PNS And Skeletal M Flashcards

1
Q

Neuromuscular diseases are a group of disorders that typically present with what?

A

Weaknes, muscle pain and sensory deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What information do thin unmyelinated fibers convey?

A

Autonomic functions, pain and temp; slowest conduction speeds due to lack of myelin and small diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What information do large diameter axons with thick myelin sheaths convey?

A

Light touch and motor signals; fast conduction speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do pts with peripheral neuropathy generally describe their pain?

A

As tingling, stabbing, burning or “pins and needles”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

A mononeuropathy affecting CN VII —> facial muscle paralysis; occurs between 15-60 yo and generally resolves spontaenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the sx of Bell’s palsy?

A

One sided facial droop within 48-72 hours of initial sx; assoc with URI and DM; facial tingling, mid severe HA/neck pain, memory problems, balance issues, ipsilateral limb paresthesias, ipsilateral limb weakness and sense of clumsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are other examples of infectious polyneurpathies?

A

Lyme dz and HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is lyme dz polyneuropathy?

A

Second and 3rd stages of dz; polyradiculoneuropathy; unilateral or bilateral facial N palsies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is HIV polyneuropathy?

A

Early stage HIV infection; mononeuritis multiplex, demyelinating DO that resembles Guillain-Barre, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy; later stages assoc with distal sensory neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Disorders that impair function of the NMJ tend to present with what?

A

Painless weakness and fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the development of skeletal M?

A

During embryogenesis skeletal M develops thru fusion of mononucleated precursor cells (myoblasts) into multinucleated myotubes; these matre into myofibers of varying length that contain 1000s of nuclei; in adults these myofibers are arranged in fascicles each associated with a small pool of stem cells (satellite cells) which can contribute to muscle regeneration following injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is juvenile dematomyositis?

A

Avg age of onset 7 yo; MC inflammatory myopathy in children; calcinosis and lipodystrophy; less likely to be associated with myositis specific Abs, cardiac involvement, ILD or an undelrying malignnacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the first line tx for inflammatory myopathies?

A

Corticosteoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a pt has a steroid resisant inflammatory myopathy, what is used to tx their condition?

A

Immunosuppressive drugs or steroid sparing agents (azathioprine and MTX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is 3rd line tx for inflammatory myopathies?

A

IVIg, cyclophosphamide, cyclosporine and rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Inclusion body myositis usually responds poorly to what?

A

Steroids or immunosuppressive tx

17
Q

Which gene is associated with malignant hyperthermia?

A

RYR1 gene (ryanodine receptor); 19q13.2

18
Q

When do congenital myopathies present?

A

In infancy with M defects that tend to be static or to improve over time; assoc with developmental abnormalities of the CNS as well as progressive M damage

19
Q

What are muscular dystrophies?

A

Progressive muscle damage with sx presenting after infancy (between childhood and adulthood)

20
Q

What are some congenital conditions with defects in ECM surrounding myofibers?

A

Ullrich congential muscular dsytrophy (UCMD) which leads to hypotonia, proximal contractures and distal hyperextensibility; Merosin deficiency

21
Q

What are some congential conditions with abnormalities in receptors for ECM?

A

Congenital muscular dystrophy as well as developmental defects of the CNS and eyes that cause seizures, intellectual disability and blindness

22
Q

Which proteins are involved in limb girdle muscular dystrophy?

A

Sarcoglyan complex of proteins

23
Q

What are the two general patterns of muscle dysfunction seen in diseases of lipid or glycogen metabolism?

A

Sx with exervise or fasting (severe muscle cramping and pain or extensive muscle necrosis aka rhabdomyolysis) + slowly progressive muscle damage wihtout episodic manifestations

24
Q

What is spinal muscular atrophy?

A

Neuropathic disorder, loss of neurons —> muscle weakness and atrophy

25
What is floppy infant?
Infants with neurologic or neuromuscular dz may present with generalized hypotonia
26
The DDx for infantile hypotonia includes what?
Primary disease of SKM including congential myasthenic syndromes, myotonia, myopathies, muscular dystrophies; abnormalities of the brain (encephalopathy) or neuronopathies (SMA)
27
What are the characteristics of NF1?
Cafe au lait spots and Lisch nodules; optic pathway glioma; 17q11 coding for neurofibromin protien
28
What are the characteristics of NF2?
Bilateral acoustic schwannomas, NF2 plaque; 22q12 coding for merlin protein
29
What are the characteristics of VHL?
Hemangioblastoma of the cerebellum/spine, retinal angioma; 3q25
30
What are the characteristics of tuberous sclerosis?
Subendymal giant cell astrocytoma, ash leaf spots, retinal astrocytoma (mulberry lesion); 9q34, TCS1, hamartin
31
What are the characteristics for NBCC (gorlin syndrome)?
Medulloblastoma, BCC; 9q22.3 PTCH gene
32
What are the characteristics of Lhermitte-Duclos/cowden syndrome?
Dysplastic gangliocytoma of the cerebellum, facial trichilemmoma (cowden syndrome); 10q23.3 PTEN gene
33
What are the characteristics of Li-Fraumeni syndrome?
Malignant glioma; 17q p53