PMP Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

PMI has an established talent triangle that reflects the skills needed by today’s project professionals. This component of the talent triangle focuses on critical interpersonal skills needed to influence, inspire change, and build relationships.

A) People Skills
B) Power Skills
C) Ways of Working
D) Business Acumen

A

B) Power Skills

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2
Q

Which of the following are examples of OPAs? (Choose three)

A) Project document templates from other projects
B) Standard operating procedures
C) Trade forums that keep an open communication about the profession
D) Governmental regulations establishing requirements
E) Organizational repository with lessons learned from past projects

A

A) Project document templates from other projects

B) Standard operating procedures

E) Organizational repository with lessons learned from past projects

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3
Q

Which of the following are examples of EEFs? (Choose three)

A) Economic Environment
B) Past Projects
C) Political climate
D) PMO Support
E) Project Management Info

A

A) Economic Environment

C) Political climate

E) Project Management Info

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4
Q

Which of the following are frameworks or prompts that can help to understand external factors that can introduce risk, uncertainty, or provide opportunities and affect the value and desired outcomes of a project? (Choose 3)

A) PESTLE
B) EVM
C) TECOP
D) VUCA
E) OPA

A

A) PESTLE

C) TECOP

D) VUCA

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5
Q

Project A is expected to last five years and has a NPV of $500. Project B is expected to last five years and has a NPV of ($600). Which project should be selected?

A) Project A because the costs are minimal and the project will yield a larger return
B) Project A because the value of the project is $500.
C) Project B because the cost is only $600.
D) Project B because the value of the project is $600.

A

B) Project A because the value of the project is $500.

Explanation: The time and costs are part of the NPV calculation and not provided in the scenario above. So the larger positive dollar amount is the better choice. A profitable project is one where the NPV is positive. Project B is a negative dollar amount. NPV= Cash flow / (1 + i) t – initial investment

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6
Q

A company’s contracting office is evaluating an request for proposal from a potential customer for a firm fixed price contract. They are not sure if submitting a proposal is a good financial decision because the contract would require a very complex project with a 5 year timeline. The contracting office realizes that the time-value of money is important to consider as well as project costs. Which method would be best for making a good financial decision?

A) Business Case
B) A/B Testing
C) Decision Tree Analysis
D) Net Present Value

A

D) Net Present Value

Explanation: Net present Value (NPV): NPV is a difference between the present value of cash inflow and the present value of cash outflow after a given period. To calculate the NPV you should know the time period of project and discount rate (required rate of return). NPV is very useful to check profitability of particular project. NPV can also be used to compare more then one project and find which one is the best. It helps to make the decision to either invest or not.

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7
Q

The PM of an agile project nearing it’s first release after several iterations has just been notified by the customer that they are not sure they can accept the deliverables in their current state. They say that some of the items from prior iterations did not meet their expectations. What could the project manager have done better to help prevent this?

A) Communicated to the customer the importance of their involvement during sprint reviews.
B) Collect the requirements early and upfront so the details of the project were well understood.
C) Determine the cost benefit analysis of the project to ensure the project was worthwhile.
D) Conducted A/B Testing to ensure the project met future customer needs.

A

A) Communicated to the customer the importance of their involvement during sprint reviews.

Explanation: The project has undergone several iterations and is about to release. The opportunity for customer feedback is during the sprint review. Communicating the importance of feedback to the customer so they understand their involvement is necessary to meet the project goals would have helped to prevent this from occurring.

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8
Q

Your organization has just completed a feasibility study to determine the types projects that they should undertake based on financials, organizational capabilities, and past successful projects. They have assigned a sponsor and some key members to a team to develop a project charter for an upcoming capital project. Which of the following source documents should they reference as the complete the charter? (Choose 2)

A) Project Management Plan
B) RFP
C) Business Case
D) Business Need
E) Benefits Management Plan

A

C) Business Case

E) Benefits Management Plan

Explanation: Business Documents are used to help develop the project charter and are completed before the formal establishment of a project. There are two business documents that PMI outlines: The business case, and the benefits management plan.

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9
Q

Which of the following best describes the benefits management plan?

A) A document to determine what the project undertaking should be and how it should be done.
B) A document that describes who will benefit from the project and when the benefits should be realized.
C) A document that formally authorizes the project and is signed by the project sponsor.
D) A document that determines the budget and benefit of the project so business decisions can be made.

A

B) A document that describes who will benefit from the project and when the benefits should be realized.

Explanation: BENEFITS MANAGEMENT PLAN - The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program. It also describes how and when the benefits of a project will be derived and measured. Both the business case and the benefits management plan are developed with the benefits owner prior to the project being initiated. Additionally, both documents are referenced after the project has been completed. Therefore, they are considered business documents rather than project documents or components of the project management plan.

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10
Q

The quarterly results demonstrate that competition is driving down prices. The company is losing market share, and it appears that the sponsoring unit will not see a return on their investment midway into the project. Which two steps should the project manager take to accommodate these new circumstances? (Choose TWO).

A) Re-scope the project to deliver the same features as the competitors to match their pricing.
B) Make a cost/benefit analysis of deliverables to optimize delivery cost and speed.
C) Fast-track the remainder of the project to deliver the intended scope with lower overhead costs.
D) Incrementally replace local staff with outside expert staff who can work at half the hourly rate or less.

A

B) Make a cost/benefit analysis of deliverables to optimize delivery cost and speed.

D) Incrementally replace local staff with outside expert staff who can work at half the hourly rate or less.

Explanation: Cost/benefit analysis and fixed-budget incremental development are correct because they address the loss of profitability without disruption to business.

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11
Q

Your organization is in the midst of a major change initiative, and you have been tasked with leading a team responsible for implementing the new strategy. You have been studying Kotter’s eight-step theory of change and have identified that your team is currently in the “Create a Sense of Urgency” step. However, there are some members of the team who are hesitant to fully commit to the change. What is the best course of action for addressing the team’s reluctance to fully commit to the change?

A) Ignore their concerns and continue moving forward with the change initiative
B) Address their concerns by clearly communicating the potential benefits of the change and how it aligns with the organization’s overall goals
C) Use fear tactics to convince them to support the change
D) Agree with the team and ask the team to help identify a better solution

A

B) Address their concerns by clearly communicating the potential benefits of the change and how it aligns with the organization’s overall goals

Explanation: According to Kotter’s theory, creating a sense of urgency is the first step in successfully implementing a change initiative. However, it’s important to remember that not everyone may be on board with the change right away. By clearly communicating the potential benefits of the change and how it aligns with the organization’s overall goals, you can help to address any concerns and build buy-in from the team. It is not recommended to ignore their concerns or to use fear tactics as it can cause more harm than good.

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12
Q

You are a project manger for a company that is experiencing difficulty in aligning its strategy, structure, systems, shared values, skills, staff, and style. Your team has identified that the main problem is a lack of clear shared values and alignment within the organization. What should be the first step in addressing the problem?

A) Re-structuring the organization’s hierarchy
B) Implementing new systems and processes
C) Developing a clear set of shared values and aligning them throughout the organization
D) Focusing on improving the skills of the staff

A

C) Developing a clear set of shared values and aligning them throughout the organization

Explanation: According to McKinsey’s 7S model, shared values are one of the core elements that drive organizational alignment. By having a clear set of shared values, the organization can align its strategy, structure, systems, skills, staff, and style to support these values, and improve overall performance. Re-structuring the organization, implementing new systems and processes, and focusing on staff skills will only be effective if they align with the company’s shared values.

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13
Q

You are a consultant working with a company that specializes in manufacturing products using eco-friendly materials. The company has been struggling to increase its profits and has asked for your help in improving their operations. Which of the following changes would be the most effective in increasing the company’s profits?

A) Implementing a new production line that uses more efficient machinery
B) Offering discounts on products made with eco-friendly materials
C) Introducing a new product line that is made with recycled materials
D) Providing training to employees on how to improve their productivity

A

A) Implementing a new production line that uses more efficient machinery

Explanation: A would be a first-order change as it addresses the company’s operations directly and has the potential to increase production efficiency and lower costs, leading to an increase in profits.

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14
Q

An organization is undergoing a major change in their business structure, moving from a centralized to a decentralized model. This change will impact the way projects are managed and executed within the company. How will the organizational change from centralized to decentralized affect the current project you are working on?

A) The project will be delayed due to the need for re-planning and re-organization.
B) The project will not be affected and will continue as planned.
C) The project will be completed faster due to the new decentralized model.
D) The project will be cancelled due to the organizational change.

A

A) The project will be delayed due to the need for re-planning and re-organization.

Explanation: The project will most likely be delayed as the change in structure will require teams and project managers to adjust their approach to project management.

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15
Q

A government agency is in charge of managing several projects related to infrastructure development. Recently, the agency’s leaders have announced a shift in priorities, prioritizing projects related to renewable energy over those related to traditional infrastructure development. You are the project manager of a renewable energy project. How may this change in program priorities affect the resources available for projects within the agency?

A) Resources will increase as funding is redirected towards renewable energy projects.
B) Resources will decrease as funding is redirected away from traditional infrastructure development projects.
C) Resources will remain unchanged as funding for all projects comes from the same budget.
D) Resources will be redistributed among the different projects, but not necessarily increased or decreased overall.

A

A) Resources will increase as funding is redirected towards renewable energy projects.

Explanation: The shift in priorities may mean that resources are redirected away from traditional infrastructure development projects and towards renewable energy projects, leading to a decrease in resources available for traditional infrastructure development projects.

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16
Q

Your company has recently undergone a change in management and the new leadership team has shifted the company’s priorities to focus on developing new products rather than improving existing ones. As a result, your current project, which was focused on updating an existing product, has had its resources and budget significantly reduced. How should the project manager respond to this change in program priorities and resource allocation?

A) The project manager should continue with the project as planned, and request additional resources and budget from the new leadership team.
B) The project manager should propose a new plan for the project that aligns with the company’s new priorities and work to secure the necessary resources and budget.
C) The project manager should scrap the project altogether, as it is no longer in line with the company’s priorities.
D) The project manager should continue with the project as planned and rely on team members to make up for the reduced resources and budget through overtime and increased efficiency.

A

B) The project manager should propose a new plan for the project that aligns with the company’s new priorities and work to secure the necessary resources and budget.

Explanation: The project manager should respond to the change in program priorities by developing a new plan for the project that aligns with the company’s new priorities and objectives. This includes proposing new goals, strategies and tactics that align with the company’s overall direction and communicating these changes to stakeholders. It is also important for the project manager to work on securing the necessary resources and budget to support the new plan, which may involve seeking external funding, partnerships or other financial options. Continuing with the project as planned or relying on team members to make up for reduced resources and budget may lead to delays, budget ove uns or even project failure.

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17
Q

The new shopping center project will take three years from design through construction to complete. You are new to the term “governance” and you want to test yourself to confirm that you have a solid understanding of it. Which of the following best represents the definition of governance?

A) A set of practices to help assure the success of the project.
B) Phase-to-phase relationships within the project.
C) The PMO directive on managing the project.
D) The sponsor’s directive on managing the project.

A

A) A set of practices to help assure the success of the project.

Explanation: Governance is an organizational structure placed on projects to ensure that they align with business objectives and align with portfolios and programs. These practices help assure the success of projects by establishing things such as gates to ensure assumptions and expected value are correct.

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18
Q

As a project manager you know it is important to get the deliverables right. This is especially important in a phased project. In a phased project, you know that a phase output is typically:

A) Used for marketing purposes.
B) An input to the next phase.
C) Used by the project manager to justify an increased budget from the sponsor.
D) Not important as long as the final deliverable meets the customer’s needs.

A

B) An input to the next phase.

Explanation: It is important to have a quality deliverable as the output of each phase because it is generally an input to the next phase. Othe wise, issues from phase to phase will snowball over time.

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19
Q

The new shopping center project will take three years from design through construction to complete. You are new to the term “governance” and you want to test yourself to confirm that you have a solid understanding of it. The decision point to move from one phase to another is known as which of the following (Choose three.)

A) Kill point
B) Go/No go
C) Phase gate
D) Phase endpoint
E) Continuance threshold
F) Governance Gate

A

A) Kill point

C) Phase gate

F) Governance Gate

Explanation: Kill point, Phase Gate, Governance Gate, and Tollgates are all interchangeable terms, a quality gate is a specific type of phase gate that is used to determine if the anticipated quality is being met or exceeded usually specifically to software development.

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20
Q

The new shopping center project will take three years from design through construction to complete. You are new to the term “governance” and you want to test yourself to confirm that you have a solid understanding of it. Which of the following describes the most common phase-to-phase relationship in multi-phase projects?

A) Finish-to-start
B) Sequential
C) Orderly
D) Non-overlapping

A

B) Sequential

Explanation: Project phases are either planned sequentially or overlapping.

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21
Q

You are the project manager for a multi-phased project. Phase gates have been established between each phase of the project. Your project team asks you what the importance of the phase gates are. As the project manager what will you tell your project team?

A) Phase gates are review points at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification(s), or to end a project or program.
B) Phase gates are the points in a project where the sponsor injects additional funds into the project.
C) Phase gates are performed in an agile project at the end of each iteration to receive feedback before moving to the next iteration.
D) Phase gates are milestones mandated by an industry as checkpoints for compliance with industry standards.

A

A) Phase gates are review points at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification(s), or to end a project or program.

Explanation: Phase gates (also called governance gates, tollgates, or kill points) are review points at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification(s), or to end a project or program. They’re used to check if each phase has fulfilled the exit criteria and is eligible to move to the next step.

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes a Quailty Policy?

A) A list of organizational resources used for quality and a defined project scope of work that will be used to ensure quality.
B) The basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management.
C) It ensures all compliance requirements will be met, tracked, and validated before customer delivery.
D) It is a set of policies and procedures to ensure that defects are never produced.

A

B) The basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management.

Explanation: A quality policy is the basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management. If a quality policy does not exist, then it should be established within the quality management plan. The quality management plan is a component of the project or program management plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives. B is the BEST answer

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23
Q

A recently approved project is conducting a review of requirements when a project team member learns that there is a new compliance requirement from a recently passed law that may impact the baseline assumptions made in the business case for the project. How should the project manager proceed?

A) Research the requirement and possible consequences, then give the sponsor a recommendation.
B) Address the requirement through the creation of a quality management plan.
C) Decline to address the issue, as the new requirement is not part of the project’s documented charter.
D) Acknowledge the requirement by documenting it in the risk register, then ask all stakeholders for guidance.

A

A) Research the requirement and possible consequences, then give the sponsor a recommendation.

Explanation: Before any action is taken, the project manager must determine the impact of the the change. Once the impact is understood, the project manager should refer to the project sponsor since it is an item that would possibly impact the approved project charter.

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24
Q

A project has multiple security related compliance requirements that must be tracked and monitored during multiple phases of a project. How should the project manager plan to meet this requirement?

A) Create a security plan and ensure that it is checked regularly by the development team.
B) Arrange for cyclical reviews of security compliance and recommend remedial steps if noncompliance is found.
C) Require that all security related compliance requirements be reviewed by the project manager to ensure compliance.
D) Hire a new resource in charge of compliance to ensure these requirements can be met.

A

B) Arrange for cyclical reviews of security compliance and recommend remedial steps if noncompliance is found.

Explanation: Compliance and quality related reviews a should be conducted on a predictable cyclic timeline to ensure items are not missed.

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25
Q

A project manager is asked by the sponsor where the processes are that explain how deliverables will be verified for accuracy and accepted are documented. Where should this be documented?

A) The Scope Management Plan
B) The Quality Management Plan
C) The Requirements Management Plan
D) The Acceptance Criteria

A

B) The Quality Management Plan

Explanation: The quality management plan will have how and when inspections will occur and the remedy for non-conformance.

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26
Q

A project manager for a project in the execution phase has just learned of a new law that mandates immediate compliance, the law will impact the projects scope costs and schedule. What should the project manager do first?

A) Notify the Sponsor
B) Escalate the issue to senior management
C) Begin the change request process
D) Conduct a risk assessment to see the impact of noncompliance

A

C) Begin the change request process

This is a change management issue, before taking action, the project manager should refer to the plan which describes the change request process. The change request process is usually found as part of the change management plan.

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27
Q

While putting together a plan, it is important to establish a baseline to judge the overall performance of the project. What three baselines are part of a project management plan?

A) Scope, Control, and Schedules baselines.
B) Scope, Costs, and Schedules baselines.
C) Sponsor, Cost, and Schedule Baselines
D) Scope, Quality, and Costs baselines

A

B) Scope, Costs, and Schedules baselines.

Explanation: The three baselines are scope, schedule, and cost baselines.

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28
Q

As a project progresses the work performed is compared to the plan to determine if the project is meeting objectives and is on task. What type of evaluation best describes the area of focus on a project?

A) Executing the project to ensure deliverables meet quality standards.
B) Monitor and Control the project’s work to ensure it meets the planned scope, costs, schedule, and quality.
C) Planning the project to ensure all risks are accounted for so that the project finishes on schedule.
D) Closing the project by evaluating what went well, and what did not go well.

A

B) Monitor and Control the project’s work to ensure it meets the planned scope, costs, schedule, and quality.

Explanation: Monitoring and Controlling a project ensures that the project is completed according to plan. This also measures the projects performance and helps identify the need for change to get back on track.

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29
Q

During a project that requires close adherence to regulations the project sponsor requests a change that you believe would violate legal requirements. What should be the first step the project manager should take?

A) Immediately schedule a meeting with the stakeholders to review the situation.
B) Establish a change control board to review the change request.
C) Check with the organization’s legal SME for guidance.
D) Review the organization’s lessons learned database for precedents and direction.

A

C) Check with the organization’s legal SME for guidance.

Explanation: When a project is faced with potential legal or regulation violations it is important to dete mine the threats to compliance and determine the necessary approach and action to address compliance needs.

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30
Q

While conducting an evaluation of the business environment to determine the viability of a project a senior manager would like you to use PESTLE to help make the assessment. What external factors should you consider as part of this assessment?

A) Policies, Economic, Scope, Technical, Liability, Ecosystem
B) Political, Economic, Social, Technical, Legal, Environmental
C) Policies, Engineering, Social, Technical, Liability, Ecosystem
D) Political, Economic, Scope, Technical, Liability, Environmental

A

B) Political, Economic, Social, Technical, Legal, Environmental

Explanation: In the same way that potential internal business environment changes can affect the project’s value, external factors can also affect the value and desired outcomes of the project. Many best practice frameworks refer to these as PESTLE factors. It is critical that project managers are aware of PESTLE factors that can impact their project’s business case and need to be prepared to adapt accordingly. Political Changes in the political landscape may affect governmental policies, financial models, and the viability of certain business strategies. Economic Changes in economic conditions may affect a project’s ROI model, the desirability of certain solutions, and even the most basic assumptions of the project’s viability. Social Changes in social behaviors, norms, and actions may affect the project’s perception and desirability. Technical Changes in technical capabilities may make newer approaches to solving business problems possible and may alter both the viability of projects and the approach the organization may use to enabling solutions. Legal Changes in legal and regulatory requirements may fundamentally alter what is needed for the project’s products to meet compliance requirements, and may increase costs, reduce benefits, or both. Environmental Increasingly companies are being asked as part of their social responsibility practices to consider environmental impacts of their solutions and in many cases to alter their approaches in a way that improves the sustainability of the environment.

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31
Q

You are working on a project tracking the progress and identifying variations from the plan to what is actually being produced. What is created as a result of this analysis?

A) Work performance data because it shows the variance between planned and actual.
B) Work performance information because it shows the variance between planned and actual.
C) Work performance reports because it shows the variance between planned and actual.
D) Change requests because it shows the variance between planned and actual and what corrective action is needed to resolve the variance.

A

B) Work performance information because it shows the variance between planned and actual.

Explanation: Work Performance Information: Analyzed #s used for decision-making like SV, SPI, CV & CPI. It looks for variance between their PM plan & actual work performance data which is the raw unanalyzed obse vations from project execution.

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32
Q

A key team member is asked to move to another project during the middle of a technical project. The team believes this is an unwise move and expresses concern.
Which action will help to resolve the issue?

A) Discuss the conflict with the project sponsor and formulate a response.
B) Use coaching tools and techniques to motivate the project team.
C) Replace the key team member with a new resource who has the same skills.
D) The PM should acknowledge the teams’ concern and also analyze the impact to the project.

A

D) The PM should acknowledge the teams’ concern and also analyze the impact to the project.

Explanation: PM should know how to handle key personnel changes and keep the team motivated and productive. It is important that the team member’s concerns are acknowledged so they know they have been heard. Whenever analyzing a problem you need to first understand the impact to the project and (if unknown) the root cause.

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33
Q

A Project Manager with limited experience managing globally-distributed team members receives a project that has team members from five countries, spanning three continents. To successfully manage this project, the Project Manager needs to develop cultural sensitivity. What should the Project Manager do?

A) Be flexible when working with team members, recognize that culture is learned, and be aware of local customs.
B) Seek guidance from the human resource department, and request to be certified in this topic.
C) Request for another Project Manager to lead the project and follow behind this person to gain necessary skills.
D) Gather requisite learning material to better understand every detail of each team member’s culture to be sensitive to their needs.

A

A) Be flexible when working with team members, recognize that culture is learned, and be aware of local customs.

Explanation: The project management team should capitalize on cultural differences, focus on developing and sustaining the project team throughout the project life cycle, and promote working together interdependently in a climate of mutual trust.

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34
Q

The members of a small project team have known each other for many years. The project is currently in the execution phase. A team member recently reported to the new project manager that another team member has been complaining about the way the project is being managed.
How should this new project manager respond?

A) Review the current stakeholder engagement plan to identify how to resolve this difficulty.
B) Schedule a team meeting to discuss the current team charter and ground rules, especially around communication and teamwork expectations.
C) Hold a team-building event to improve morale and team culture.
D) Speak with each team member individually to determine why they are unhappy.

A

B) Schedule a team meeting to discuss the current team charter and ground rules, especially around communication and teamwork expectations.

Explanation: A team meeting is the best solution because it encourages every team member to participate and results in a clear set of guidelines for the team.

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35
Q

A team new to agile is wondering how work will be assigned and who will do the work. What should the project manager tell them?

A) The Project Manager will assign work to ensure speed and the value delivery.
B) The Kanban will tell everyone what work needs to get done.
C) The team will assess work and determine who will do the work.
D) The Work Breakdown Structure shows all assignable work for the project and who will do the work.

A

C) The team will assess work and determine who will do the work.

Explanation: In Agile, teams are self-organizing and will assess work requirements and determine who will do the work.

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36
Q

The agile team is very good at finding solutions to technical issues, but when the product owner asks for ideas that are creative or linked to business, the team goes completely quiet. Is there an issue with this?

A) Yes, specialist teams make too many mistakes to be productive.
B) No, specialist teams are more productive than generalist teams.
C) Yes, a lack of diversity will limit the team’s adaptability.
D) No, the team can not be expected to do everything. These distractions only take away from more productive things.

A

C) Yes, a lack of diversity will limit the team’s adaptability.

Explanation: T-shaped skills are desirable in agile team members. Having a broad set of skills enables people to work more independently and with a greater ability to adapt to changing needs.

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37
Q

Which tool or technique should you use to determine the communications needs of your project stakeholders?

A) Stakeholder analysis
B) Research material
C) Project report materials
D) Executive board schedule

A

A) Stakeholder analysis

Explanation: Stakeholder analysis will aid in determining the information each stakeholder needs, the frequency of engagement required, and what expectations the stakeholders have.

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38
Q

You have assigned roles and responsibilities to your project team members and now you need to define in your communications management plan how you and your project team will communicate with each other. Although most of your team is local, there are a few key members that are dispersed across several states. Given the scenario, what would be a good technology for enhancing team member interactions and building relationships throughout the life of the project?

A) Team building event at project kick-off
B) Project team threaded discussion board
C) Use email and databases to collect and store information
D) High-quality virtual teleconferencing on a semi-weekly or weekly basis

A

D) High-quality virtual teleconferencing on a semi-weekly or weekly basis

Explanation: The question states “throughout the life of the project.” A kick-off meeting will help to establish and build relationships, but only at the start of the project. Face-to-face communication is preferred so verbal and non-verbal communication can be observed such as body language. If co-location cannot be achieved than virtual teleconferencing on a cyclic basis is the best alternative to help ensure interaction and establishment of relationships throughout the project.

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39
Q

Which of the following would you tell your team not to include in the communications management plan?

A) The initiator and receiver of project communications
B) The Stakeholder Register
C) The collection and transfer of institutional knowledge
D) The frequency of each communication

A

B) The Stakeholder Register

Explanation: The stakeholder register is a project document used to track stakeholders’ point of contact info

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40
Q

After integrating the communications management plan into the overall project plan, what would be the next logical step?

A) Determining whether there will be changes to the proposed technology before the project is over.
B) Creating a schedule for the production of each type of communication.
C) Creating a description of stakeholder communication requirements.
D) Distributing the plan to all the stakeholders.

A

D) Distributing the plan to all the stakeholders.

Explanation: After a plan is complete, it is important to ensure all stakeholders have the plan to stay aligned. Distributing plans. changes, and project status is essential to ensure stakeholders expectations are managed, and timely decisions about the project can be made.

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41
Q

What is an important part of communications that helps a sender understand if the receiver properly understood the message that was sent?

A) Empathy
B) Noise
C) Feedback
D) Kanban

A

C) Feedback

Explanation: Communication is a two-way street. Effective feedback is clear, specific, and offered in a timely manner. Feedback can be positive if received and understood as intended. Feedback can be negative because of misunderstanding. No feedback provides an implicit acceptance of the message by the receiver.

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42
Q

While completing the planning of your project you realize that there a requirement for a resource that another directory own. The project’s outcomes will be mutually beneficial for both directorates. What type of agreement could you negotiate with the other directorate to utilize the required resource?

A) Memorandum of Understanding
B) Term of Contract
C) Service Level Agreement
D) Partner Agreement

A

A) Memorandum of Understanding

Explanation: Agreements help to define relationships between a service provider (internal or external) and the end user. These agreements can incorporate expectations for service utility (functional performance) and service warranty (including availability, speed, security, continuity, and other usability expectations). Can take the form of contracts, MOUs, SLAs, letters, verbal, or email correspondence. SLAs govern a service after a project is delivered and define the expected level of performance. Ideally, effective SLAs should reflect business-driven metrics, including such things as transaction processing, customer satisfaction, etc. When working with other agencies to utilize resources memorandums of understand, emails, and verbal agreements can be utilized.

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43
Q

To ensure you have the necessary buy-in, commitment, and resources required to make the project a success, you offer to assist them in creating a formal project charter. What should be included in the charter? (Choose 4)

A) Objectives and Goals
B) Full Scope
C) Overall Risk
D) Milestones
E) Assumptions and Constraints
F) A team charter
G) Ground Rules

A

A) Objectives and Goals

C) Overall Risk

D) Milestones

E) Assumptions and Constraints

Explanation: There are many things that can be included in a project cha ter depending on if it is a agile or predictive project. The main items that should be included in all charters though are goals, objectives, milestones, overall risk, assumptions and constraints, overall budget (or costs) and funding source, identification of the PM (Product Owner if agile) and their responsibilities.

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44
Q

What benefit, if any, is there for a project manager to get all the various stakeholder groups—the business, the inventory staff, the developers, and the design team—to understand the project’s vision and mission?

A) There is no real benefit, the project manager took the time to collect the requirements of all stakeholders and is the only one who understands how the project needs to be integrated. Involving the external stakeholders now would only slow down the project and cause unnecessary confusion on who is doing what.
B) Having all parties appreciate and align to the project’s goals and overall mission helps ensure that all understand the primary aims of the project. Drawing attention to how each group is working together to strive towards a common goal push for more collaboration, support, and shared understanding.
C) It is important to ensure that each stakeholder has their expectations and requirements addressed, that should be the primary focus of the project manager because 90% of the project manager’s time is spent communicating with stakeholders. Bothering stakeholders with extra items that are outside of their expectations or requirements will only create new requirements that are outside of the scope of work.
D) The benefit exists only in agile projects because in agile projects customer feedback is important so the deliverable can focus on generating value to the customer and not on unnecessary features.

A

B) Having all parties appreciate and align to the project’s goals and overall mission helps ensure that all understand the primary aims of the project. Drawing attention to how each group is working together to strive towards a common goal push for more collaboration, support, and shared understanding.

Explanation: Part of developing a lean enterprise and agile mindset is aligning on a shared vision and goal. By bringing all parties together for a shared understanding, the project manager gains commitment and accountability among the team, stakeholders, and business leaders increasing the likelihood of success.

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45
Q

In order to identify strategic and operational assumptions and constraints, a project manager must involve stakeholders. A lack of participation makes it difficult for the project manager to obtain consistent feedback.
How can the project manager encourage participation and collaboration among stakeholders? (Choose TWO)

A) Use political awareness techniques.
B Be a servant leader.
C) Timebox meetings.
D) Use effective facilitation techniques.
E) Remove unsupportive stakeholders.

A

B Be a servant leader.

D) Use effective facilitation techniques.

Explanation: Facilitation is the ability to effectively guide a group event to a successful decision, solution, or conclusion. A facilitator ensures effective participation, so that participants achieve a mutual understanding, that all contributions are considered, that conclusions or results have full buy-in according to the decision process established for the project, and that the actions and agreements achieved are appropriately dealt with afte ward.

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46
Q

A new project team is establishing early priorities with the intention of gaining the customer’s trust by delivering value quickly. Tim, a member of the team, mentions that they have collaborated with the project sponsor on previous endeavors. How could the project manager leverage this knowledge for the benefit of the team and project?

A) Make Tim the project leader since they already know the sponsor.
B) Ask Tim to tell the whole team everything they know about the sponsor so that the team can work better.
C) Explore how the team can use Tim’s personal influence with the sponsor to increase the project’s potential for benefits realization. 
D) Discuss whether Tim has a conflict of interest in order to maintain an ethical standard.

A

C) Explore how the team can use Tim’s personal influence with the sponsor to increase the project’s potential for benefits realization. 

Explanation: Personal influence is a leadership skill that enables project teams and individuals to use existing relationships, building on them to further project activities and goals. In this case, Tim has an existing relationship that may help the project team to understand more quickly the needs of the project sponsor.

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47
Q

A company is undergoing an IT transformation project which has three (3) deliverables, and they have the following characteristics, according to the project team:
- Deliverable 1 has strictly scheduled milestones, with no expected variation in the timeline.
- Requirements for deliverables 2 and 3 will change quickly during development.
Which project life cycle should the project manager use for this project?

A) Select a fully agile project model, with a common user story and three-week sprints.
B) Select a waterfall project model for deliverables, with firm milestones and change control procedures.
C) Select a hybrid project model; position deliverable 1 as a single agile sprint embedded in an overall waterfall project.
D) Select a hybrid project model; position deliverable 1 as a single waterfall phase embedded in an overall agile project.

A

D) Select a hybrid project model; position deliverable 1 as a single waterfall phase embedded in an overall agile project.

Explanation: In this project, two (2) deliverables have unknown durations or changing requirement sets—both of which are appropriate conditions for use of the agile life cycle. Deliverable 1 requires strict schedule control and external dependencies, which require a traditional or waterfall project life cycle.

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48
Q

Despite significant investments in quality control and marketing campaigns, the targeted consumers are unsatisfied with an innovative product. Which agile practice would prevent similar future failures most effectively?

A) Align objectives between the product owner and marketing.
B) Run continuous consumer usability testing on product releases.
C) Broaden the persona type definition of the target consumer.
D) Add more features and tests to the minimum viable product (MVP).

A

B) Run continuous consumer usability testing on product releases.

Explanation: Continuous user testing and feedback is the most effective way to align requirements to user needs and integrate them incrementally into product releases.

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49
Q

A customer has some ideas on how the project could bring more value to them. When would be a good time to discuss these ideas and provide feedback?

A) During sprint planning so the team can collaborate.
B) During the daily stand-up so the team can adapt quickly to new ideas.
C) During the retrospective so team can develop a plan of action.
D) During the sprint review so the product owner and team can discuss the business value of these changes for future prioritization.

A

D) During the sprint review so the product owner and team can discuss the business value of these changes for future prioritization.

Explanation: In Scrum, the sprint review is utilized to show the work completed by the team from last complete sprint (iteration), and it serves and an opportunity for stakeholders to provide feedback on completed work and to ask for changes.

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50
Q

Where is an agile approach most appropriate?

A) When there is a low need for customer feedback but a high need for incremental delivery.
B) When there is a high need for customer feedback and a low need for speed of delivery.
C) When there is a high need for customer feedback and a high need for incremental delivery.
D) When there is a low need or customer feedback and a low need for incremental delivery.

A

C) When there is a high need for customer feedback and a high need for incremental delivery.

Explanation: Agile is best suited for projects that require significant customer feedback to get the right solution
(iterative), and a desire to generate value early and consistently throughout the project (incremental)

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51
Q

Which of the following projects would be best suited for a waterfall approach?

A) Project A is a one that the company is familiar with and the requirements are well known. The cost for change is expensive so there is a need to control change.
B) Project B is a project that the company has done many times, however requirements are dynamic and must be defined with the customer over the course of several iterations.
C) Project C is new project with a focus on innovation to include many prototypes to get to the right solution.
D) Project D is a update to a prior product where incremental delivery of new capabilities will be released over the course of 2 years.

A

A) Project A is a one that the company is familiar with and the requirements are well known. The cost for change is expensive so there is a need to control change.

Explanation: Project A is the closest project that would fit in a predictive or waterfall method of development. Whenever there is a high cost to change, there is a need to control the budget. Changes to should go through a formal approval process.

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52
Q

Why is it important to properly manage the scope of your project?

A) Because the project manager is in charge of the overall project
B) Because the scope determines the project desired outcome, it must be tracked to ensure approved changes still meet objectives.
C) Because the scope should not change, and it prevents scope creep and gold plating.
D) Because the scope is a list of the tasks and activities that need to be done to create the deliverables for the customer.

A

B) Because the scope determines the project desired outcome, it must be tracked to ensure approved changes still meet objectives.

Explanation: The project scope describes what needs to be accomplished to achieve the business value and serve the customer needs. Without a well defined scope, work cannot be assigned, a schedule can not be created, and a final budget can not be determined.

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53
Q

What are some techniques you could use to elicit project requirements? (Choose four)

A) Document Analysis
B) PM Plan
C) Observations
D) Work Breakdown Structure
E) Interviews
F) Questionnaires

A

A) Document Analysis

C) Observations

E) Interviews

F) Questionnaires

Explanation: The PM Plan and Work Breakdown Structure are not techniques. The WBS is part of the scope baseline for predictive projects, and the PM Plan is the integrated plan for the project to meet the project and business objectives.

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54
Q

You and the project team draft a project scope statement. Which of the following is commonly part of the project scope statement? (Choose 2)

A) Scope Creep
B) Acceptance Criteria
C) Budget
D) Scope Description
E) Schedule

A

B) Acceptance Criteria

D) Scope Description

Explanation: The project scope statement should include project and product scope descriptions, alternatives, exclusions, and acceptance criteria.

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55
Q

You are creating a scope statement which includes only the smallest collection of features that can be included in a product for customers to consider it functional. What product approach are you using?

A) Release Planning
B) Progressive Elaboration
C) Minimum Viable Product
D) Horizon Planning

A

C) Minimum Viable Product

Explanation: The minimum viable product is the “bare bones” collection of features for the customer to consider it
functional.

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56
Q

The project team decomposes the scope of the project to create a WBS. The work packages in the WBS have a dictionary with information and referenceable details. What type of details might be in a WBS dictionary for items on the WBS?

A) Quality Requirements, Cost Estimates, and Description of Work
B) Code of account identifier, Work package, and Acceptance criteria
C) Technical references, Assumptions, and Stakeholder register
D) Product Backlog, Epics, and User Stories

A

A) Quality Requirements, Cost Estimates, and Description of Work

Explanation: The WBS dictionary can include any of the following and potentially others not listed: Code of account identifier, Description of work, assumptions and constraints, responsible organization, schedule milestones, Associated schedule activities, resources required to complete the work, cost estimations, quality requirements, acceptance criteria, technical references, and agreement information.

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57
Q

As the project team decomposes a new upcoming feature into user stories, they begin to populate product backlog. When must the team have the product backlog finished?

A) By the first phase of the project
B) By the first iteration
C) By the time the business signs off on the project scope statement
D) The product backlog is a living artifact that is finished at the end of the project.

A

D) The product backlog is a living artifact that is finished at the end of the project.

Explanation: The product backlog is a prioritized list of the product’s functions and features (sometimes includes risks, and enablers) used to develop the product through a series of timeboxed intervals called iterations. Intervals are planned by determining the team’s capacity for work and committing to work from the product backlog that is highest in value that can be completed in a single iteration. This process is repeated until all work is complete or the project is terminated.

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58
Q

To capture the business and end user needs and the value desired, user stories are often used to populate a product backlog. If the project seeks to make it easier for company employees to submit travel expense reports, which example shows how you could write a user story based on this need? (Choose the best example)

A) As a company employee who travels for work, I want to submit my travel expense reports with little hassle, so that I may get reimbursed and get back to working on more important items.
B) As a company designer, I need to design an interface that is capable of handling travel expense reports, so that the employees can get back to work.
C) As a company employee who travels for work, I want to submit my travel expense reports using a complex system that will allow the unique circumstances that my travel may present, so that the system works for anyone that needs to use it.
D) As the product designer I need to ensure I understand the company employee’s needs for a travel expense repo t system that is capable of variable situations, so that the employee can get reimbursed, and get back to work on more important things.

A

A) As a company employee who travels for work, I want to submit my travel expense reports with little hassle, so that I may get reimbursed and get back to working on more important items.

Explanation: A user story has three components As a (Role), I want (Need), So That (Value). User stories are taken from the user’s perspective. A employee would normally want the simplest solution possible.

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59
Q

You are brought into a company because of your understanding of projects, programs, portfolios, and operations. Which of the following would be considered a project?

A) Ensuring all employees are paid on time through an automated payment processing center.
B) A new aircraft that consists of the aircraft, weapon delivery system, training program for pilots, navigation systems, and modular plug and play avionicsenabling the aircraft to meet different mission sets.
C) Creating and designing a new enterprise server to support a growing market in the b2b ecommerce workspace.
D) A business leader providing goals and objectives for next quarter that must be met.

A

C) Creating and designing a new enterprise server to support a growing market in the b2b ecommerce workspace.

Explanation: Projects are a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. Ensuring employees get paid is operational. A new aircraft with multiple systems requiring development would be considered a program because each of those items are projects or programs within themselves. A business leader providing goals and objectives is strategic leadership. The only item above that fits the definition of a project is creating a new enterprise server.

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60
Q

Your company is having problems organizing lessons learned to make them useful for other project managers. The company also has a desire to ensure training is provided to all project managers on standards, SOPs, and procurements for projects. One manager suggests establishing a Project Management Office (PMO). What type of PMO should you recommend?

A) A supportive PMO because it will allow for the development of best practices, and provide coaching mentoring and training for project managers while monitoring the project managers for compliance.
B) A controlling PMO so project managers can be monitored for compliance and adherence of standards policies, procedures, and templates via project audits.
C) A directive PMO because the company wants managers to be coordinated through the PMO, and resources shared across projects
D) A supportive PMO because it will allow for the development of best practices, and provide coaching mentoring and training along with providing templates, methodologies and standards for the company and its project managers.
E) A controlling PMO because it will allow for the development of best practices, and provide coaching mentoring and training along with providing templates, methodologies and standards for the company and its project managers.

A

D) A supportive PMO because it will allow for the development of best practices, and provide coaching mentoring and training along with providing templates, methodologies and standards for the company and its project managers.

Explanation: Supportive: Provide a consultative role to projects by supplying templates, best practices, training, access to information and lessons learned from other projects. Controlling: Provide support and require compliance through various means. Compliance may involve adopting project management frameworks or
methodologies; using specific templates, forms and tools; or conforming to
governance. Directive: Take control of projects by directly managing the projects or shared resources, including project managers. A relatively small number of PMOs fall into this category.

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61
Q

Senior management asked you to consider the types of organizational structure and working styles that might be followed at your development company that builds homes for low-income families, and the possible impact on the projects you will be managing. Your organization has departments for donations, construction, marketing, volunteers, and finance. But before you start working on it, you need to verify your knowledge on the organizational structures and functions.
In addition to the departments listed in the scenario, your company also has a manager of project management to oversee all of the ongoing projects. As one of the project managers, you report directly to the project management department but share staff with other
departments. What type of organizational structure does this describe?

A) Functional
B) Projectized
C) Matix
D) Composite

A

C) Matix

Explanation: In a matrix organization the Project Manager and Functional Manager share power. The project manager is not part of a functional area and is either assigned by the PMO or through projects directorate.

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62
Q

The team on an agile project spends a lot of time ensure that processes are setup, and tools are created to ensure deliverables are being built with consistency. The customer is reviewing the completed release and is unhappy with a lot of the deliverables as they do not meet the needs as they described early on in the project. Which agile principle did the team most likely fail to consider?

A) Individuals and interaction over process and tools.
B) Working software over comprehensive documentation.
C) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.
D) Responding to change over following a plan.

A

A) Individuals and interaction over process and tools.

Explanation: Had the team recognized the value of Individuals and interaction over process and tools, they would of spoken to the customer more often to solicit feedback.

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63
Q

The organization wants to ensure all projects fit for the environment and culture of the company and project itself. What approach would you suggest the company take in project management?

A) A predictive approach
B) An agile approach
C) A tailored approach
D) A complex approach

A

C) A tailored approach

Explanation: Tailoring is the deliberate adaptation of the project management approach, governance, and processes to make them more suitable for the given environment and the work at hand.

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64
Q

Which of the following would be considered a project?

A) Processing payroll for employees each week.
B) Conducting daily operations with members of a team.
C) Fulfilling a purchase order for new customers.
D) Creating a Standard Operating Procedure for a new process.

A

D) Creating a Standard Operating Procedure for a new process.

Explanation: A Project is any temporary endeavor to produce a unique product, service or result. Processing payroll, and fulfilling purchase orders would be part of everyday operations. Daily operations are not considered projects because these are the activities that you would do even in the absence of a project. Creating a new SOP would be considered a project because it creates something new, it is temporary, and unique to the process. Once complete the SOP would be used in operations to ensure the process is followed.

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65
Q

Which of the following would best describe how governance should be handled within a project?

A) The project manager is responsible for ensuring governance and should make all decisions related to the issue.
B) The project manager is responsible for ensuring governance within the project and should include other decision makers to establish a governance structure.
C) The organization is responsible for governance of the project and senior managers should provide oversight of projects when dealing with governance.
D) The project management office handles compliance requirements and will provide the structure needed for governance needs.

A

B) The project manager is responsible for ensuring governance within the project and should include other decision makers to establish a governance structure.

Explanation: Appropriate project governance should involve the organization’s decision managers, who are frequently its senior managers.

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66
Q

The project manager is reviewing the life-cycle of the project to determine where phase gates make the most sense. What is the purpose that phase-gates serve within the project?

A) They serve as decision points within the project to determine to continue, modify, or terminate the project.
B) They will establish natural transition from one phase to the next to enable team members to shift focus to other areas.
C) They are used as triggers to enable the acquisition of new resources to perform future work.
D) They help track the progress of the project.

A

A) They serve as decision points within the project to determine to continue, modify, or terminate the project.

Explanation: A phase gate is a review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program.

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67
Q

Who does the PMI code of ethics not apply to?

A) PMI Members.
B) Non-members who hold a PMI cettification.
C) Non-members who apply to commence a PMI certification process.
D) Non-members who use PMI processes and procedures.

A

D) Non-members who use PMI processes and procedures.

Explanation: PMI Code of ethics apply to the following: All PMI members, Non-members who hold a PMI
certification, Non-members who apply to commence a PMI certification process, and Non-members who serve PMI in a volunteer capacity.

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68
Q

A new resources was added to a high performing team to meet requirements. The new resource seems to be unhappy with the way the team operates and is starting to tell the team what needs to change to meet the deadlines. The team just doesn’t see how the new recourse fits in with the group. In what performing stage is the team currently at?

A) Forming
B) Storming
C) Norming
D) Performing

A

B) Storming

Explanation: All phases of Tuckman’s model can be repeated as new member come in and others leave. In this
instance the group is going through the storming phase as each team member figures out how they fit in with the new group dynamic.

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69
Q

Which of the following methods embraces change in a project to bring the customer the most value?

A) Traditional
B) Incremental
C) Agile
D) Waterfall

A

C) Agile

Explanation: Agile embraces change and is managed throughout the project as part of each iteration.

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70
Q

A co-worker is taking on a new project. Although the business and project goals are known; the details and requirements will have to be figured out over the course of multiple iterations. There is also a requirement to ensure they have something to offer customers as soon as possible. What would you suggest as a possible project approach?

A) Predictive so the customer and sponsor can see what they need through design before it is built.
B) Incremental because they want the something to offer the customer right away.
C) Agile because it will allow for changing requirements and offer a viable product sooner.
D) Hybrid will allow the project to build what it knows utilizing a predictive methodology, and then things that will need to be determined later with feedback can be agile.

A

C) Agile because it will allow for changing requirements and offer a viable product sooner.

Explanation: Because details and requirements are not well known, and there is a need to provide a product early, agile is the best approach in this situation.

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71
Q

While working on gathering requirements the team is trying to figure out how best to collect requirements from a large diverse group of potential customers. Which of the following may be a good approach?

A) Conduct interviews so you can get specifics on requirements.
B) Use brainstorming so the best ideas and requirements emerge.
C) Use document analysis to identify what requirements are actually needed.
D) Use Surveys to solicit thoughts and opinions on the potential product features to identify requirements.

A

D) Use Surveys to solicit thoughts and opinions on the potential product features to identify requirements.

Explanation: When trying to generate ideas from a large and diverse group surveys can be used to help identify requirements.

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72
Q

After collecting the requirements and defining the full scope of the project what should be done next?

A) Break the work down into the work packages needed to create the deliverables.
B) Talk with the sponsor to ensure there are no more requirements.
C) Ask senior management to move forward with the project.
D) Estimate the costs based on the scope of the project and the resources that are needed.

A

A) Break the work down into the work packages needed to create the deliverables.

Explanation: Once the scope is defined, the work needs to be broken down into the deliverables so teams can be assigned to complete the work.

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73
Q

The project manager is working with the team on a large project using a predictive framework. While meeting with some of the team, the team gets frustrated and confused about the difference between control accounts and a code of accounts. How could the project manager best explain the two items?

A) The code of accounts is the control point where scope, budget, actual costs, and the schedule are integrated and compared against performance measures. The control accounts are to uniquely identify each component of the Work Breakdown Structure.
B) Control account is the control point where scope, budget, actual costs, and the schedule are integrated and compared against performance measures. The code of accounts serve to uniquely identify each component of the Work Breakdown Structure.
C) They are the same thing. A management control point where scope,
budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.
D) They are the same thing, but it is called the Code of Accounts for predictive projects and the Control Account for Agile projects.

A

B) Control account is the control point where scope, budget, actual costs, and the schedule are integrated and compared against performance measures. The code of accounts serve to uniquely identify each component of the Work Breakdown Structure.

Explanation: B is the correct answer. The control account is the place where project managers control the project performance and measure success form. The Code of accounts is a unique identifier assigned to work packages often times to help track of payable invoices and resource assignments against work packages.

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74
Q

A project designing a new phone for release early next year is gathering initial requirements. A discussion about meeting FCC requirements starts and the team is unsure what to do to ensure the requirements are met. Which technique would be best to capture these requirements?

A) Document Analysis to determine what regulation compliance requirements exist. B) Benchmarking because it will identify best practices and can be used as a basis for measuring performance.
C) Surveys so on what customers want most to help determine which features should be included.
D) Prototype to ensure that all features designed meet customer demands and functionality.

A

A) Document Analysis to determine what regulation compliance requirements exist.

Explanation: When dealing with governmental requirements such as regulations it is important to conduct document analysis to ensure that all requirements will be within the bounds of the regulation.

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75
Q

An organization brings on a new project manager on a project that has already started execution. As the project manager reviews the scope, he realizes that there are deliverables missing from the work breakdown structure. What should the project manager do next?

A) Talk with stakeholders to see if these missed deliverables should be added.
B) Ask senior management to approve additional funds for this work.
C) Include the work in the WBS, per the 100% rule, and recalculate the total project cost.
D) Determine whether these deliverables are necessary by verifying with experts in the field.

A

C) Include the work in the WBS, per the 100% rule, and recalculate the total project cost.

Explanation: The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables. The WBS organizes and defines the total scope of the project and represents the work specified in the current approved project scope statement. This must always reflect the complete and accurate scope of work.

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76
Q

Three months into a year long software development project, a team member is caught using code from another vendor to make a feature within the software work. His actions are a direct violation of team ground rules and ethics. The copied code could result in significant legal action against the software if it was released. After a short evaluation the team estimates it will take approximately two additional months to unwind all of the code that was integrated into the copywrite infringement. As the project manager what action should be taken for the violating team member?

A) The project manager should work with HR to terminate the team member.
B) The project manager should work with the team member to help understand the ramifications of the project.
C) The project manager should ask senior management what to do about the team member.
D) The project manager should ask the sponsor what to do about the team member.

A

A) The project manager should work with HR to terminate the team member.

Explanation: Knowingly violating ethics and ground rules are grounds for termination. The team member intentionally copied code and needs to be removed from the project. If not terminated, this could encourage fu ther violations in the future by the team member and other members of the team.

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77
Q

Three months into an agile project a new virtual resource from another country was added to the team to help with detection and error correction on software needed for navigation equipment. She is an expert in her field, and excited to be part of the team. What would help the new team member best integrate with the team?

A) No integration is needed since the resource is only there for error detection and correction.
B) A planned meeting where all team members can share their cultural experiences, viewpoints, and beliefs to gain a better understanding of each team members culture.
C) Clear ground rules so everyone on the team can understand what work conduct is considered acceptable.
D) Match her up with another person so pair-programing can be conducted to speed up the error detection and correction process.

A

B) A planned meeting where all team members can share their cultural experiences, viewpoints, and beliefs to gain a better understanding of each team members culture.

Explanation: Understanding and being aware of the different cultural viewpoints and beliefs of the individuals on your project team can help reduce miscommunication and misunderstandings.

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78
Q

The team is getting ready to establish a team charter, but they are asking questions that you realize may be a result of not knowing what should be included. What would be the best way to explain the team charter to the team?

A) The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines as well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.
B) The team charter is a document used for the development of the project as a start point for how work should be prioritized by the team.
C) The team charter is a document that shows the roles and responsibilities of each team member and explains basic team assignments.
D) The team charter is a document that should be used only on new project that require detailed team assignments and establishes clear expectations regarding the acceptable behavior by project team members.

A

A) The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines as well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

Explanation: The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines as well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

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79
Q

Which of the following best describes a vision?

A) The instructions on what needs to get done.
B) A desired end-state with key objectives and outcomes.
C) A roadmap with potential release dates for different features.
D) Something created by the initiator that formally authorizes the project.

A

B) A desired end-state with key objectives and outcomes.

Explanation: A vision is a desired end-state—a set of desired objectives and outcomes. Vision statement might include:
Product or solution description
Intended users or consumers of the solution
Key desired objectives
Differentiators from competitive approaches
Key features and benefits

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80
Q

You are new to a team that is in a project which just completed its third sprint. The customer is expecting some high value new features in the next iteration and is excited to see how it will be implemented. When should you tell them to come in for a demonstration?

A) During Daily Standup so the customer can see what has gotten done.
B) During the Sprint Planning before the start of the next iteration so the customer can help with priorities and tweak features they are not happy with during the demo.
C) During the Sprint Review so you can demonstrate functionality for the customer and the customer can provide feedback.
D) Invite the customer to the Sprint Retrospective so they can help identify was for the team to improve its performance and collaboration.

A

C) During the Sprint Review so you can demonstrate functionality for the customer and the customer can provide feedback.

Explanation: A sprint review is done at the end of each iteration with the product owner and customer/stakeholders to review the progress of the product and receive feedback for that iteration. It often includes a demonstration of the product’s completed functionality and features.

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81
Q

A team works with the product owner to deliver a product early in the project and that can be improved on as new features become available that will be of benefit to the marketplace. Which of the following best describes these new features?

A) Minimum Viable Product
B) Minimum Viable Project
C) Minimum Business Increment
D) Minimum Business Investment

A

C) Minimum Business Increment

Explanation: Because the product’s future features are useful to the marketplace and can be released they would be
considered a Minimum Business Increments.

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82
Q

The organization has implemented a new diversity and inclusion initiative that will impact all on going projects. The project team seems supportive. What will be your primary role as the project manager for this initiative?

A) To develop the team by improving trust to raise team morale, reduce conflict, and improve teamwork.
B) To establish ground rules and let everyone know the code of ethics in the work place.
C) To agree with all team decisions related to diversity and inclusion.
D) To direct what diversity and inclusion activities the team will participate in.

A

A) To develop the team by improving trust to raise team morale, reduce conflict, and improve teamwork.

Explanation: Project managers are often asked to work on projects with a global scope, or at least a broadly diverse project team, with members from different cultural backgrounds, industry experiences, or who even speak in different languages. The project team may adopt a project “team language” that is different from their native language. The project manager should seek to create an environment that takes advantage of this diversity and builds a team climate of mutual trust. Team development
objectives might include:

  • Improving team knowledge and skills to reduce cost and time and improve quality.
  • Improving t ust to raise team morale, reduce conflict, and improve teamwork.
  • Creating a collaborative culture to improve individual and team pe fo mance and facilitate cross-training and mento ing.
  • Empowering the team to participate in decision making and own the solutions they create
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83
Q

During the Plan and Manage Scope process, what should the project manager do first?

A) Define the project scope
B) Create a work breakdown structure (WBS)
C) Develop a scope management plan
D) Obtain approval from stakeholders

A

C) Develop a scope management plan

Explanation: Developing a scope management plan is the first step in the Plan and Manage Scope process. This plan
outlines how the project scope will be defined, validated, and controlled throughout the project. It also
includes information on how changes to the scope will be managed.

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84
Q

While conducting backlog refinement, the team determines there is no obvious way to complete a backlog item as there are many possible solutions. What should the team do to allow this item to progress?

A) Add a spike item to the backlog
B) Prioritize the item based on its business value on the product backlog
C) Select the fastest alternative
D) Select the cheapest alternative

A

A) Add a spike item to the backlog

Explanation: Project spikes allow for investigation and experimentation. By allowing the team to conduct a spike, it will provide an opportunity to better size the backlog item and provide for the right solution.

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85
Q

You are getting ready to start working on your schedule for a new project. You want to ensure that your schedule is realistic. Where would be a good place to start?

A) Bottom-up estimation
B) 3-point estimation
C) Reviewing benchmarks and historical data from past projects
D) Building a precedence network diagram

A

C) Reviewing benchmarks and historical data from past projects

Explanation: When you begin a new effort, it is a good idea to leverage OPAs such as benchmarks and historical data from prior projects. This makes sure you know how past projects were set up and what you learned from them. It can also give you a good starting point for estimating before a detailed analysis is done.

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86
Q

Another project has pulled some resources from a project due to some priority changes within the organization. This has caused some issues with the availability of resources when originally scheduled. It is important that every activity on the critical path is not affected by this change. What should the project manager do to help ensure the project’s success?

A) Replace the resources by hiring a third party.
B) Negotiate with the other project manager to use resources during planned float and free float times to stay on track.
C) Exercise fast tracking so that the critical path is not affected
D) Exercise crashing since there is a contingency reserve for this type of problems.

A

B) Negotiate with the other project manager to use resources during planned float and free float times to stay on track.

Explanation: The PM does not want to affect items on the critical path so both fast tracking and crashing are not options. Hiring new resources takes time and items on the critical path may be negatively impacted. The best thing to try to do is negotiate with the other project manager and use resource smoothing techniques such as using resources during planned float and free float times.

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87
Q

The team wants to ensure that all the information needed to start work is present in a user story. This includes making sure the user story is small enough to be completed in a single iteration, the user story is understood by the team, acceptance criteria are developed and a definition of done is given. What does the product owner need to provide to the team?

A) A definition of done
B) A definition of ready
C) Acceptance criteria
D) Backlog refinement

A

B) A definition of ready

Explanation: The definition of ready is a team’s checklist for a user-centric requirement that has all the information team needs to be able to begin working on it.

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88
Q

The team is frustrated because the product owner keeps changing the priority of features on the backlog. This is causing an issue with the sequence of features needed to create the release. The release plan is now threatened with not being completed in time. What could the team leader coach the product owner to do that would help prevent this from happening again in the future?

A) Help the product owner with crashing techniques to stay on time
B) Work with the product owner to stop listening to the customer and better understand the needs of the team.
C) The product owner does not need coaching, change is a natural part of agile and the team needs to better understand this.
D) Help the product owner in utilizing story mapping

A

D) Help the product owner in utilizing story mapping

Explanation: When planning a release, it is a good idea to utilize story mapping to better understand the related features needed for the release. No matter how hard a team tries, some user stories may be dependent on prior user stories. By applying story mapping, the product owner can identify those dependent user stories with the team and avoid changing the priority of those items as it will affect the sprint goals and release plan.

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89
Q

You are assigning resources to the public meeting work package of the new shopping center project. Most of the labor will come from within your company, although some labor and the non-labor resources will be outsourced. You will need six professional security guards for four hours during the evening of the public meeting. What contract type should you negotiate for the security firm who will provide the guards?

A) Cost-reimbursable contract
B) Fixed-price contract
C) Term contract
D) Completion contract
E) Cost plus incentive fee contract

A

B) Fixed-price contract

Explanation: The service and time are well known. Because the conditions are unlikely to change a fixed-price term contract best fits the requirements stated above.

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90
Q

You are assigning resources to the public meeting work package of the new shopping center project. Most of the labor will come from within your company, although some labor and the non-labor resources will be outsourced.You will rent three large monitors so meeting attendees can see the speakers. Which of the following documents should you prepare first in order to procure the monitors?

A) Procurement Statement of Work
B) Waivers and Liabilities Agreement
C) Contract
D) Teaming agreement

A

A) Procurement Statement of Work

Explanation: A statement of work describes the work or service to be performed to include any specific requirements needed. It is needed before for a vendor to determine the needs of the procurement.

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91
Q

You are assigning resources to the public meeting work package of the new shopping center project. Most of the labor will come from within your company, although some labor and the non-labor resources will be outsourced. Your public meeting requires approximately 5,000 square feet of space. Which of the following selection criteria are most important? (Choose two.)

A) Past performance of company that owns the space
B) Size of the company that owns the space
C) Warranty
D) References from previous renters
E) Use of two smaller rooms if one large room is not availableranty

A

A) Past performance of company that owns the space

D) References from previous renters

Explanation: Past performance and references are typical items used to evaluate the viability of rented space. There is little to no warranty needed for a temporary space, the size of the company does not demonstrate the capabilities or competency of the company. If the requirement is for 5,000sqft of space, a company with two smaller spaces would not be considered.

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92
Q

What does it mean if you are identified as an “R” in a RACI chart?

A) You are accountable for the result.
B) You should be engaged to provide needed inputs.
C) You should be kept up to date on the status.
D) You are responsible for the activity’s execution

A

D) You are responsible for the activity’s execution

Explanation: RACI stands for “Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Info

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93
Q

Which of the following are components of a Resource Calendar? (Choose two)

A) Working days
B) Training Strategies
C) Availability of physical resource
D) Recognition Plans

A

A) Working days

C) Availability of physical resource

Explanation: The primary purpose of a resource calendar is to help identify availability of resources along with when work can be performed.

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94
Q

As part of the budgeting of an agile project a price per user story was agreed upon. Recently the team has run into trouble and has determined the project needs a new platform to complete the work. This will result in an increase of 200% from the original estimated costs for the project.
The project is now in jeopardy. Who should decide if the project should be cancelled?

A) The project manager
B) The scrum master
C) The product owner
D) The procurement manager

A

C) The product owner

Explanation: The product owner is empowered by the sponsor in agile
projects to set priorities and determine project viability, and therefore has the authority to decide if conditions warrant termination of a project. If sponsor is an option for questions like this, select sponsor.

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95
Q

A recent status update on a hybrid project has determined that the project is currently under budget, but behind schedule. What should the project manager consider as a way to get back on track?

A) Increase the contingency reserve to account for cost overruns due to schedule delays.
B) Consider crashing the project.
C) Consider reducing the scope of the project.
D) Consider fast-tracking the project.

A

B) Consider crashing the project.

Explanation: When the schedule is behind and there are available funds, the project manager should consider crashing the project. Crashing increases the number of resources for activities so they can be completed faster.

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96
Q

A project mid-way through execution is plagued with cost overruns well beyond estimates. What should the project manager do to help get back on track?

A) Ask the team to re-estimate costs using bottom-up estimating
B) Ask the team to re-estimate costs using 3-point estimating
C) Ask the team to reduce quality to save on costs
D) Ask the sponsor for a definitive budget for the project

A

A) Ask the team to re-estimate costs using bottom-up estimating

Explanation: When cost or schedule estimates are inaccurate, the team can conduct bottom-up estimate to re-baseline the project with more accurate estimates.

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97
Q

Your project has been authorized an overall budget of $125,000 for an 8-month project. The project will receive $15,000 a month for spending until the project is completed. During month 4, the project manager determines that 2 activities need to be completed at a cost of $20,000. How should the project manager address the issue?

A) Review the cost management plan to determine if sufficient contingency reserves exist.
B) Ask sub-contractors for a delay in payment.
C) Conduct funding limit reconciliation by extending one of the activities into the following month.
D) Re-estimate costs using 3-point estimating.

A

C) Conduct funding limit reconciliation by extending one of the activities into the following month.

Explanation: The project manager should conduct funding limit reconciliation by extending the activity into the following month. If this can not be performed then the PM could seek financing. The sub-contracts must be paid based on the terms of the contract, contingency reserves are for risks, and 3-point estimating will not make the estimates more accurate or change the need for funds in month 4.

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98
Q

You are a project manager for an upcoming project developing a GPS tracking system to optimize routes for shipping. What would be a good starting point to begin budgeting?

A) After determining the scope of the project, utilize past projects with similar scopes.
B) After determining schedule, utilize other on-going projects to determine budget.
C) Ask the sponsor for ample contingency reserves to account for the unknown scope.
D) Use the charter budget and reduce scope until it is within the authorization.

A

A) After determining the scope of the project, utilize past projects with similar scopes.

Explanation: Using past projects that are similar in nature is a good starting point for gaining estimates and determining an initial budget. Schedule, Resources, and Costs are planned together. The project charter provides a high-level budget, but requires more detailed planning to determine the budget needs. The contingency reserve is to address risks; however, the scope needs to be determined before budgeting can take place. In predictive projects this is done through the development of the scope baseline. In agile, this is done through the development of the Agile roadmap and release plan which identify what features need to be completed.

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99
Q

As a Project manager, how would you explain to your team the difference between an issue and a risk?

A) A risk is future focused and is always negative while an issue is present focused and can either be an opportunity or a threat.
B) A risk is present focused and can either be an opportunity or a threat while an issue is future focused and is always negative.
C) A risk is future focused and can either be an opportunity or a threat while an issue is present focused and is always negative.
D) A risk is present focused and is always negative while an issue is future focused and can either be an opportunity or a threat.

A

C) A risk is future focused and can either be an opportunity or a threat while an issue is present focused and is always negative.

Explanation: Risks are focused on the future and can either be positive (opportunities) or negative (threats) when looking at project success. Issues are focused on the present and are always looked at as negative.

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100
Q

Your project team is ready to evaluate risks for the project. What type of assessment do you tell your team to conduct first looking at every risk?

A) Risk Analysis
B) Qualitative Risk Analysis
C) Sensitivity Analysis
D) EMV Analysis

A

B) Qualitative Risk Analysis

Explanation: A Qualitative Risk Analysis is done on every identified risk using the Probability and Impact Matrix. This analysis helps the team prioritize the risks and focus on the risks with the highest probability or impact on the project for further analysis.

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101
Q

Your project team asks you where they should capture all of the risks identified during their analysis. What document do you tell your team to use to capture risks?

A) Issues Log
B) Lessons Learned Register
C) Change Log
D) Risk Register

A

D) Risk Register

Explanation: The Risk Register is where the team will capture all identified risks to include the trigger, who is responsible, the analysis of the risk, and the risk response.

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102
Q

You purchase insurance for the warehouse you are using during your project. What type of risk response is this?

A) Transfer
B) Accept
C) Avoid
D) Escalate

A

A) Transfer

Explanation: Transfer – If the level of overall project risk is high but the organization is unable to address it effectively, a third party may be involved to manage the risk on behalf of the organization. Where overall project risk is negative, a transfer strategy is required, which may involve payment of a risk premium.

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103
Q

When accounting for the costs associated with risks, what is the portion of baseline budget set aside to handle the known-unknowns?

A) Management Reserve
B) Budgetary Reserve
C) Contingency Reserve
D) Risk Reserve

A

C) Contingency Reserve

Explanation: The Contingency Reserve is the money set aside to handle all of the known-unknowns (identified risks). It is under the control of the project manager and is part of the budget baseline.

104
Q

For next year’s Valentine season, your company’s candy production facility is rolling out a pink chocolate panda. There are many quality areas the company is worried about for this new product line. During the first production run, the quality measurements were examined closely. Since there are many areas where quality may be an issue, how does the product team determine what the quality standards are? Select all that apply)

A) Referencing industry standards
B) Referencing company standards
C) Referencing standards researched and set by the Quality Department
D) Referencing standards set by senior leadership
E) Referencing standards set by SMEs
F) Benchmarking against other projects, products or competitors

A

A) Referencing industry standards
B) Referencing company standards
C) Referencing standards researched and set by the Quality Department
D) Referencing standards set by senior leadership
E) Referencing standards set by SMEs
F) Benchmarking against other projects, products or competitors

Explanation: All of these items listed are ways the team can determine quality standards.

105
Q

For next year’s Valentine season, your company’s candy production facility is rolling out a pink chocolate panda. There are many quality areas the company is worried about for this new product line. The project team includes quality engineers that want to include a quality check at the end of the production line to scan for foreign objects that may be in the chocolate. The scanning tool is $30,000 to procure and install. What kind of project cost is this?

A) Cost of non-conformance
B) Warranty cost
C) Cost of conformance
D) Variable cost

A

C) Cost of conformance

106
Q

For next year’s Valentine season, your company’s candy production facility is rolling out a pink chocolate panda. There are many quality areas the company is worried about for this new product line. The chocolate must not exceed a set size with a 3% tolerance in order to fit in the packages and for those packages to fit in the shipping containers. For this quality metric, how could the project team measure conformance? (two answers)

A) By observing the amount of chocolate in the mold
B) By using an electronic measuring tool
C) By asking the customer to ship back any products too small or too large
D) By cleaning the assembly line every 4 hours

A

A) By observing the amount of chocolate in the mold

B) By using an electronic measuring tool

Explanation: Observation and measurement are ways to “measure conformance.” Cleaning the assembly line may increase the chances of conformance but it does not serve as a way to measure conformance. Waiting for the customer to find the defect is also NOT a measurement but an external failure cost which is a cost of non-conformance.

107
Q

You are the project manager for a software development project. You want to make sure you are maintaining continuous improvement throughout your project. What are tools you can use for continuous improvement during your current project? (Choose Three)

A) Acceptance Criteria
B) Retrospective
C) Work Breakdown Structure
D) Experiments
E) Scope Statement
F) Lessons Learned Register

A

A) Acceptance Criteria

D) Experiments

F) Lessons Learned Register

Explanation: Lessons Learned Register is an important component of each project. We use it as a source to improve our projects’ processes as well as other projects. Avoid filing it away at the end of a project and not referring to it. A retrospective is common in agile projects at the end of each iteration. It helps the team look back at an iteration and plan improvements for the next one. Experiments are also used in agile to provide a way to improve team efficiency and effectiveness. Perfotm experiments one at a time to isolate the results.

108
Q

Which continuous improvement approach is built upon ideas coming from the workers themselves and improvements coming from many small changes?

A) TQM
B) Kaizen
C) Plan Do Check Act
D) Deming cycle

A

B) Kaizen

Explanation: Kaizenis a Japanese term meaning “change for the better” or “continuous improvement.” It is a Japanese business philosophy regarding the processes that continuously improve operations and involve all employees.

109
Q

You are part of a project to repair a large portion of oil pipelines. Because of the environmental sensitivity of the project there are many EPA regulations and policies that must be followed. Any one of these could threaten the projects success. As a project manager where would be a good place to document and track these items?

A) As part of the Risk Register
B) As part of the Project Management plan
C) As part of the configuration management plan
D) As part of the compliance management plan

A

A) As part of the Risk Register

Explanation: The risk register would enable the project manager to track and monitor the risks associated with violations of policies and regulations. A quality management plan with well documented procedures and processes could also be used to mitigate those risks along with audits, but the only option provided out of these is the Risk Register. The compliance management plan could provide instructions on how compliance issues should be managed but it would not be used to track the compliance requirements.

110
Q

Who is considered the father of total quality management?

A) W. Edwards Deming
B) Philip B. Crosby
C) Genichi Taguchi
D) Joseph M. Juran

A

A) W. Edwards Deming

Explanation: Deming is considered the father of total quality management. His philosophy was that improving quality would reduce expenses, increase productivity, and thus increase market share.

111
Q

You have been assigned as the project manager for a new agile project. The team is new to agile and is unsure about how to best manage the amount of work to be accomplished during each iteration. As you explain how this works, it dawns on you that they do not understand the purpose of story points. How would you best explain the use of story points when dealing with an agile project?

A) A Story Point is used to determine how much work each team member will do based on the overall capabilities of the team.
B) A Story Point is a relative measure for the level of difficulty or complexity of a feature, individuals assign story points, which are numbers in a Fibonacci sequence.
C) A Story Point is a relative measure of work that each team member is capable of in a single iteration, which are numbers in a Fibonacci sequence.
D) A Story Point is a relative measure of effort each team establishes over time, which are numbers in a Fibonacci Sequence.

A

B) A Story Point is a relative measure for the level of difficulty or complexity of a feature, individuals assign story points, which are numbers in a Fibonacci sequence.

Explanation: A Story Point is a relative measure for the level of difficulty or complexity of a feature, individuals assign story points, which are numbers in a Fibonacci sequence.

112
Q

The project manager just completed the scope baseline, estimated the resource requirements, and identified the risks associated with the project. She is now getting ready to estimate costs for a few challenging elements of the project. She would like to be optimistic about the cost, she decides to ask her team to spend the time to get it right. What should her team use to gather estimates on cost?

A) Three-point estimating since the project manager wants to be optimistic and three-point estimating includes this estimate in the equation.
B) Analogous would be the most accurate because the team can use historical data from prior projects to get the estimates accurately.
C) Bottom-up because it ensures the time is given to provide the most accurate estimates by team members.
D) They should use definitive estimates so costs are within 5% of actual costs.

A

C) Bottom-up because it ensures the time is given to provide the most accurate estimates by team members.

Explanation: When projects need accurate estimations and have the time to complete the work, the best estimating technique is bottom-up estimation. It also very accurate and gives lower-level managers more responsibility.

113
Q

You are on a project where the critical path is starting to be threatened by setbacks. Your sponsor would like you to get back on track and ensure the project is completed on time. To date, your schedule performance index is 0.76 (behind schedule) and your cost performance index is 1.13 (under budget). What can you tell the sponsor you can do to improve the chances of completing on time?

A) The best option is to use crashing for schedule compression. It will increase costs because crashing will utilize additional resources for different activities.
B) The best option to get back on track on schedule is to fast track the project, it will reduce the risks associated with schedule compression.
C) The best option is to reduce the scope of the project and eliminate items that are “like to haves.”
D) The best option is to redo schedule estimates using three-point estimating to determine how best to get back on track.

A

A) The best option is to use crashing for schedule compression. It will increase costs because crashing will utilize additional resources for different activities.

Explanation: In this instance the utilization of crashing for schedule compression is your best option. The project is currently under budget, and crashing will cost additional money but carries less risk than fast tracking. Reducing scope when requirements have already been determined and agreed upon is not a good choice, and if the schedule needs to be re-estimated then bottom-up estimation is the best technique to be accurate about how long it will take to complete the activities.

114
Q

Taking the time needed to interview stakeholders to understand requirement is an example of which of the following?

A) Cost of Conformance
B) Cost of Resources
C) Cost of Requirements
D) Total Quality Management

A

A) Cost of Conformance

Explanation: Taking the time to do it right includes collecting requirements. This is a cost of conformance.

115
Q

Edward has just notified the project manager that he will not be able to start the working on acceptance testing until Jill finishes the code, but he is completely confident of finishing on schedule. What type of dependency does Edward have with the code being finished?

A) The relationship is a start to start, because Edward can start as soon as the code is getting done utilizing pair programming.
B) The relationship is a finish to start, because Edward is dependent on the code being finished before he can begin.
C) The relationship is a finish to finish, because the project cannot get finished without both activities being complete.
D) The relationship cannot be determined, because there are other dependencies that require analysis before moving forward.

A

B) The relationship is a finish to start, because Edward is dependent on the code being finished before he can begin.

Explanation: The relationship for the two activities is a finish to start relationship. Jill must complete the code for John to start acceptance testing.

116
Q

Your foreman picked up a compactor needed to install the pavers on a construction project. The compactor is leased through a local rental company at a fee of $50 a day. After 2 days, the compactor is returned and the rental company assesses a $20 fee for not emptying the fuel prior to return. What legal issue is this a result of?

A) This is a waiver issue, because the foreman gave up his right to fees by not emptying the fuel.
B) There is no legal issue, the contract outlined penalties for failing to perform different aspects of the terms of agreement.
C) This is a breach of contract issue, the terms of the contract were not made and a penalty was applied.
D) This is a warranty issue; the compactor lost the warranty when fuel was not emptied.

A

B) There is no legal issue, the contract outlined penalties for failing to perform different aspects of the terms of agreement.

Explanation: There is no legal issue, the contract outlined penalties for failing to perform different aspects of the terms of agreement. There is only a legal issue if the foreman decides to dispute the charge

117
Q

You are a project manager on a project where the majority of work is outsourced. What would be the project manager’s primary role throughout the project?

A) To ensure activities start when they are suppose to and to inspect the deliverables outsourced to ensure they meet quality standards and contractual requirements while assessing performance and customer satisfaction.
B) Directing the team members to ensure maximum performance and that work that is needed gets done, correct any mistakes, and ensure that the customer satisfaction is met.
C) Conducting procurements and closing them as activities get completed.
D) Controlling day to day activities to ensure the project stays on track.

A

A) To ensure activities start when they are suppose to and to inspect the deliverables outsourced to ensure they meet quality standards and contractual requirements while assessing performance and customer satisfaction.

Explanation: Although a project where a large portion of the work is outsourced removes the project manager of some control, they still need to ensure that the project activities are happening on time and the items being outsourced are completed to standard so the customer is satisfied.

118
Q

The project manager is putting together the resource management plan and is deciding how to structure the project resources. While showing the team the plan, there are concerns that team members will not understand who will be responsible for different tasks and what should be done when certain events take place. What did the project manager most likely not include as part of the resource management plan?

A) The project manager forgot to include the work breakdown structure which identifies the work that needs to be accomplished by the team.
B) The project manager forgot to include the responsibility assignment matrix which shows the involvement of team members for different tasks and events.
C) The project manager forgot to include the resource calendar which shows what each resource is doing and when so they know what to do.
D) The project manager forgot to include the organizational chart which show where each team member will be assigned during the project.

A

B) The project manager forgot to include the responsibility assignment matrix which shows the involvement of team members for different tasks and events.

Explanation: Part of the resource management plan includes a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM). A common version is called a RACI that uses responsible, accountable, consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities.

119
Q

The procurement manager has asked you as the project manager to participate in some of the negotiations for an upcoming project with an external stakeholder. Which of the following would you not consider as part of the negotiations?

A) Deliverables and Milestone because these are part of the project management plan.
B) The development approach because different portions of the project may require a hybrid approach once the plan is fully developed.
C) The current schedule performance index of the project because it is a measure of how efficient the project has been with their time to date.
D) Discussing the minimum viable product because this is determined at each iteration by prioritizing the backlog

A

C) The current schedule performance index of the project because it is a measure of how efficient the project has been with their time to date.

Explanation: Because this is a negotiation of a new project, there has been no work performed. All other items are considerations that could be discussed as part of the project.

120
Q

The team is getting ready to establish a team charter, but they are asking questions that you realize may be a result of not knowing what should be included. What would be the best way to explain the team charter to the team?

A) The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines as well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.
B) The team charter is a document used for the development of the project as a start point for how work should be prioritized by the team.
C) The team charter is a document that shows the roles and responsibilities of each team member and explains basic team assignments.
D) The team charter is a document that should be used only on new project that require detailed team assignments and establishes clear expectations regarding the acceptable behavior by project team members.

A

A) The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines as well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

Explanation: The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines as well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

121
Q

Which of the following would be considered an advantage to outsourcings different portions of a project?

A) It improves project manager’s ability to closely monitor the project.
B) It allows for more control and oversight for individual deliverables.
C) It enables the organization to focus on core competencies.
D) Outsourcing is purely a cost savings decision, and if it’s cheaper to outsource then it should be selected.

A

C) It enables the organization to focus on core competencies.

Explanation: Outsourcing allows a business to focus on their core competencies.

122
Q

Which of the following would help a team to get past the forming stage of team development? (Choose 2)

A) Establishing ground rules
B) Challenging the status quo
C) Taking the time for everyone to get to know each other
D) Provide a clear vision and setting goals
E) Having business leaders detail all requirements

A

A) Establishing ground rules

C) Taking the time for everyone to get to know each other

Explanation: During the forming stage there is a lack of trust. To help establish trust among the team you should allow time for the team to get to know each other by sharing their experience and backgrounds. It is also important to establish team norms and ground rules so everyone knows the expected conduct within the project. These items are often done during a kick-off meeting. Establishing goals and vision are to aid a team in getting through the storming phase because it helps the team focus on the big picture instead of internally. Challenging the status quo is something that should be considered primarily during the performing stage to help avoid complacency within the team. Business leaders are not the only ones who provide requirements.

123
Q

While leading a team, what are some ways you can help create a sense of urgency? (Choose 3)

A) Timebox meetings
B) Establish short term goals
C) Hold the team accountable for commitments
D) Hold individuals accountable
E) Size user stories to fit within a single iteration
F) Allow for overtime so deadlines can be met

A

A) Timebox meetings

B) Establish short term goals

C) Hold the team accountable for commitments

Explanation: Having timeboxed events, holding the team accountable, and establishing short-term goals are all ways to help create a sense of urgency. The team is the one who sizes user stories (it is not done by yourself), we want to hold individuals accountable, but the focus should be on the team and their commitments, and we want to work at a sustainable pace. Continuous overtime can negatively affect team morale and make determining team capacity more difficult. Continued overtime will cause burnout and overcommitment by the team.

124
Q

Which best represents the servant leadership style of the project manager?

A) She helps make the coffee for the business team.
B She asks difficult questions to get the development team thinking.
C She serves up new possibilities that could be used by the design team.
D) She takes care of the administrative reporting when the team is focused and on a roll.

A

D) She takes care of the administrative reporting when the team is focused and on a roll.

Explanation: A servant leader is focused on team performance. Servant leaders do not provide solutions or difficult questions, but encourage the team to develop the best solution possible. Servant leaders provide coaching and mentoring, while removing impediments and obstacles so the team can complete their work. Completing administrative tasks that do not contribute to the technical solution development the team is working on is the best example of a servant leader.

125
Q

In their extensive research, the design team discovers that inventory staff enter a lot of information that is never used by any of their activities or any other team. When the inventory staff is asked why that information is captured, the response was, “We just always have. No one knows why.” How is challenging of the status quo going to support the project’s aim of delivering value?

A) Challenging the status quo will allow for a focus on value and eliminating waste will help remove inefficiencies.
B) Challenging the status quo will disrupt the business environment and present an opportunity for the willing participants to shine.
C) Challenging the status quo will allow for senior management to show why they are right and decisions should be made from the top down.
D) Challenging the status quo allows subordinates to have a voice in what they think matters, and should always be a part of a project to get the most out of your team.

A

A) Challenging the status quo will allow for a focus on value and eliminating waste will help remove inefficiencies.

Explanation: Questioning and challenging the way things are done may validate its importance and value in which case the project can produce or enable more value. Or the status quo may be continuing unnecessary effort that produces no value (waste), in which case the project can remove inefficiencies or non-value efforts.

126
Q

A project has the following characteristics:

  • New team
  • High customer demand
  • Limited time to produce a MVP

How can the project manager help develop the new team in the near term?

A) Provide the team with daily status updates so issues can be addressed early.
B) Encourage the team to establish agreed upon rules and social norms.
C) Ensure the team has lots of formal team building events.
D) Assign tasks that need to be accomplished based on resources past backgrounds.

A

B) Encourage the team to establish agreed upon rules and social norms.

Explanation: Teams in the forming stage have a lack of trust. A project manager should encourage the team to establish ground rules early, to help build a trusting working relationship.

127
Q

The project you have been assigned to involves many people and groups with specialized knowledge. Due to the intense coordination required, defined and detailed plans are necessary. What would be the best project management plan to create?

A) An informal plan that allows the teams flexibility to ensure the customer gets what they need.
B) A formal plan with thorough and detailed documentation to ensure that the multiple stakeholders understand the requirements, deliverables, and how integration and coordination will take place.
C) A formal plan that is flexible because the scope is not well defined and will need to be progressively elaborated through the course of many iterations.
D) An informal plan with focus on roles and responsibilities of the team so stakeholders know how to perform.

A

B) A formal plan with thorough and detailed documentation to ensure that the multiple stakeholders understand the requirements, deliverables, and how integration and coordination will take place.

Explanation: The best answer is the creation of a fotmal plan with thorough and detailed documentation. As projects become more complex, and involve a larger number of stakeholders, more ceremony is necessaty to ensure the work is better defined and stakeholders’ expectations can be managed.

128
Q

The project you have been assigned to involves many people and groups with specialized knowledge. Due to the intense coordination required, defined and detailed plans are necessary. Which subsidiary plan deals with the closure of contracts, including those signed to bring in consultants?

A) The Resource Management Plan because it identifies which resources are needed and what their roles and responsibilities will be.
B) The Scope Management Plan because it identifies the deliverables and what work needs to get accomplished.
C) The Scope Baseline because it identifies the deliverables and what work needs to get accomplished.
D) The Procurement Management Plan because it identifies what types of contracts there will be, how they will be managed, and what the process is for closure.

A

D) The Procurement Management Plan because it identifies what types of contracts there will be, how they will be managed, and what the process is for closure.

Explanation: Procurements generally produce a type of contract. A procurement management plan is the best answer.

129
Q

The project team recognizes there are going to be a lot of changes to documents and procedures throughout the project. The importance of team members using the correct checklist, document, or file is key. Operating off the incorrect version can have a major impact. Which plan most addresses this project concern?

A) The Project Charter
B) The Scope Management Plan
C) The Configuration Management Plan
D) The Change Management Plan

A

C) The Configuration Management Plan

Explanation: A Configuration Management Plan explains the processes and systems used to conduct version changes to documents, files, and artifacts related to and including the product or project.

130
Q

You are creating a sub-plan, which describes the problems the project might encounter if government standards, municipal laws, or internal processes are not correctly followed. What plan are you working on?

A) Compliance Management Plan
B) Configuration Management Plan
C) Communication Management Plan
D) Quality Management Plan

A

A) Compliance Management Plan

Explanation: The compliance manage plan is an optional plan that can be part of the project management plan. It serves as a “How to” guide to deal with internal and external governance related items to include quality, law adherence, and governmental or industry standards.

131
Q

A software development team has received feedback from stakeholders that certain features and functionalities are required to be added in the upcoming release. The team decides to create an updated release plan to reflect these changes. Which of the following statements is true regarding an updated release plan?

A) It only includes the new features and functionality that have been added to the release.
B) It includes all the features and functionality that were part of the original release plan, along with any new additions.
C) It is created by the project sponsor and communicated to the development team.
D) It is not necessary to inform stakeholders about an updated release plan.

A

B) It includes all the features and functionality that were part of the original release plan, along with any new additions.

Explanation: An updated release plan includes all the features and functionality that were part of the original release plan, along with any new additions. The updated release plan is created by the development team and communicated to stakeholders, including the project sponsor, who provides feedback on the changes. Stakeholders need to be kept informed of any changes to the release plan to ensure they are aware of any updates and can plan accordingly. The other options listed are incorrect. An updated release plan cannot only include new features and functionality, as it needs to reflect the changes made to the original plan. The project sponsor may be involved in providing feedback on the updated release plan, but it is created by the development team. Finally, stakeholders must be informed about any changes to the release plan to ensure they have a clear understanding of what will be delivered in the release.

132
Q

You know the 234 West Adams project team will produce quite a few documents before the home is finished. Since this is your first major project to manage, your sponsor wants you to have a solid grasp of these documents and how to use them. You take this opportunity to test yourself about your familiarity with the topic of project artifacts. Which of the following will you not prepare for the project to build a new house?

A) Assumptions
B) Release Plan
C) Acceptance criteria
D) Scope Management Plan

A

B) Release Plan

Explanation: This project is being conducted using a predictive life cycle. A release plan is part of an adaptive or hybrid life cycle and not in predictive life cycles.

133
Q

A software development team is working on a project for a client. The team has created a number of documents, diagrams, and other artifacts throughout the project lifecycle, including requirements specifications, design documents, and test plans. During the final stages of the project, the team realizes that some of the artifacts are missing or outdated, and this is causing delays in completing the project. What is the main reason why artifact management is important in project management?

A) To ensure that all artifacts are created at the beginning of the project, before any work begins
B) To ensure that all artifacts are stored in a central repository, accessible by all team members
C) To ensure that all artifacts are reviewed, approved, and updated throughout the project lifecycle
D) To ensure that all artifacts are only accessible by the project manager and senior leadership

A

C) To ensure that all artifacts are reviewed, approved, and updated throughout the project lifecycle

Explanation: The main reason why artifact management is important in project management is to ensure that all artifacts are reviewed, approved, and updated throughout the project lifecycle. This involves establishing a process for creating, storing, maintaining, and distributing project artifacts, including version control, approval workflows, and access control. By implementing a comprehensive artifact management process, project teams can ensure that all artifacts are up to date and accurate, reducing the risk of delays or
errors in the project. In addition, having a central repository where all artifacts are stored and accessible to all team members can improve collaboration and communication. To ensure that all artifacts are stored in a central repository, accessible by all team members is partially correct but it does not address the need for artifacts to be reviewed approved and updated throughout the lifecycle of the project.

134
Q

Which of the following is a tool used to manage changes to a product or service?

A) Version control
B) Configuration management
C) Compliance Management System
D) Artifact management system

A

B) Configuration management

Explanation: When implementing an approved change, configuration management is the best tool to use to ensure all items affected by the change related to the product or service are updated and tracked.

135
Q

Which of the following systems is used to create, store, retrieve, and distribute project documents?

A) Artifacts management system
B) Configuration management system
C) Document management system
D) Project management system

A

A) Artifacts management system

Explanation: Artifact Management system is a system for creating, storing, retrieving and distributing project documents.

136
Q

While working with their team; a resource asks if the minutes for the meeting should be considered a project artifact. What should the project manager tell her?

A) Only the project manager can determine what is and is not an artifact.
B) All meetings need to be entered into the organization’s repository for future lessons learned.
C) If items discussed will have a significant impact on the project or product.
D) Everything is a project Artifact

A

C) If items discussed will have a significant impact on the project or product.

Explanation: Project artifacts are continuously updated and reflect the changes to documentation that affect the project or product. If there are no impacts to the project or product then documenting and tracking the meeting minutes is optional.

137
Q

What problems may an organization face when there is a lack of diversity, equity, and inclusion? (Choose 2)

A) Groupthink
B) Reduced innovation
C) Inability to agree
D) Trust
E) Motivation

A

A) Groupthink

B) Reduced innovation

Explanation: By not taking advantage of diversity, equity, and inclusion a company risks the chances of groupthink and reduced innovation. It takes a diversity of people from different backgrounds, experiences, and walks of life to allow a team to come up with the “best” ideas. A failure to do this could result in top down decision making rather than an ability to empower the team to make decisions.

138
Q

As a leader it is important to keep a team motivated. This theory would include the incorporation of a rewards and recognition policy, encouraging the team to come up with their own identity such as a team name, and empowering the team to make local decisions. What theory does this best represent?

A) McClelland’s Achievement Motivation Theory
B) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
C) Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory
D) McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y

A

A) McClelland’s Achievement Motivation Theory

Explanation: McClelland’s Achievement Motivation Theory includes the use of achievement, affiliation, and power to influence others and keep them motivated.

139
Q

A company is faced with a high-turnover rate. Employees seem to be unhappy with their compensation and feel that management makes too many threats about termination. Which need is most likely not being met by the company based on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A) Physiological
B) Safety
C) Belonging
D) Esteem

A

B) Safety

Explanation: Safety needs include things such as personal security, employment, pay, resources, health, and shelter. Since the company is threatening employees with termination and they are not being compensated properly these are indications that their safety needs are not being met.

140
Q

A company is faced with an employee who has been with the company for over 3 years leaving. She has been in the same position the whole time, always gets the job done, and has never complained about compensation or benefits. Which factor of Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory is a likely cause for her leaving?

A) Motivators
B) Hygiene Factors

A

A) Motivators

Explanation: The employee has been in the same position for 3 years. It is likely that there is a sense of a lack of advancement or recognition for her efforts. Since there was no discussion about pay, it is likely that she is lacking motivators to stay in the position.

141
Q

Which of the following is NOT a voting method for reaching consensus?

A) Fist of Five
B) Dot Voting
C) Roman Voting
D) Autocratic

A

D) Autocratic

Explanation: Ways of reaching consensus are First of Five, Dot Voting, Roman Voting, and Polling. Decisions can be reached by established ground rules and may be made by the use of Unanimity (everyone has to agree), Majority wins (more than 50% agree), or Plurality (the most votes wins when there are more than two options).

142
Q

A team member is expressing frustration with a project task. How would you respond to this situation?

A) Tell the team member to stop complaining and just get the task done
B) Listen to the team member’s concerns and find a solution together
C) Assign the task to another team member
D) Ignore the situation and hope it resolves on its own

A

B) Listen to the team member’s concerns and find a solution together

Explanation: Emotional intelligence involves active listening and understanding. By listening to the team member’s concerns and finding a solution together, you demonstrate empathy and create a positive work environment where team members feel valued and heard. Ignoring the situation or telling the team member to stop complaining will only worsen the situation and negatively impact the success of the project.

143
Q

As a project manager, you are conducting performance appraisals for your team members. You have established key performance indicators (KPIs) for the project. Which of the following methods would you use to appraise team member performance against KPIs?

A) Use a subjective and personal opinion of each team member’s performance
B) Compare team members against each other instead of the established KPIs
C) Use objective data and measurements to assess team member performance against KPIs
D) Base appraisals on the project manager’s personal relationship with each team member

A

C) Use objective data and measurements to assess team member performance against KPIs

Explanation: Using objective data and measurements ensures that the appraisals are fair and impartial, and reduces the risk of subjectivity and bias. Comparing team members against each other or using a personal opinion of each team member’s performance can lead to inaccurate appraisals and create a negative work environment.

144
Q

As a project manager, you have been tasked with leading a complex software development project. You are considering using the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) to help understand and manage the behavior of your team members. Which of the following benefits of using the MBTI in your project would you most likely expect?

A) Decreased team morale and motivation
B) Increased conflict and misunderstandings among team members
C) Improved communication and collaboration among team members
D) Lack of actionable insights for managing team behavior

A

C) Improved communication and collaboration among team members

Explanation: The MBTI provides insights into individual behavior and communication preferences, which can help project managers understand how to effectively communicate and collaborate with team members. This can lead to improved team dynamics, increased productivity, and a more positive work environment. Decreased team morale and motivation, increased conflict, and a lack of actionable insights would negatively impact the success of the project and should be avoided.

145
Q

As a project manager, you are constantly looking for ways to improve communication and collaboration among team members. You have heard about the DiSC behavior model, which is a tool used to understand and improve individual behavior in the workplace. Which of the following is the most significant benefit of using the DiSC behavior model in a project setting?

A) Increased efficiency in completing tasks
B) Improved understanding and appreciation of each team member’s unique strengths and weaknesses
C) Increased productivity of team members
D) Improved team morale

A

B) Improved understanding and appreciation of each team member’s unique strengths and weaknesses

Explanation: The DiSC behavior model provides a framework for understanding individual behavior, which can lead to improved communication, collaboration, and overall team dynamics. By understanding each team member’s unique strengths and weaknesses, project managers can assign tasks and responsibilities that are best suited to each team member’s behavior style, leading to improved performance and satisfaction. Increased efficiency in completing tasks, increased productivity, and improved team morale are also potential benefits of using the DiSC behavior model, but improved understanding and appreciation of each team member’s unique strengths and weaknesses is the most significant benefit.

146
Q

As a project manager, you are familiar with various tools and techniques for understanding and managing team behavior. You are interested in using the OCEAN behavior model to improve team performance and effectiveness on your projects. Which of the following benefits does the OCEAN behavior model offer for project management?

A) The OCEAN model only focuses on negative aspects of team behavior
B) The OCEAN model provides limited information about team behavior
C) The OCEAN model helps project managers understand and manage team behavior in a comprehensive and systematic way
D) The OCEAN model is not widely recognized or used in project management

A

C) The OCEAN model helps project managers understand and manage team behavior in a comprehensive and systematic way

Explanation: The OCEAN behavior model, also known as the Big Five personality traits model, provides a comprehensive and systematic way of understanding and managing team behavior. The model identifies five key dimensions of personality: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism. By using the OCEAN model, project managers can gain a deeper understanding of the strengths and weaknesses of team members, and tailor their management style to best support each team member. The OCEAN model is widely recognized and used in various fields, including project management, to improve team performance and effectiveness.

147
Q

You work for a small development company that builds homes for low-income families. The homebuild program’s purpose is to build a two- or three-bedroom home for each qualifying family. Under the sponsorship of Linda Michaels, your company is getting ready to build a new home for the Andrews family. The family has qualified for the home-build program and is the next family on the home list. You have been assigned to manage this project. Each new build project is named by the address and the next available lot is located at 234 West Adams Street. The West Adams project has faced several challenges, including staffing changes and construction problems. Although you have consistently informed stakeholders of all changes by using the protocols outlined in the communications plan, several stakeholders have expressed concern that the project has gotten off track. Stakeholders are worried about the current state of the project. How should you handle their concerns?

A) Send an email justifying your position.
B) Take corrective action.
C) Conduct a face-to-face meeting with a clear agenda targeting their specific concerns.
D) Document lessons learned.

A

C) Conduct a face-to-face meeting with a clear agenda targeting their specific concerns.

Explanation: Face to face communication is the preferred method to address concerns and reduce gain common understanding. Documenting lessons learned, justifying your position and taking corrective action DO NOT help understand or address the root cause of the problem.

148
Q

Two stakeholders are out of town on a business trip and are available sporadically. A third person has an extremely busy schedule and can’t squeeze another lengthy meeting into his day. You believe it’s important to have regular face-to-face interaction with each stakeholder. How can you accommodate their needs? (Choose two.)

A) Send a memo via email.
B) Use video conferencing.
C) Hold a brief summarization meeting.
D) Use an instant messaging service.

A

B) Use video conferencing.

C) Hold a brief summarization meeting.

Explanation: Both of these methods allow for interactive communication the others do not.

149
Q

During the face-to-face meeting with project stakeholders, you explain the need to remove an external resource from the project. It became necessary to add another internal resource to the team, which resulted in changes to the project cost baseline. While you are talking about this issue, you notice that one of the stakeholders continually looks down at the floor and rapidly taps her pen against the table. What does her behavior indicate?

A) She is tired and is trying to stay awake.
B) Based on her body language and it indicates that she is uncomfortable with the information you are providing to the group.
C) She is practicing active listening and is engaged in the information you are providing to the group.
D) Nothing can be determined or inferred by her actions.

A

B) Based on her body language and it indicates that she is uncomfortable with the information you are providing to the group.

Explanation: The BEST answer is that she is uncomfortable as those are all indications of discomfort with the topic being discussed.

150
Q

During the face-to-face meeting with project stakeholders, you explain the need to remove an external resource from the project. It became necessary to add another internal resource to the team, which resulted in changes to the project cost baseline. While you are talking about this issue, you notice that one of the stakeholders continually looks down at the floor and rapidly taps her pen against the table. What would be an appropriate response as the project manager?

A) Ask her in the meeting what her concerns are because they are important to the group.
B) Speak with her privately to see what her concerns are so they can be addressed.
C) Tell her if she has better places to be, she can leave and you will send her the minutes to stay info med.
D) Let her know in private that you observed her body language and her behavior was unacceptable.

A

B) Speak with her privately to see what her concerns are so they can be addressed.

Explanation: When addressing disruptive behavior or indications of being unhappy with what is being discussed; it is best to talk to the individual one-on-one. If there was a concern that was for the entire audience, then the stakeholder would address it there on their own.

151
Q

When are lessons learned collected?

A) At the end of a project
B) At the end of a phase
C) Throughout the project in both predictive, iterative, and agile life cycles
D) Throughout the project in only iterative life cycles

A

C) Throughout the project in both predictive, iterative, and agile life cycles

Explanation: Lessons Learned are collected as they are learned in predictive projects, and documented on the Lessons Learned Register, they become part of organizational knowledge base once inputted into the Lessons Learned Repository. For agile and hybrid projects incremental improvement is encouraged and done du ing the ceremony called the Retrospective.

152
Q

A manufacturing company is looking to improve its production processes to increase efficiency and reduce waste. The company has heard of two approaches for process improvement: Kaizen and PDSA. Which of the following statements accurately differentiates between Kaizen and PDSA in the context of process improvement?

A) Kaizen involves making small, continuous improvements to the process, while PDSA involves testing and analyzing the process to identify areas for improvement.
B) Kaizen is focused on making large, one-time improvements to the process, while PDSA involves making small, continuous improvements to the process.
C) Kaizen involves testing and analyzing the process to identify areas for improvement, while PDSA involves making small, continuous improvements to the process.
D) Kaizen and PDSA are essentially the same approach to process improvement.

A

A) Kaizen involves making small, continuous improvements to the process, while PDSA involves testing and analyzing the process to identify areas for improvement.

Explanation: The main difference between Kaizen and PDSA in the context of process improvement is that Kaizen involves making small, continuous improvements to the process, while PDSA involves testing and analyzing the process to identify areas for improvement. Kaizen is a Japanese te m that means “continuous improvement,” and it involves making incremental improvements to the process over time, typically through the use of employee suggestions and involvement. PDSA, on the other hand, is a four-step process that involves planning a change, testing the change, analyzing the results, and implementing the change. PDSA is often used in quality improvement initiatives and is a st uctured approach to making improvements.

153
Q

Which of the following individuals is often cited as the father of Total Quality Management?

A) Crosby
B) Smith
C) Kaizen
D) Deming

A

D) Deming

Explanation: William Edwards Deming(1900-1993) is widely acknowledged as the leading management thinker in the field of quality. He was a statistician and business consultant whose methods helped hasten Japan’s recovery after the Second World War and beyond. Deming’s 14 Points on Quality Management, or the Deming Model of Quality Management, a core concept on implementingtotal quality management(TQM), is a set of management practices to help companies increase their quality and productivity.

154
Q

How is the Lessons Learned Register used in continuous improvement?

A) Lessons Learned Registers are not used because each project is unique so they do not help.
B) Lessons Learned Registers used to determine all quality management requirements so process improvement can begin early and often.
C) Lessons Learned Registers from prior projects can be used as a start point for process improvement ideas
D) Quality management is not used in all projects so the lessons learned registers from other projects will let the Project Manager know if process improvement should be used based on the type of project that is being undertaken.

A

C) Lessons Learned Registers from prior projects can be used as a start point for process improvement ideas

155
Q

You understand that continuous process improvement is a systematic process. You want to implement a methodology that involves systematically testing possible solutions, assessing the results, and implementing those that work.
Which methodology may be effective?

A) Kaizen
B) PDSA
C) Retrospective
D) Lessons Learned

A

B) PDSA

Explanation: PDSA - Plan, Do, Study, Act is a continuous improvement methodology, involves systematically testing possible solutions, assessing the results, and implementing those that work. The cycle is then repeated to further improve a process or product. The four steps in this methodology are:

  1. Plan - Define objectives and processes to deliver a set of desired results.
  2. Do - Execute the plan and collect data to dete mine the effectiveness of the processes.
  3. Study - Evaluate the data and compare the results to expected outcomes.
  4. Act - Identify issues with the process, determine their root causes and modify the process to improve it. Planning for the next cycle can then proceed.
156
Q

You know you have a limited amount of resources and you want to ensure you address the issues that will have the biggest effect on the project. What is a technique that you could use to prioritize the issues?

A) Risk Register
B) Kanban
C) Pareto Chart
D) Gantt Chart

A

C) Pareto Chart

Explanation: Pareto Chart - A histogram that is used to rank causes of problems in a hierarchical format. Also referred to as the “80/20 Rule” A general guideline with many applications; in terms of controlling processes, it contends that a relatively large number of problems or defects, typically 80%, are commonly due to a relatively small number of causes, typically 20%.

157
Q

A project has the following characteristics:

-Schedule performance issues are occurring due to expertise levels of project resources.
-Highly-experienced resources are reviewing unnecessary details.
-Junior-level resources are not completing tasks in a timely manner.

The Project Manager needs to enhance team performance. What should the Project Manager do?

A) Where necessary, implement training, and design a checklist for all team members.
B) Where necessary, have the senior-level resources help the inexperienced resources.
C) Where necessary, replace specific junior-level resources, and advise the senior-level resources.
D) Where necessary, conduct training for the junior-level staff members.

A

A) Where necessary, implement training, and design a checklist for all team members.

Explanation: Project Managers should attempt to resolve issues via the tools and techniques available to them prior to changing the plan or escalating the issue. Providing training to those who need it will improve team performance and implementing a checklist ensures each team member is checking only what needs to be checked.

158
Q

During a kick-off, the Project Manager provided training for the entire team regarding the specifics of the company operations that the project supports.
A year later, project productivity is suffering because members who were added later in the project do not have the same level of understanding. How should the Project Manager respond to this challenge?

A) Tell the newer team members to ask for help from the long-term members when they run into things they do not understand.
B) Ask current team members to provide training and support, and hold a second kick-off meeting for new team members.
C) Add new members who have the relevant experience, reassign the newer team members, and log turnover issues in the lessons learned register.
D) Recognize that this is a natural project progression, and revise the schedule to allow for the slight decrease in productivity.

A

B) Ask current team members to provide training and support, and hold a second kick-off meeting for new team members.

Explanation: It is the PM’s responsibility to make sure that the new members are adequately trained. This approach provides that training.

159
Q

An agile approach meets the needs of the next phase in a team’s project. As the team discusses the phase it becomes clear that some team members have not received appropriate training in the agile model. How should the Project Manager respond to this issue?

A) File a change request that includes the agile training that members lack.
B) Use available funds in the contingency reserve to guarantee training all team members.
C) Train team members on main agile topics by hostingtraining sessions.
D) Identify and provide the most cost-effective agile training for team members.

A

D) Identify and provide the most cost-effective agile training for team members.

Explanation: Providing training to project team members can result in added skills that can be useful for future phases or projects. Training lessons and related costs could be evaluated to be included in the resource management and cost management plans.

160
Q

Some agile approaches have recently been added to an infrastructure company’s predictive processes. The team is not completing the planned story points, and they are becoming passive. The Project Manager is concerned and wants to improve productivity by providing training.
What should the Project Manager do to ensure the right training is provided and team members attend the training? (Choose Three)

A) Ensure the training calendar is posted
B) Consider only self-paced training to avoid wasting time
C) Conduct a gap analysis to determine required skills or knowledge
D) Use burndown charts to evaluate team performance.
E) Only provide training for select individuals
F) Ensure participants are made aware of the training
G) Add members to the team who have certifications proving the skill that is needed

A

A) Ensure the training calendar is posted

C) Conduct a gap analysis to determine required skills or knowledge

F) Ensure participants are made aware of the training

Explanation: Training can be a great way to empower team members to grow their skillsets. This would also create consistency in story point estimation techniques. It is important to ensure that eve yone is aware of the training, the training fits the knowledge or skill gap of the team, and that a calendar is made available for the team. Self-Paced training should not be the only option considered, burndown charts are not used for training, instead consider a pre-assessment and post-course assessment to evaluate the effectiveness of the training. Adding members to the team with certification will not resolve the issue in the near term, and in agile projects we try to create a long standing team with “T” shaped people. Because “T” shaped people are desired it would be best if all members of the team participate in the training to ensure knowledge transfer.

161
Q

While developing a training plan for new resources and stakeholders the project manager wants to make sure that the plan is complete. Which of the following would help ensure a successful training plan? (Choose Three)

A) Determine which certifications would help the project
B) Performing a gap analysis
C) Ensuring training is completed as early as possible
D) Choosing only one preferred delivery method for training
E) Determining the time and costs for the training

A

A) Determine which certifications would help the project

B) Performing a gap analysis

E) Determining the time and costs for the training

Explanation: All answers are correct except for Ensuring training is completed as early as possible and choosing only one preferred delivery method for training. Training should be conducted as close to when it will be used as possible. If you provide training too early the information will not be retained for practical application. When choosing delivery methods for training you should look for a variety of options based on the level of understanding needed by the audience, the affordability, and the time needed to conduct the training.

162
Q

The new system upgrade project has been running smoothly, thanks in large part to the efforts of the transition manager, Sarah. She has been instrumental in getting all the teams working together to meet their tight deadlines. During a crucial phase in the project, Sarah falls ill. A less-experienced manager, Kevin, is brought in to replace her. Confusion increases. Team members are arguing about timing and expectations of the transition activities.
As the project manager, what can you do to mitigate the negative effects of a staffing change?

A) Put the project on hold until Sarah returns from sick leave.
B) Rebuild the schedule to include additional time for Kevin to complete his tasks.
C) Closely monitor Kevin’s work to assess any possible risk.
D) Require all decisions to go through you until Sarah returns.

A

C) Closely monitor Kevin’s work to assess any possible risk.

Explanation: As a project manager it is important not to take over things items that are assigned to others. Requiring decisions go through you would delegitimize Kevin’s authority. Projects have a schedule so delaying the project or providing extra time are not options.

163
Q

The new system upgrade project has been running smoothly, thanks in large part to the efforts of the transition manager, Sarah. She has been instrumental in getting all the teams working together to meet their tight deadlines. During a crucial phase in the project, Sarah falls ill. A less-experienced manager, Kevin, is brought in to replace her. Confusion increases. Team members are arguing about timing and expectations of the transition activities.
What can be done to help the project team with the transition activities? (Choose four)

A) Remind stakeholders of the vision and objectives of the project.
B) Remind the team that Kevin is running things now, and you should only do what he says works.
C) Make certain there is clarity on how the transition activities fit within the overall purpose of the system upgrade project, as well as how short- and long-term transition activities fit within the project plans.
D) Enable the team to support Kevin to get a handle on the tasks and work as a team to be self organized and address the project needs.
E) Replace Kevin as he is obviously not able to handle the job and should be replaced with someone that has more experience.
F) Take over the responsibilities of Sarah yourself so that the everyone knows what needs to get done.
G) You as a project manager can mentor Kevin in the project management best practices that Sarah was performing so well, plus some other tips.

A

A) Remind stakeholders of the vision and objectives of the project.

C) Make certain there is clarity on how the transition activities fit within the overall purpose of the system upgrade project, as well as how short- and long-term transition activities fit within the project plans.

D) Enable the team to support Kevin to get a handle on the tasks and work as a team to be self organized and address the project needs.

G) You as a project manager can mentor Kevin in the project management best practices that Sarah was performing so well, plus some other tips.

Explanation: Choices that take over the work for Kevin, or allow Kevin to not deal with the issues are poor choices. As a leader your job is to keep everyone aligned on the shared vision and objectives, clarify things that are not well understood, support Kevin in his role, and mentor Kevin where needed.

164
Q

The new system upgrade project has been running smoothly, thanks in large part to the efforts of the transition manager, Sarah. She has been instrumental in getting all the teams working together to meet their tight deadlines. During a crucial phase in the project, Sarah falls ill. A less-experienced manager, Kevin, is brought in to replace her. Confusion increases. Team members are arguing about timing and expectations of the transition activities.
You sit in a meeting being led by Kevin and team members working on the transition activities. The conversation gets passionate and intense about how to best implement a technical feature in which you have little knowledge or experience. What is your best option as project manager in this situation?

A) Force Kevin to make a decision before the meeting is over.
B) Avoid involving yourself as a decision maker.
C) Halt the meeting and take control before things become more intense.
D) Side with your favorite, most trusted subject matter expert from the group to finalize a decision.

A

B) Avoid involving yourself as a decision maker.

Explanation: As a servant leader you should facilitate the team to collaborate and achieve consensus. Injecting yourself by taking sides would increase the likelihood of group think and would reduce innovation within the group to find the best solutions.

165
Q

Which of the following is typically included in a team charter? (Choose three.)

A) Team values
B) Team agreements
C) Team personality assessments
D) Team operating guidelines
E) Team motivation

A

A) Team values

B) Team agreements

D) Team operating guidelines

Explanation: Motivation is something that a Leader provides by providing vision, directions, and other factors. Personality assessments are ways that a project manager can determine which members fit together best, but are not always best shared with the team. All other items should be included in a team charter.

166
Q

You are observing your team in a disagreement about a possible solution. Each team member is laying out why their suggestion is best. As the team leader, what conflict resolution strategy should you use?

A) Negotiation
B) Collaboration
C) Avoidance
D) Direct

A

C) Avoidance

Explanation: In this instance it is best to avoid involving yourself. The team members are still at a level 1 conflict and are simply focused on finding the best solution. For the best ideas to move forward it is important to allow for divergence to reach ultimate convergence. If the disagreement escalates and stops becoming about the best possible solution, then other strategies may be more appropriate.

167
Q

Your team has a question on who can request a project change and how the process works. Where do you tell your team to look for the answers to their questions?

A) Lessons Learned Register
B) Change Log
C) Configuration Management Plan
D) Change Management Plan

A

D) Change Management Plan

Explanation: Management Plans are “how to guides.” In this case the Change Management Plan, a subsidiary plan of the Project Management Plan, tells your team how the change process works and who can request a project change.

168
Q

You are working on a predictive project and your team wants to immediately implement a project change. You tell them it must be approved before it can be implemented and it exceeds your authority to approve. Who do you tell your team must approve the project change before implementation?

A) The Steering Committee
B) The Change Control Board
C) The Project Owner
D) The Project Management Office

A

B) The Change Control Board

Explanation: Change requests go to the Change Control Board for approval or disapproval when they exceed the authority of the project manager. if the change exceeds the CCBs authority then it would be escalated by them to the approval authority. Only approved changes will be implemented into the project.

169
Q

When looking at the external business environment, what acronym do you tell your team is the best way to see the bigger picture that is taking place in the business environment?

A) PMESII-PT
B) TCPI
C) PESTLE
D) SMART

A

C) PESTLE

Explanation: PESTLE is a way to look at the external business environment. It looks at it from the Political; Economic; Social; Technical; Legal; and Environmental areas.

170
Q

You are working on an agile project and your team thinks there needs to be a change in the Product Backlog. Who do you tell them to discuss the change with for approval?

A) Change Control Board
B) Product Owner
C) CEO
D) Agile Coach

A

B) Product Owner

Explanation: The Product Owner is the voice of the customer. They are responsible for the Product Backlog to include what is included (or not included) and priorities. The Product Owner would be the decision maker for any changes within the Product Backlog.

171
Q

You are working on a highly regulated and high visibility project within the food and drug administration. You just found out that a new governmental regulation was just signed into law that requires immediate compliance and will result in a significant change to your project. What should the project manager do first?

A) Review the risk register to see if this was an identified threat to the project.
B) Create a change request and send it to the CCB.
C) Analyze the change and discuss the impacts with the project sponsor before making the change.
D) Ask the steering committee for guidance as this is something that has to be escalated.

A

A) Review the risk register to see if this was an identified threat to the project.

Explanation: When reviewing the need for change, you should look to see if the issue was an identified threat that has an associated planned risk response. If there is not, then it is an issue and a workaround needs to be created which will result in beginning the change management process that is in your change management plan.

172
Q

A recent change to the scope of the project was approved several weeks ago. The project manager just received word that several new deliverables are not being accepted by the customer. What may be the root cause of the problem?

A) The change was never implemented or the team inspecting the deliverables did not know what to inspect.
B) The team failed to follow the instructions of the change even though it was updated in the Project Management Plan.
C) The project manager did not properly validate scope to ensure that the deliverables would be accepted by the customer.
D) The change control board never approved the change and so the customer refused the deliverables.

A

A) The change was never implemented or the team inspecting the deliverables did not know what to inspect.

Explanation: Approved changes need to be documented and the project management plan needs to be kept up to date and instructions on how the change will be implemented needs to be provided to the team to include the inspectors.

173
Q

The product owner finished prioritizing and grooming the product backlog. As the team looks over the backlog and begins sizing user stories for the next iteration. The team identifies dependencies that must be performed in the same iteration. Which of the following may be the reason for doing this?

A) The project cannot complete the iteration without completing 100% of the project work.
B) The product owner does not know the needs of the customer, so the team is making the decision based on feedback.
C) The team identified dependencies that are needed to produce a potentially releasable deliverable that brings the most business value.
D) The team does not want to do some of the items that are more difficult so they are focusing on the easy “win” items to show the customer they chose the right team.

A

C) The team identified dependencies that are needed to produce a potentially releasable deliverable that brings the most business value.

Explanation: Ensuring dependencies are completed in the same iteration improves the business value by providing a usable product at each iteration.

174
Q

You are the project manager for a project that will produce a radar sensing equipment that alerts users when a passing car is in their blind spot. During a team meeting, the senior manager stresses the importance of documenting both explicit and tacit knowledge. What does tacit knowledge refer to?

A) Pictures, metrics, and specifications.
B) Features and functionality that demonstrate how the product works.
C) Knowledge that is difficult to capture or express, such as beliefs, experiences, and “know-how”
D) Technical knowledge that can be used from past projects and industry standards.

A

C) Knowledge that is difficult to capture or express, such as beliefs, experiences, and “know-how”

Explanation: Tacit knowledge- Personal knowledge that can be difficult to articulate and share such as beliefs, experience, and insights.

175
Q

While working on a project, the team continues to struggle with delivering consistent quality on a number of deliverables. What may be the root cause of the problem?

A) The team is ignoring the process or the requirements are not known.
B) The processes are not documented well or the team is not following them.
C) The team is not performing a proper inspection of the deliverables before providing it to the customer.
D) The team failed to take into account the additional costs associated with quality.

A

B) The processes are not documented well or the team is not following them.

Explanation: Inconsistency is an indication of a lack of process, lack of training for the team, or lack following of the process.

176
Q

A new resource has recently been added to the team. The team has expressed concern that John (the new resource) is causing delays and rework. Although there have been no delays on meeting project milestones, the team want the issue addressed. How should the project manager respond to this concern?

A) Contact senior management to discuss the possibility of reassigning the new resource to a different project.
B) Schedule time to chat with the new resource to assess their skills and understand their strength level.
C) Ask the team members to document task-related deficiencies displayed by the resource.
D) Contact the project sponsor to highlight these concerns and decide on an appropriate response.

A

B) Schedule time to chat with the new resource to assess their skills and understand their strength level.

Explanation: A project manager should not take action by just listening to other membe ’s feedback. He should talk to the new member to find out about his strength and make some evaluation later.

177
Q

While developing the strategy for an upcoming project the project manager is asked by one of her team members what the purpose of a product roadmap is. Which of the following best describes a product roadmap?

A) The product roadmap serves as a high-level visual summary of the products of the project.
B) The product roadmap serves as a detailed visual outline of the release plan for the project of when the customer can expect to see value.
C) The product roadmap is only used in Agile to help stakeholders visualize when different features will become available.
D) The product roadmap is a high-level visual summary of the product of the project which is completed at the beginning of the project and does not change.

A

A) The product roadmap serves as a high-level visual summary of the products of the project.

Explanation: Product Roadmap: Serves as a high-level visual summary of the product or products of the project. Vary in appearance and presentation.
Objective is to display the strategy and direction of the product being built and value to be delivered. Roadmaps start with the overarching vision of the product.
Over time, the roadmap is progressively elaborated
Themes, which equate to goals, emerge to provide structure and associations.
Product roadmaps provide short-term and long-term visualization of the product.

178
Q

While discussing the risks management plan and risk register of the project with key stakeholders; the project manager goes over the different strategies that will be employed to account for some individual risks. One of the stakeholders starts becoming disruptive about a particular risk. He says that he has seen it happen in the past and the plan is unacceptable. What did the project manager fail to account for when making the plan?

A) The level of risk tolerance for each stakeholder.
B) Business risk was not considered.
C) The risk should of been insurable.
D) The probability and impact of individual risks.

A

A) The level of risk tolerance for each stakeholder.

Explanation: Understanding stakeholder’s risk tolerance to different risk will assist in development of the risk response and risk strategy.

179
Q

During the daily stand-up each team member goes over the items they completed yesterday and what they plan to get done today. One of the team members is having problems with administrative items that are keeping him from completing the work technical work he needs to get done. As the project manager what should you do?

A) Tell the team that it is everyone’s job to complete administrative tasks and that should be taken into account when estimating and committing to stories within an iteration.
B) Tell the team member to take the morning to focus on the administrative items and then get back to the technical work.
C) Offer to complete the administrative tasks so the team member can meet commitments.
D) Remind the team that you are the boss and the work that needs to get done either technical or administrative has been approved by you so it needs to get done.

A

C) Offer to complete the administrative tasks so the team member can meet commitments.

Explanation: Teams completing Agile projects should focus on technical solutions and work. Administrative requirements that can be done by anyone should be reassigned to someone outside the team or be taken on by the ScrumMaster or Project Manager so the team can focus on delivering value.

180
Q

Six months into a year long project the project is shutdown due to a failed inspection by the county permitting office. The requirements were well known by the team and yet they still did not pass. What could the project manager have done better to lessen the chances of the risk from occurring?

A) Conduct inspections on the deliverables himself to ensure the procedures and processes were being followed.
B) Had an inspection team for each compliance related item to ensure the procedures and processes were being followed.
C) Work with the county to better understand the requirements to ensure the procedures and processes were being followed.
D) Conduct audits on compliance related requirements to ensure the procedures and processes were being followed.

A

D) Conduct audits on compliance related requirements to ensure the procedures and processes were being followed.

Explanation: Audits are an effective way of ensuring that compliance requirements are met and the team is following the established processes to meet compliance objectives.

181
Q

There are multiple stakeholders on a project who are needed to help make decisions related to any changes to the projects scope, cost, schedule, risks, quality, and resources. What would be a good way to ensure they are able to provide input to those decisions?

A) Have a daily stand-up meeting with stakeholders to discuss the impediments of the project.
B) Create a portal for stakeholders so they have access to the current status of the project and can help in identifying potential issue requiring change.
C) Ensure the work performance reports reflect all change made within the last iteration to help stakeholders provide input to the change process.
D) Charter a change control board with those stakeholders who are needed to help make decisions so they can approve, deny, or defer changes.

A

D) Charter a change control board with those stakeholders who are needed to help make decisions so they can approve, deny, or defer changes.

Explanation: A Change control board is a formally chartered group responsible
for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.

182
Q

Which tool would be effective in ensuring that documented processes and procedures are being followed by a team working on a project?

A) Inspections
B) Audits
C) Training
D) Continuous improvement

A

B) Audits

Explanation: Training will teach the team how to perform the processes and procedures, but not ensure they are being followed, inspections are done on deliverables. A deliverable can be correct, but the processes and procedures to create the deliverable but a correct deliverable does not prove the team is following the processes or procedures. Continuous improvement is the identification of of ways to improve processes and procedure and how to implement those changes. Audits are used to ensure your team is following the processes and procedures as outlined in the quality management plan and other documentation provided for the creation of deliverables.

183
Q

Which of the following best describes continuous improvement?

A) A Team member ensuring that all deliverables meet the specifications as outlined within the specifications.
B) Performing continuous maintenance on equipment to ensure the deliverables are consistent during the manufacturing process.
C) Investigating the cause of non-conforming deliverables and implementing a new process to correct the defects.
D) Providing team members incentives for correct work to encourage improved quality.

A

C) Investigating the cause of non-conforming deliverables and implementing a new process to correct the defects.

Explanation: Continuous improvement is an ongoing effort to improve products, services or processes.

184
Q

A project has been bogged down with continued delays. A team member has a recommendation to get back on track. What should the team member do next?

A) Write a change request so the recommendation can be reviewed.
B) Ask the sponsor to make the change.
C) Refer to the change management plan.
D) Ask the project manager to implement the change.

A

C) Refer to the change management plan.

Explanation: The change management plan will provide information on who can propose changes, and the process for making changes within the project.

185
Q

Which of the following is an example of legal closure of a project?

A) The transfer of property from the project to no mal operations.
B) The archiving of records related to the project to protect against future legal threats.
C) The closing out of outstanding contracts with sub-contractors.
D) Ensuring a final report is signed-off by the Sponsor.

A

C) The closing out of outstanding contracts with sub-contractors.

Explanation: Closure of outstanding contracts that are satisfied at the end of the project is a legal closure.

186
Q

A project is plagued with quality issues during their manufacturing process. What may be a good way for the team to identify the potential causes for the quality issue?

A) Document to process
B) Training the team the process
C) Use a Checklists
D) Cause and Effect Diagram

A

D) Cause and Effect Diagram

Explanation: A cause and effect diagram can be utilized to identify the potential causes of a problem. It is often times used with the asking 5 whys to isolate the most likely of the potential causes. This method helps ensure you are not correcting symptom but actual problem.

187
Q

A restaurant is having problems with gaining customer loyalty, and negative reviews. What would be an effective way to help the restaurant focus on the most common problems customers are having so the causes can be isolated and fixed?

A) Root Cause Diagram
B) Pareto Chart
C) Scatter Diagram
D) A Control Chart

A

B) Pareto Chart

Explanation: A Pareto chart is a type of histogram used to rank causes of problems in a hierarchical format. Uses 80/20 rule to help determine the most frequent defects, complaints, or other factors that affect quality.
Demonstrates the frequency of occurrence.
Analyzes data sets related to a specific problem or issue but does not define the root cause of a problem.

188
Q

You are the project manager for a major construction project. Your sponsor is looking at the EVM data of SV of 100 and CPI of 1.1. They ask you what this data is telling them about the project. How do you explain this data to the sponsor?

A) The project is ahead of schedule and under budget.
B) The project is ahead of schedule and over budget.
C) The project is behind of schedule and over budget.
D) The project is behind of schedule and under budget.

A

D) The project is behind of schedule and under budget.

Explanation: A negative Schedule Variance (SV) indicates a project is behind schedule. A Cost Performance Index (CPI) greater than 1.0 indicates a project is under budget.

189
Q

During an agile iteration, Task 1 cannot be completed on time due to unexpected challenges. Another team within the project is depending on timely completion of Task 1 in order to fulfill their part of the project. How should the Project Manager resolve this issue?

A) Meet with both teams separately, and ask them to figure out a way to meet the required deadlines and complete the project on time.
B) Meet with the product owner and team to reprioritize the backlog, so that it does not impact other teams or obligations.
C) Increase the number of team members for the project team and increase the iteration length, ensuring that the work will be completed according to schedule.
D)Let team members know you want them to do their best under difficult circumstances, and make sure to note the iteration’s challenges in lessons learned.

A

B) Meet with the product owner and team to reprioritize the backlog, so that it does not impact other teams or obligations.

Explanation: The Product Owner and the team should prioritize the tasks they know will or might impact other teams.

190
Q

Minor impediments may interfere with or slow down day-to-day progress. Which tool or practice can be used to bring attention to those impediments on a regular basis?

A) Annual conferences
B) Daily standups
C) Kanban boards
D) Lessons learned

A

B) Daily standups

Explanation: The Daily Stand-up is an opportunity for team members to say what was done yesterday, what they are doing today, and what impediments are keeping them from meeting the iteration goals.

191
Q

During a meeting, a Project Manager learns that a business result needs to be delivered in four weeks, although the original plan was sixteen weeks. The Project Manager also hears that there is no available technical resource who might be able to join the team. The Project Manager knows the technical resource manager because they worked together on a previous project. Which action should the Project Manager take?

A) Notify the project sponsor about the lack of a technical resource.
B) Immediately escalate the issue to decision makers in the organization.
C) Check with the technical resource manager to see if there is an available technical resource.
D) Since time is short, hire an outside party to meet the need for a technical resource.

A

C) Check with the technical resource manager to see if there is an available technical resource.

Explanation: The Project Manager should first confirm with the technical resource manager whether a resource is available.

192
Q

A team member was absent for a week without providing notification and could not be reached by email or phone. Due to the absence, several successor activities are behind schedule, impacting the project’s critical path. How should the Project Manager respond to this situation?

A) Add a new resource who can complete the work package in a professional manner.
B) Discuss the situation with the team member, and work with them to identify a workable solution.
C) Require that the team member complete the work package more quickly when they return.
D) Ask the functional manager for additional support on the project, including assignment of a new resource.

A

B) Discuss the situation with the team member, and work with them to identify a workable solution.

Explanation: Adding a new resource - No - This is premature and will most likely take longer than attempting to rectify the situation.
Discuss with team member - Yes - A Project Manager also has the ability to be a coach. Servant Leadership encourages listening and serving, and therefore it may be possible to compromise with the team member.
Work quickly - This does not address the situation and is in direct contradiction to the coaching role of a Project Manager.
Getting new resource from functional manager - No - This does not address the situation directly and offsets blame to a third party.

193
Q

A Project Manager realizes during the third iteration of product development that the template used for the project management plan is not showing updates.
Which action should the Project Manager take?

A) Assign one team member to update the project management plan template and document any risk.
B) Rank the need to update the template according to the business value for upcoming iterations.
C) Avoid adding to team distraction by fixing the issue independently.
D) Document the issue as a new project risk and propose a solution.

A

C) Avoid adding to team distraction by fixing the issue independently.

Explanation: In an Agile approach, the Project Manager should work to protect the team against impediments around building the product. This question addresses administrative work that doesn’t require technical knowledge and should be handled by the PM.

194
Q

Which of following best describes the differences between a risk register and an issue log?

A) An Issue log identifies issues to the project (positive and negative), their impact and the planned response. The risk register is focused on the present events that are having a negative effect on the project, and it documents the workaround created for the risk.
B) The risk register tracks all risks that have or may occur and the responses for them, and the issue log tracks the workaround for the risks.
C) A risk register identifies risks to the project (positive and negative), their impact and the planned risk response. The issue log is focused on the present events that are having a negative effect on the project, and it documents the workaround created for the issue.
D) They are the same document and it just depends if the risk has occurred or not when determining if the item is a risk or an issue.

A

C) A risk register identifies risks to the project (positive and negative), their impact and the planned risk response. The issue log is focused on the present events that are having a negative effect on the project, and it documents the workaround created for the issue.

Explanation: Risks can be positive and negative events that may impact the project and are tracked in the risk register. Issues are ALWAYS negative and if not addressed may affect the project.

195
Q

You want to maintain visibility of all open issues within the project. As the project manager, how should you approach this?

A) Issues should be a regular topic of every status meeting, with the goal to keep the number of open issues to a manageable number.
B) Rely on the issue owner to report the status to you when there are changes.
C) Escalate all issues to the next level so it is no longer necessary to track at your level.
D) Refer to the Communication Management Plan for guidance on how issues get monitored.

A

A) Issues should be a regular topic of every status meeting, with the goal to keep the number of open issues to a manageable number.

Explanation: Issues should be a regular topic of every status meeting, with the goal to keep the number of open issues to a manageable number. Don’t hesitate to escalate an issue to the project sponsor if it begins to have a major effect on the project.

196
Q

You are reviewing the quality outputs of an ongoing project. The results are not meeting the established quality metrics. To avoid continued rework, you determine that corrective action is needed to address the issue. What is the first step you should take?

A) Add the item to the risk register.
B) Conduct qualitative analysis to determine the risk’s probability and impact.
C) Create a workaround to address quality issues
D) Refer to the risk register to see if the quality issue was an identified risk.

A

D) Refer to the risk register to see if the quality issue was an identified risk.

Explanation: Risks can become issues but not all issues arerisks.In this instance, before creating a workaround it is a good idea to review the risk register to see if therisk was identified and aplanned risk response wasdocumented. If the issue was not on the risk register then after logging the issue, you would create a workaround. Checking the risk register first will ensure the planned response is utilized instead of a new workaround.

197
Q

When closing a project phase, which of the following actions should NOT be taken?

A) Conducting a lessons learned review
B) Archiving project documents
C) Updating the project charter
D) Setting up a project dashboard

A

D) Setting up a project dashboard

Explanation: Setting up a project dashboard is generally a task that is done at the beginning of a project, not at the end of a phase. A lessons learned review, archiving project documents, and updating the project charter are all appropriate actions to take when closing a project phase.

198
Q

You are the project manager for a software development project. You have just completed the development phase and are ready to move on to the testing phase. However, before you can do so, you must complete the project management closure of the development phase. Which of the following is NOT a necessary step in the project management closure of a phase or project?

A) Conducting a final review of the work completed during the phase
B) Updating the project schedule
C) Requesting approval to move on to the next phase
D) Completing the final budget report

A

D) Completing the final budget report

Explanation: While completing the final budget report is an important step in project management, it is not necessary for the closure of a phase. The other three options - conducting a final review, updating the project schedule, and requesting approval to move on to the next phase - are all necessary steps in the project management closure process.

199
Q

You are the project manager for a software development project that is about to enter the closure phase. You have completed all of the deliverables and have received acceptance from the client. What is the next step in the project closure process?

A) Conduct a post-project review to identify successes and areas for improvement
B) Generate a final report detailing the project’s progress and results
C) Hand over the project to the client and end the project team’s involvement
D) Begin planning for the next phase of the project

A

A) Conduct a post-project review to identify successes and areas for improvement

Explanation: The next step in the project closure process is to conduct a post-project review to identify any successes and areas for improvement. This review will help to inform future projects and ensure that any lessons learned are properly documented. Only after the review is complete should the final report be generated, and the project handed over to the client. Planning for the next phase should also be put on hold until the closure process is fully completed.

200
Q

You are the project manager for a large software development project. The project has reached its final phase and it is time to close the project. Which of the following should you do first?

A) Conduct a final review of the project to ensure all deliverables have been met
B) Communicate the project closure to all stakeholders
C) Obtain final sign-off from the client
D) Update the project documentation

A

A) Conduct a final review of the project to ensure all deliverables have been met

Explanation: It is important to conduct a final review of the project to ensure that all deliverables have been met before proceeding with any other closure activities. This will help ensure that the project has been successful, and that the client is satisfied with the results. Only after this review is complete should you proceed with communicating the closure to stakeholders, obtaining final sign-off from the client, and updating the project documentation.

201
Q

You are a project manager working on a contract for a new client. The contract includes a specific timeline for project completion and deliverables. As the project nears completion, you must begin planning for the closure of the contract. Which of the following actions should you take during the project closure phase?

A) Negotiate with the client to extend the contract.
B) Begin working on a new project before the current contract is completed.
C) Review and document the final deliverables and project results.
D) Ignore the project closure phase and focus solely on completing the contract deliverables.

A

C) Review and document the final deliverables and project results.

Explanation: During the project closure phase, it is important to review and document the final deliverables and project results. This helps to ensure that the client is satisfied with the work that has been completed and that all aspects of the contract have been fulfilled.

202
Q

As the project manager, you have recently completed a project with a sub-contractor who has completed their work according to the agreed upon terms. It is now time to close out their contract. Which of the following actions should you take?

A) Negotiate a new contract with the sub-contractor for future projects
B) Pay the sub-contractor the remaining balance owed and send them a letter of completion
C) Submit the final payment and close out the sub contractor’s contract without any further communication
D) Request a final report from the sub-contractor and review their work before closing out the contract

A

D) Request a final report from the sub-contractor and review their work before closing out the contract

Explanation: As the project manager, it is your responsibility to ensure that the sub-contractor has completed their work to the agreed upon terms and that all necessary documents and reports have been submitted. This includes requesting a final report and reviewing their work before closing out the contract.

203
Q

You are the project manager of a software development project. You are conducting a retrospective at the end of the project to reflect on what went well and what could have been improved. Which of the following actions would you take during the retrospective?

A) Blame team members for any mistakes or failures
B) Only focus on the positive aspects of the project
C) Identify specific areas for improvement and create actionable steps for the future
D) Ignoring any negative feedback or issues brought up by team members

A

C) Identify specific areas for improvement and create actionable steps for the future

Explanation: The purpose of a retrospective is to identify and address areas for improvement in order to improve future projects. Blaming team members or ignoring negative feedback will not help the team grow and improve. It is important to acknowledge both the positive and negative aspects of the project in order to identify opportunities for growth and improvement.

204
Q

When are lessons learned collected?

A) At the end of a project
B) At the end of a phase
C) Throughout the project in only iterative life cycles
D) Throughout the project in both predictive, iterative, and agile life cycles

A

D) Throughout the project in both predictive, iterative, and agile life cycles

Explanation: Lessons Learned are collected as they are learned in predictive projects, and documented on the Lessons Learned Register, they become part of organizational knowledge base once inputted into the Lessons Learned Repository. For agile and hybrid projects incremental improvement is encouraged and done during the ceremony called the Retrospective.

205
Q

The project manager is putting together the resource management plan and is deciding how to structure the project resources. While showing the team the plan, there are concerns that team members will not understand who will be responsible for different tasks and what should be done when certain events take place. What did the project manager most likely not include as part of the resource management plan?

A) The project manager forgot to include the work breakdown structure which identifies the work that needs to be accomplished by the team.
B) The project manager forgot to include the responsibility assignment matrix which shows the involvement of team members for different tasks and events.
C) The project manager forgot to include the resource calendar which shows what each resource is doing and when so they know what to do.
D) The project manager forgot to include the organizational chart which show where each team member will be assigned during the project.

A

B) The project manager forgot to include the responsibility assignment matrix which shows the involvement of team members for different tasks and events.

Explanation: Part of the resource management plan includes a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM). A common version is called a RACI that uses responsible, accountable, consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities.

206
Q

A new resource has recently been added to the team. The team has expressed concern that John (the new resource) is causing delays and rework. Although there have been no delays on meeting project milestones, the team want the issue addressed. How should the project manager respond to this concern?

A) Contact senior management to discuss the possibility of reassigning the new resource to a different project.
B) Schedule time to chat with the new resource to assess their skills and understand their strength level.
C) Ask the team members to document task-related deficiencies displayed by the resource.
D) Contact the project sponsor to highlight these concerns and decide on an appropriate response.

A

B) Schedule time to chat with the new resource to assess their skills and understand their strength level.

Explanation: A project manager should not take action by just listening to other member’s feedback. He should talk to the new member to find out about his strength and make some evaluation later.

207
Q

The procurement manager has asked you as the project manager to participate in some of the negotiations for an upcoming project with an external stakeholder. Which of the following would you not consider as part of the negotiations?

A) Deliverables and Milestone because these are part of the project management plan.
B) The development approach because different portions of the project may require a hybrid approach once the plan is fully developed.
C) The current schedule performance index of the project because it is a measure of how efficient the project has been with their time to date.
D) Discussing the minimum viable product because this is determined at each iteration by prioritizing the backlog.

A

C) The current schedule performance index of the project because it is a measure of how efficient the project has been with their time to date.

Explanation: Because this is a negotiation of a new project, there has been no work performed. All other items are considerations that could be discussed as part of the project.

208
Q

Which of the following would be considered an advantage to outsourcings different portions of a project?

A) It improves project manager’s ability to closely monitor the project.
B) It allows for more control and oversight for individual deliverables.
C) It enables the organization to focus on core competencies.
D) Outsourcing is purely a cost savings decision, and if its cheaper to outsource then it should be selected.

A

C) It enables the organization to focus on core competencies.

Explanation: Outsourcing allows a business to focus on their core competencies.

209
Q

A new project is underway, and the project manager conducted an analysis of the capabilities within the assigned teams. She determined that some of the team members require training to ensure the project is a success. What action should the project manager perform after an approved change request?

A) Communicate with the project stakeholders to address the risk.
B Revise the risk register and discuss it at the next project status meeting.
C) Dedicate additional post-implementation support to mitigate the risk.
D) Modify the project schedule to account for the training delay.

A

D) Modify the project schedule to account for the training delay.

Explanation: If training is needed the project schedule needs to account for the training requirements to ensure that the project can move forward.

210
Q

The 234 West Adams project is only one of many low-income home-building projects that you will manage during the next several years. During the project, you and your project team will “learn as you go” with the intent of using this knowledge to improve the next project—and so on for all future projects. When should transfer of knowledge take place?

A) At the end of the project
B) At the end of each phase of the project
C) When the lessons-learned register is archived
D) Throughout the project

A

D) Throughout the project

Explanation: The transfer of explicit and tacit knowledge should continuously take place throughout a project. It is key to provide an environment of trust and experimentation so knowledge can be gained and shared with the team to improve the outcomes of projects.

211
Q

What are examples of tacit knowledge?

A) Beliefs, experiences, and insights
B) Words, numbers, and pictures
C) Anything of value to another person
D) Only knowledge about the project scope, schedule, and budget

A

A) Beliefs, experiences, and insights

Explanation: Tacit knowledge is not something that can be quantified exactly, it is a qualitative item that is shared by
individuals and organizations to improve understanding for the overall success of teams, organizations and projects’ performance.

212
Q

Management of project knowledge exists on three levels. What are they?

A) Technical, administrative, and procedural
B) Individual, project, and organization
C) Scope, schedule, and budget
D) Practical, theoretical, and actual

A

B) Individual, project, and organization

Explanation:

Individual
* Each team member needs to know how to perform their work
* Research
* Collaborate with team members
* Examine project’s or organization’s knowledge repository

Project
* Focus on achieving the goals of the current project.
* Solicits knowledge about other projects that can be applied to the current project.
* Project Management Office (PMO) is an excellent source of knowledge, as it exists for the purpose of defining and maintaining standards for project management within an organization.

Organization
* Focus on managing programs or portfolios.
* The program manager or portfolio manager seeks info mation from peers who manage other programs or portfolios, to adapt this knowledge to their specific need.

213
Q

When is the lessons-learned register created?

A) At the conclusion of the project, after all tasks have been completed
B) After completion of the first phase of work
C) At the beginning of project execution
D) At the beginning of the project

A

D) At the beginning of the project

Explanation: The lessons learned register is created at the beginning of a project and updated with lessons learned throughout the project.

214
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for transferring knowledge learned during the project?

A) Sponsor
B) Project manager
C) Work package owners
D) All stakeholders

A

B) Project manager

Explanation: The project manager is responsible for ensuring that knowledge learned on a project is transferred to the organization and team so they can improve and continue to be competitive.

215
Q

This type of contract sets a price agreed to by both buyer and seller that will never change.

A) Firm Fixed Price
B) Cost Plus Incentive Fee
C) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment
D) Fixed Price Incentive Fee
E) Time & Materials
F) Cost Plus Fixed Fee

A

A) Firm Fixed Price

216
Q

This type of contract ensures the seller has all their costs covered plus as set amount of profit.

A) Firm Fixed Price
B) Cost Plus Incentive Fee
C) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment
D) Fixed Price Incentive Fee
E) Time & Materials
F) Cost Plus Fixed Fee

A

F) Cost Plus Fixed Fee

217
Q

This type of contract motivates the seller to keep costs down by providing some positive or negative impacts of cost increases.

A) Firm Fixed Price
B) Cost Plus Incentive Fee
C) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment
D) Fixed Price Incentive Fee
E) Time & Materials
F) Cost Plus Fixed Fee

A

B) Cost Plus Incentive Fee

218
Q

This type of contract is best used for projects where the scope of work is not well defined and the buyer pays an hourly rate.

A) Firm Fixed Price
B) Cost Plus Incentive Fee
C) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment
D) Fixed Price Incentive Fee
E) Time & Materials
F) Cost Plus Fixed Fee

A

E) Time & Materials

219
Q

This type of contract is best used for long-term projects or ones that deal with currency exchange rates.

A) Firm Fixed Price
B) Cost Plus Incentive Fee
C) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment
D) Fixed Price Incentive Fee
E) Time & Materials
F) Cost Plus Fixed Fee

A

C) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment

220
Q

This type of contract sets targets for cost, price, and fee, and also includes a ceiling price.

A) Firm Fixed Price
B) Cost Plus Incentive Fee
C) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment
D) Fixed Price Incentive Fee
E) Time & Materials
F) Cost Plus Fixed Fee

A

D) Fixed Price Incentive Fee

221
Q

This serves as a way to create, store, retrieve, and distribute Project Documents.

A) Artifact Management System
B) Configuration Management System
C) Version Control
D) Configuration Management
E) Project Artifact

A

A) Artifact Management System

222
Q

This is any document related to the management of a project.

A) Artifact Management System
B) Configuration Management System
C) Version Control
D) Configuration Management
E) Project Artifact

A

E) Project Artifact

223
Q

This is a collection of processes followed to track artifacts throughout the project.

A) Artifact Management System
B) Configuration Management System
C) Version Control
D) Configuration Management
E) Project Artifact

A

B) Configuration Management System

224
Q

This is a system that records changes to a file in a way that allows you to retrieve previous changes made to it.

A) Artifact Management System
B) Configuration Management System
C) Version Control
D) Configuration Management
E) Project Artifact

A

C) Version Control

225
Q

This is a system that records changes to a file in a way that allows you to retrieve previous changes made to it.

A) Artifact Management System
B) Configuration Management System
C) Version Control
D) Configuration Management
E) Project Artifact

A

C) Version Control

226
Q

Artifacts are __________ documents and updated to reflect __________ in project requirements and scope.

A

Living, Changes

227
Q

Which of the following project artifacts are unique to Agile projects? Select all that apply.

A) Acceptance Criteria
B) Release Plan
C) Business Case
D) Sprint Backlog
E) Product Backlog
F) Requirements

A

B) Release Plan
D) Sprint Backlog
E) Product Backlog

228
Q

Your project team knows it is important to maintain project knowledge. You tell them you have to maintain all project artifacts. The project team is confused on what an artifact is so they ask you exactly what they should maintain. You tell your team to keep the definition of artifact in mind when determining what to maintain.

What is the definition you would give your team for a project artifact?

A) An artifact is any document related to the management of the project.
B) An artifact is only a non-current document since they are no longer being used in the execution of the project.
C) An artifact is a contract entered into with a contractor that is maintained for legal purposes.
D) An artifact is only the knowledge from previous projects.

A

A) An artifact is any document related to the management of the project.

Explanation: A project artifact is any document related to the management of the project. The project team will create and maintain many artifacts during the life of the project, to allow reconstruction of the history of the project and to benefit other projects. Artifacts are normally living documents, and are formally updated to reflect changes in project requirements and scope.

229
Q

You have just assumed the Project Manager role for a project where the previous PM was relieved. You are searching through the project artifacts while attempting to gain an understanding of the current project situation. You are having trouble determining which document is the most current of the many versions present. Where is the best place to look to determine the way artifacts have been tracked for changes?

A) Lessons Learned Repository
B) Configuration Management Plan
C) Communication Management Plan
D) Change Management Plan

A

B) Configuration Management Plan

Explanation: The Configuration Management Plan is the component of the PM Plan that specifies how artifact versions will be tracked for changes

230
Q

You are mentoring a junior project manager on the various lifecycles of projects. He is looking at a potential project trying to determine the most appropriate methodology and notices that the customer is expecting infrequent delivery, but a large amount of experimentation to achieve the best solution. What type of project lifecycle/methodology would you expect him to use to manage this project?

A) Iterative
B) Incremental
C) Predictive/Waterfall
D) Adaptive/Agile

A

A) Iterative

Explanation: Projects where learning and correction is expected to eventually get to the ideal solution should use an iterative lifecycle.

231
Q

Your company has initiated a project to improve departmental processes and gain efficiencies in their work. This project will encompass all departments and will take up to a year to complete. Each department is expecting to see some benefits from this project periodically as it progresses. What type of methodology is best for this type of project and environment?

A) Predictive/Waterfall
B) Adaptive/Agile
C) Incremental
D) Iterative

A

C) Incremental

Explanation: In projects where deliveries will be frequent and the customers or business is wanting or expecting to see outputs or partial outputs early and often, you should use an incremental project lifecycle.

232
Q

Your PMO has assigned you a new project to research a new technology for your design department. You realize this is going to be a complex environment, but change will be relatively easy and inexpensive. Which methodology would be best for this type of project?

A) Adaptive/Agile
B) Iterative
C) Incremental
D) Predictive/Waterfall

A

A) Adaptive/Agile

Explanation: In projects where the environment is complex and change is expected, but inexpensive, you should use an adaptive/agile method to control the project.

233
Q

You have been reviewing the project plan of your construction project trying to locate areas of the project where iterative and incremental practices can or will be performed throughout the project. Which of the below are areas you would expect to use iterative and incremental practices? (Choose 4)

A) Developing the project charter
B) Lessons learned
C) Creating the WBS and associated WBS Dictionary
D) Determining the budget
E) Earned Value Management (EVM)
F) Risk identification and analysis
G) Requirements collection
H) Stakeholder identification

A

B) Lessons learned
E) Earned Value Management (EVM)
F) Risk identification and analysis
H) Stakeholder identification

234
Q

You have been assigned as the project manager for a project to renovate and update the offices for your organization with modern, state-of-the-art technology and open team spaces. Which lifecycle makes the most sense to use on this project?

A) Incremental
B) Iterative
C) Adaptive/Agile
D) Predictive/Waterfall

A

D) Predictive/Waterfall

Explanation: This project is likely to have a well-defined scope at the beginning of the project. You will be able to plan the work early in the project and use the project plan to drive the project. You should use a predictive/waterfall methodology.

235
Q

Your project has reached a kill point and senior management is discussing the next steps. It seems your organization is trying to determine if they should continue to spend money, time and effort on your project. What should you do in this situation?

A) Rally your project team to collect all the positive impacts of your project to convince senior management to continue the project
B) Recommend that senior management allow sequential phasing in order to save costs and time to reach a successful project completion
C) Reference and apply appropriate project governance to this point in the project lifecycle to determine if the project should be terminated or not
D) Allow senior management to make this decision without your input as it is an organizational decision and not a project decision

A

C) Reference and apply appropriate project governance to this point in the project lifecycle to determine if the project should be terminated or not.

Explanation: Project governance framework should defined criteria and actions to apply at kill points. The PM’s role is to ensure that governance is followed.

236
Q

At the beginning of a project with a new team and new client, you are holding a client-facing meeting meeting to discuss the framework, functions, and processes that will guide the project management activities in all appropriate areas. Which of the following guidelines should you ensure everyone in the meeting is aware of to make this successful? Select all that apply.

A) Keep the process transparent to the project stakeholders
B) Follow guidelines set by previous projects
C) Select a group of experienced individuals to be responsible for all governance activities
D) Choose the most appropriate goals and try to keep them simple
E) Remember this will be an evolutionary process and we should take advantage of the lessons you we learn during it
F) Do not involve organizational decision makers and senior managers

A

A) Keep the process transparent to the project stakeholders
C) Select a group of experienced individuals to be responsible for all governance activities
D) Choose the most appropriate goals and try to keep them simple
E) Remember this will be an evolutionary process and we should take advantage of the lessons you we learn during it

237
Q

You are near the end of a 2 year project to research, develop, implement, test & validate new human resource procedures for a multi-national company with over 1 million employees. As you are preparing to close out the project you and your project team are frustrated by the client’s reluctant acceptance of what they consider to be sub-standard results from the project outcomes. Even though the client has signed off on all the deliverables, they have made it clear that they are not happy and would not use your company again nor recommend it to other clients. What could have been done earlier in the project to avoid this situation?

A) The use of an Agile framework to ensure the client’s iterative input was taken into consideration during all work iterations
B) Fostering of appropriate Relationships between project team, organizational groups, and external stakeholders
C) The establishment of a process to identify, escalate, and resolve issues
D) Creation of mutually agreed to project success and deliverable acceptance criteria

A

D) Creation of mutually agreed to project success and deliverable acceptance criteria

Explanation: The problem here is project success was not well defined in the governance framework

238
Q

Amelia is managing a multi-phased project. She understands that most phased projects have a phase-to-phase relationship where consecutive phases start only when the previous phase is complete. This relationship will not work for the project since some phases will have to start prior to the previous phase ending.

What type of phase-to-phase relationship would Amelia select for this project?

A) Sequential Relationship
B) Predictive Relationship
C) Agile Relationship
D) Overlapping Relationship

A

D) Overlapping Relationship

Explanation: An overlapping relationship contains phases that start prior to the previous phase ending. This relationship increases the level of risk and may cause rework if something from the previous phase directly affects the next phase.

239
Q

During a sprint review, the product owner makes note of several new items that will be need to be added to the product backlog and recommends they be prioritized for inclusion in the next iteration. As the PM, you are concerned because the team does not have the capacity to add these new items in with other already prioritized items and still deliver the initial functionality to the client by a contractually obligated date. At the same time, your team leader mentions that several team members have tested positive for COVID-19. Choose the best alternative to this situation.

A) Place the welfare of your team first and push back on the product owner to lower the number of priority items in the next iteration to match the capacity of your team
B) Treat this as a scope change request and follow appropriate integrated change control procedures to incorporate the new items into the backlog and reschedule the work according to an updated team capacity
C) Discuss the risk of missing the contractually obligated date with your client to potentially request a contract modification
D) Immediately collaborate with the product owner, team leader, and client to determine the best approach to resolve the issue

A

D) Immediately collaborate with the product owner, team leader, and client to determine the best approach to resolve the issue

Explanation: This is clearly an agile project and changes to product functionality are expected. This does not require a scope change request as it is the normal flow of work in an agile project. The important thing in this question is that an issue exists that must be dealt with

240
Q

During the detailed planning of a project, severe weather is identified as a Risk to the project. Last night a thunderstorm flooded the job site. The PM checked the weather forecast before leaving work yesterday and safeguarded the equipment but the storm was far worse than predicted. The team will need to take a few days to clean-up the job site putting them behind schedule. What is the is the correct project management action that should be taken?

A) Update the Issue Log and consider how to compress the schedule
B) Refer to the schedule management plan for how to deal with this before taking any further action
C) Update the Risk Register with new qualitative analysis of the risk and document the lesson learned
D) Annotate the variance on the Risk Report and create a change request for the schedule delay

A

A) Update the Issue Log and consider how to compress the schedule

Explanation: While you may document the project variance, there is no need to submit a change request before determining how to compress the schedule

241
Q

You are holding a project status meeting with your core stakeholders, including several representatives from your project client. The work performance reports indicate a variance exists between a product requirement and what the team has been able to achieve in the deliverables. Two representatives from the project client start to argue over whether the variance is acceptable or not with one of them calling it a show-stopper for the project and the other one labeling it an issue, but a minor one that should not delay project progress. Which statement best represents this situation?

A) The project manager should have addressed the scope variance before creating the work performance reports to avoid the issue with the client representatives
B) This is an issue that needs further clarification on severity before an optimal action can be determined
C) This is an internal problem with the client and the project manager should not get involved in the dispute
D) The worst case scenario should always be addressed on projects so this should be treated as a showstopper and immediate resolution identified

A

B) This is an issue that needs further clarification on severity before an optimal action can be determined

Explanation: This is an issue and there is disagreement on the severity and impact to the project. This severity disagreement must be clarified as a first step in determining appropriate action

242
Q

As the project manager you are trying to educate your project team on what an issue is in project terms. You bring your team together to discuss the difference between a risk and an issue.

Which of the statements describe an issue? (May have more than one correct answer.)

A) Response is called a “workaround”.
B) Will always be negative.
C) Can be positive or negative.
D) Focused on the present.
E) Focused on the future.

A

A) Response is called a “workaround”.
B) Will always be negative.
D) Focused on the present.

243
Q

Risk or Issue: Focused on the future

A

Risk

244
Q

Risk or Issue: Can be positive or negative

A

Risk

245
Q

Risk or Issue: Is documented prior to occurrence

A

Risk

246
Q

Risk or Issue: Focused on the present

A

Issue

247
Q

Risk or Issue: Will always be negative

A

Issue

248
Q

Risk or Issue: Is documented after occurrence

A

Issue

249
Q

Risk or Issue: Response is called a workaround

A

Issue

250
Q

As the project manager you understand it is important to collect lessons learned to be part of the organization’s knowledge base. Your project team is asking for guidance on when they should be collecting lessons learned.

What should you tell the project team?

A) Wait until the project goes into closing to ensure the team understands the full implications / outcomes of all the lessons learned.
B) The project sponsor will hold a debrief at the end of the project where the lessons learned will be captured.
C) Lessons learned should be collected by everyone throughout the project when it is fresh in their minds.
D) That is the role of the project manager and they should not worry about collecting the lessons learned as it will distract them from their project roles.

A

C) Lessons learned should be collected by everyone throughout the project when it is fresh in their minds.

Explanation: Lessons learned should be captured throughout the project by everyone involved in the project. It is not the role of one specific person. If you wait until the end of the project you will miss things and you will forget the details that make the lessons learned important for the organization’s knowledge base.

251
Q

Alisha is a PM leading a unique data center programming project for several months. The work has been exhausting and she is nearing the end of a very trying project. Her lead systems engineer has been a real star during the project but has been very reluctant to share knowledge with other team members making him a potential single point of failure. How should Alisha resolve this issue?

A) Alisha should counsel her team member in a deliberate fashion to ensure he provides detailed instructions for the client on the various apps and procedures as the final project acceptance is only days away.
B) Alisha should incentivize the knowledge transfer by offering her engineer a performance bonus for sharing/documenting the information.
C) Alisha is only days away from closing the project, once the data center is formally accepted by the customer this is no longer her concern.
D) Alisha must create an atmosphere of trust so her engineer is motivated to share this information. This is tacit knowledge (know how) is very difficult to codify but very important too.

A

D) Alisha must create an atmosphere of trust so her engineer is motivated to share this information. This is tacit knowledge (know how) is very difficult to codify but very important too.

Explanation: The engineer has tacit knowledge. Having a trusting environment and building that within her team is the best way to ensure the knowledge transfer gets done.

252
Q

It is important that knowledge is shared between project team members and across project teams. As the project manager you need to make sure the knowledge is effectively shared.

What type of knowledge is going to be the hardest to articulate and share between individuals?

A) Tacit Knowledge
B) Business Knowledge
C) Explicit Knowledge
D) Financial Knowledge

A

A) Tacit Knowledge

Explanation: Tacit knowledge is knowledge based on beliefs, experiences and insights that are hard to articulate and share with others.

253
Q

A key stakeholder has come to you asking about the lessons your team has learned to this point in the project.

What project document would you use to show this stakeholder the lessons learned?

A) Issues Log
B) Lessons Learned Register
C) Risk Register
D) Stakeholder Register

A

B) Lessons Learned Register

Explanation: The Lessons Learned Register records knowledge gained during a project so that it can be used in the current project and entered into the lessons learned repository.

254
Q

You are the project manager for an agile project. A key team member is leaving your team after this iteration. You are being assigned a new member as a replacement but they will be working on a deliverable next iteration that is critical to meet a key milestone. After assessing the skills of the new member, you determine they do not have the knowledge they need to complete the upcoming tasks.

As a project manager what should you do? (You may be more than one correct answer)

A) Go to the sponsor and tell them they need to adjust the milestone to account for this new factor.
B) Have your team members collaborate with the new team member to fill in the knowledge gap.
C) Have the new member research the topic to gain more knowledge before the next iteration.
D) Go to the functional manager and tell them they need to select a different person to be on the team.
E) Have the new member examine the project’s and organization’s knowledge repository.

A

B) Have your team members collaborate with the new team member to fill in the knowledge gap.
C) Have the new member research the topic to gain more knowledge before the next iteration.
E) Have the new member examine the project’s and organization’s knowledge repository.

255
Q

Knowledge transfer consists of connecting individuals to share knowledge and collaborate together. Your project team is asking for clarification on who they should be sharing knowledge with.

What should you tell the project team for clarification?

A) Knowledge should only be shared with internal team members until the project is complete to protect proprietary knowledge per PMI Ethics Rules.
B) Follow the communication management plan for conveying knowledge to stakeholders.
C) How knowledge is transferred within a project is a decision for the sponsor to decide.
D) They should not worry about the knowledge sharing since that is your job as the project manager.

A

B) Follow the communication management plan for conveying knowledge to stakeholders.

Explanation: The Communications Management Plan is the component of the Project Management Plan that describes how, when and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.