nellis AFB security forces watch desk BDOC
If a CIT event rises to an entry on the WC log, the WC will:
Include the name and P# of CIT officers on scene
A person presents a clear and present danger of harm to self, if as a result of mental illness, within the preceding _____ days….
30
Felony and GM crimes will be limited to the most serious charges with the exception of:
Violent crimes
If an arrestee needs medical assistance, officers can discontinue the booking process with the approval of :
The WC
In the absence of their supervisor, an officer will have their AR package reviewed by:
The shift LT
An NCF must be done with how many hours after arrest?
48
Officers will make warrantless arrests for:
DV DUI Felony hit and run Homicide by vehicle Protective order violations
An officer can arrest, cite, or give an advisement when there is PC to believe a battery has been committed within the preceding 24 hours upon:
- A person with whom the suspect is residing
- A sibling by blood or marriage
- A cousin
When releasing property/cash to a 3rd party when making an arrest the officer will request a supervisor for:
Cash valuing over $100
Non-cash property over $250
New DV policy what relationships are just considered battery:
Roommates
Siblings
Cousins
(As long as no joint custodial relationship)
In DV investigations, when is a supervisor immediately contacted:
Felony LE involved as suspect or victim Pimp/Prostitute Previous conviction Mutual arrest considered
Order against DV available to Victim’s 24/7 when suspect has been arrested
Emergency Temporary Protective Order
Temporary order against DV granted without notice to adverse party. Valid for 30
Days.
Temporary protective order
Order against DV may only be granted after notice to adverse party. Maximum of one year.
Extended protective order
The violation of a Stalking/Harassment order is:
A gross misdemeanor. If extended to up to one year, a felony.
