PNA and influenza Flashcards

1
Q

Define pneumonia

most common cause?

A

1) inflammation of parenchyma (alveoli)
2) accumulation of abnormal alveolar filling with fluid

caused by infection

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2
Q

Why are lungs considered protective defenses?

A

1) lungs exposed to particulate matter and microbes in upper airway
2) lower airways organism free but NOT STERILE
3) MICROASPIRATION allows materials/microbes to enter lower resp tract

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3
Q

Causes of infectious pneumonia (6)

A

1) inhalation of infectious particles ** (develops into CAP for Legionella/M tuberculosis)
2) inhalation of oropharngeal/gastric contents
3) hematogeneous spread (blood stream infectious)
4) infection from adjacent/contiguous structures
5) direct inoculation
6) reactiv

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4
Q

Mechanism of pneumonia

A

1) decr host ability to fight against microbial pathogens
2) leads to impaired mechanical (cilia, mucous), humoral, and cellular host defenses

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5
Q

Clinical presentation

Main symptoms of infectious pneumonia

A

1) infection = high fever, chills
2) skin = clammmy/blue = hypoxia/hypoxemia
3) pleuritic chest pain
4) Low blood pressure, high HR due to incr metabolims and incr vascular resistance due to fever
5) cough with sputum/phlegm
6) SOB

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6
Q

Production of sputum vs. minimal sputum indicates what type of pneumonia

A

sputum = bacterial

minimal sputum = atypical vs viral

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7
Q

Clinical history of pneumonia

A

1) elderly = atypical because may not have cough
2) atypical PNA = young patients (most common d/t fatigue)
3) Acute < 7 days, subacute 7-14, chronic > 14

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8
Q

Risk factors for PNA

A

1) alcohol

2) HIV
3) welder/farmer/wood worker

4) mineral oil –> oil destroys cilia in airways
5) social factors
6) COPD
7) Drugs= IVDU (macrobid/nitrofurantoin/methotrexate)

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9
Q

Vital signs of pneumonia

A

1) fever
2) tachypnea
3) tachycardia
4) hypoxia

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10
Q
A
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11
Q

Pulmonary exam for pneumonia

A

1) crackles
2) rhonchi
3) bronchial breath sounds
4) egophony
5) dullness to percussion

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12
Q

Tests to order for pneumonia

A

1) CXR
2) CBC
3) CMP
4) Blood gas/pulse ox

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13
Q

Can radiographic features differentiate etiology of pneumonia?

A

RADIOGRAPHIC FEATURES ALONE CAN’T DIFFERENTIATE ETIOLOGY OF PNEUMONIA

NOT SUFFICIENT TO CONFIRM DIAGNOSIS

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14
Q

What can fill alveoli?

A

Poor = pus

Funny = fluid

Boy = blood

Can’t = cells/cancer

Piss = proteins

For = fat/lipid

Crap = calcium

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15
Q

What are key features of pneumonia on CXR

A

1) lobar consolidation
2) interstitial infiltrates
3) cavitation

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16
Q
A
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17
Q

DDx of Pneumonia Airways Diseases

A

1) crytogenic organizing pneumonia = rare interstitial lung disease
2) allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosus
3) bronchiectasis = destruction of airway due to chronic infection and/or assoc with genetic abnormalities (cystic fibrosis)
4) bronchopulmonary sequestration
5) bronchocentric granulomatosis

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18
Q

Pneumonia DDx Vascular Diseases

A

• Alveolar Hemorrhage Syndromes = destroy basement membrane of capillary bed

  • Eosinophilic lung diseases = idiopathic or drug related
  • Pulmonary infarction”
  • Fat emboli = Fat to lungs is pro-inflamm; from trauma
  • Vasculitis
  • Collagen Vascular Diseases = scleroderma, lupus, RA
  • Vascular tumors”
  • Acute chest syndrome in sickle cell crisis
19
Q
A
20
Q

If bronchiectasis is localized to right middle lobe and patient is aged (70’s, Caucasian descent)

A

= Lady-windermere syndrome (non-tuberculosis mycobacterial disease)

21
Q

Pneumonia DDx of parenchymal diseases

A

1) hypersensitivity pneumonitis = type of ILD = allergic reaction due to birds

22
Q
A

Consolidation with air bronchograms

23
Q
A

Right upper lobe obstruction with alveolar filling spaces

Air fluid level (straight line) on left lung

Cavitation on right and pneumonia on left = bacteria

24
Q
A

Right sided pleurla effusion and every lung field is involved (reticular pattern = lacy like pattern = interstitial pattern = miliary pneumonia) = disseminated tuberculosis

25
Q
A

Dense consolidation of right upper lobe

Some consolidation in right lower lobe

26
Q
A

interstitial pneumonia

Reticular fine pattern

27
Q
A

mediastinal widening = hila on right and left (fluffiness of hila) à vascular pouch is widened

= inhalational anthrax

28
Q
A

normal CXR that can lead to S pneumonia PNA = filled with fluid and ARDS

29
Q

Initial management

A

1) is patient immunocompromised/severe disease
- sputum gram stain
- but still start antibiotic immediately within first 60 min to decr mortality
- urinary antigens
2) inpatient
- HIV
- thoracentesis = analysis of pleural effusion
- nasal swab for fluid or viral multiplex
- quantiferon for TB
3) deteriorating patient without cause
- bronchoscopy
- transthoracic apirate

30
Q

Treatment of PNA

pathogen directed vs. empiric therapy

A

1) broad spectrum empiric antibiotic therapy first
2) then after you figure out PNA etiology –> tailor antibiotics

31
Q

Types of pneumonia (4)

A

1) Community acquired pneumonia
2) Nosocomial acquired pneumonia/
3) ventilator assoc pneumonia
4) healthcare assoc pneumonia

32
Q

Community acquired pneumonia

1) how do you get it

A

outside the hospital

diagnosed < 48 hrs after hospital admission (cannot be in facility for >14 days)

33
Q

Community acquired pneumonia

most commonly caused by:

A

Bacteria most common

  • strep pneumo (30-60%) and atypical organisms (10-20%)
34
Q

CAP treatment

outpatient

A

1) macrolide or doxycycline
2) respiratory fluoroquinolone
3) beta-lactam + macrolide

35
Q

CAP treatment

inpatient

A

1) Non ICU = respiratory fluoro or beta lactam + macrolide
2) ICU = beta lactam + macrolide, beta lactam + resp fluoro

36
Q

Nosocomial acquired pneumonia

how do you get?

A

PNA > 48 hrs after hospital admission

37
Q

Ventilator associated pneumonia

how do you get?

A

PNA > 48-72 hrs after endotracheal tube intubation

38
Q
A
39
Q

Key features of HAP, VAP, HCAP organisms

A

1) polymicrobial, MDR organisms colonize oropharynx
2) enter lowe resp tract by micro/macro aspiration

40
Q

MDR pathogens

gram negatives

A

SPACE

1) serratia
2) pseudomonas
3) acinetobacter
4) citrobacter
5) enterobacter or e coli

41
Q

MDR

gram positive

A

MRSA

42
Q

How do you treat HAP, VAP, HCAP?

A

1) Antipseudomonal agent = cephalosporin or carbopenem
2) + 1 of either = anti-pseudomonal fluoroquinolone or anti-gram neg aminoglycoside
3) + 1 of either anti-MRSA = linezolid or vancomycin

43
Q
A