PMR qbank question review Flashcards

1
Q

how deep into the tissue does superficial heat penetrate?

A

1-2 cm

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2
Q

US produces the highest temps in what tissue?

A

bone

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3
Q

frequency of US is set at…

A

0.8 - 1.1 MHz

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4
Q

How deep does US heat structures to >100F

A

8cm

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5
Q

how deep does short wave diathermy penetrate

A

5cm

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6
Q

what modality helps with hematomo resolution

A

microwave diathermy

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7
Q

gate theory involves which nerve fibers

A

large myelinated Type A fibers

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8
Q

most conventional TENS setting

A

high frequency, low intensity

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9
Q

minimum amount of weight needed for cervical traction

A

25 lbs

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10
Q

muscle contraction with greatest force

A

fast eccentric

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11
Q

how much body weight is needed to help with lumbar traction

A

1/4-1/2 of body weight (atleast 50-100lbs)

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12
Q

what % of patients with polymyositis have myalgies?

A

<30%

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13
Q

what is Pannus

A

hypertrophied synovium

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14
Q

polymyositis has a strong association with?

A

Malignancy

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15
Q

what epitope is associated with RA

A

HLA-DR4

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16
Q

what percent of RA patients are RF +

A

80%

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17
Q

Pseudogout is associated with… (6)

A
amyloidosis
hypothyroidism
hypomagnesia
hypophosphatemia
hyperparathyroidism
hemochromatosis
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18
Q

DISH is associated with

A

Metabolic syndrome

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19
Q

average amount of time between gout attacks

A

11 months

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20
Q

rupture of terminal portion of extensor hood?

what test to diagnose

A

Boutoneirre deformity

Elson test

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21
Q

Podagra is seen in…. (3)

A

RA, sarcoid, gout

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22
Q

where is the joint narrowed in hip OA

A

superolateral joint space narrowingon Xray

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23
Q

which diseases are associated with HLA-B27

A

enteropathic arthropathy
ankylosing spondylitis
Reiters syndrome

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24
Q

hand joint most affected by hand OA

A

first CMC joint

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25
Q

most common A-A joint subluxation direction is

A

anterior

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26
Q

chest expansion less than _____ cm is predictive of respiratory difficulties in restrictive lung disease

A

7-8cm

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27
Q

organism associated with reactive arthritis

A

salmonella

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28
Q

what effect does methotrexate have on rheumatoid nodules

A

worsens them

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29
Q

what is Caplans syndrome

A

coal worker with pneumoconiosis and RA with RF+

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30
Q

what % of patients with psoriasis develop inflammatory joint disease

A

5%

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31
Q

What is Feltys syndrome

A

RA, splenomegaly, and leukopenia

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32
Q

what test should be ordered before starting Plaquenil (Hydroxychloroquine)

A

eye exam

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33
Q

routine testing while on Methotrexate?

A

monthly CBC

LFT and renal every 1-3 months

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34
Q

Raynauds is associated with which autoimmune disorder

A

Scleroderma

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35
Q

what type of Myositis is associated with childhood

A

Type IV

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36
Q

cut off age to be diagnosed with JRA

A

16

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37
Q

Stills Disease characteristics

A

myalgias
rash on truck with fever
peak onset between 1-6 years, equal M and F

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38
Q

what is prognosis for most kids with JRA

A

most achieve remission

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39
Q

Most common bug associated with septic arthritis in neonates

A

S. aureus

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40
Q

disease with glucocerebrosidase deficiency

A

Gauchers disease

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41
Q

deficiency of enzyme homogenistic acid oxidase -

A

alkaptonuria - blue urine, cartilage, skin, and sclera

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42
Q

treatment for acute Charcot joint

A

total contact cast with eval q1-2 weeks

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43
Q

most common tendon rupture site in RA patients

A

Lister tubercle

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44
Q

myotonic muscular dystrophy affects which type of muscle fibers

A

skeletal, smooth, and cardiac

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45
Q

histologic findings of dermatomyositis

A

perivascular and interfascicular inflammatory infiltrates with adjoining groups of muscle fiber degeneration/regeneration

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46
Q

histologic findings of polymyositis

A

endomysial mononuclear inflammatory infiltrates and muscle fiber necrosis.

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47
Q

psoriatic arthritis most commonly affects which joints

A

DIPs

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48
Q

which medication can worsen psoriatic arthritis symptoms

A

hydroxycloroquine

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49
Q

second line treatment for raynauds

A

IV prostonoids

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50
Q

innervation of levator scapulae

A

C3/C4 nerve root and dorsal scapular nerve

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51
Q

pec minor insertion

A

coracoid process

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52
Q

innervation of teres major

A

lower subscapular nerve

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53
Q

brachialis insertion

A

coronoid process of ulna

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54
Q

FCR insertion

A

base of 2nd metacarpal

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55
Q

arterial supply of FCR

A

ulnar artery

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56
Q

FCU insertion

A

pisiform bone, hamate, and 5th metacarpal

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57
Q

FDP nerve roots

A

C8/T1

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58
Q

Innervation of FDP

A

ulnar nerve and anterior interosseous nerve

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59
Q

potential compression site of PIN syndrome

A

ECRB, supinator

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60
Q

PIN sensory distribution

A

No cutaneous innervation

Sensory fibers of dorsal wrist capsule

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61
Q

2 thenar muscles that are ulnarly innervated

A

adductor pollicis

1/2 flexor pollicis brevis

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62
Q

origin of lumbricals

A

FDP tendon

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63
Q

innervation of iliacus

A

Femoral nerve L1, L2, L3

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64
Q

iliospoas insertion

A

lesser trochanter

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65
Q

vastus group origin

A

greater trochanter

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66
Q

glut max insertion

A

fascia lata

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67
Q

glut med insertion

A

Greater trochanter

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68
Q

glut min action

A

abducts and internally rotates hip

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69
Q

glut med and mad action

A

abduct and externally rotate hip

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70
Q

biceps femoris long head insertion

A

fibular head

some LCL and lateral tibial condyle

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71
Q

obturator externus action

A

adduction and external rotation of thigh

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72
Q

flexor digitorum brevis innervation

A

medial plantar nerve

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73
Q

lateral plantar nerve innervated which muscles

A
abductor digiti minimi
adductor hallucus
quadratus plantae
plantar interossei
dorsal interossei
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74
Q

what structure passes through the triangular space

A

scapular circumflex artery

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75
Q

what structure passes through the triangular interval

A

radial nerve

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76
Q

radial border of Gunyon canal

A

hook of hamate

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77
Q

ulnar border of Gunyon canal

A

pisiform and abductor digiti minimi muscle belly

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78
Q

lumbosacral plexus is made up of

A

ventral rami of T12-S3

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79
Q

anterior division of femoral nerve innervates what muscles

A

sartorius and pectineus

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80
Q

saphenous nerve branches from what nerve

A

posterior division of femoral nerve

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81
Q

posterior division of obturator nerve innervates

A

adductor magnus

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82
Q

superficial posterior compartment contains which muscles

A

gastroc
soleus
plantaris

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83
Q

normal femur head subtrochanteric angle is

A

135 deg

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84
Q

what type of collagen is found in all basal membranes

A

Type IV

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85
Q

what type of collagen is found in muscle

A

Type III

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86
Q

what type of collagen is found in bone, tendon and ligaments

A

Type I

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87
Q

What type of collagen is found in epiphyseal plate

A

Type X

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88
Q

In which brain structure does clonidine act on to reduce symptoms of opiate withdrawal?

A

Locus coeruleus

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89
Q

which nuclei helps with visual perception

A

lateral genicular nucleus of thalamus

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90
Q

space between pharyngeal surface of tongue and epiglottis

A

valleculae

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91
Q

which MCA branch supplies subcortical structures

A

M1

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92
Q

vertebral arteries branch off the

A

subclavian arteries

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93
Q

Role of donepazil in mild/moderate/severe dementia

A

improve well being ( improve cognitive function and ADLs)

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94
Q

greatest modifiable risk factor for stroke

A

HTN

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95
Q

what % of strokes are ichemic

A

87%

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96
Q

left visual neglect and left homonymous hemianopsia

A

right PCA

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97
Q

what artery is indicated with amaurosis fugax

A

ICA

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98
Q

Anton syndrome is…

A

Bilateral visual field cuts that result in a denial of cortical blindness
A transient inability to read faces
A syndrome of nausea, vomiting and alexia
An oculomotor palsy with a contralateral hemiplegia

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99
Q

decerebrate posturing is seen in lesions of the….

decorticate posturing is seen in lesions of the…

A

Brainstem

cortex

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100
Q

presentation of lateral medullary syndrome

A
sensation changes on ipsilateral face,
sensation changes on contralateral body
ataxia
dysphagia/hiccups etc
NO motor weakness
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101
Q

presentation of Weber syndrome

A

ipsilateral CN3 palsy

contralateral hemiplegia

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102
Q

presentation of Medial medullary syndrome

A

Ipsilateral CN12 palsy
contralateral hemiplegia
contralateral tactile sensory loss

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103
Q

Presentation of Miller-Gubler syndrome

A

Ipsilateral CN6 paralysis
contralateral hemiplegia
contralateral sensory loss

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104
Q

Pure Motor hemiplegia stroke - where is the lesion

A

posterior limb of internal capsule

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105
Q

pure sensory stroke - where is the lesion

A

Thalamus

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106
Q

The mortality rate in the first 24 hours after a subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

25%

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107
Q

treatment for early posttraumatic seizure

A

IV valproic acid

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108
Q

uses spiral and diagonal components of movement rather than the traditional movements in cardinal planes of motion with the goal of facilitating movement patterns that will have more functional relevance than the traditional technique of strengthening individual group muscles.

A

NMF (neuromuscular facilitation)

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109
Q

encourage normal movement and tone, while suppressing the inhibitive movements patterns that arise after stroke. This approach is most commonly used.

A

Bobath

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110
Q

focuses on using abnormal movement in an attempt to improve motor control

A

Brunnstrom approach

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111
Q

Cantu return to play - how long should they sit out if loss consciousness for >5min

A

1 month

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112
Q

hemorrhagic stroke in which area is most likely to be associated with a seizure

A

Temporal

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113
Q

a coma can result from damage in which area?

A

brainstem of bilateral cerebral hemispheres

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114
Q

what type of exercise is used to treat ataxia

A

Frenkel exercises are used to treat ataxia. They usually consist of many repetitions of slow exercise.

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115
Q

Which Brunnstrom stage of motor recovery is defined as the stage of maximal spasticity?

A

Stage 3

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116
Q

A 60-year-old male with a past medical history of an MI with resultant cardiomyopathy, now presents with a large territory stroke. What is the most likely cause?

A

mural thrombus

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117
Q

Nearly 1/2 of intracerebral hemorrhages occur at what structure?

A

Putamen

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118
Q

Which is an environmental risk factor for the development of Parkinson’s?

A

pesticide exposure

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119
Q

dysarthria and clumsy hand syndrome is found from a lesion in the?

A

pons and anterior limb of internal capsule

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120
Q

A patient with a Ranchos Los Amigos rating of VI will most likely require what level of assistance?

A

moderate assistance

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121
Q

In an upper division MCA stroke, which is most likely?

A

stronger legs than arms

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122
Q

Pure lower MCA division presentation

A

No weakness
No sensory changes
language, visual deficits and awareness of deficits are usually significant.

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123
Q

Alexia without agraphia is most likely to occur with an infarct in which location?

A

PCA

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124
Q

Presentation of Benedikt syndrome

A

contralateral chorea as it affects the red nucleus. The red nucleus contributes to coordination and body positioning.

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125
Q

This stroke rehabilitation approach utilizes a system of therapeutic exercises enhanced by cutaneous stimulation; in addition to, proprioceptive maneuvers to promote recovery.

A

Rood approach

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126
Q

first muscles to become weak with DMD

A

neck flexors

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127
Q

most common heart defect with Downs syndrome

A

VSD

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128
Q

a congenital deformity in which the limbs are extremely shortened so that the feet and hands arise close to the trunk

A

phocomelia

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129
Q

Sinding-Larsen-Johansenn disease

A

(patellar tendonitis) in pediatrics will present with anterior patella pain and similar x-ray findings.

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130
Q

is the most common cause of limping and pain in a child’s hip.

A

Transient (toxic) synovitis of the hip

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131
Q

The most common level of a pars defect in children is at

A

L5`

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132
Q

Which type of JRA is associated with iridocyclitis?

A

pauciarticular

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133
Q

In JRA, which joint tends to be affected more in children?

A

cervical spine

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134
Q

where is osteosarcoma found in the bone

A

metaphysis

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135
Q

where is Ewing sarcoma found in the bone

A

diaphysis

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136
Q

Erbs or Klumpkes has the better prognosis

A

Erbs. Recovery often by age 2

137
Q

what type of AC injury disrupts both the AC and CC ligaments

A

Type 3

138
Q

primary vascular supple to knee

A

Popliteal arterty - which branches into the genicular arteries

139
Q

highest center of gravity during gait -

A

mid stance

140
Q

what type of collagen in annulus fibrosis

A

Type 1

141
Q

define gunstock deformity

A

cubitus varus is an abnormal varus angle of the elbow that usually follows a distal humerus fracture.

142
Q

lowest center of gravity during gait

A

loading response

143
Q

first dorsal wrist compartment and syndrome associated

A

APL, EPB = De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

144
Q

second dorsal wrist compartment and syndrome associated

A

ECRL, ECRB = Intersection syndrome

145
Q

third dorsal wrist compartment and syndrome associated

A

EPL = Drummer’s wrist, traumatic rupture with distal radius fracture

146
Q

fourth dorsal wrist compartment and syndrome associated

A

EI, EDC = Extensor tenosynovitis

147
Q

fifth dorsal wrist compartment and syndrome associated

A

EDM = Vaughn-Jackson syndrome

148
Q

sixth dorsal wrist compartment and syndrome associated

A

ECU = Snapping ECU(treat with immobilization)

149
Q

What is the optimal degree of fixation in a bilateral elbow arthrodesis

A

110 and 65 degrees

150
Q

treatment for jersey finger

A

urgent surgical referral

151
Q

Where is the most common site of a hamstring rupture?

A

myotendinous junction

152
Q

What is the optimal degree of fixation in a unilateral elbow arthrodesis?

A

90 degrees

153
Q

What are the three main glenohumeral ligaments?

A

Superior glenohumeral, middle glenohumeral and inferior glenohumeral ligament

154
Q

A posterolateral L4/L5 herniation affects which nerve root

A

L5

155
Q

name the 4 throwing phases

A

Biomechanics of throwing a baseball

Cocking phase
Acceleration early
Acceleration late
Follow-through

Greatest forces in late cocking/early acceleration

156
Q

far-lateral/foraminal L3/L4 disc herniation affects which nerve root

A

L3

157
Q

name the 6 determinants of gait

A
Pelvic Rotation
Pelvic Tilt
Knee Flexion in midstance
Foot and Ankle motion
Knee motion
Lateral Pelvic motion
158
Q

is due to inflammation at crossing point of 1st dorsal compartment (APL and EPB ) and 2nd dorsal compartment (ECRL, ECRB) and is often seen in rowers.

A

intersection syndrome

159
Q

Treatment for gamekeeper thumb, if the thumb is unstable in flexion,

A

surgical referral

160
Q

Housemaid’s knee is inflammation of the:

A

prepatellar bursitis

161
Q

Which rehabilitation program is best for a posterior-lateral herniation

A

Mckenzie

162
Q

Which rehabiliation program is best for far lateral NPH

A

neutral and flexion based program

163
Q

The Hill-Sachs Lesion is located:

A

posterolateral humeral head

164
Q

The most common etiology of Vaughn-Jackson syndrome is:

A

This is a disruption of the extensor tendons associated with rheumatoid arthritis.

165
Q

Jerk test

A

Posterior glenohumeral instability

166
Q

An acute peroneal tendon subluxation is best treated with

A

Short leg cast immobilization and protected weight bearing for 6 weeks is the recommendation.

167
Q

Which test assesses for inferioglenohumeral instability

A

sulcus sign

168
Q

list 5 phases of gait cycle

A
Initial Contact
Loading response
Midstance
Terminal stance
Preswing
169
Q

X-rays are obtained and demonstrate an oblique fracture-subluxation at the base of the thumb metacarpal. This type of fracture is termed a:

A

bennetts fracture

170
Q

The most common muscle injured in an adductor muscle strain is the:

A

adductor longus

171
Q

most commonly injured knee ligament

A

MCL

172
Q

A prominence of the posterior superior calcaneal tuberosity that contributes to inflammation of the overlying tissues and the Achilles tendon is called a:

A

Haglund deformity

173
Q

During the loading response, which muscles use eccentric force?

A

pre-tibial muscles

174
Q

How soon can active range of motion begin after shoulder arthrodesis?

A

8-12 weeks

175
Q

At what percent of increase in energy cost do most patients prefer to use a wheelchair to ambulate?

A

300%

176
Q

The most common complication after a hip fracture is:

A

Heterotopic ossification

177
Q

At what angle of knee flexion are the medial and lateral patella facets in contact with the sulcus?

A

45 deg

178
Q

The recommended position for shoulder arthrodesis is

A

30 degrees abduction, 30 degrees flexion, 30 degrees internal rotation.

179
Q

A fracture of the proximal ulna with a dislocation of the radial head is termed a

A

Monteggia fracture

180
Q

The mainstay rehabilitation program for a vertebral compression fracture involves primarily:

A

extension exercises

181
Q

Which nerve injury is considered after a Monteggia fracture?

A

posterior interosseous nerve

182
Q

What is the most common type of elbow fracture seen in children?

A

supracondrylar

183
Q

Strengthening which muscle group may be the most helpful in avoiding an ACL tear in women?

A

hamstrings

184
Q

In slipped capital femoral epiphysis, the femoral head is displaced

A

posteriorly and inferiorly

185
Q

Which is the most common type of spondylolisthesis in all adults?

A

degenerative

186
Q

A nondisplaced 1mm fracture of the scaphoid bone at the proximal 3rd should be immobilized in a thumb spica splint for how long?

A

5 months

187
Q

is a fracture of the C7 spinous process. There are no neurological deficits associated with this.

A

Clay Shoveler’s fracture

188
Q

The Lisfranc ligament attaches:

A

The medial cuneiform to the 2nd metatarsal

189
Q

The iliacus inserts onto the:

A

lesser trochanter

190
Q

Which muscle originates at the ischial spine, inserts onto the greater trochanter and abducts the flexed hip?

A

superior gamellus

191
Q

X-ray of the 2nd DIP reveals volar subluxation of the distal phalanx with a non-displaced dorsal bony avulsion at the distal phalanx. What is the next best step in management?

A

reduction and pinning

192
Q

Lumbar facets primarily prevent:

A

axial rotation

193
Q

What is the most common surgical procedure performed for the treatment of medial tibial stress syndrome that has not improved with conservative treatment?

A

posterior fasciotoomy

194
Q

posterolateral corner complex is made up of

A

the arcuate ligament, fibular collateral ligament, and popliteus muscle tendon.

195
Q

Which humeral fracture has the highest risk of AVN?

A

anatomic neck

196
Q

Dorsal displacement and angulation of a distal radial fracture is called a:

A

Colles fracture

197
Q

Volar displacement and angulation of a distal radial fracture is called a:

A

Smith fracture

198
Q

fracture of 5th metacarpal

A

Boxers fracture

199
Q

fracture of 5th metatarsal

A

Jones fracture

200
Q

After a shoulder arthroplasty, which movement is contraindicated?

A

external rotation

201
Q

The history provided with a positive fulcrum test is most indicative of

A

a distal femoral stress fracture.

202
Q

The most common complication after a shoulder arthroplasty is:

A

glenoid loosening

203
Q

The recurrence rate of Dupuytren’s Disease after surgery is approximately:

A

50%

204
Q

A congenital condition with a small and undescended scapula is referred to as:

A

Sprengels deformity

205
Q

The mainstay treatment of an osteoid osteoma is:

A

NSAIDS

206
Q

Initial treatment of Hoffa’s syndrome includes:

A

Hoffa’s syndrome (infrapatellar fat pad irritation) is typically first treated with taping and physical therapy. A corticosteroid injection can be used in recalcitrant cases. If these measures fail, then orthopedic intervention is recommended.

207
Q

Hueston tabletop tests

A

consists of placing your hand flat on a table. If the involved finger is unable to lie flat, then the test is positive. - Dupytren disease

208
Q

Noble’s test is positive with which pathology?

A

ITB syndrome

209
Q

Patient lies supine
Examiner’s thumb at 2 cm proximal to the lateral femoral epicondyle
Patient repeatedly flexes (to 60 degrees) and extends knee

A

Nobles test

210
Q

You ask the patient to lie supine with her leg extended. You then place your hand on her thigh, cupping the patella. You then ask the patient to contract her quad. Which test did you just perform?

A

patellofemoral grind test

211
Q

intrarticular fracture of the 1st metacarpal that extends into the CMC. This fracture typically results from a fist fight.

A

Bennet fracture

212
Q

The most common pathogen associated with burn cellulitis prior to giving antibiotics is:

A

Strep Pyogenes

213
Q

The resolution of inflammation in which collagen is laid down to form the scar represents which phase of wound healing?

A

maturation phase

214
Q
expected healing time for:
superficial partial thickness burn is 
Superficial wounds
deep partial thickness 
full  thickness burns
A

14 days
7 days
17-21 days
>28 days

215
Q

Which burns are the most painful initially?

A

2nd degree

216
Q

how much pressure is needed to counteract a burn scar contraction force?

A

25mmhg

217
Q

In a patient with a dorsal hand burn, how should the MCPs be splinted?

A

60-90 degrees

218
Q

Which is the most common primary adult brain tumor?

A

glioma (gliobastoma)

219
Q

What is the most common focal sign of brain cancer?

A

weakness

220
Q

what emg findings are commonly seen in patients with multiple myeloma, lung cancer, colon and breast cancer who present with paresthesias, sensory loss and gait abnormalities.

A

Fibrillation and polyphasic potentials

221
Q

Which is the most common presenting symptom of radiation plexopathy?

A

numbness and paresthesias

222
Q

In a patient with cancer-related myopathy, which exercise program is likely to be the most beneficial?

A

isometric

223
Q

Your 54-year-old new cancer rehabilitation patient is s/p mastectomy and has swelling in her left arm that you diagnose as lymphedema. How often does this occur?

A

33% (1/3)

224
Q

Lymphedema that is pitting and reversible by elevation is described as a Grade:

A

grade 1

225
Q

Which imaging modality is a poor choice in diagnosing/evaluating multiple myeloma?

A

bone scan - needs blastic activity and MM is lytic

226
Q

During low-level graded stress testing, the American Heart Association suggests a Borg Rate of Perceived Exertion Rating of:

A

13-15

227
Q

Which is an indication for terminating a low-level exercise test during cardiac rehabilitation?

A

A heart rate above 130 beats per minute
drop in SBP >10
ST elevation in leads indicating pathology
significant angina

228
Q

Cardiac patients diagnosed with which condition should be excluded from resistance training?

A

Aerobic capacity less than 5 METs
CHF
Severe vascular disease

229
Q

How much more energy does it take to ambulate with bilateral above-knee prostheses after traumatic injury?

A

200% likely use wheelchair for ambulation

230
Q

How many of the day’s total calories should come from fat on a Step I diet?

A

<30%

231
Q

Overall, exercise training improves functional capacity in patients with heart failure and decreases ventricular systolic dysfunction secondary to:

A

Adaptations in the peripheral circulation that place less stress on the heart

232
Q

Involuntary control of respiration originates in the:

A

medulla oblongata

233
Q

Death rates from COPD are higher in men or women?

A

women

234
Q

Exercise impairment develops when the FEV1 falls below:

A

3L

235
Q

A scoliotic angle greater than *** degrees would cause a patient to have dyspnea.

A

90

236
Q

The normal rate of FEV1 loss per year is

A

30cc

237
Q

A vital capacity less than *** would have an impaired ability to cough.

A

25 ml/kg

238
Q

At what point should supplemental oxygen be used during exercise?

A

sats <90

239
Q

You are on a consult regarding a patient with a cervical spinal cord injury. The respiratory therapist has the patient placed prone with her buttocks elevated. What area of the lung is the therapist attempting to drain?

A

superior segments of both lower lobes

240
Q

In an upright patient, which lung zone has more ventilation than perfusion?

A

zone 1

241
Q

The tracheal tube must be downsized to what diameter before considering decannulation?

A

8mm

242
Q

What is the best modality for acute to subacute low back pain?

A

superficial heat

243
Q

What does the “no fault” workman’s comp system mean?

A

Neither employer or employee have to prove fault

244
Q

Which rehab program replicates the duties of the job that the patient was performing?

A

work hardening

245
Q

How many hours a day must an employee attend a work hardening program?

A

employee’s must stay for at least 4 hours 3-5 times per week.

246
Q

What is the maximum punishment for violating HIPAA due to a reasonable cause and not willful neglect?

A

50,000$

247
Q

What intervention is most effective in preventing a low back injury at work?

A

exercise

248
Q

Which is a proven return to work barrier?

A

Lack of knowledge of the modified job

negative employee attitudes

249
Q

What is the Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1993?

A

It prevents physicians from making self-referrals to DME, PT and other medical companies that they own.

250
Q

Abdominal belts limit motion in:

A

lateral bending and rotation

251
Q

How long should you wait to perform an MRI in a patient with continual low back pain without neurological deficit?

A

6 weeks

252
Q

What is the maximum amount of weight that can be lifted with medium duty?

A

50 lbs

253
Q

How much can a worker lift who is on light duty?

A

20lbs

254
Q

Temporary worsening of a previous injury that happened at work is called:

A

exacerbation

255
Q

Permanent worsening of a previous injury or condition at work is called:

A

aggravation

256
Q

This low-frequency, postural tremor is often seen in a patient with multiple sclerosis:

A

cerebellaar

257
Q

Which movement is correlated with a hemorrhage or infarction of the contralateral subthalmic nucleus?

A

hemiballismus

258
Q

Reversible need for constant movement to relieve tension and anxiety

A

Akathisia

259
Q

You are consulted on a 62 year old male for gait abnormalities. On exam you notice he has en bloc turns and that he has a shuffling pattern. While you are discussing plans to improve his gait you notice a low-frequency, pill-rolling motion of the fingers. What percentage of Parkinson’s patients have this?

A

70%

260
Q

The goal of medical management in Parkinson’s disease is to:

A

increase dopamine

decrease cholinergic effect

261
Q

Atrophy of the caudate nucleus

A

Huntingtons disease

262
Q

Atrophy of the thalamus

A

Multiple Sclerosis

263
Q

Cortical atrophy

A

Alzheimers disease

264
Q

Atrophy of the cerebellum (3)

A

multiple sclerosis, friedreich’s ataxia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

265
Q

Which describes the mechanism(s) of action of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

primarily act on inhibition of norepinephrine and serotonin uptake, but in increasing concentration they do have anticholinergic and alpha blocking action.

266
Q

EKG finding associated with TCA toxicity.

A

widen QRS

267
Q

Carbamazepine is indicated for: (2)

A

trigeminal neuralgia and epilepsy

268
Q

Which medication potentially influences the effects of aspirin on platelet function?

A

Ibuprofen

269
Q

inhibit the peripheral metabolism of dopamine.

A

COMT inhibitors

270
Q

Which NSAID has the shortest half-life?

A

Aspirin

271
Q

Which prolotherapy irritant is purported to act by the osmotic rupture of cells?

A

hypertonic dextrose (10%)

272
Q

On imaging, there appears to be a stable jefferson fracture. How should it be managed?

A

Halo Vest

C1 burst fracture

273
Q

Which is the most likely presentation of a patient with a Chance fracture?

A

normal neurological exam

274
Q

Your T3 AIS A SCI patient is having a difficult time getting his bladder under control. After many days of charting his incontinences and bladder volumes, you believe his bladder contractions and sphincter relaxations are not coordinated. Which is responsible for this function?

A

pons

275
Q

Which pathway stimulates cholinergic receptors to cause bladder contraction and emptying?

A

parasympathetics

276
Q

Which pathway is responsible for storing urine via B-2 adrenergic receptors in the bladder body and alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the base of the bladder and prostatic urethra to increase outflow resistance?

A

sympathetics efferents

277
Q

Which pathway is responsible for voluntary contraction of the external sphincter to prevent leakage?

A

somatic efferent

278
Q

Which pathway has myelinated A-delta fibers that stimulate parasympathetic fibers with bladder distension?

A

afferent fibers

279
Q

The body of the bladder is innervated by the:

A

hypogastric and pelvic nerves

280
Q

Intubation should be strongly considered when a patient’s FVC is

A

<1L

281
Q

At which minimal pulmonary function parameter can you justify removing your SCI patient off the ventilator?

A

FVC > 15-20 cc/kg

282
Q

The majority of bladder complications in SCI can be prevented if bladder pressures stay below the target pressure of:

A

40 cm H2O

283
Q

Which may be seen on EMG of a patient with neurosyphilis

A

absent H reflex

284
Q

Beevors Sign

A

refers to the abnormal upward movement of the umbilicus on attempting to raise the head from a supine position by the patient being assessed

285
Q

Beevor’s sign is positive. At what level is the lesion?

A

T10

286
Q

What percentage of patient’s with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis will die secondary to related complications?

A

10-20%

287
Q

A 54-year-old obese female comes to your clinic for routine follow up. She has many questions about health as she ages. She informs you she rarely exercises due to not having time with her busy work schedule and she has been often eating fast food for the same reason. She has a family history of coronary artery disease and breast cancer. She has many concerns around osteoporosis because her mother had a “severe case.” Which has a primary role in determining bone strength and osteoporosis risk?

A

family history

288
Q

Which has a reduced mineral content, resulting in “soft bones?”

A

osteomalacia

289
Q

Renal hypercalciuria, an important cause of secondary osteoporosis, can be treated with which medication?

A

thiazides

290
Q

A 48-year-old female was recently diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is trying to do everything she can to prevent this from progressing. How much calcium should she be taking daily?

A

1200-`1500mg

291
Q

How much vitamin D should a patient with osteoporosis take dai

A

400-800 IU

292
Q

Spinal bone mineral density is directly correlated to the strength of which muscle group?

A

spinal extensors

293
Q

Which type of orthotic can be prescribed to decrease pain in a patient with a stable osteoporotic vertebral body fracture?

A

nonrigid brace

294
Q

A 58-year-old female who had been diagnosed with osteoporosis, and is considered a high fracture risk, has been doing some reading on the internet. She read about a medication called denosumab. Denosumab is considered at which level of therapy to treat osteoporosis?

A

First line if high fracture risk

295
Q

You have a patient with a right AKA and a prosthesis. When assessing his gait, you note a lateral trunk lean towards the prosthetic side. What do you suspec

A

prosthesis too short

296
Q

An amputation of the tarsometatarsal junction is a:

A

LIsfranc

297
Q

amputation through the talus and calceneus

A

chopart

298
Q

amputation spares part of the calcaneus.

A

BOYD

299
Q

amputation is an ankle disarticulatio

A

Symes

300
Q

Bone overgrowth after an amputation is most frequently seen in the:

A

humerus

301
Q

The preferred alignment of a BKA prosthesis is:

A

Knee flexion moment and varus foot alignment

302
Q

Foot ulcers are responsible for what percentage of amputations?

A

85%

303
Q

How is poliovirus spread?

A

fecal-oral and aerosol droplets

304
Q

The cathode is:

A

the negative pole

305
Q

What drug class is first-line in treating multiple sclerosis related pain?

A

TCAs

306
Q

Which multiple sclerosis patient has the worse prognosis?

A

a male with primary progressive MS

307
Q

Which EMG needle has a larger recording area?

A

monopolar

308
Q

Muscles the PIN innervates: (7+1)

A
EDC
EDM
ECU
APL
EPB
EPL
EIP
sometimes ERCB
309
Q

sensory innervation of PIN

A

dorsal wrist capsule sensation

310
Q

A stimulus intensity that is too high results in:

A

Decreased conduction times and shortened latencies

311
Q

Findings in every median nerve innervated muscle likely stems from a lesion at th

A

Ligament of Struthers

312
Q

What is the standard filter setting for sensory NCS?

A

20Hz-2kHz
or
20Hz - 10kHz

313
Q

contents of carpal tunnel (4)

A

FDP tendons, FDS tendons, FPL tendon, and median nerve.

314
Q

What is the standard filter setting for EMG?

A

20Hz-10kHz

315
Q

What is the standard filter setting for motor NCS?

A

2Hz-10kHz

316
Q

Guyon canal compression symptoms for
zone 1
zone 2
zone 3

A

1: motor and sensory
2: motor only
3. sensory only

317
Q

What is the default sweep speed for EMG?

A

10ms

318
Q

common causes of Guyon canal compression

A

MC nontraumatic : ganglion cyst

Traumatic: hook of Hamate fracture

319
Q

What is the default gain that should be used to assess a normal recruitment pattern?

A

1mV

320
Q

What is the default gain for motor NCS?

A

5mV

321
Q

What is the default setting for the sensory NCS sweep speed?

A

2ms**

322
Q

Which of the following is the most common form of thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

neurogenic

323
Q

5 possible compression points in PIN sydrome

A
Arcade of Frohse
supinator muscle
extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle
leash of Henry
fibrous tissue anterior to the radiocapitellar joint.
324
Q

What happens to the peak latency when the active and reference pickups are greater than 4cm during a sensory nerve conduction study?

A

increases

325
Q

A sensory nerve action potential amplitude should be measured from:

A

peak to peak

326
Q

You strongly suspect a piriformis syndrome in your patient. Which portion of the sciatic nerve do you expect to be the most affected?

A

peroneal division

327
Q

When assessing the blink reflex, which nerve is the afferent nerve?

A

CN V (trigeminal)

328
Q

An EMG that may be consistent with a paraneoplastic syndrome will show:

A

sensorimotoe axonal findings

329
Q

A patient with HIV is expected to have EMG findings consistent with:

A

sensorimotor demyelination

330
Q

Normal duration of insertional activity should be about:

A

max 300 ms

331
Q

On EMG, you note a decreased recruitment interval but an increased recruitment frequency. The disorder is most likely:

A

neuropathic

332
Q

A discharge appears “tornadic” on the screen with a rate of 200Hz. The sound is best described as continuous and high frequency. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Isaacs syndrome

333
Q

Endplate potentials (EPPs) are irregular. T or F

A

True

334
Q

The genetic inheritance pattern of ALS is most likely:

A

autosomal dominant

335
Q

What is the initial treatment of choice for Isaac’s syndrome?

A

phenytoin

336
Q

Isaac’s syndrome is caused by antibodies to:

A

potassium channels

337
Q

classic triad of clinical manifestations of Miller Fisher Syndrome (MFS)

A

areflexia, external ophthalmoparesis, and ataxia.

subtype of GBS (AIDP)

338
Q

antibody seen in Miller Fisher Syndrome

A

Anti-GQ1b