Policies Flashcards
1
Q
UOF: Levels of subjects resistance are:
A
Compliant
Obstructive
Assaultive
Life-Threatening
2
Q
UOF: Levels of force or officers response:
A
Low level
Intermediate
Deadly force
3
Q
UOF: Low Lethal shotgun is deadly force when:
A
Used at Less than seven yards
4
Q
UOF: 40 mm specialty impact weapon is deadly force when:
A
Used at less than 5 yards
5
Q
UOF: PIT is deadly force when:
A
Used at speeds more than 40 mph
6
Q
Low Level force is used for what levels of resistance?
A
Compliant and Obstructive
7
Q
Intermediate force is used for what levels of resistance ?
A
Assaultive
8
Q
What is the main difference between obstructive and assaultive resistance?
A
Subjects intent to harm.
9
Q
A form of identity referring to any gender identity that does not fall into the category of male or female or is not exclusively male or female. It has nothing to do with aspects of anatomy.
A
Non-binary
10
Q
Every supervisor has the responsibility to prevent acts of harassment and/or discrimination, which includes:
A
Monitoring Refraining Counseling Stopping Reporting
11
Q
Every member of this department has the responsibility to prevent acts of harassment and/or discrimination through:
A
Refraining
Reporting
Encouraging
12
Q
All complaints of discrimination and harassment will be reviewed by:
A
The EDS director
13
Q
The two types of discrimination are:
A
Adverse Impact
Disparate treatment
14
Q
Even _______ incident if it is severe may constitute discrimination.
A
One
15
Q
Complaints of harassment or discrimination over 300 days will be evaluated on:
A
A case by case basis
16
Q
If a complainant is dissatisfied with an EDS investigation they can seek relief from:
A
NERC - Nevada Equal Rights Commission, EEOC or contact the EDS director.
17
Q
Per MOVE, If the employee receiving the complaint is not the direct supervisor of the involved employee or IAB, the supervisor receiving the complaint will provide the complainant with:
A
The name of the involved employee’s bureau commander.
18
Q
Per MOVE, IAB will be immediately notified on:
A
Major violations
Alcohol or drug abuse
Criminal acts
19
Q
Per MOVE, IAB will classify a complaint within:
A
14 days of receipt
20
Q
Per MOVE, adjudication of complaint process for PMSA members must be completed within how many days?
A
21
21
Q
Per MOVE, for PPA and PPACE members, recommendations for discipline must be made within how many days?
A
15
22
Q
Per MOVE, how many person panel is a Discipline Board?
A
3
23
Q
Per MOVE, the Discipline Board decides discipline in cases where the recommendation from OLR is a:
A
Disciplinary transfer or higher, excluding termination
24
Q
Per EIIP, first line supervisors will review their employees’ Blue Team dashboard how often?
A
On a monthly basis
25
Per EIIP, first line supervisors must respond to EIIP alerts within how many days?
14
26
Per EIIP, EIIP alerts will be completely coordinated through the employees chain of command and returned to EIIP vi Blue Team within how many days?
45
27
Per EIIP, EIIP alerts in blue team should be addressed and forwarded to a second line supervisor for review within how many days?
14
28
Between 1700-0800, media personnel are directed to contact who, regarding crimes in progress?
WC
29
The determination whether material will be released to the media is based upon what case law?
Donrey vs. Bradshaw
30
Information will not be disclosed to the media if it is either:
1. Privileged by law
| 2. The interest in public disclosure is outweighed by privacy or law enforcement interests
31
Who at a disaster or crime scene is responsible for providing relevant, timely, and accurate information to the media?
The ranking department member
32
After a use of deadly force the officers names will be released within how many hours?
48
33
Media requests for information involving other agencies will be referred to:
Those agencies (even if LVMPD is lead investigator)
34
What is required for the media to access inmates in custody?
Written permission by the inmate
35
SARA stands for?
Scanning
Analysis
Response
Assessment
36
STAR stands for?
Supervisors tactic for armed subject response
37
Criteria for a STAR?
1. Credible info subject is armed with dangerous weapon
| 2. Subject is acting in threatening manner
38
STAR Protocol requires how many officers respond?
1 supervisor
| 3 officers
39
If a STAR protocol incident resulted in a legitimate threat, the patrol supervisor will complete:
The information regarding a hazard on the property and the subject involved
40
An amnesty last chance agreement for self reporting will stay in an employees file consistent with:
Departments purge policy for a major suspension
41
If the employee is suspected of using alcohol and/or a prohibited drug, the bureau commander or designee will place the employee on:
Relief of duty
42
For Random Drug Testing, the sample collector will notify the squads supervisor no more than how many minutes prior to the test?
45 minutes
43
The random drug test sample
| Collector will notify IAB when:
Employees request leave and do not report for duty after the notification of a random drug test
44
All commissioned personnel will be subject to alcohol and blood testing in instances of:
OIS’s or conduct that results in death or substantial bodily harm of another person
45
Commissioned supervisors will be subject to alcohol and drug testing immediately following a:
Traffic accident where the supervisor is at fault and driving a department vehicle that causes death or substantial bodily injury
46
For a positive result of a random drug test, who initiates the SOC?
Director of risk management
47
Following the initial notification of a positive drug test, the employee has how many hours to inform the MRO of a request to have the split sample tested by an independent lab?
72 hours
48
The 4th amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both:
Reasonable and
| Legitimate
49
A non-investigative entry into a vehicle, structure, or curtilage to satisfy a legitimate community concern for life safety:
Community caretaking search
50
Occurs when there is probable cause that a person who is wanted for a serious felony is inside a home or other private place and is about to flee:
Fresh pursuit
51
A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” allowing entry into a structure when there is probable cause to believe a dangerous person has committed a serious felony. The suspect is fleeing from law enforcement and the officer has direct knowledge of the suspects location.
Hot pursuit
52
A reasonable suspicion stop allows an officer to ascertain a persons:
Identity and purpose
53
During an RS stop a person does not have to provide:
Government-issued ID.
54
To impound a firearm for safe keeping an officer needs to articulate:
Life safety
Or
To determine ownership
55
For officer and institutional safety, items that are transported to a detention facility as personal property will be thoroughly searched prior to entering a detention facility. This is called:
Personal property inventory search during arrest
56
The search of the arrestee must be conducted at the time of arrest or immediately thereafter.
Search incident to arrest of a person
57
The preferred method to collect evidence for a DUI is:
Voluntary breath sample
58
It is the policy of the department that subjects cannot consent to a:
Body cavity search
59
The section LT will use SWAT to serve a search warrant under the following circumstances:
1. Forced entry required
2. Unknown or violent criminal history
3. Weapons may be encountered
60
Requests for keep the peace at an administrative search warrant service by an administrative agency must be approved by:
A LT and notification made to the WC
61
When a crime involves a dignitary or politician who will be notified?
Organized Crime Bureau, Criminal intelligence section LT
62
PD will be notified on property crimes as follows:
Burglaries of 50k
| Grand Larceny over 75k
63
When a theft is over $250k of a retail product, who is notified?
RAPP task force
64
For incidents with multiple homicides, who will be notified?
Director of CSI
65
A non-investigative entry into a vehicle, structure, or curtilage to satisfy a legitimate community concern for life safety:
Community caretaking search
66
Occurs when there is probable cause that a person who is wanted for a serious felony is inside a home or other private place and is about to flee:
Fresh pursuit
67
A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” allowing entry into a structure when there is probable cause to believe a dangerous person has committed a serious felony. The suspect is fleeing from law enforcement and the officer has direct knowledge of the suspects location.
Hot pursuit
68
A reasonable suspicion stop allows an officer to ascertain a persons:
Identity and purpose
69
During an RS stop a person does not have to provide:
Government-issued ID.
70
To impound a firearm for safe keeping an officer needs to articulate:
Life safety
Or
To determine ownership
71
For officer and institutional safety, items that are transported to a detention facility as personal property will be thoroughly searched prior to entering a detention facility. This is called:
Personal property inventory search during arrest
72
The search of the arrestee must be conducted at the time of arrest or immediately thereafter.
Search incident to arrest of a person
73
The preferred method to collect evidence for a DUI is:
Voluntary breath sample
74
It is the policy of the department that subjects cannot consent to a:
Body cavity search
75
The section LT will use SWAT to serve a search warrant under the following circumstances:
1. Forced entry required
2. Unknown or violent criminal history
3. Weapons may be encountered
76
Requests for keep the peace at an administrative search warrant service by an administrative agency must be approved by:
A LT and notification made to the WC
77
When a crime involves a dignitary or politician who will be notified?
Organized Crime Bureau, Criminal intelligence section LT
78
PD will be notified on property crimes as follows:
Burglaries of 50k
| Grand Larceny over 75k
79
When a theft is over $250k of a retail product, who is notified?
RAPP task force
80
For incidents with multiple homicides, who will be notified?
Director of CSI
81
Code 3 has a maximum of how many mph over the speed limit (except pursuits)?
20 mph
82
Officers may respond code 3 under the following circumstances:
1. Imminent danger to citizens and the officer’s arrival might save lives.
2. Another officer requires assistance to control a volition situation.
3. Reliable information exists of a felony in progress.
4. Pursuits
83
What is the cornerstone for the departments pursuit philosophy?
The requirement for immediate supervisory authorization for a pursuit and ongoing supervisory control of a pursuit
84
Any officer who assumes the primary position at any point during a pursuit, at the conclusion, will:
Complete a separate pursuit report in Blue Team
85
During a pursuit, if an officer is involved in a traffic collision, they must stop unless:
1. No unit is available to assume pursuit
2. Damage to unit is minor
3. There are no apparent injuries
86
Vehicular pursuits can only be conducted for:
1. Violent felonies
| 2. Suspect presents a clear and immediate danger to public
87
Pursuit codes: Pursuit initiated and completed
PS
88
Pursuit codes: Pursuit initiated but canceled prior to completion:
PC
89
Pursuit codes: Potential pursuit situation observed but situation did not meet criteria:
PO
90
During a pursuit, which unit assumes responsibility for broadcasting progress of the pursuit?
The secondary unit
91
Vehicular pursuits will be discontinued when leaving Clark County unless approved by:
WC or field LT
92
During a pursuit, if an uninvolved citizen’s vehicle is damaged, who responds to assist the citizen?
The WC
93
An SOC will be filed on an officer after their _______ missed attendance at EVOC.
Second
94
Any occurrence in which a driver of a vehicle collided with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bike, debris, etc which results in bodily injury, a complaint of injury, death, or in total damage of $750 or more:
Collision
95
Any occurrence in which a driver of a vehicle collided with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bike, debris, etc which does not result in bodily injury, complaint of injury, death, or results in damage less than $750.
Incident
96
Vehicle collision BWCs will be labeled as?
“Pending review” - retains video for 5 years
97
If a vehicle incident did not involve another citizen and the damage was minor, what form will be completed?
LVMPD 393 - Supervisor’s report of department vehicle incident
98
If during a vehicle incident, another citizen was involved, but there were no injuries or complaint of injuries and the damage was minor, what form will be completed?
PD42 - department vehicle incident report
99
If during a vehicle collision, there were injuries and damage was moderate to major, what form is completed?
NHP5 - State of Nevada Traffic Collision Report
100
Who investigates and completes a LVMPD 393?
Commissioned Supervisor
101
Who investigates and completes a PD42?
Traffic officer or traffic supervisor
102
Who investigates and completes a NHP5?
Traffic officer AND traffic supervisor
103
If a training collision occurs with serious injury or death, or major property damage, what form will be completed?
PD42
104
Voting members on a VCB (vehicle collision board) are:
Tourist safety division commander as chairperson
Traffic bureau commander as vice-chairperson
Office of general counsel representative
105
mandatory appearances at a VCB will require the member’s:
FTO (if applicable)
immediate Supervisor
Bureau Commander
106
The VCB evaluates the causes of:
Collisions involving department vehicles operated by department members
107
VCB findings:
Excusable
Preventable
Non-Preventable
108
The BWC will be worn on the shoulder opposite of:
The members firearm
109
BWC retention for arrest
10 years
110
BWC retention for citation
5 years
111
BWC retention for report only
1 year
112
BWC minimum retention
1 year
113
BWC retention for OIS or SA
20 years
114
BWC retention mid-term for risk management or legal 401s
7 years
115
Short-Term BWC retention
4 years
116
BWC retention for homicides
Indefinite
117
BWC not labeled or associated with criminal or internal investigation will be automatically deleted at:
90 days
118
3 types of protests:
Peaceful Demonstration
Civil disobedience
Riot
119
During a protest, who is responsible for attempting communications with organizers or leaders?
Department supervisors
120
At a minimum who will be made aware of a protest that requires continuous oversight ?
Area command Captain
121
During a protest, the determination to give the dispersal order is the responsibility of the:
IC upon consultation with the on-scene LT
122
During a protest, who authorizes arrests?
On-scene LT
123
During a protest, what type of arrests are preferred ?
Selective arrests as opposed to mass arrests
124
During a protest if a professional member of the media or a legal observer is arrested, who will be notified ASAP?
IC
125
During a foot pursuit, who will establish the perimeter?
The first responding officer not actively engaged in the immediate apprehension of the subject
126
A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when:
1. There is an injury
2. Entry is made into a structure
3. Reportable force
4. Unusual occurrence
127
Who is the primary agency for all terrorist incidents?
The FBI
128
If a bomb threat is called against HQ:
Radio silence will be maintained
129
Who does communication immediately notify via phone for bomb threats against HQ?
The WC
130
In a high rise building, at least how many floors above and below the device should be evacuated?
2
131
When an explosive device is located what two control locations will be established?
Tactical operations center
| Field command post
132
After a detonation of a device, the patrol officer will establish a perimeter around every item of evidence at a distance of:
300 ft
133
The Emergency Mobilization Plan is how many levels?
4
134
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, the A roster designates:
All area command day shift squads
135
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, the B roster designates:
All area command grave shift squads
136
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, the C roster designates:
All area command swing shift squads
137
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, the X roster designates:
Typically exempt specialized units
138
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, a level 1 activation is:
A and B squads move to 12 hour shifts 0600-1800/1800-0600
139
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, a level 2 activation is:
A, B, C move to 12 hour shift. C roster works regardless of RDO
140
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, a level 3 activation is:
A, B, C, all work 12 hour shifts and work regardless of RDO
141
In the Emergency Mobilization plan, a level 4 activation is:
All personnel moves to 12 hour shifts with RDOs cancelled
142
Who is the principle advisor to the department on unusual occurrences.
The Emergency Management Secrion
143
Shift watch commanders should not assume the position of ______ unless necessary, to allow for the continued oversight of the remainder of the jurisdiction.
IC
144
For a hostage plan the crisis negotiation team consists of:
1. Primary negotiator
2. Secondary negotiator
3. Intelligence officer
4. Scribe
5. Intelligence crisis negotiator coordinator
145
In a confirmed hostage situation who will communications immediately notify?
The SWAT commander or designee
146
The SWAT commander is what rank?
Captain
147
The SWAT tactical commander is what rank?
LT
148
During a hostage situation, once the SWAT commander arrives and assumes command of the inner perimeter, the patrol IC will still remain in control of:
ICP
Staging area
Secondary perimeter
And other police operations
149
In a barricaded subject plan, the Crisis Negotiation Team consists of:
1. Primary negotiator
2. Secondary negotiator
3. Intelligence Officer
4. Scribe
5. Intelligence coordinator
6. SWAT logistics coordinator
150
Who will be in command of police operations in a barricade situation?
The area patrol supervisor
151
In a barricaded subject plan, who assumes command and control of the inner perimeter when they arrive?
SWAT commander or tactical commander
152
The first arriving officer on the scene of a barricade will take steps to:
Slow the momentum, De-escalate, and protect human life.
153
What is the difference between a STAR protocol response and MACTAC response?
STAR emphasizes slowed momentum
| MACTAC response is immediate intervention
154
What is a MACTAC limited resource response?
1, 2, or 3 officers respond to an active assailant
155
In MACTAC what is the team called that first takes fire or observes a threat?
Support team
156
In MACTAC what is the team called that looks for a position of advantage as the support team engages the threat?
Assault team
157
Per MACTAC, A RTF (Rescue Task Force) is made up of:
4 law enforcement personnel
| 4 fire/medical personnel
158
Per MACTAC, what is the geographic area containing a known threat called?
Hot zone
159
Per MACTAC, what is an area where law enforcement has passed through and swept for immediate hostile threats called?
Warm zone
160
During a MACTAC incident, what should the first arriving supervisor on scene do?
Make entry with the initial officers
161
After a MACTAC incident, how long does the IC have to complete a LVMPD 422 form?
10 calendar days
162
After a MACTAC incident, what does the WC have to do reference the LVMPD 422 form?
Document on WC log which IC will be completing the form
163
In UOF, the objectively reasonable standard is that of a
Reasonable officer, without the benefit of 20/20 hindsight
164
Tennessee v. Garner: Officer are authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when:
1. Protect themselves or others from an imminent threat of death or SBH
2. Prevent escape of fleeing felon who the officer has PC to believe has committed a violent felony and is an imminent threat to human life if escape should occur
165
Failure to reassess each application of force can lead to
A violation of law and/or policy
166
Graham v. Conner objective factors for reasonableness are:
1. Severity of the crime
2. Whether the subject poses an imminent threat to the safety of officers or others
3. Whether the subject is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight
4. The influence of drugs/alcohol or the mental capacity of the subject
5. The time available to an officer to make a decision
6. The availability of officers or resources to de-escalate the situation
7. The proximity or access of weapons to the subject
8. The environmental factors and/or other exigent circumstances
167
If an officer observes a supervisor using unreasonable force, they will :
Report it to the next level of supervision
168
An officer/supervisor who observes unreasonable force has how many days to document it in writing?
10 days after occurrence
169
If a subject is fleeing while in control of a weapon, what level of resistance are they in?
Assaultive
170
Non-Uniformed Officers of the rank of what and below must carry at least 1 intermediate force option?
LT
171
Unless A pregnant women is in life-threatening resistance, officers will not use what force options on them?
Baton, ECD, or projectile weapons
172
After how many cycles will an ECD be deemed ineffective?
3
173
Pinching and Ramming require a:
UOF report
174
PIT successful uses or attempts require:
A UOF report and a Pursuit Report
175
True/False: A spark display of the ECD requires a UOF report?
True
176
Use of force reports must be completed by:
The end of shift
Any exceptions must be approved by a supervisor.
177
In use of deadly force incidents, the first arriving supervisor will act as:
The incident commander
178
When practical, who should be present during a PSS?
Only the shooting officer and a supervisor.
179
Should the PSS be recorded on BWC?
No
180
Who investigates unintentional discharges which occur on duty?
CIRT
181
AD’s which do not occur in a police operation (discharge of shotgun while Inspecting it in parking lot) will be investigated by:
IAB
182
Deadly force witness officers who refuse to provide information will be deemed:
In violation of Obedience and Insubordination
183
The CIRP chairperson is a voting member or which board?
TRB
184
CIRT conclusions for the CIRP will fall into one of what 3 categories:
Department Policy
training protocol
Tactics/decision making
185
The UFRB has 4 findings, which are:
1. Administrative Approval
2. Tactics/Decision-Making
3. Policy/Training Failure
4. Administrative Disapproval
186
UFRB is comprised of:
1. CIRP chairperson - non voting
2. Bureau commander of involved employee
3. 1 commissioned department member at the rank of captain or above
4. 1 peer member of same classification
5. 4 citizen members
187
The differences in the TRB board as compared to the UFRB are:
In TRB:
Chairperson votes
A voting member who is an expert in tactics/training
188
In a standard sedan without a prisoner screen with one officer, the prisoner will be transported:
In front passenger seat
189
In a standard sedan without a prisoner screen with two officers, the prisoner will be transported:
Rear seat behind passenger and second officer behind driver
190
Under no circumstances will a prisoner be held in a transport vehicle longer than:
2 hours
191
When transporting a prisoner of the opposite sex, the officer will document the mileage down to:
Tenths of a mile
192
CIT1
Previous L2K
193
CIT2
Previous violence
194
CIT3
Weapon impounded or taken off subject
195
CIT4
Self/Doctor diagnosed mental disorder
196
CIT officer will be dispatched to:
1. Subjects with known mental illness
2. Threatening suicide under violent/volatile circumstances
3. ED
4. Taking walk away mental patients into custody
197
If subject is in a mental crisis and an active duty member of military or reservist, CIT officer will
Notify Nellis AFB security forces watch desk BDOC
198
If a CIT event rises to an entry on the WC log, the WC will:
Include the name and P# of CIT officers on scene
199
A person presents a clear and present danger of harm to self, if as a result of mental illness, within the preceding _____ days….
30
200
Felony and GM crimes will be limited to the most serious charges with the exception of:
Violent crimes
201
If an arrestee needs medical assistance, officers can discontinue the booking process with the approval of :
The WC
202
In the absence of their supervisor, an officer will have their AR package reviewed by:
The shift LT
203
An NCF must be done with how many hours after arrest?
48
204
Officers will make warrantless arrests for:
```
DV
DUI
Felony hit and run
Homicide by vehicle
Protective order violations
```
205
An officer can arrest, cite, or give an advisement when there is PC to believe a battery has been committed within the preceding 24 hours upon:
1. A person with whom the suspect is residing
2. A sibling by blood or marriage
3. A cousin
206
When releasing property/cash to a 3rd party when making an arrest the officer will request a supervisor for:
Cash valuing over $100
| Non-cash property over $250
207
New DV policy what relationships are just considered battery:
Roommates
Siblings
Cousins
(As long as no joint custodial relationship)
208
In DV investigations, when is a supervisor immediately contacted:
```
Felony
LE involved as suspect or victim
Pimp/Prostitute
Previous conviction
Mutual arrest considered
```
209
Order against DV available to Victim’s 24/7 when suspect has been arrested
Emergency Temporary Protective Order
210
Temporary order against DV granted without notice to adverse party. Valid for 30
Days.
Temporary protective order
211
Order against DV may only be granted after notice to adverse party. Maximum of one year.
Extended protective order
212
The violation of a Stalking/Harassment order is:
A gross misdemeanor. If extended to up to one year, a felony.
