Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pneumonia study > Pneumonia study > Flashcards

Pneumonia study Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 3 categories of bacterial pneumonia.

A

Gram +
Gram -
Anaerobic (such as that caused by aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define bacterial pneumonia.

A

Infection of the airspace including the lung parenchyma & area of gas exchange; often evidenced by cough, consolidation, and other changes in the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T or F: Pneumonia is an obstructive disease.

A

False; Pneumonia is a restrictive disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the pathophysiological mechanism of pneumonia and the bodies response. Name 3 main points.

A

1 The body amounts an immune response when it detects a micro-organism–this may manifest in a the symptom of fever
2 This results in decreased V/Q ratio: Hypoxemia, increased venous admixture, increased pulmonary shunting
3. Then decreased lung compliance due to increased lung density (consolidation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What changes does a person infected with pneumonia experience in vital signs?

A 
Increases in:
Heart Rate
Respiratory Rate
Blood Pressure
Temperature
Cardiac Output
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

During inspection of a patient with pneumonia what will you see?

A

Chest excursion
Decreased chest expansion
Increased breathing pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do you find on palpitation?

A

Tactile fremitus is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T or F: Chest pain is a normal symptom of pneumonia that often radiates down the arm.

A

False; Chest pain is a symptom of pneumonia but does not radiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is percussion dull with pneumonia patients?

A

Due to alveolar filling and pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T or F: Atelectasis and pneumonia often exist together?

A

True; it can be evidenced by the sounds of crackles during auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T or F: Whispering pectoriloquey describes a sign of pneumonia which means that during auscultation when you listen to sound of the patient it becomes muffled and diminished due to consolidation of liquid in the alveoli.

A

False; In pneumonia the sound becomes louder & clearer as it goes through liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the findings you would expect to see on an xray of a lung infected with pneumonia:

A
  1. Increased alveolar density appearing white on xray where it should not, liquid appears on the xray as white opacity where normally would be black
  2. Bronchograms: black branching on white border; often evidenced with a border when confined to one lobe
  3. Obscuring of the heart and/or its border
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the normal plan of action to treat pneumonia when first diagnosed?

A

Monitoring saturation to keep above 90%
Antiobiotics to treat infection
Hydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A pneumonia has a blood gas as follows:
pH 7.50
CO2 29
HCO3 30
PaO2 =36
SaO2 = 69%
Describe what phase is the patient exhibiting?
A. Severe pneumonia
B. Acute Ventilatory Failure superimposed with hypoxemia
C. Acute Alveolar Hypoventilation with hypoxemia
D. Acute alveolar hyperventilation superimposed with hypoxemia

A

D. Acute alveolar hyperventilation superimposed with hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T or F: Pneumonia often causes a decrease in lung compliance which will result in an increase in the work of breathing.

A

T: A decrease in lung compliance will = an increase in the WOB; inversely related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a patient experiences increased airway resistance they will respond by:
1. The patient will slow their RR and increase the tidal volume to respond to increased airway resistance
2. The patient will take big breaths and have a small flow rate
3. Patient will change the minute volume to respond to changes caused by airway resistance
4. The patient will maintain minute volume but change the breathing pattern
A. 1 & 2
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 1 & 4 only

A

B. 1, 2 & 4
In response to increased airway resistance a patient will respond by slowing RR and increasing tidal volume; taking big breaths and having a small flow rate
Maintaining minute volume but change the breathing pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When a person experiences a decrease in lung compliance how will this be exhibited?
A. Increase in RR
B. Decrease in RR & tidal volume
C. Increase in RR and decrease in tidal volume
D. Increase in RR and tidal volume

A

C. Increase in RR and tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This pneumonia patient had a blood gas drawn with the following results:
pH 7.24
PaCO2 55

what does this indicate?

A

Acute alveolar hyperventilation with hypoxemia or severe stage pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the formula for compliance?

A

RR x Vt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T or F: The first stage of pneumonia the patient exhibits a productive cough

A

False; Normally it is barking & non productive and then progresses to purulent, blood streaked sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes the rust color often seen in the sputum of a pneumonia patient?

A

Fluid moving from pulmonary capillaries into alveoli due to effects of inflammatory response; also some rbc emter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Commonly when evaluating the effects on pneumonia which way would you expect to see the oxyhemoglobin disoacciation curve to turn? Is it on steep or flat part? And how does this affect affinity?

A

The curve will shift to the right and stay longer on steep part; It has diminished affinity for O2; easy to unload O2 but not load; therefore hb due to increase temp not holding O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is it uncommon not to see a productive cough when a person becomes infected with pneumonia?

A

Because it takes time for the secreation to reach the larger bronchi where it can be secreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name 4 manifestations that result from pneumonia?

A

Alveolar Consolidation
Increased alveolar capillary membrane thickness
Atelectasis
Excessive bronchial secreations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When prescribing the correct course of treatment for a newly diagnosed pneumonia patient the physician will:
A. Obtain a sputum sample, forward to the lab for analysis and begin a standard, protocol drug therapy for pneumonia so the patient is receiving immediate treatment
B. Obtain a sputum sample, forward to the lab but check patient history as to how or where the bug was acquired and prescribe the medicine based on these clues
C. Obtain sputum sample and forward to lab, wait for results and keep hydrated as prescribing the wrong medicine can result in a buildup of medicine resistant strains
D. None of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T or F: Bronchophony describes a evaluative technique in which an RT may listen to voice sounds to make a judgement on the existence of consolidation.

A

T: With bronchophony the patient will say a repetitive word several times and listen for a change in the clearness of the voice over different lung regions;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T or F: In a normal healthy lung when bronchophony the RT would hear clear sounds while patient repeats the repitive word.

A

F; With bronchophony the clear sound only exists over the lobes infected with pneumonia; normal lungs will sound muffled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What would you expect to find if a patient is positive for egophony?

A

When a patient repeats a vowel sound such as e it sets up vibration which can be heard; however, if lung consolidated then the vowel sound of e will sound like a over area of consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T or F: If a patient is positive for whispering pectoriloquy the sounds becomes enhanced, louder & clearer because the sound travels through liquid.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T or F: TB is a bacterial infection that primarily affects they lungs, but can still affect other parts of the body if the host is weak or your body has poor immune response

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T or F: Although TB is very virulent a health care practitioner can be assured proper protection if they include face mask, gown, and gloves when treating a patient with TB

A

F: The only mask that protects against TB is a HEPA mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T or F: TB is very virulent but it will die on its own if left untreated within 24 hrs.

A

False; a person can be infected by TB up to several days as it travels in the air current.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T or F: TB is a very micro fine or small particle.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe what happens when the macrophage digests the TB.
A. The TB will continue to grow inside the macrophage
B. Nothing, the macrophage cannot hurt or assist the body with TB due to its virulence
C. After being engulfed by macrophage the body isolates it, forms a protective sheath to isolate and then a tubercle will form
D. The body has successfully mounted an immune response to the bacteria

A

C. After being engulfed by macrophage the body isolates it, forms a protective sheath, & then forms a tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name the 3 categories of TB

A
  1. Primary pulmonary TB
  2. Post Primary Phase
  3. Disseminated tb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Once a tubercle is result of TB what happens to the infective material inside the isolated lesion?

A

It can lie dormant for years & reemerge as a result of a trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name 3 categories of TB

A

Primary pulmonary TB–initial infectious stage
Post Primary Phase–reinfection, sometimes years later
Disseminated TB- moves past lungs grows and forms tubercles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is another name used to describe TB that has disseminated to the rest of the body?

A

Miliary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

According to WHO by 2020 how many people will become infected with TB and who becomes ill & die?

A

1 billion people will become infected
200 million will become ill
35 million will die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What has the trend been with TB since 1985 in terms of infection and outcomes in the US?

A

Since 1985 it has increased in US; populations include HIV; Poor compliance with meds allows for mutation & drug resistant strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T or F: Mycobacteria TB is rod shaped, grows slowly and grows best in a well oxygenated environment, is known as an obligate aerobe?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the route of infection of TB

A

Inhalation of organism from infected coughing person or even talking breathing it in from an exhaled tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe what occurs in Stage I TB

A

This is an infectious stage; Bacilli implant after inhaled in alveoli; incubate & grow for 3-4 weeks; Then you see alveolar and interstitial inflammation which leads to consolidated lungs; at this stage appears like pneumonia; Next, after the acute part of stage a tubercle will form and the infected area becomes isolated & walled off; fibrous tissue forms & surrounds bacteria, bacteria stays in side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T or F: Once a nodule is formed after 2-10 weeks of exposure it can be viewed on an xray?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Name the 3 parts of the structure of the tubercle?

A

Central Core–where the bacteria remains
Enlarged macrophage–surrounds core
Outer layer of fibroblasts, lymphocytes, and neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The formed tubercle plays an important role to the body in protection; explain the advantage of disadvantage.

A

The tubercle acts to prevent further infection but it is a waiting time bomb as it can rupture and reinfect the patient years, or decades later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T or F: In post primary pulmonary TB the bacteria for TB is not infectious to others when it becomes reactivated.

A

False, it can affect others once becomes reactivated

48
Q

T or F: TB affects both the lung alveoli and the pleura.

A

True

49
Q

T or F: The TB especially in the second stage prefers the bottom lobes

A

False, TB tends to like the superior part of the upper lungs

50
Q

T or F: In the long term the presence of TB can cause fibrosis

A

True

51
Q

Explain what happens in Stage III TB.

A

When bacilli escape from tubercle it can move anywhere in the body and effect any system; it becomes “military” & systemic

52
Q

Another name for Stage III TB is?

A

Disseminated or Miliary TB

53
Q

How can TB be diagnosed?

A

A PPD subcutaneous skin test can show exposure, The AFB test (acid fast stain) shows pink staining if one is positive for TB, it shows a presence of immune response

54
Q

Name the test used to check for delayed hypersensitivity of TB?

A

Mantoux Test

55
Q

How large will the inflamed spot show on the skin after subcutaneous injection during the skin test?

A

Greater than 10 mm or greater than 5 mm in HIV patients

56
Q

T or F: PPD is known to be a very reliable predictor in the presence of true TB infection

A

False; it can show false negative especially in combination with certain other conditions such as infection, sarcoidosis, lymphoma, malignancy, and treatment with immunosuppressed drugs

57
Q

T or F; There is a vaccine available to prevent TB

A

True

58
Q

Why is the vaccine not provided in the US

A

Due to the use of PPD skin test for measurement of exposure; once a person is vaccinated it will show immune response and the tool of diagnosis will not be available

59
Q

T or F: The AFB test is a form of a subcutaneous test used to diagnose TB

A

False; The AFB test is a microbiology test; The PPD is a subcutaneous test

60
Q

Name the vaccine for TB?

A

BGC vaccine or calmette guerin

61
Q

T or F; There is no known treatment for TB except isolation & quarantine.

A

False; Treatment of TB is available which requires a 6 month regimen of medications:
Isoniazid, Rifampin
And 2 months of pyrazinamide

62
Q

T or F: There are a lot of side effects to the medications associated with TB treatement

A

True

63
Q

T or F: TB is never seen on an xray which is why it is so hard to diagnose?

A

False: TB can be seen on an Xray–It is seen as a cavity lesion with a white density that surrounds it; appears as white circles with dark insides & can view the fibrous cover of the cavity

64
Q

T or F: Once TB becomes military you may be able to view on the surface of the body

A

True; Once military, it can be viewed on the skin

65
Q

Name some common distinguishing symptoms of TB:

A

The symptoms look like pneumonia but may also include “night sweats” with chills; Decreasing appetite and rapid weight loss may be seen; A cough may become productive

66
Q

T or F: Just like pneumonia one symptom is chest pain which is especially intense when breathing, may favor left side and is non radiating.

A

True

67
Q

T or F: Increased sputum production is another hallmark symptom of TB which may appear thick, yellow with occasional fleck of blood

A

True

68
Q

If you induced a sputum sample and received sputum that appeared rusty, purulent & thick with an order which disease would you probably diagnose?

A

Pneumonia because TB normally manifests with a thick yellow sputum although both may appear with blood; often TB shows up with occasional flecks of blood; In pneumonia, hemoptysis is a common symptom, more blood may be visible in pneumonia

69
Q

T or F; if someone tests positive for TB on the PPD test they need to begin a regiment of 3 drug combination immediately to last approx. 6 months?

A

False; Further diagnosis is necessary with tools such as chest xray due to possibility of exposure only with no active infection; it needs to always be followed by diagnosis

70
Q

What cause the sound of fine inspiratory crackles in inspiration with restrictive diseases such as TB or pneumonia?

A

The alveoli or areas close by that are closed and then forced open

71
Q

T or F: An xray for TB and pneumonia are virtually indistinguishable therefore further lab analysis is needed for accurate diagnosis.

A

False; X ray is very reliable tool of diagnosis for TB vs Pneumonia; In tb you will see tubercles, eventually cavities; while in pneumonia you can expect to see bronchograms and obscurement of the heart

72
Q

Name a hallmark sign of pneumonia on a chest xray

A

Air bronchograms

73
Q

T or F increased alveolar density appears black where it should be white.

A

False; increased alveola density appears white on an xray where it normally would be black

74
Q

T or F: After initial diagnosis of pneumonia the RT plays a vital role in administering treatment and oxygen

A

False, in the early treatment of pneumonia the primary focus is treating the infection and administering the antibiotic; The RT will monitor saturation and administer O2 therapy only if prescribed

75
Q

T or F Bronchial hygiene plays a major role in the initial treatment of pneumonia to remove the infected material in the lungs

A

False; you would not perform bronchial hygiene on an early pneumonia patient with active infection due to fact it only would be spreading or moving infected material around

76
Q

Describe a blood gas seen in mild/moderate pneumobnia:

A

During first stage of mild/moderate pneumonia aka alveolar hyperventilation you will see an elevation of pH and decrease of CO2; Slight rise of HCO3;

77
Q

T or F: Hypoxemia is the typical cause of hyperventilation

A

True

78
Q

T or F: alveolar consolidation causes no ventilation & no perfusion leading to hypoxemia

A

False: it causes ventilation with no perfusion

79
Q

T or F: In restrictive diseases the lung volumes will get smaller

A

True

80
Q

Name the most common and prevalent fungal lung infection found which is endemic to the Ohio River Valley of the US.

A

Histoplasmosis

81
Q

This fungal infection is frequently seen in the dry, desert regions of the SW United States

A

Coccidiodomycosis

82
Q

This disease is sometimes called “Chicago’s disease”

A

Blastomyocis

83
Q

This disease enjoys a wide variety of climates and can be seen in the south central parts of the US as well as regions such as the middle east and Canada and s america

A

Blastomyocis

84
Q

Name the anatomical alterations that can occur in the lungs when infected with a fungal infection

A 
Alveolar capillary destruction
Alveolar consolidation
Cavity formation
Fibrosis of lung parenchyma
Gaseous tubercle
Increased airway secretions
85
Q

T or F: TB is normally associated with tubercles that form in the lungs but other conditions such as histoplasmosis may also cause formation of tubercles viewable on xray

A

true

86
Q

T or F: a typical response to inflammation is fever, accumulation of alveolar fluid

A

True

87
Q

What can distinguish fungal infections from TB?

A

In fungal infections you can view a layer of yeast like substance

88
Q

How is fungal diseases transmitted?

A

Inhalation route

89
Q

Describe what happens once a fungal spore is inhaled

A

The spores germinate in the lungs & form yeastlike substance
Inflammatory response begins–macrophages move in; dilation of pulmonary capillaries
Due to these changes interstitial fluid backs up and accumulates causing swelling of epithelium of alveoli leading to flooding & then consolidation of alveoli

90
Q

In severe cases of fungal infection what can happen to lung disuse?

A

Lung necrosis
Granulomas form around area creating a fibrous sheath making lungs stiffer, less compliant
Then Fibrosis forms
Calcification of area may result

91
Q

T or F: The formation of cavities allows for easy access of medications to the infection

A

False; it makes it harder for medications to reach the area therefore causing the disease to harbor for years; this is true for fungal infections as well as TB

92
Q

You find this disease in MI, IL, MS, MI, KY, TN, GA, ARK

A

Histoplasmosis

93
Q

The fungal spores can be found in what medium in its home region?

A

Found in soil especially near birds

94
Q

What determines whether the infection becomes chronic or acute?

A

The inflammatory response of the body

95
Q

What is another important factor in determining the response to the exposure?

A

Inensity of exposure: Concentration of spores, amount of time exposed, and number of spores inhaled

96
Q

T or F: the majority of those exposed to fungal infections never get sick or develop symptoms

A

True only about 40% every develop phases

97
Q

What may be seen as evidence of exposure, sometimes it may be the only evidence of exposure?

A

In histoplasmosis a single solitary pulmonary module may be present

98
Q

What are the phases of Histoplasmosis infection?

A

Symptomatic/Acute: Mild/Severe symptoms of fever, muscle and joint pain, chills sweas headache, dry hacking coug, chest pain, weight loss
Severe Acute: Symptoms all the same but more severe and exaggerated/ Spelunkers lung
Chronic Pulmonary Histoplasmosis: Often with a co-morbidity; Evenutally condition reaches equilibrium, no better or worse, cavity formation often seen here in upper lobes
Disseminated Histoplasmosis–can affect anywhere, can be fatal

99
Q

How can you diagnose fungal infections?

A

Fungal stain, fungal culture, serology

100
Q

What is the gold standard of fungal infection diagnosis?

A

A fungal culture as it is 100& accurate but it takes a long time to grow causing delayed treatment

101
Q

T or F: Serology is also a very reliable form of diagnosis in fungal infections.

A

False, it causes many false negatives

102
Q

In the disease of coccidiomycosis there are all similar symptoms except with this condition we have a manifestation of a new symptom, what is it?

A

Thin walled cells called spherules form, these can be seen on xray, very distinctive

103
Q

T or F: A visual sign of coccidiodomycosis may be desert bumps or swollen lumps on the skin

A

True

104
Q

T or F: it is rare but possible for meningitis to result from disseminated version of coccidiodomycosis

A

True

105
Q

How many cases of Chronic progressive coccidiomycosis occur?

A

1 in 200 cases, rare but can cause nodular growths or funagamos

106
Q

What condition does desert arthritis refer to?

A

The disseminated version of coccidiodomycosis

107
Q

T or F: Blastomycosis has a very low infection rate and manifests in unique symptoms that include a purulent yellow phlegm, chest pain, aching joints, pulmonary nodules or abscesses

A

True

108
Q

T or F the new symptom for blastomycosis is presence of pulmonary nodules & abscesses

A

True

109
Q

T or F: Once blastomycosis disseminates it often likes the skin although it can spread anywhere

A

True

110
Q

What medications are commonly used to treat fungal infections?

A

Amphotericin B & itraconazole

111
Q

What is a common infection of oral cavity often seen with use of inhaled corticoseteroids?

A

Candida albicans

112
Q

This fungi is found everywhere & loves old building, can be dangerous to those who remodel

A

Aspergillius

113
Q

This proliferates in bird droppings and often becomes scatterered in air?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

114
Q

T or F: 1 in 200 cases of desert fungi progress to more chronic phase, and 1 in 6000 disseminate:

A

True

115
Q

If I see thin walled cells or spherules I probably have what condition?

A

Coccidiodomycosis

Pneumonia study (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions