poisoning from medicines and other fun stuff Flashcards

1
Q

name some medications that can potentially lead to serotonin syndrome

A

citalopram, fluoxetine, sertraline (SSRIs)

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2
Q

What should be administered if opiate poisoning is suspected and the patient has a significantly impaired level of consciousness?

A

Naloxone: 0.1-0.4 mg IV every five minutes for an adult, or 0.8 mg IM every ten minutes for an adult.

See the paediatric drug dose tables for a child.

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3
Q

What is the IV administration protocol for sodium chloride if a patient shows signs of hypovolaemia?

A

1 litre IV for an adult; 20 ml/kg for a child.

Repeat as required.

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4
Q

What is the treatment for cyclic antidepressant poisoning with QRS prolongation?

A

8.4% sodium bicarbonate IV: 100 ml IV for an adult; 2 ml/kg IV for a child.

Also administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV: 1-2 litres for an adult; 20-40 ml/kg for a child.

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5
Q

What are the general principles in the treatment of poisoning?

A

Focus on:
* Supporting airway, breathing, and circulation
* Treating agitation
* Ensuring appropriate assessment and follow-up

See the ‘acute behavioural disturbance’ guideline for more information.

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6
Q

What commonly causes an altered level of consciousness following poisoning?

A

Benzodiazepines, antidepressants, antipsychotics, opiates, sedatives, or a combination of these.

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7
Q

Is naloxone indicated in the treatment of poisoning associated with an altered level of consciousness?

A

False.

Naloxone is only indicated if opiate poisoning is strongly suspected.

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8
Q

What potential complications can arise from naloxone administration?

A

Seizures, hypertension, pulmonary oedema, or severe agitation.

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9
Q

When should police assistance be requested in cases of poisoning?

A

If there is:
* Significant risk of injury
* Severe agitation causing life-threatening risk
* More than minimal restraint is required.

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of significant paracetamol poisoning?

A

Asymptomatic in the first 6-12 hours, followed by nausea, vomiting, and non-specific abdominal pain.

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11
Q

What is the treatment protocol for significant paracetamol poisoning?

A

Transport to an ED for serum paracetamol measurement, even if asymptomatic.

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12
Q

What are the symptoms of cyclic antidepressant poisoning?

A

Altered level of consciousness, seizures, tachycardia, tachydysrhythmias, and shock.

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13
Q

What is a potential treatment for toxicity from cyclic antidepressants?

A

Large dose of sodium ions may reduce toxicity.

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14
Q

Name three examples of atypical antipsychotics.

A
  • Quetiapine
  • Risperidone
  • Olanzapine.
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15
Q

What signs and symptoms can indicate serotonin syndrome?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnoea
  • Hypertension
  • Sweating
  • Hyperthermia
  • Tremor
  • Rigidity
  • Confusion
  • Agitation
  • Seizures.
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16
Q

What is the treatment approach for serotonin syndrome?

A

Supportive treatment including uncovering the patient, temperature measurement, cooling, and administering 0.9% sodium chloride IV if temperature > 39°C.

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17
Q

What is the preferred treatment for bradycardia and/or hypotension in beta-blocker and/or calcium channel blocker poisoning?

A

Adrenaline infusion.

Metaraminol is less preferred.

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18
Q

What is the mortality rate for colchicine poisoning?

A

High mortality rate; no effective treatments once absorbed.

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19
Q

What should be done if iron poisoning is suspected?

A

Transport to an ED without delay, even if asymptomatic.

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20
Q

What are the early gastrointestinal effects of iron poisoning?

A

Abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhoea.

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21
Q

What is the hospital treatment for iron overdose?

A
  • Whole bowel irrigation
  • Antidote therapy (desferrioxamine) if indicated.
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22
Q

common tricyclic antidepressants in NZ

A

Amitriptyline.
Desipramine (Norpramin).
Doxepin.
Imipramine.
Nortriptyline (Pamelor).
Protriptyline.

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23
Q

what suffix do most tricyclic antidepressants in nz have

A

line (amitriptyline)
mine (desiparamine)

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24
Q

What is Gamma hydroxybutyrate (GHB) associated with?

A

Deep unconsciousness, poor airway, poor breathing, intermittent apnoea.

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25
Q

What may patients require after taking GHB?

A

Assisted ventilation.

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26
Q

How quickly do patients typically improve after GHB ingestion?

A

20-30 minutes.

27
Q

What can prolong recovery after GHB ingestion?

A

Ingestion of another sedative, such as alcohol.

28
Q

What effects are associated with MDMA?

A

Altered level of consciousness, seizures, hyperthermia.

29
Q

What effects can Ketamine cause?

A

Hallucinations, altered level of consciousness.

30
Q

What are the potential effects of amphetamines and methamphetamine?

A

Severe hypertension, tachycardia, disturbed behaviour.

31
Q

What severe behaviours may result from methamphetamine use?

A

Violence or attempted suicide.

32
Q

What effects do cathinones (like mephedrone) have?

A

Hypertension, tachycardia, hallucinations, paranoia, panic attacks, disturbed behaviour.

33
Q

What symptoms can cannabis and cannabinoids cause?

A

Mental dissociation, anxiety, tachycardia, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, vomiting.

34
Q

What are ‘synthetics’ in the context of recreational drugs?

A

A mixture of synthetic chemicals added to dried plant material for smoking.

35
Q

What effects can synthetics cause?

A

Altered level of consciousness, seizures, agitation, cardiac arrest.

36
Q

What complications can cocaine use lead to?

A

Severe hypertension, tachycardia, intracranial haemorrhage, coronary artery spasm, myocardial ischaemia.

37
Q

Are seizures common after recreational drug use?

A

Yes, particularly with synthetics.

38
Q

How are seizures following recreational drug use usually characterized?

A

Self-limiting.

39
Q

What is a common behaviour of patients after experiencing seizures due to recreational drug use?

A

Refusal of assessment and/or transport.

40
Q

What must be considered when assessing patients who have seized?

A

The need for significant restraint and/or sedation.

41
Q

When is it appropriate to manage a patient without transport to an ED?

A

If the patient has stopped seizing and can mobilize safely.

42
Q

What advice should be given to family and friends of a recovering patient?

A

Provide supervision until the patient has fully recovered.

43
Q

What can button or disc batteries cause if swallowed?

A

Severe injury to the oesophagus or bowel

May need to be surgically removed

44
Q

What should be done if a patient is suspected to have swallowed a button battery?

A

Treat as if a battery has been swallowed

Button batteries can be mistaken for coins

45
Q

What type of products can cause significant injury to the oesophagus upon ingestion?

A

Strong acid or alkali

Particularly alkaline products like dishwashing powders and bleach

46
Q

What is a common symptom following the ingestion of strong acid or alkali?

A

Inflammation of the oropharynx

Significant injury and/or swelling is uncommon

47
Q

What should be encouraged for a patient who has ingested strong acid or alkali, provided their airway is normal?

A

Sips of water

This should not induce vomiting

48
Q

What is the most common cause of organophosphate poisoning?

A

Deliberate ingestion of insecticides

Skin contact with OP requires significant exposure

49
Q

What enzyme activity is inhibited by organophosphates?

A

Cholinesterase

This leads to a build-up of acetylcholine

50
Q

List some symptoms caused by the build-up of acetylcholine due to organophosphate poisoning.

A
  • Salivation
  • Lacrimation
  • Defaecation and vomiting
  • Urination
  • Bradycardia
  • Bronchoconstriction and bronchial secretions
  • Muscle twitching and muscle weakness
51
Q

What is the initial treatment for organophosphate poisoning?

A

Support of the patient’s airway, breathing and circulation, and treatment with atropine

Atropine reverses most effects of acetylcholine

52
Q

What is the recommended atropine dosage for treating organophosphate poisoning?

A

1.2 mg atropine IV, repeat every five minutes until adequate atropinisation signs appear

Additional atropine may be needed

53
Q

What indicates adequate atropinisation in a patient?

A
  • Resolution of bradycardia
  • Drying of secretions
  • Resolution of wheeze
54
Q

Is decontamination required prior to transport for a patient who has ingested an organophosphate?

A

No, unless OP chemicals are on the patient’s skin or clothing

Vomit will contain OP, so PPE should be worn

55
Q

What is the consequence of nitrite poisoning?

A

Methaemaglobinaemia

Reduces oxygen binding to haemoglobin

56
Q

List some symptoms of nitrite poisoning.

A
  • Severe hypoxia unresponsive to oxygen
  • Extreme tachypnoea
  • Extreme tachycardia
  • Agitation
  • Dark brown blood if IV access is gained
57
Q

What is the antidote for nitrite poisoning?

A

Methylene blue

Usually available in the emergency department

58
Q

How does cyanide poisoning affect oxygen utilization?

A

Impairment at a mitochondrial level

Oxygen levels in blood and tissues remain normal

59
Q

What are common sources of cyanide exposure?

A
  • Industrial use (mining, electroplating, plastics)
  • Pesticides
  • Smoke from house fires with synthetic furnishings
60
Q

What are some symptoms of cyanide poisoning?

A
  • Anxiety
  • Nausea
  • Headache
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnoea
  • Falling level of consciousness
  • Cardiac arrest
61
Q

What is the recommended PPE for treating cyanide poisoning?

A

Normal body fluid precautions

No specific decontamination required for ingested cyanide

62
Q

What are some specific cyanide antidotes?

A
  • Hydroxocobalamin
  • Amyl nitrite
  • Sodium thiosulfate
63
Q

What should personnel do if there is a history of cyanide poisoning and the patient is symptomatic?

A

Administer the contents of cyanide antidote kits

Seek clinical advice if uncertain, but do not delay treatment