PMP Prep Deck- SW 2022

Question 1

What is the term for an individual who is involved with and or impacted by a project?

Answer 1

Stakeholder

Question 2

INITIATING PHASE

Question 3

Project success measures define in clear terms the criteria by which project success will be evaluated. What 3 questions do detailed and well-constructed project success measures answer?

Answer 3

• what does success look like?
• how will success be measured?
• what factors may impact my success?

Question 4

What is the definition of a project?

a. permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs??
b. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
c. temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
d. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business or product

Answer 4

b. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or result

Question 5

Name the two processes in the initiating process group

Answer 5

Develop project charter and ID stakeholders

Question 6

Which doc describes the necessary info to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

a. service level agreement
b. cost baseline
c. memorandum of understanding
d. business case

Answer 6

d. business case

Question 7

Who is the person assigned by the performing org to be responsible for achieving the project’s objective?

a. program mgr
b. project mgr
c. functional mgr
d. portfolio mgr

Answer 7

b. project mgr

Question 8

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

a. salience
b. influence-impact
c. power-interest
d. power-influence

Answer 8

a. salience

Question 9

Without approval from the project sponsor, there is no project? True or false?

Answer 9

True

Question 10

The business case is used to record all assumptions and constraints known at any point during the project, True or false?

Answer 10

False

- the assumption log is used to record all assumptions

Question 11

It is critical to identify all stakeholders as early as possible. True or false?

Answer 11

True

Question 12

The stakeholder register is rarely updated throughout the life of a project. True or false?

Answer 12

False

- updated as often as new stakeholder info is discovered

Question 13

What is the definition of the project charter?

Answer 13

Formally documents the high level details of a project as well as several key elements that structure and organize the formation of a project

Question 14

What is the assumption log and in which process is it created?

Answer 14

Used to record all assumptions and constraints known at any point during the project. It is one of the major outputs of the develop project charter process

Question 15

What is the project stakeholder register and in which process is it created?

Answer 15

A document used to record pertinent info on every stakeholder, including each stakeholder’s function, title, level of interest in the project, and level of influence. It is created during the identify stakeholders process

Question 16

What is the difference between a project charter and business case?

Answer 16

Project charter formally documents the high level details of a project and after approval by the sponsor, formally authorizes the project
The business case help define the objectives, purpose, and assumptions of a project. It is used prior to starting a project to determine if the benefits of achieving the objectives are worth the investment

Question 17

Which of the following is not a goal of the initiating process group?

a. define the project
b. obtain project approval
c. define the scope
d. identify and start to understand the stakeholders

Answer 17

c. define the scope

- scope is defined in the planning process group

Question 18

What is the main goal of the develop project charter (4.1) process?

Answer 18

Focuses on developing and gaining sponsor approval of the project charter

Question 19

What is the main goal of the identify stakeholders (13.1) process?

Answer 19

The identify stakeholders process identifies, analyzes, and classifies all stakeholders that could impact, or be impacted by, the project

Question 20

Which of the following is not an input to the deliver project charter process?

a. business case
b. project mgmt plan
c. agreements
d. EEFs and OPAs

Answer 20

b. project mgmt plan

Question 21

Early in the project, what are two important inputs to identify stakeholders?

Answer 21

Project charter and business case

Question 22

Stakeholder_______ and _______ helps the team design ways to appropriately engage each stakeholder

Answer 22

Identification and analysis

Question 23

Which of the following is a method of eliciting info from groups or individuals, such as team members or subject matter experts?

a. brainstorming
b. data analysis
c. bidder conference
d. EEF

Answer 23

a. brainstorming

Question 24

Which of the following is a method of eliciting info from groups or individuals, such as team members or subject matter experts?

a. brainstorming
b. data analysis
c. bidder conference
d. EEF

Answer 24

a. brainstorming

Question 25

What is a mapping technique used to identify where stakeholders are perceived to be relative to their power and interest in the project?

Answer 25

Power-interest grid

Question 26

How should stakeholders with high power and high interest be classified and managed?

Answer 26

Closely

Question 27

PLANNING PHASE

Question 28

List the following processes in the order in which they should be completed:

• create WBS
• collect requirements
• plan scope mgmt
• define scope

Answer 28

Although iterative, general order is

• plan scope mgmt
• collect requirements
• define scope
• create WBS

Question 29

A project ____ meeting is a common practice to clearly communicate project objectives and build team and stakeholders buy in

Answer 29

kick off

Question 30

What is the major output created by the four scope mgmt processes in the planning process group?

Answer 30

Scope baseline

Question 31

_____ defines all the necessary work that is required t complete the project

Answer 31

Project scope

Question 32

A ____ is a condition or capability that must be present in the finished product to satisfy a business need

Answer 32

Requirement

Question 33

Why is the collect requirements (5.2) process completed before the define the scope process?

Answer 33

The collect requirements process transforms high level requirements into clear objectives required to define the scope if the project

Question 34

What is the difference between requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix?

Answer 34

The requirements doc serves to clearly define all potential project requirements needed for creating the scope baseline

The requirements traceability matrix organizes and presents the requirements in visual manner that links each requirements to the individual deliverables that satisfy it

Question 35

A trained facilitator is often used in the _____ process to obtain requirements from stakeholders and others with expert judgment

Answer 35

collect requirements

Question 36

What is the definition of an affinity diagram?

Answer 36

Classifies requirements into distinct groups for review and analysis

Question 37

____ a model of the potential products and providing it for review can ne a fast and inexpensive method for obtaining feedback on requirements

Answer 37

Prototyping

Question 38

A well defined scope statement creates clear boundaries, reducing ____

Answer 38

Scope creep

Question 39

What is the project scope statement?

Answer 39

Detailed definition of the project and product scope, major deliverables, assumptions and constraints. The statement clearly defines what is and is not in the project scope

Question 40

The documents compromise the scope baseline:

Answer 40

Scope statement
Work breakdown structure (WBS)
WBS dictionary

Question 41

List the following processes in the order in which they should be completed:

• define activities
• plan schedule mgmt
• sequence activities
• develop schedule
• estimate activity durations

Answer 41

• plan schedule mgmt
• -define activities
• sequence activities
• estimate activity durations
• develop schedule

Question 42

The _____ process describes the actions that deliver the deliverables created by the create WBS (5.4) process

Answer 42

Define activities

Question 43

An ____ is a distance, scheduled portion of work to be performed

Answer 43

Activity

Question 44

______ moves a successor LEFT (earlier); _____ moves a successor RIGHT (later)

Answer 44

Lead, Lag

Question 45

______ are calculated in terms of the number of work periods to complete an activity

Answer 45

Duration estimates

Question 46

Which of the following estimating techniques is less costly and time consuming, but also the least accurate ?

Answer 46

Analogous estimating
- analogous estimating uses historical data from similar projects to produce a grossvalue of estimate for a projects activity duration

Question 47

Which of the following estimating techniques uses statistical or numerical relationship to calculate activity durations?

Answer 47

Parametric estimating

Question 48

_______ estimating requires significant resources and time, but can be very accurate.

Answer 48

Bottoms-up analysis

- This technique aggregates estimates of individual lower-level activities

Question 49

Which of the following estimating techniques uses the triangular distribution mathematical equation to incorporate risk and uncertainty into the estimate?

• bottom-up estimating
• parametric estimating
• three-point estimating
• analogous estimating

Answer 49

• three-point estimating

Question 50

What’s the difference between contingency reserves and mgmt reserves?

Answer 50

Contingency reserves address know-unknowns ( ex: the PM expects rework but the exact amount is unknown

Mgmt reserve address unknown-unknowns (unforeseen work

Question 51

When creating the cost baseline in the determine budget process, _____ reserves are included in the baseline, but ___ reserves are not included

Answer 51

Contingency reserves (included)
Mgmt reserves (not icluded)

Question 52

After the time, scope and cost baselines are defined within the project mgmt plan, all future changes can be made only through the ____ process

Answer 52

Perform integrated change control process (included in the monitoring and controlling process group)

Question 53

List the following processes in the order in which they should be completed:

• identify risks
• plan risk mgmt
• perform qualitative risk analysis
• plan risk responses
• perform quantitative risk analysis

Answer 53

• plan risk mgmt
• identify risks
• perform qualitative risk analysis
• perform quantitative risk analysis
• plan risk responses

Question 54

Which document visually translates the project deliverables into small manageable components?

Answer 54

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 55

What is the definition of a requirement?

Answer 55

A condition/capability that must be present in the finished product to satisfy a need

Question 56

What is scope creep?

Answer 56

The expansion of project work beyond the project boundaries

Question 57

What is the key output of the define the scope process?

Answer 57

Project scope statement

- Provides a detailed definition of the project and product scope, major deliverable, assumptions, and constraints

Question 58

“work” refers to the deliverable produced, not the activities that produce the deliverables

Answer 58

True

- to dig a ditch, the work would be defined as the complete ditch, not the activities required to dig the ditch

Question 59

Name the technique used to create the WBS by dividing the scope into progressively smaller, more manageable parts

Answer 59

Decomposition

Question 60

Define a work package

Answer 60

the lowest level of the WBS. It is the smallest amount of work for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed

Question 61

The schedule management processes in the planning process group progressively translate the ____ of the scope baseline into logically sequenced work schedule

Answer 61

Deliverables

Question 62

What are 3 key outputs produced by the define the activities process

Answer 62

Activity list, activity attributes and milestone list

Question 63

What is the definition of an activity?

Answer 63

A distinct schedule portion of work to be perfromed

Question 64

_____ extend the description of activities in the activity list, providing details on the effort type and work location

Answer 64

Activity attributes

- evolve and deepen in description as the project progresses

Question 65

The _____ document frames the schedule constraints impacting the project

Answer 65

Milestone list
- created as an output of the define the activities process. The defined milestones identify significant points/events that are used in creating the detailed schedule

Question 66

The ____ process aims to organize the activities into a schedule network diagram that graphically shows the order in which work will be completed

Answer 66

Sequence activities

Question 67

What is the key output produced by the sequence activities process?

Answer 67

Project schedule network diagram

- shows the logical relationships of all activities start to finish

Question 68

The ____ process brings depth and perspective to the network diagram by defining the amount of effort and resources each activity demands

Answer 68

Estimate activity durations

Question 69

The ____ is the approved version of the schedule model used to evaluate actual vs planned progress throughout the project

Answer 69

Schedule baseline

Question 70

All project baselines must be approved by the project sponsor

Answer 70

True

Question 71

What is the difference between crashing activities and fast tracking activities?

Answer 71

Crashing: refers to the addition of resources to reduce the time required to complete an activity
Fast tracking: refers to the reorganization of sequential activates into parallel activities to reduce the time required to complete the activities

Question 72

What is the largest negative impact of crashing that must be evaluated and accounted for?

Answer 72

Additional cost (more resources)

Question 73

The ____ explains the logic behind each cost estimate, allowing the team to understand how the costs were derived

Answer 73

Basis of estimates

Question 74

The determine budget process creates the project’s budget and baseline by ____ the cost estimates into time-phased view

Answer 74

Aggregating

Question 75

The project budget and cost baseline are different

Answer 75

True

- project budget includes the mgmt reserve; the cost baseline doesn’t

Question 76

Which type of reserve accounts for identified risks?

Answer 76

Contingency reserve accounts for identified risks. In comparison, the mgmt reserve accounts for unplanned work

Question 77

The cost of preventing mistakes is _____ than the cost of correcting mistakes found by inspection or use

Answer 77

Less

Question 78

The ____ describes the activities and resources necessary for the project team to achieve the project’s quality objectives

Answer 78

Quality mgmt plan

- also defines procedures for addressing nonconformance, corrective actions and continuous improvement

Question 79

What two components comprise the cost of quality?

Answer 79

Cost of conformance and nonconformance

Question 80

The cost of conformance includes what two types of costs?

Answer 80

Prevention and appraisal costs

• prevention are those associated with building quality into a products (training, equipment)
• appraisal are those associated with assessing the quality (testing, destructive testing loss, inspection)

Question 81

The cost of quality (COQ) only considers the cost incurred while completing the project’s physical work

Answer 81

False

- includes all quality-related costs over the entire life of the project

Question 82

What is the difference between project charter and team charter

Answer 82

The project charter is the foundational doc that authorizes the existence of the project
the team charter defines the team’s agreed upon operating guidelines

Question 83

The ____ organizes the resource estimates into hierarchical chart that can be used to help acquire and monitor resources

Answer 83

Resource breakdown structure

Question 84

Throughout the resource estimating process, various options must be evaluated to determine the optimal resource solution given the project’s constraints. Which data analysis technique does this describe?

Answer 84

Alternative analysis

Question 85

Define the steps in a basic sender-receiver communications model

Answer 85

Encode, transmit, decode

Question 86

Name the 3 most common communication methods

Answer 86

Interactive: multidirectional communication
Push: sent to specific recipients, but no confirmation that the info is understood
Pull: allows content access at the user’s own discretion

Question 87

____ is anything compromising the understanding of a communicated message

Answer 87

Noise

- caused by a receiver being distracted or lacking adequate perception and/or knowledge

Question 88

What is the equation for calculating communication channels?

Answer 88

Communication channels = N x (N - 1) / 2

N= # of stakeholders

Question 89

List the following processes in the order in which they should be completed:

• plan risk mgmt
• plan risk responses
• perform qualitative risk analysis
• identify risks
• perform quantitative risk analysis

Answer 89

• plan risk mgmt
• identify risks
• perform qualitative risk analysis
• perform quantitative risk analysis
• plan risk responses

Question 90

Which document is created during the identify risks process to record specific details on every individual project risk

Answer 90

Risk register

- a key output of the identify risk process

Question 91

What are the two key outputs of the identify risk process?

Answer 91

Risk register and risk report

Question 92

Once created, the risk register and risk report are not adjusted. True or false?

Answer 92

False

- continually adjusted to deepen the understanding of the current risk profile and to include addl risks identified

Question 93

What factors are used to evaluate each risk on the risk register during the qualitative risk analysis process?

Answer 93

Perception of probability of occurrence and impact

- qual risk analysis is subjective, as it based on perception of each risk’s probability of occurrence and impact

Question 94

An S-curve is produced by which type of risk analysis

Answer 94

Monte carlo analysis

- the S-curve from a monte carlo risk analysis visually shows the probability of achieving any project outcome

Question 95

What is the purpose of a tornado diagram?

Answer 95

Used in quantitative risk analysis determines which individual risk has the greatest potential impact by correlating variation in project outcomes

Question 96

Which analysis method is used to select the best of several alternative course of action?

Answer 96

Decision tree analysis
- a mathematical method in which alternate decision paths are shown and evaluated for their overall expected monetary value. The net path value is calculated for each and the decision path with the best value is selected

Question 97

Which of the following is not a desired characteristic of a proper risk response plan?

• appropriate
• cost effective
• timely
• realistic

Answer 97

Timely

Question 98

What are the five alternative risk strategies that must be considered when planning for threats?

Answer 98

• escalate, avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept

Question 99

Which output produced in the plan procurements mgmt process defies the procurement need in detail sufficient to allow the sellers to assess if they are capable of providing the work?

Answer 99

Procurement statement of work

Question 100

Which type of contract is used when the scope of work is expected to change significantly during the proect?

Answer 100

Cost-reimbursable contract

- seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs (per contract)

Question 101

Which docs produced as outputs of the plan procurement mgmt. process must not be provided to the potential sellers?

Answer 101

Source selection criteria: objective to eval each proposal

independent cost estimates: frame of reference for eval bids

Question 102

The stakeholder engagement matrix is used to compare which two levels of stakeholder engagement

Answer 102

Current vs desired enagagement

Question 103

EXCUTING SECTION

Question 104

The direct and manage project work process ensures both the planned project and ____ are executed

Answer 104

Approved change requests

- both planned project work and approved change requests are inputs to the direct and manage project work process

Question 105

The deliverables produced by the direct and manage project work process are evaluated to conform they meet quality standards during which process?

Answer 105

Control quality

Question 106

The direct and manage project work process is where the “rubber meets the road” as the team executes ____ defined in the project plans

Answer 106

planned project activites

Question 107

What are the raw observations/measurements produced as an output of the direct and manage work process??

Answer 107

Work performance data
- passed onto the processes in the monitor and control process group for analysis. Through analysis, the data are converted into work performance info

Question 108

When a change request is approved in the perform integrated change control process, it flows back to the ____ process as an output

Answer 108

direct and manage project work

Question 109

Which output doc should the project team use to record problems, gaps, inconsistencies, and conflicts that occur during the direct and manage project work process?

Answer 109

Issue log

Question 110

Throughout the entire project, both best practices and problems must be codified and recorded on the ____

Answer 110

Lessons learned register

Question 111

The ____ process translates the quality mgmt plan into executable activates that integrate quality policies into the project

Answer 111

Manage quality process

Question 112

What data representation technique used in the manage quality process breaks down the causes of a problem and organizes them into discrete branches, allowing root cause identification?

• flow chart
• cause and effect diagram
• affinity chart
• scatter diagram

Answer 112

cause and effect diagram

- also known as the fishbone or ishikawa diagram

Question 113

The scatter diagram graphically shows the relationship between two variables. True or false?

Answer 113

True

- tool and technique used in the manage quality process that graphically shows the relationship between two variables

Question 114

What is the term used to describe a set of structured observation techniques used to determine if project activities comply with policies, processes and procedures?

Answer 114

Quality audit

Question 115

What is the key objective of the 3 resource mgmt processes in the executing process group?

Answer 115

Obtain, develop and manage a team. resources and procurements to complete all the project work

Question 116

Explain what the resource calendar does?

Answer 116

Defines the exact time frames when each project resource is available to the project

Question 117

Does a weak-matrix or strong-matrix organizational structure offer project managers less access/control of resources?

Answer 117

Weak-matrix

- closer to the projectized structure. Therefore the project mgr has less authority to control resources

Question 118

Which mgmt plan instructs the way in which external resources are obtained?

Answer 118

Procurement mgmt plan
- instructs the way in which internal resources are obtained and the procurement mgmt plan instructs how to obtain external resources

Question 119

____ decision tools allow the project team to evaluate resource options and select the optimal mix to meet the project’s needs

Answer 119

Multicriteria

Question 120

In order, name the five stakes of the Tuckman ladder, which is used to evaluate the team development

Answer 120

Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

Question 121

Which key output produced by the develop team process allows the current status of team development to be addressed and tracked?

Answer 121

Team performance assessments

Question 122

The team’s overall performance can be improved through which 4 actions?

Answer 122

Training, coaching, mentoring, change requests

Question 123

The ___ defines in clear terms the team’s value and operating guidelines

Answer 123

Team charter

- input to the 9.4 develop team process

Question 124

___ is the ability to identify, assess and manage emotions of oneself, others and groups

Answer 124

Emotional intelligence

Question 125

Name the 5 conflict resolution techniques identified in the manage team process

Answer 125

Withdraw/avoid
smooth/accommodate
compromise/reconcile
force/direct
collaborate/problem solve

Question 126

In which conflict resolution technique does the project manager retreat from the conflict?

Answer 126

Withdraw/avoid

- may cause an issue to worsen if the issue is not rectified

Question 127

By leveraging which conflict resolution technique would you push your viewpoint through power, often creating a win-lose situation?

Answer 127

Force/direct

Question 128

Name the conflict resolution technique aimed at creating a win-win situation where both parties viewpoints are shared and incorporated

Answer 128

Collaborate/problem solve

Question 129

What is the potential downside of using the smooth/accommodate conflict resolution technique?

Answer 129

Risk of the issues not being adequately addressed

- smooth/accommodate involves emphasizing agreement while ignoring/conceding differences in hopes of maintaining harmony

Question 130

The manage communication process is conducted only once. True or false?

Answer 130

False
- is an iterative process that is constantly collecting, evaluating, storing and distributing info from updates, issues, and changes of other processes

Question 131

The ____ is the software by which project information is distributed

Answer 131

Project mgmt information system (PMIS)

Question 132

What are the key objectives of the implement risk responses process?

Answer 132

To minimize a project’s risk exposure and maximize opps by implementing agreed-upon risk response plans

Question 133

What is the name of the individual responsible for ensuring the risk response plans for a specific risk are fully implemented?

Answer 133

Risk owner

Question 134

During which process is the final agreement and contract with a seller completed?

Answer 134

Conduct procurements

Question 135

What types of meeting is used to provide prospective contractors the oppty to gain a deeper understanding of the procurement statement of work?

Answer 135

Bidder conference

Question 136

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a bidder conference?

• defined meeting to provide detailed info
• allows all sellers the oppty to ask questions
• each seller can only hear the responses to their questions
• NDAs are often required

Answer 136

• each seller can only hear the responses to their questions

Question 137

What is the term for a potential list of sellers within a competitive range?

Answer 137

Select sellers

Question 138

The person authorized to sign legal agreements is often a purchasing or legal rep, not the project mgr

Answer 138

True

Question 139

Which of the following docs are not provided to potential contractors?

• source selection criteria
• RFP
• procurement SOW

Answer 139

• source selection criteria

Question 140

The manage stakeholder engagement and ____ processes work in concert, each focuses effort on aligning stakeholders and assisting in better decision making

Answer 140

Manage communications
- these two work together to achieve a similar goal of ensuring constant and appropriate flow of info to and from stakeholders

Question 141

Which doc is most likely used to record problems and concerns with project communications effort?

• issue log
• assumptions log
• stakeholder register
• communications mgmt plan

Answer 141

issue log

- both an input and output of the manage stakeholder engagement process

Question 142

MONITORING AND CONTROLLING SECTION

Question 143

Which of the following is not an objective of the monitoring and controlling process group?

• track, review and regulate project progress and performance
• identify areas in which changes to the plans are required and initiate change requests where needed
• objectively evaluate and formally accept project deliverables
• deliver project deliverable, once completed, to the customer

Answer 143

deliver project deliverable, once completed, to the customer

- this is in the close project or phase process

Question 144

Which of the following is not produced during the monitoring and controlling process group?

• work performance data
• work performance info
• work performance reports
• schedule and costs forecasts

Answer 144

work performance data

- performed during the executing process group by direct and mamage project work process

Question 145

The monitor and control project work process provides insight into the health of a project by tracking, reviewing and reporting on actual vs expected progress. True or false?

Answer 145

True

- to maintain a clear understanding of how the project is progressing against the project baseline and project plans

Question 146

Which doc, produced as a key output of the monitor and control project work process, summarizes project performance and forecasts?

Answer 146

Work performance reports
- summarize work perf info concisely and are critical to keep stakeholders aware of the project’s progress and to generate decisions or actions

Question 147

____ are submitted to correct current and potential project performance issues

Answer 147

Change requests

Question 148

How are work performance date translated into work performance info?

Answer 148

Data analysis

- one of the primary activities that occur in the monitor/control process group

Question 149

What is the desired impact of the work performance reports generated as an output of the monitor and control project work process?

Answer 149

Maintain stakeholder awareness and generate decision or actions

Question 150

Which type of analysis identifies the difference between planned and performance and actual performance?

Answer 150

Variance analysis

- key tool and technique used during the M/C project work process to determine the condition of the project

Question 151

Any change request that potentially impacts a project baseline must be evaluated using the formal ____ process

Answer 151

Perform integrated change control

Question 152

Change requests can only be implemented after they are transformed into ___

Answer 152

Approved change requests

Question 153

____ is the process of obtaining the customer’s formal acceptance of completed project deliverables

Answer 153

Validate scope

- to obtain the customer’s formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables

Question 154

The verified deliverables that are produced as outputs by the ____ process are the main inputs leverage by the validate the scope process

Answer 154

Control quality

- are what ar evaluated for formal customer acceptance in the validate scope progress

Question 155

____ is the formal document signifying that the customer has accepted a deliverable as complete and satisfactory

Answer 155

Accepted deliverable

Question 156

Which document produced in the planning process group links the project requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

Answer 156

Requirements traceability matrix

is produced in the collect requirements process visually displays the deliverables that must be satisfied

Question 157

Which analysis technique used during the control scope process determines if project performance is improving or deteriorating by examining historical results?

Answer 157

Trend analysis

Question 158

How does the variance analysis work and what type of actions could it facilitate?

Answer 158

Compares the baseline to the actual results . If the variance exceeds a threshold, then corrective or preventative action may be developed. If the actions impact the baseline, then a change request will be generated

Question 159

The control scope process is conducted throughout the lie of the project? True or false?

Answer 159

True
- after scope baseline is defined, the control scope process must be conducted throughout the entire project. Essential as it helps monitor the success of the project and prevention of scope creep

Question 160

How do schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance (SPI) differ when analyzing a project’s performance?

Answer 160

SV defines the amount a project is ahead/behind the schedule baseline
SPI defines hw efficiently the team is completing the work

Question 161

By which standard is the actual schedule performance evaluated during the control schedule process?

Answer 161

Schedule baseline

- is the standard by which schedule progress is evaled during the control schedule process

Question 162

The control costs process centers on understanding both the total amount spent and the ___ of the money spent to complete project activities

Answer 162

Effectiveness
- analysis conducted during the control cost process determines the effectiveness of the money spent on a project by analyzing the total amount spent and value generated from the spend

Question 163

Which variable defines the total budget amount allocated for the project?

Answer 163

Budget at completion (BAC)

Question 164

Planned value (PV) defines the value of work that_____ done

Answer 164

should be

- PV defines the vale of the work that should be done and is the standard by which progress will be measured

Question 165

Earned value (EV) defines the value of the work that ____ done

Answer 165

Is

- EV defines the value that is done. This is often used toc calculate the projects completion %

Question 166

Scheduled variance (SV) determines the amount a project is ahead/behind the schedule baseline. What does a negative schedule baseline indicate?

Answer 166

Project is behind schedule

- a negative SV behind, positive is ahead

Question 167

At the completion of a project, what will the SV be?

Answer 167

Zero

- SV will always be 0 at end because all of the work planned is complete

Question 168

Your project team has been more efficient that originally projected in completing project work. what would you expect the SPI value to be?

Answer 168

Above 1
- SPI values above 1 indicate that more work has been completed than planned at the period of time (indicating that the team has been more efficient than expected)

Question 169

The ____ variable determines if the project is ahead or behind the budget defined in the cost baseline

Answer 169

Cost variance (CV)
- determines the amount of a budget deficit or surplus at a given time

Question 170

Which EVM variable calculates the expected total cost of the project at the completion of all project work?

Answer 170

Estimate at completion (EAC)

- determines the expected total cost at the completion of all project work

Question 171

The estimate to complete (ETC) calculates the expected cost to finish all the remaining project work. True or false?

Answer 171

True

ETC = EAC - AC

Question 172

The ____ variable determines the CPI that must be achieved with the remaining resources to meet a specific mgmt goal

Answer 172

To-complete performance index (TCPI)
- evals the current performance and determines the CPI rate that must be maintained to hit a defined mgmt goal. Two equations exist to calculate the TCPI to meet the mgmt goals of BAC or EAC

Question 173

Is a TCPI above or below 1 more difficult to complete?

Answer 173

Above 1
- values above 1 are more difficult to meet because the team must perform at a level more efficient than originally planned in the project cost baseline

Question 174

Deos earned value mgmt (EVM) confuse or scare you?

Answer 174

Check out course EVM Made Easy

Question 175

What is the purpose of the control quality process?

Answer 175

to ensure project outputs are complete, correct, and satisfactory to customers by monitoring and recording quality results

Question 176

Control quality determines if the project outputs do what they were intended to do. True or false?

Answer 176

True

Question 177

Which data gathering technique uses a smaller sample to measure quality and infer the total quality of a larger population?

Answer 177

Statistical sampling

Question 178

Name the simple, yet powerful, date gathering technique used to gather attribute date while performing inspections

Answer 178

Check sheets

Question 179

When a quality issue is identified, which type of data analysis technique is often leveraged to investigate the case?

Answer 179

Root cause analysis

- aims to ID the core problem driving an issue so that it can be eliminated

Question 180

The team has used a chart to determine whether or not a process is stable. Which chart have they leveraged?

Answer 180

Control chart

Question 181

What is the goal of the control resources process?

Answer 181

Right resources, right place, right time

Question 182

Which project document shows when resources are available to the project?

Answer 182

Resources calendar

Question 183

Define the purpose of the monitor communications process

Answer 183

Provides a realistic eval of the success of actual communication and quickly initiates changes to improve results when needed

Question 184

What are 4 ways in which the team achieves the goal of ensuring each stakeholders communications needs are met?

Answer 184

• monitoring the actual comms
• evaluating the effectiveness
• understanding changes on stakeholders needs
• triggering changes to the comms plan

Question 185

The ____ matrix provides the desired stakeholders engagement level that the communications mgmt plan was designed to achieve

Answer 185

Stakeholder engagement matrix

Question 186

Which of the following is not one of the key objectives of monitor risk response?

• monitor the implementations of risk response plans
• track identified risks
• identify and analyze new risks
• assign individuals to implement new corrective actions to eliminate new risks identified

Answer 186

• assign individuals to implement new corrective actions to eliminate new risks

Question 187

___ is the term that describes the approaches and contingencies that project mgmrs build into their risk processes

Answer 187

Project resilience

Question 188

The control procurements process focuses on all of the following except:

• establishing contracts with buyers
• ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations
• confirming that the appropriate buyer [arties approve deliverables
• resolving all conflicts in a positive manner

Answer 188

establishing contracts with buyers
- control procurements process evals contract progress and results and manages the procurement relationship to improve the likelihood of project success

Question 189

When conflicts/issues occur on the fulfillment of a contract, what is the most optimal method of action?

Answer 189

Negotiations

Question 190

If negotiations are unable to rectify contractual issues, what method should be leveraged?

Answer 190

Alternative dispute resolution (ADR)

Question 191

What are the key outputs of the control procurement process?

Answer 191

close procurements, work performance information, change requests, document updates

Question 192

As a project evolves, it is often necessary to modify the methods used to engage stakeholders. True or false?

Answer 192

True

Question 193

The monitor stakeholder engagement process aims to ___ and ___ engagement activities as the project evolves

Answer 193

adapt and improve

Question 194

____ involves listening and then using your words to clarify and confirm the message that was heard

Answer 194

Active listening

Question 195

CLOSING SECTION

Question 196

Define the key objectives of the Close Project or Phase process

Answer 196

• finalize all activities of the project phases or contract
• archive all project or phase info
• formally close the project, phase or contract
• release all or team resources

Question 197

In executing te close project process, you have created a final project report, transferred the final product to the ownership of the customer, and dismissed your project team. You believe that you can now formally close the project. What activity have you forgotten to complete?

• obtain approval from the project sponsor
• formally acknowledge the success of the team
• complete and archive the lessons learned register and all project docs
• close the charter document

Answer 197

complete and archive the lessons learned register and all project docs

Question 198

In closing the project, the project mgr reviews the ____ to ensure that all project work is complete and the project has met its objectives

Answer 198

Project mgmt plans

Question 199

While developing the final report for formal project closure. you utilize which project doc to demonstrate compliance with the project scope?

Answer 199

Requirements documentation
- created during the collect requirements process describes how individual requirements meet the business need for the project

Question 200

Due to a company reorg, the project sponsor was recently terminated and the project was canceled. What action should the project mgr take first upon being informed this?

Answer 200

Conduct Lessons learned
- regardless of whether a project is completed fully or terminated before completion. lessons learned must be ca[tured and recorded. These lessons learned help to inform future projects

Question 201

The Close Project or phase process is the ____ finalization of all process and process groups

Answer 201

Forma finalization

Question 202

Which 3 outputs must be completed before a project is properly closed?

Answer 202

• final product, service, or results transferred to customer
• project docs updates and marked as final
• final report created

Question 203

Of the 4 data analysis techniques used in the close project or phase process, which technique is focused on identifying learned and knowledge sharing opps to help improve future projects?
- document analysis
- regression analysis
trend analysis
- variance analysis

Answer 203

Document analysis

- technique that helps identify lessons learned for future projects

Question 204

When using ____ ; the interrelationships between project variables are analyzed to identify opps to improve the performance of future projects

Answer 204

Regression analysis

Question 205

You inform your team that a critical output of the close project process is the completion and archival of the lessons learned register. What is the main reason why ensuring that the register is updated and archived?

Answer 205

To identify and make easily available improvement ideas that can be used on comparable projects

Question 206

After all project work is complete, it is proper to release all team members

Answer 206

False

- not unit project closure is over

Question 207

What is the purpose of the final report and what does it contain?

Answer 207

Summarizes the project performance elements such as benefit, cost, quality, schedule. Should follow communication plan to ensure proper dissemination is achieved. Delivered to project sponsor and stakeholders

Question 208

AGILE PROJECT MGMT SECTION

Question 209

Who is responsible for the business decisions and maximizing the value of the product?

Answer 209

Product owner

Question 210

What are the characteristics of those who make up the team in agile?

Answer 210

• self organized
• cross functional
• build or maintain the product

Question 211

What are the roles of the facilitator in an agile environment?

Answer 211

• facilitator of processes
• coach
• conscience
• defender

Question 212

The scrum master (facilitator) tells the team how to do the work. True or false?

Answer 212

False

Question 213

Who owns the product backlog?

Answer 213

Product owner

Question 214

What is the difference between sprint backlog and product backlog?

Answer 214

Sprint: what the team will work to complete in the current sprint
Product: the queue of work to be completed for the overall project

Question 215

Something that provides customer value, functionality, and is tested and accepted while only being a smaller subset of the total project outcome is defined as:

Answer 215

An increment

Question 216

What are artifacts of agile?

Answer 216

• product backlog
• sprint backlog
• increment

Question 217

Define the “time boxed” and advise what is the most common time box for a sprint

Answer 217

• time boxed: there is a predetermined and defined length

- most common length of a sprint is 2 weeks

Question 218

When does the sprint planning take place?

Answer 218

At the beginning of the sprint

Question 219

Who determines what is put onto the sprint backlog during sprint planning?

Answer 219

Product owner and the team collaborate to determine what items to pull into the sprint to maximize value creation

Question 220

How long is the daily stand up?

Answer 220

15 min

Question 221

What is another term for sprint review?

Answer 221

Demo

Question 222

What is the difference between a sprint review and a sprint retrospective?

Answer 222

Sprint review: focuses on inspection of the product, getting customer feedback, and gaining a better understanding of what the customer needs

Sprint retrospective: focuses on processes and product devt to look at what went well, what did not, and how it can be improved in the next sprint

Question 223

Sprint planning is used on the ____. All sprint planning should start with a _____

Answer 223

Product backlog, blank slate

Question 224

During sprint planning the product owner asks them to “consider” items and then the team comes up with how to complete them

Answer 224

True

Question 225

The purpose of collaborative sprint planning is to produce _____

Answer 225

optimal value creation

Question 226

What should be communicated during a daily scrum/stand up?

Answer 226

• what works was communicated yesterday
• what issues were experienced
• what will be completed today

Question 227

What is the purpose of the daily scrum/stand up?

Answer 227

• achieve fast cycles of learning

get a better plan to deliver the value

Question 228

What is the purpose of a sprint review (demo)?

Answer 228

• determine is the product meets the customer needs
• determine if the product is for for purpose
• give the team learning feedback and update the product backlog

Question 229

What is the purpose of a sprint retrospective?

Answer 229

• for the team to determine what they can do better next time
• not about blame but about finding root causes and planning action items

Question 230

Describe the planning process in an agile life cycle

Answer 230

Team plans and replans as more info becomes available from the review from frequent deliveries

Question 231

What are the two types of agile life cycles?

Answer 231

• iteration based agile

- flow based agile

Question 232

A team works in timeboxes of equal duration. Is this iteration base agile or flow based agile?

Answer 232

iteration based

Question 233

A team pulls from the backlog based on its capacity to start work. Is this iteration base agile or flow based agile?

Answer 233

Flow based

Question 234

A team works on features in order of importance. Is this iteration base agile or flow based agile?

Answer 234

iteration bases

Question 235

The team and business stakeholders determine the most appropriate schedule for planning, product reviews and retrospectives. If this iteration base agile or flow based agile?

Answer 235

Flow based

Question 236

A project that uses some agile approaches like short iterations, daily stand ups, and retrospectives but also uses upfront estimation work assignment, and progress tracking is considered:

• agile
• hybrid
• predictive
• none

Answer 236

hybrid

Question 237

Agile is about ____ delivery on a frequent basis. That delivery creates ____ for the team

Answer 237

• customer bases

- feedback

Question 238

A ____ helps teams to visualize the flow of work, make impediments easily visible, and allow flow to be managed by adjustingwork in process limits

Answer 238

kanban board

Question 239

AGILE MANIFESTO SECTION

Question 240

What are the 4 values of the agile manifesto?

Answer 240

• individuals and interactions over processes and tools
• working software over comprehensive documentation
• customer collaboration over contract negotiation
• responding to change over following a plan

Question 241

What is the highest priority in agile?

Answer 241

Satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software

Question 242

What do agile processes harness for the customer’s competitive advantage?

Answer 242

Change

Question 243

Agile prefers delivering software in a couple months vs a couple weeks

Answer 243

False

- deliver SW frequently, from a couple weeks to a couple months, with a preference for shorter timescale

Question 244

Based on the principles of agile, who must work together daily throughout the project?

Answer 244

Business professionals and developers

Question 245

In agile, we build projects around motivated individuals and give them the environment, support and trust they need to get the job done

Answer 245

True

- 5th principle of agile manifesto

Question 246

What is the most efficient method of conveying info to/within a devt team?

Answer 246

Face to face

Question 247

What is the primary measure of progress based on agile principles?

Answer 247

Working software

Question 248

In agile principles what do they mean by sustainable devt?

Answer 248

Sponsor, developers and users should be able to maintain a consistent pace indefinitely

Question 249

You are in the process of collecting and disseminating performance information to the stakeholders in the project. You want to predict the future performance of the project based on the current information. This performance information includes status reports, current status of risks, and summary of changes approved in the period. Which of the following methods will help you in predicting the future performance of the project?

• forecasts
• run chart
• WBS
• pareto chart

Answer 249

Forecasts

Forecasts are estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 104] (Domain: Process, Task 5)

Question 250

Based on agile principles, what enhances agility?

Answer 250

Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design

Question 251

In agile, simplicity, the art of maximizing the work left to do is essential

Answer 251

False

- simplicity is the art of maximizing the amount of work to be done

Question 252

Where do the best architecture reqs and designs come from in agile?

Answer 252

self-organizing teams

Question 253

Based on agile principles, at regular intervals the team reflects on how to become more effective. The team then tunes and adjusts behaviors. True or false?

Answer 253

True

Question 254

According to the 12 principles of the agile manifesto, a team should value ____ and ____ delivery to satisfy the customer

Answer 254

Early and continuous

Question 255

Why, according to the 12 principles of the agile manifesto, should a team welcome change?

Answer 255

Agile processes harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage

Question 256

According to the 12 principles of the agile manifesto, describe the desired timescales

Answer 256

Deliver working products frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a preference to the shorter timescale

Question 257

Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project

Answer 257

True

Question 258

Those on agile team should possess what characteristics?

Answer 258

Build projects around motivated individuals while providing an environment, support system, and trust system they need to complete the job

Question 259

What is the most efficient and effective method of communicating info to/within a team?

Answer 259

Fact to fce

Question 260

What is the primary measure of progress?

Answer 260

A working product

Question 261

Describe the type of devy that an agile environment should promote

Answer 261

Sustainable devt.

Question 262

SERVANT LEADERSHIP SECTION

Question 263

What do servant leaders promote?

Answer 263

• Self awareness
• environment of safety, respect and trust
• service to others

Question 264

What do servant leaders have to do day-to-day?

Answer 264

Facilitate and collaborate, facilitating collaboration

Question 265

How do servant leaders help streamline efforts?

Answer 265

By identifying and removing obstacles for the team

Question 266

Servant leaders_____ an environment for team’s success

Answer 266

Create

Question 267

What characteristics should servant leaders value?

Answer 267

Self-awareness, safety, respect, trust, and service to others

Question 268

Servant leader should help the people on their team grow by: ____, _____, and _____.

Answer 268

Listening, coaching and facilitating

Question 269

As a servant leader you want to approach project work in a specific order; purpose, _____ and then process

Answer 269

People

Question 270

Servant leaders manage _____ to build communication and coordination with the team

Answer 270

Relationships

Question 271

When project managers act as servant leaders, the emphasis shifts from ____ to ____

Answer 271

Managing coordination to facilitating collaboration

Question 272

As a servant leader of an agile team, you are responsible for helping to streamline processes that are impeding a team’s ability to do work. True or false?

Answer 272

True

Question 273

THE AGILE UMBRELLA SECTION

Question 274

Name the agile framework for developing and sustaining complex products, with specific rules, events and artifacts

Answer 274

Scrum

Question 275

Describe the difference between behavior driven devt (BBD) and eXtreme programming (XP)

Answer 275

BBD: a system of design and validation that uses test first principles and English like scripts
XP: A SW build technique based on frequent cycles. XP is most known for popularizing a comprehensive set of practices intended to improve the results of SW projects

Question 276

What are crystal methods?

Answer 276

A family of methodologies that are designed to scale and provide a selection of methodology rigor based on project size and criticality

Question 277

Scrumban is an agile approach originally designed to go from _____ to _____

Answer 277

Scrum to kanban (evolved into a hybrid framework)

Question 278

Feature driven devt (FDD) was developed to meet what size of SW devt project?

Answer 278

Large

Question 279

What are the 6 primary roles in FDD?

Answer 279

• PM
• chief architect
• devt mgr
• chief programmer
• class owner
• domain expert

Question 280

Dynamic systems devt method is designed to add more ____ to existing iterative methods

Answer 280

Rigor

Question 281

This agile process features more accelerated cycles and less heavyweight processes

Answer 281

Agile unified process

Question 282

When would you need to uses scrum of scrums?

Answer 282

When two or more scrum teams consisting of three to nine member need to coordinate their work

Question 283

What does the scaled agile framework do?

Answer 283

Focuses on providing a knowledge base of patterns for scaling devt work across all levels of the enterprise

Question 284

What does large scale scrum (LeSS) accomplish?

Answer 284

Organizes multiple devt teams toward a common goal

Question 285

Why would it make sense that a whole org, not a singular product team, use enterprise scrum?

Answer 285

A method that is used at the org level because it advises organizational leaders to extend the use of scrom across all aspects of the org

Question 286

What are the principles of disciplined agile (DA)?

Answer 286

• people first
• learning oriented
• full delivery life cycle
• goal driven
• enterprise awareness
• scalable

Question 287

What concepts exist under the agile umbrella?

• scrum and BDD
• XP and FDD
• crystal and XP
• kanban and DSDM
• all

Answer 287

All

Question 288

UNDERSTANDING AGILE TEAM ROLES SECTION

Question 289

In agile, 3 common roles are:

Answer 289

• cross functional team member
• product owner
• team facilitator

Question 290

Describe a cross functional team member

Answer 290

Team member with the necessary skills to produce a working product. They produce a potentially releasable product consistently and in the shortest amount of time with high quality

Question 291

Describe a product owner

Answer 291

Responsible for guiding the directiona product goes- rank the work based off the business value

Question 292

Describe a team facilitator

Answer 292

Servent leader of the team. Also called the product mgr, srum master, team lead, coach, etc.

Question 293

Describe a T-shaped person

Answer 293

One area of deep expertise and a broad ability in the remaining skills required by the team

Question 294

A product owner is a committee responsible for maximizing the value of a product

Answer 294

False

Question 295

How long is the product owner responsible for the product?

Answer 295

Entire life cycle

Question 296

What is the product owner’s ability ultimate responsibility?

Answer 296

Guiding the direction of the product to deliver max value

Question 297

The product owner ______ the work based on its _____

Answer 297

Ranks, business value

Question 298

The product owner owns, maintains, and organizes the ____ to help the team see how to deliver the highest value without creating waste

Answer 298

Product backlog

Question 299

AGILE TEAM EXPLAINED SECTION

Question 300

What are two key features of agile teams?

Answer 300

Cross-functional and self-managing

Question 301

Team members may change as the project progresses

Answer 301

True

Question 302

What is the definition of colocation?

Answer 302

An organizational placement strategy where the project team members are physically located close to one another in order to improve communication, working, relationship nd productivity

Question 303

What does it mean when team are self-managing?

Answer 303

Team decides what work they are pulling into the print and decides on the right team members at the right time to complete it

Question 304

Agile teams focus on ____ product development so they can obtain ____

Answer 304

rapid, feedback

Question 305

What are the 5 attributes of successful agile teams?

Answer 305

• dedicated people
• cross functional
• colocation or ability to manage location challenges
• mixed team of generalists and specialists
• stable work env

Question 306

A servant leader’s role is to do whatever the team asks them

Answer 306

False

Question 307

SCRUM MASTER EXPLAINED SECTION

Question 308

How does the scrum master serve the team?

Answer 308

• improv team mgmt
• encourage cross-functionality
• keep team focused on increments that meet the definition of done
• facilitate impediment removal
• ensure agile/scrum events take place and are proper

Question 309

How does the scrum master serve the product owner?

Answer 309

• help find techniques for product goal and backlog mgmt
• help team understand the need for clear concise product backlog
• help improve the product planning process
• encourage stakeholder collaboration

Question 310

How does the scrum master serve the org?

Answer 310

• lead, train, coach in agile principles
• plan and advise on agile implementation
• help employees understand and apply empirical approach to work
• remove barriers between stakeholders and the scrum team

Question 311

A scrum master should ensure agile/scrum events take place and are proper. True or false?

Answer 311

True

Question 312

A scrum master facilitates betweenwhat 3 entities?

Answer 312

• team
• prodcut owner
• org

Question 313

AGILE ROLES 3 PERSPECTIVES SECTION

Question 314

What is the difference between an I shaped persona nd a T shaped person in terms of skills?

Answer 314

I: has depth of skill but not a lot of breadth
T: defined specialization but has the skills, versatility and aptitude to help other people when necessary

Question 315

A person who multitasks between 2 projects equally will give 50% effort on each project. True or false?

Answer 315

False

- due to the cost of task switching, they will end up giving 20%-40% on each project

Question 316

In an agile environment, the team is focused on the ___

Answer 316

Work

Question 317

In an agile environment, the product owner is focused on the overall ___ lifecycke

Answer 317

Product

Question 318

AGILE PROJECT CHARTER SECTION

Question 319

What is the purpose of an agile project charter?

Answer 319

To align the team to a common understanding

Question 320

What are the two types of charters in agiile?

Answer 320

Project charter and team charter

Question 321

In an agile project charter where does it answer the question of “why” we are doing this project?

Answer 321

Project vision

Question 322

What is the social contract of how the team will work together in accomplishment of the overall team goals?

Answer 322

Team charter

Question 323

What are the 4 components of a team charter?

Answer 323

• team values
• working agreements
• ground rules
• grou norms

Question 324

Meeting times and standards are an example of what component of the team charter?

Answer 324

group norms

Question 325

What are some examples of working agreements in a team charter?

Answer 325

What “ready” means

WIP standards

Question 326

Sustainable pace and core hours are examples of what component of a team charter?

Answer 326

Team values

Question 327

What is the project release criteria?

Answer 327

What being “done” looks like

Question 328

At minimum, an agile project charter answers the following 4 questions:

Answer 328

• Why we are doing this project? )vision)
• Who benefits and how? (vision / purpose)
• What does done mean for the project? (release criteria)
• How are we going to work together? (intended flow of work)

Question 329

PRODUCT BACKLOG PREP SECTION

Question 330

The product backlog is a static fully detailed list of all the high-level features that will be included in the product. True or false?

Answer 330

False

- list is how the owner sees it today

Question 331

User stories on the backlog need to be detailed enough for the team do do what?

Answer 331

Understand, estimate and complete them (through further convos)

Question 332

What is the product backlog?

Answer 332

An ordered list of high level features as the product owner sees it today in user story format
It is detailed enough for the team to understand, estimate and complete

Question 333

What is a product roadmap and who typically produces it?

Answer 333

The anticipated sequence of deliverable and is typically created by product owner

Question 334

What is the purpose of backlog refinement meetings?

Answer 334

To refine enough stories so that the team understand them and how they relate to each other

Question 335

From a high-level, explain how the scope is developed differently in an agile environment than in predictive

Answer 335

Agile: spends less time definitively defining the complete scope at the beginning of the project. It instead focuses on the plan and process for its ongoing discovery and refinement

Question 336

TEST PREP / RESEARCH

Question 337

USER STORIES SECTION

Question 338

What are the 3 C’s of a user story?

Answer 338

• card, conversation, confirmation

Question 339

What is a user story?

Answer 339

A brief description of deliverable value for a specific user. It is a promise for a convo to clarify details

Question 340

What is the “conversation” in regards to user stories?

Answer 340

The second C of user stories is the details that come out via discussion with the product owner, it helps to get a deeper understanding. It is used for the cards at the top of the product log

Question 341

When we are talking about acceptance criteria in user stories, which C are we talking about?

Answer 341

Confirmation

- expectations of “done” from product owner

Question 342

How are user stories structured?

Answer 342

As a ______ (user(who)), I want to be _____ (value(what)), so that I can _____ (reason(why))

Question 343

We take every user story as soon its created and we immediately add in depth details to fully understand and plan fo all the product requirements. True or false?

Answer 343

False
- we only get details with follow up questions when needed. Don’t want to waste time so focus on the user stories of highest value

Question 344

PRODUCT BACKLOG REFINEMENT SECTION

Question 345

Why do we rank and refine user stories during backlog refinement?

Answer 345

So that the most important work is visible and ready to work in the next iteration

Question 346

How do we evaluate each card in the backlog refinement?

Answer 346

Having focused discussion between the Product owner, team and SMEs to understand what the intention is, the potential challenges, the dependencies, and create an estimate in relation to the other cards

Question 347

Backlog refinement is continual. True or false?

Answer 347

True

- looking for of most value. ones with higher priority have more refinement

Question 348

What is the length of a backlog refinement meeting in and iteration based agile project?

Answer 348

2-3 hrs

Question 349

What do refinement discussion drive?

Answer 349

Understanding

Question 350

Where do we use the acceptance criteria in the refinement discussion?

Answer 350

Becomes the product owner’s script for the product demo/review

Question 351

SPRINT PLANNING AND BACKLOG SECTION

Question 352

What initiates the sprint?

Answer 352

Sprint planning, where we select the work to be performed in the sprint

Question 353

The product owner decides what work will be performed in the print. True or false?

Answer 353

False

- team and product owner

Question 354

How long is a sprint planning meeting for a two week sprint?

Answer 354

2 week iteration it would be a focused four hour time boxed meeting

Question 355

What is the key thing to discuss in a sprint planning meeting?

Answer 355

The most important backlog items and how they map to product goals

Question 356

What are the 3 main topics discussed in a sprint planning?

Answer 356

• why is this print valuable?
• what can be done in this sprint?
• how will chosen work get done?

Question 357

In iteration-based agile, when teams gave reduced capacity they only plan for work that meets that capacity. True or false?

Answer 357

True
- teams estimate what they can complete. They cannot be 100% sure what they can deliver since they don’t know the unexpected. Smaller stories allows team to see progress in the form of a finished product and they learn what they will be able to accomplish in the future

Question 358

DAILY STAND UPS SECTION

Question 359

A daily stand up is just a daily status meeting

Answer 359

False

-a synchronization meeting that helps work through flow and get our print goal

Question 360

What is the purpose of a daily stand up?

Answer 360

To commit to each other, uncover problems, and ensure work flows smoothly through the team

Question 361

A daily stand should be no longer than ___ minutes

Answer 361

15 min

Question 362

In an iteration-based agile daily stand up, what 3 questions does everyone answer in the round robin fashion?

Answer 362

• What did I complete since the last stand up?
• what am I planning to complete between now and the next stand up?
• What are my impediments (risks/problems)?

Question 363

Flow based agile has a different approach to stand up. Explain the difference between a daily stand up in flow vs iteration based agile

Answer 363

Flow: focuses on the team’s throughput. the team assesses the board from left to right

• what do we need to do to advance this piece of work?
• is anyone working on something that is not on the board?
• what do we need to finish as a team?
• are there any bottlenecks or blockers to the flow of work?

Question 364

KANBAN BOARD SECTION

Question 365

What is a Kanban board?

Answer 365

A visual board that helps make flow work

Question 366

Why would we use a Kanban board in agile projects?

Answer 366

To limit WIP (work in progress) to align processes and to highlight bottlenecks

Question 367

What are the 5 key elements of a kanban board?

Answer 367

Visual signals (user story cards), columns (make a workflow), commitment point, delivery point and WIP limits

Question 368

How is the kanban board used?

Answer 368

Visualization tool that enables improvements to the flow of work by making bottlenecks and work quantitatives visible

Question 369

DEMO/REVIEW SECTION

Question 370

When are demos/reviews held?

Answer 370

At the end of every sprint (or when needed if you are in flow based agile)

Question 371

Who attends the demo/review?

Answer 371

Scrum master, product owner, other stakeholders as needed

Question 372

The demo/review is really a chance for the team and stakeholders to inspect and adapt the product. True or false?

Answer 372

True

Question 373

As the team completes the features, usually in the form of user stories, the team periodically demonstrates the working product. The ____ sees the demonstration and accepts or declines the features/stories.

Answer 373

Product owner

Question 374

When does a demonstration happen in flow-based agile?

Answer 374

When time to do so and when enough features have been completed to give an understanding of the product

Question 375

As a general rule, demos should occur at least once every ____ weeks

Answer 375

2

Question 376

RETROSPECTIVE SECTION

Question 377

During which part of the sprint do we do the retrospective?

Answer 377

At the end of every sprint

Question 378

How long is the max time allowed for a retrospective in a two week sprint?

Answer 378

One and a half hours

Question 379

What is the goal of the retrospective?

Answer 379

Reflect on progress and improve- one-two improvements

Question 380

A retrospective is about figuring who is to blame for issues that occurred during the sprint. True or false?

Answer 380

False

- not blame, improvement

Question 381

Why is the retrospective the single most important agile project practice?

Answer 381

Allows the team to learn about, improve, and adapts its process

Question 382

Retrospectives help the team learn from its ____ work on the project

Answer 382

Previous

Question 383

What are the core values of XP?

Answer 383

XP’s foundational core values are communication, simplicity, feedback, courage and respect. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 102] (Domain: People, Task 3)

Question 384

MEASURING AGILE PROGRESS

Question 385

How is a burndown chart used to measure progress in agile?

Answer 385

A graphic representation of how quickly the team is working through the user stories visualizing the amount of story points remain

Question 386

How is a burnup chart used to measure progress in agile?

Answer 386

Graphic representation of how much work has been completed visualizing how many story points have been completed

Question 387

What is the difference between lead time and cycle time in flow-based agile?

Answer 387

LT: amount of time to complete an item, from the time it has added to the time it’s delivered
Cycle: time to process an item and only includes the time the item was actually being worked on. It does not include the time it was sitting to be worked on

Question 388

What is the term that refers to the time an item waits ready until it’s started in flow-based agile?

Answer 388

Response time

Question 389

Agile favors _______ and ______ measurements instead of predictive measurements

Answer 389

Empirical, value based

Question 390

Why are baselines not used in agile?

Answer 390

Team limits its estimation to the next few weeks, not completion of the project

Question 391

Define velocity in an iterative-based agile environment

Answer 391

Sum of story points sizes for features completed in an iteration

Question 392

What is a “reliable velocity” in an iterative based agile?

Answer 392

Avg stories or story points are able to be completed in an iteration. This allows the team to predict project length

Question 393

What chart can a team use to measure Earned Value (EV) in an agile environment?

Answer 393

Burn up chart where the left Y axis represents story points as scope and the right Y axis represents project spend

Question 394

How do you calculate the schedule performance index (SPI) in agile terms?

Answer 394

SP= completed features / planned features

For example, if a team planned to complete 50 story points in an iteration, but only completed 30, then the SPI is 30/50 or .6- this means that the team is only working at 60% of the rate planned

Question 395

How do you calculate cost performance index (CPI) in agile terms?

Answer 395

CPI- Earned value / actual costs (to date)

*EV= completed features to date

Question 396

AGILE PROCUREMENTS AND CONTRACTS

Question 397

Because the agile manifests value “customer collaboration over contract negotiation”. procurement should be collaborative process that pursues shared ______ relationship

Answer 397

Risk-reward

Question 398

Describe the following contracting technique that can formulate a shared risk reward relationship in an agile environment:
(multi-tiered structure)

Answer 398

• be more flexible
• document different elements of the project in different docs
• can have a master service agreement and then add on extra elements as the project progresses
• then can amend the schedule of services to meet your current needs
• use a SOW if need more formal ways of defining scope elements
  makes it easier to make changes and gives more options of how to work together

Question 399

Describe the following contracting technique that can formalize a shared risk reward relationship in an agile environment: emphasize value delivered

Answer 399

Contract payments are staggered based on the delivery of particular artifacts

Question 400

Describe the following contracting technique that can formulize a shared reward relationship in an agile environment:
fixed-price increments

Answer 400

Instead of nailing down entire budget and scope in a single agreement, scope is decomposed into smaller fixed price micro deliveries (such as user stories). This allows the customers to have control over how the money is spent. Suppliers benefit by not overcommitting to a single feature

Question 401

Describe the following contracting technique that can formulize in an agile relationship:
not to exceed time and materials

Answer 401

Overall budget is limited to a fixed amount. this allows the customer to implement new ideas and innovations within an already established capacity

Question 402

Describe the following contracting technique that can formulize a shared risk reward relationship in an agile environment:
graduated time and materials

Answer 402

The supplier may be rewarded with a higher hourly rate when delivery is earlier than the contracted deadline

Question 403

Describe the following contracting technique that can formulize a shared risk reward relationship in an agile environment:
early cancellation option

Answer 403

Customer can buy the remainder of the project for a cancellation fee. This way the customer limits how much of the budget is impacted and the supplier still can earn money for services no longer required

Question 404

Describe the following contracting technique that can formulize a shared risk reward relationship in an agile environment:
dynamic scope options

Answer 404

if the budget is fixed, a supplier may give the customer the option to change the project as a specific agreed upon points in the project

Question 405

Describe the following contracting technique that can formulize a shared risk reward relationship in an agile environment:
Team augmentation

Answer 405

Funding the team rather than a specific scope- this still gives the customer control over what should actually be done

Question 406

Describe the following contracting technique that can formulize a shared risk reward relationship in an agile environment:
Favor full-service suppliers

Answer 406

Choosing suppliers that can deliver full value rather than using a multisupplier strategy (eeach supplier only does one thing)

Question 407

PMP COURSE CARDS SECTION

Question 408

Value Delivery

Answer 408

There are components such as portfolios, projects, programs, and
operations to name a few that when used either individually or
collectively help create value for an organization to meet its strategic
goals and objectives

Question 409

Information Flow

Answer 409

The value delivery system is at its best when there is open and constant
flow of information and feedback that is being shared by the key
components within the system.

Question 410

Organizational Governance

Answer 410

is a structured approach to provide the
needed direction and control through the use of policies and processes
so that meet defined strategic and operational goals.
• Enforce legal, regulatory standards and compliance requirements
• Define operational, risk, and legal polices.

Question 411

Project Governance

Answer 411

is the framework, functions, and processes that give
the project the needed guidance and control to execute the activities
needed by the project to achieve the organizational, strategic, and
operational goals.
• Guiding and overseeing the project work by evaluating changes, issues and
risks
• Enforcement of polices, standards, and guidelines.

Question 412

Cost of Quality

Answer 412

Cost of quality (COQ) methodology, which identifies four categories of cost, is used to find the appropriate balance of investing in quality
prevention and appraisal to avoid defect or product failure.
• Prevention.
• Appraisal.
• Internal failure.
• External failure.

Question 413

Measurement Performance Domain

Answer 413

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with assessing project performance and taking appropriate actions to maintain acceptable performance.

Question 414

Effective Measures

Answer 414

KPIs (Key performance indicators): leading and lagging indicators
SMART: specific, meaningful/measurable/achievable/relevant, realistic, reasonable/timely,time bound

Question 415

What to measure?

Answer 415

deliverable metrics, delivery, baseline performance, resources, business value, stakeholders, forecasts

Question 416

Measurement Pitfalls

Answer 416

• Hawthorne effect. The Hawthorne Effect is used to describe a change in the behavior of an individual that results from their awareness of being observed..
• Vanity metric. The Vanity metric is a measure that shows data but does not provide any useful information for making a decision
• Demoralization. If goals are set that are not achievable team morale will fall as they continually fail to meet their targets.
• Misusing the metrics. One definition is that data that is misunderstood is then misused. Another is that data can be distorted to focus on the wrong thing.
• Confirmation bias. The tendency to search for, interpret, favor, and recall information in a way that confirms or supports one’s prior beliefs or values.
• Correlation versus causation. Correlation simply means that there is a statistical association or pattern between two variables, while causation not only implies a specific kind of relationship, known as
a cause-and-effect relationship. This means that a change in one variable is causing a change in the
other.

Question 417

Uncertainty Performance Domain

Answer 417

The Uncertainty Performance Domain addresses activities and functions associated with risk and uncertainty.

Question 418

Effective execution of this performance domain results in the
following desired outcomes:

Answer 418

An awareness of the environment in which projects occur, including, but not limited to, the technical, social, political, market, and economic environments.
Proactively exploring and responding to uncertainty.
An awareness of the interdependence of multiple variables on the project.
The capacity to anticipate threats and opportunities and understand the consequences of issues.
Project delivery with little or no negative impact from unforeseen events or conditions.
Opportunities are realized to improve project performance and outcomes.
Cost and schedule reserves are utilized effectively to maintain alignment with project objectives

Question 419

Risk Strategies

Answer 419

Threats/negatives: avoid, escalate. transfer, mitigate, accept

Opportunities/positives: exploit, escalate, share, enhance, accept

Risk Review: Establishing a constant cadence of review and feedback on risks be it in a daily stand up or weekly status meeting to ensure that the effort of risk management remains relevant to the current state of the project.

Question 420

Tailoring

Answer 420

is the deliberate adaptation of the project management approach, governance, and processes to make them more suitable for the given environment and the work at hand

The goal of tailoring is to increase the commitment of the team to the
project, be more focused on the needs of the customer and to be
efficient with the use of the project resources.

Question 421

Tailoring Steps

Answer 421

1. select approach
2. tailor for the org
3. tailor for the project
4. implement ongoing improvement

Question 422

Model

Answer 422

is a thinking strategy to explain a process, framework, or phenomenon.

Question 423

Method

Answer 423

is the means for achieving an outcome, output, result, or project deliverable.

Question 424

Artifact

Answer 424

can be a template, document, or project deliverable.

Question 425

Motivation Models

Answer 425

• Hygiene and Motivational Factors.
• Intrinsic vs Extrinsic Motivation.
  
  • Autonomy.
  • Mastery.
  • Purpose.
• Theory of Needs.
  
  • Achievement.
  • Power.
  • Affiliation.
• Theory X, Y and Z.

Question 426

Change Models

Answer 426

Managing Change in Organizations:
• Formulate change.
• Plan change.
• Implement change.
• Manage transition.
• Sustain change.

ADKAR Model:

1. Awareness.
2. Desire.
3. Knowledge.
4. Ability.
5. Reinforcement.

Kotter’s 8 Step Process for Leading 
Change:
1. Create urgency.
2. Form a powerful coalition.
3. Create a vision for change.
4. Communicate the vision.
5. Remove obstacles.
6. Create short-term wins.
7. Build on the change.
8. Anchor the changes in corporate 
culture.

Question 427

Change & Complexity Models

Answer 427

Virginia Satir Change Model:
• Late status quo.
• The foreign element.
• Chaos.
• The transforming idea.
• Practice and integration.
• New status quo.

Transition Model:
• Ending, losing and letting go.
• The neutral zone.
• The new beginning

Cynefin Framework.
• a problem-solving tool defined by 
cause-and-effect relationships in a 
variety of situations to categorize a 
problem or decision and respond 
accordingly

Stacey Matrix.
• designed to help understand the 
factors that contribute 
to complexity and choose the best 
management actions to address 
different degrees of complexity.

Question 428

Project Team Development Models

Answer 428

Tuckman Ladder
• Forming. 
• Storming. 
• Norming.
• Performing.
• Adjourning.

Drexler/Sibbet Team Performance Model

1. Orientation.
2. Trust building.
3. Goal clarification.
4. Commitment.
5. Implementation.
6. High performance.
7. Renewal.

Question 429

Conflict Models

Answer 429

• Confronting/problem solving.
• Collaborating.
• Compromising.
• Smoothing/accommodating.
• Forcing.
• Withdrawal/avoiding.

Question 430

Negotiation Models

Answer 430

• Win-win.
• Win-lose / Lose-win.
• Lose-lose.

Question 431

Process Groups Models

Answer 431

• Initiating.
• Planning.
• Executing.
• Monitoring and Controlling.
• Closing.

Question 432

Strategy Artifacts

Answer 432

• Business case.
• Business model canvas.
• Project brief.
• Project charter.
• Project vision statement.
• Roadmap.

Question 433

Logs & Registers Artifacts

Answer 433

• Assumption log.
• Backlog.
• Change log.
• Issue log.
• Lessons learned register.
• Risk-adjusted backlog.
• Risk register.
• Stakeholder register.

Question 434

Plans Artifacts

Answer 434

• Change control plan.
• Communication management plan.
• Cost management plan.
• Iteration plan.
• Procurement management plan.
• Project management plan.
• Quality management plan.
• Release plan.
• Requirements management plan.
• Resource management plan.
• Risk management plan.
• Scope management plan.
• Schedule management plan.
• Stakeholder management plan.
• Stakeholder engagement plan.
• Test plan.

Question 435

Hierarchy Charts Artifacts

Answer 435

• Organizational breakdown structure.
• Product breakdown structure.
• Resource breakdown structure.
• Risk breakdown structure.
• Work breakdown structure.

Question 436

Baseline Artifacts

Answer 436

• Budget.
• Milestone schedule.
• Performance measurement baseline.
• Project baseline.
• Scope baseline.

Question 437

Visual Data and Information Artifacts

Answer 437

• Affinity diagram.
• Burndown / burnup charts.
• Cause-and-effect diagram.
• Cumulative flow diagram (CFD).
• Cycle time chart.
• Dashboards.
• Flowchart.
• Gantt chart.
• Histogram.
• Information radiator.
• Lead time chart.
• Prioritization matrix.
• Project schedule network diagram.
• Requirements traceability matrix.
• Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
• Scatter diagram.
• S-curve.
• Stakeholder engagement assessment 
matrix
• Story map.
• Throughput chart.
• Use case.
• Value stream map.
• Velocity chart.

Question 438

Reports Artifacts

Answer 438

• Quality report.
• Risk report.
• Status report.

Question 439

Agreements and Contracts Artifacts

Answer 439

• Fixed-price contracts.
• Cost-reimbursable contracts.
• Time and materials (T&M).
• Indefinite delivery indefinite quantity (IDIQ)
• Memorandum of understanding
• Memorandum of agreement
• Service level agreement
• Basic ordering agreement

Question 440

Other Artifacts

Answer 440

• Activity list.
• Bid documents.
  
  • Request for information (RFI).
  • Request for quotation (RFQ).
  • Request for proposal (RFP).
• Metrics.
• Project calendar.
• Requirements documentation.
• Project team charter.
• User story.

Question 441

A System for Value Delivery

Answer 441

Creating Value. 
Organizational Governance Systems.
Functions Associated with Projects. 
Project Environment. 
Product Management Considerations.

Question 442

Functions Associated With Projects

Answer 442

Provide oversight and coordination.
Present objectives and feedback.
Facilitate and support.
Perform work and contribute insights. 
Apply expertise. 
Provide business direction and insight.
Provide resources and direction.
Maintain governance.

Question 443

Projects are influenced by both internal and external environments to varying degrees.

Answer 443

The influence can be positive, challenging, or neutral to the project objective, stakeholders, and team members

Question 444

Internal Environment

Answer 444

• Process assets.
• Governance documentation.
• Data assets.
• Knowledge assets.
• Security and safety.
• Organizational culture, structure, and governance.
• Geographic distribution of facilities and resources.
• Infrastructure.
• Information technology software.
• Resource availability.
• Employee capability.

Question 445

External Environment

Answer 445

• Marketplace conditions.
• Social and cultural influences and issues.
• Regulatory environment.
• Commercial databases.
• Academic research.
• Industry standards.
• Financial considerations.
• Physical environment.

Question 446

Product

Answer 446

Product is an artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item itself or a component item.

Question 447

Product management

Answer 447

Product management involves the integration of people, data, processes and business systems to create, maintain, and develop a product or service throughout its lifecycle.

Question 448

True or False: Product lifecycle is the same regardless of industry or product. Project lifecycle, on the other hand, can vary across both

Answer 448

True

Question 449

What are the 12 principles of project management which are in full alignment and complementary with the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?

Answer 449

1. Be a diligent, respectful, and caring steward.
2. Create a collaborative project team environment.
3. Effectively engage with stakeholders.
4. Focus on value.
5. Recognize, evaluate and respond to system interactions.
6. Demonstrate leadership behaviors.
7. Tailor based on context.
8. Build quality into processes and deliverables.
9. Navigate complexity.
10. Optimize risk response.
11. Embrace adaptability and resiliency.
12. Enable change to achieve the envisioned future state.

Question 450

One PM principles is Be a Diligent, Respectful, and Caring Steward. What is stewardship?

Answer 450

Stewards act responsibly to carry out activities with integrity, care, and trustworthiness while maintaining compliance with internal and external guidelines. They demonstrate a broad commitment to financial, social, and environmental impacts of the projects they support.

Question 451

One PM principles is Create a Collaborative Project Team Environment. What is a project team?

Answer 451

Project teams are made up of individuals who wield diverse skills, knowledge, and experience. Project teams that work collaboratively can accomplish a shared objective more effectively and efficiently than individuals working on their own.

Question 452

One PM principles is Effectively Engage with Stakeholders. What is need to effectively engage with a stakeholder?

Answer 452

The identification, analysis, prioritization, and engagement of stakeholders happens from start to end of the project to ensure success.

Engagement of stakeholders involves awareness of others and their perspectives, building and maintaining of relationships which relies on interpersonal skills.

The purpose of engagement of stakeholders helps project detect, collect, and evaluate information, data, and opinions.

Strong stakeholder engagement throughout the project increases positive impacts, performance, and outcomes for the project.

Question 453

One PM principles is Focus on Value. What is needed for this?

Answer 453

Continually evaluate and adjust project alignment to business objectives and intended benefits and value.

Question 454

One approach to initiate a project is to detail the intended value contribution of the project outcome in a business case. The business case should include the following elements:

Answer 454

Business need: provides the rationale for the project, explaining why the project is undertaken. reflected
in the project charter or other authorizing document. It provides details about the business goals and objectives

Project justification: connected to business need. It explains why the business need is worth the investment and why it should be addressed at this time. The project justification is accompanied by a cost-benefit analysis and assumptions

Business strategy. the reason for the project and all needs are related to the strategy to achieve the value

Question 455

One PM principles is Recognize, Evaluate, & Respond to System Interactions. What is needed for this?

Answer 455

Systems Thinking- Recognize, evaluate, and respond to the dynamic circumstances within and surrounding the project in a holistic way to positively affect project performance.

Question 456

One PM principles is Demonstrate Leadership Behaviors. What is needed for this?

Answer 456

Demonstrate and adapt leadership behaviors to support individual and team needs.

Question 457

One PM principles is Tailor Based on Context. What is needed for this?

Answer 457

Design the project development approach based on the context of the project, its objectives, stakeholders, governance, and the environment using “just enough” process to achieve the desired outcome while maximizing value, managing cost, and enhancing speed.

Question 458

What are some benefits of Tailoring?

Answer 458

Organization Benefits.
• Deeper commitment from project team members.
• Being more efficient with the use of project resources.

Positive Outcomes of Tailoring.
• Increased team efficiency, innovation and productivity.
• Continuous improvement of the organization’s practices, methods and methodolgy.
• Increased flexibility for the organization long-term.

Question 459

One PM principles is Build Quality into Processes and Deliverables. What is needed for this?

Answer 459

Maintain a focus on quality that produces deliverables that meet project objectives and align to the needs, uses, and acceptance requirements set forth by relevant stakeholders.

Question 460

What are the dimensions of quality?

Answer 460

Performance. 
Conformity. 
Reliability.
Resilience. 
Satisfaction. 
Uniformity.
Efficiency. 
Sustainability.

Question 461

One PM principles is Navigate Complexity. What is needed for this?

Answer 461

Continually evaluate and navigate project complexity so that approaches and plans enable the project team to successfully navigate the project life cycle.

Question 462

What are some Common Sources of Complexity?

Answer 462

HUMAN BEHAVIOR.
SYSTEM BEHAVIOR.
UNCERTAINTY AND AMBIGUITY.
TECHNOLOGICAL INNOVATION

Question 463

One PM principles is Optimize Risk Responses. What is needed for this?

Answer 463

Continually evaluate exposure to risk, both opportunities and threats, to maximize positive impacts and minimize negative impacts to the project and its outcomes.

Question 464

One PM principles is Embrace Adaptability and Resiliency. What is needed for this?

Answer 464

Build adaptability and resiliency into the organization’s and project team’s approaches to help the project accommodate change, recover from setbacks, and advance the work of the project.

Question 465

What are some Capabilities That Support Adaptability & Resilience

Answer 465

Tight feedback loops to adapt as needed.
Continuous improvement through inspection and adaptation of project work.
Transparent planning that engages both internal and external stakeholders.
Leverage new ways of thinking and working.
Act on learnings from past similar projects.

Question 466

One PM principles is Enable Change to Achieve the Envisioned Future State. What is needed for this?

Answer 466

Prepare those impacted for the adoption and sustainment of new and different behaviors and processes required for the transition from the current state to the intended future state created by the project outcomes.

Question 467

What are the 8 Project Performance Domains?

Answer 467

1. STAKEHOLDERS.
2. TEAM.
3. DEVELOPMENT APPROACH AND LIFE CYCLE.
4. PLANNING.
5. PROJECT WORK.
6. DELIVERY.
7. MEASUREMENT.
8. UNCERTAINTY.

Question 468

What are the 4 project life cycles?

Answer 468

• Predictive
• Iterative
• Incremental
• Agile

Question 469

Servant leaders approach projects in this order

Answer 469

Purpose, People, Process

Question 470

In agile, 3 different roles are used

Answer 470

Cross functional team member,
Product owner,
Team facilitator

Question 471

Definable vs. High Uncertainty Work

Answer 471

• Definable projects have clear and well understood procedures and
processes that have a proven track record of success on similar projects.
• High uncertainty projects have high rates of change, complexity, and risk.

Question 472

Agile Manifesto

Answer 472

• Individual and Interaction Over Process and Tools
• Working Product Over Comprehensive Documentation
• Customer Collaboration Over Contract Negotiation
• Responding to Change Over Following the Plan

Question 473

12 Agile Principles Behind Agile Manifesto

Answer 473

(insert screenshot)

Question 474

Uncertainty and Life Cycle Selection is derived from the Stacey Complexity Model. True or false?

Answer 474

True- insert screenshot

Question 475

Agile approaches and Agile methods / practices are umbrella terms that cover a variety and methods in the Agile guide. True or false?

Answer 475

True

Question 476

Role of project manager in Agile

Answer 476

• With an Agile project the role is somewhat of an unknown as most frameworks do not address the role.
• Project managers shift from being the center to serving the team and management.
• We are servant leaders, changing the focus to coaching people, fostering greater collaboration on the team and keep aligning the needs of stakeholders.

Question 477

Characteristics of predictive life cycle

Answer 477

• Take advantage of high certainty around requirements, a stable team, and low risk.
• The team requires detailed plans to know what to deliver and when.
• Team leaders try to minimize change.

Question 478

Characteristics of iterative life cycle

Answer 478

• Improve the product or result through successive prototypes or proofs of concepts which provides new stakeholder feedback.
• Teams may use timeboxing on a given iteration.
• Benefits projects when complexity is high, have frequent changes, or when the scope is subject to differing stakeholder views.

Question 479

Characteristics of incremental life cycle

Answer 479

• Optimize work for delivering value to sponsors or customers more often than a single final product.
• Teams plan initial deliverables before beginning their work.
• The degree of change and variation is less important than ensuring customers get value as soon as possible.

Question 480

Characteristics of agile life cycle

Answer 480

• Team expects requirements to change.
• Iterative and Incremental approaches provide feedback to better plan the next project.
• Incremental uncovers hidden or misunderstood requirements.
• Agile life cycles fulfill the principals of the Agile Manifesto.

Question 481

What is the scrum framework?

Answer 481

• Single team process framework used to manage product development.
• Framework consists of Scrum roles, events, artifacts, and rules, and uses an iterative approach to deliver working product.
• Based on concepts on industrial process theory
• Self organization
• Emergence - progressive elaboration - change
as we learn

Question 482

What are sprints and iterations?

Answer 482

Slotted time in scrum framework

Question 483

What are the Agile roles?

Answer 483

Agile Team(s), Product Owner, Scrum Master (Servant Leader)

Question 484

What is the product owner in Agile?

Answer 484

• The Product Owner is also accountable for
effective Product Backlog management,
which includes:
• Developing and explicitly communicating the Product Goal and Business Value;
• Creating and clearly communicating Product Backlog items;
• Ordering Product Backlog items based on the business value communicated
by stakeholders; and,
• Ensuring that the Product Backlog is
transparent, visible and understood.
• For Product Owners to succeed, the entire
organization must respect their decisions.
• The Product Owner is one person, not a
committee.

Question 485

What is the scrum master in Agile?

Answer 485

• The Scrum Master serves the Scrum Team in several ways, including:
• Coaching the team members in self-management and cross functionality;
• Helping the Scrum Team focus on
creating high-value Increments that meet the Definition of Done;
• Causing the removal of
impediments to the Scrum Team’s progress; and,
• Ensuring that all Scrum events take place and are positive, productive, and kept within the timebox.

Question 486

What are themes?

Answer 486

are long-term strategic objectives with a broader scope.
• They provide context for decision-making and help navigate the product strategy within the organization.
• Agile themes sit on top of the work breakdown hierarchy and drive the

Question 487

What are epics?

Answer 487

are collections of tasks or user stories.
• Epics break down development work into shippable components while keeping the daily work connected to the larger theme.
• Epics are more specific than themes and can be measured so that PMs can observe their contribution to the organization’s overall goal.

Question 488

What are user stories?

Answer 488

are the smallest piece of work in the agile framework.
• A user story is a brief explanation of a product feature written from the end user’s perspective that articulates how the user will experience value.
• Some organizations may classify larger user stories (stories that can’t be delivered within a single sprint) as epics.
• Alternatively, larger stories could be broken down into sub-tasks.

Consist of role, goal, benefit

Question 489

What is Scrum – Product Backlog?

Answer 489

• Prioritized list of items to be delivered
• Relatively independent of each other
• Items = User Stories
• Backlog may be reprioritized at any time
• New requirements are prioritized by your project stakeholders and added to the stack
• Product Owner (PO) is responsible for representing all stakeholders - One voice for the team

Question 490

What is Scrum – Release Planning?

Answer 490

Release Planning Meeting
• Team, Scum Master, Product Owner get together to review Vision and Backlog
• Break backlog down to the user stories
• No user story is larger than a sprit -must be broken-down
• Need to determine how long a Sprint will be

Question 491

What is Scrum – Daily Scrum?

Answer 491

• 10 to 15 minute for the team to
report to the team
• Focus on answering the key questions
• What did we get accomplished yesterday?
• What are we going to get done today?
• Do you have any blockers?
• Held same time every day - never gets skipped
• Stand up to update Team Board -Visual artifact
• Scrum Master is the facilitator of meeting

Question 492

What is Scrum – Retrospective?

Answer 492

Key meeting results:
• Discussing what worked in the current sprint.
• Identifying challenge areas.
• Suggesting process improvements.
• Establishing best practices to be implemented in the next sprint.

Question 493

What is a Sprint Review?

Answer 493

• Attendees include the Scrum Team and key stakeholders invited by the Product Owner;
• The Developers demonstrate the work that it has “Done” and answers questions about the Increment;
• The Product Owner discusses the Product Backlog as it stands. He or she projects likely target and delivery dates based on progress to date (if needed);
• The entire group collaborates on what to do next, so that the Sprint Review provides valuable input to
subsequent Sprint Planning;
• The result of the Sprint Review is a revised Product Backlog that defines the probable Product Backlog items for the next Sprint.

Question 494

What are the Agile estimating techniques?

Answer 494

Story Point, Planning Poker, Buckets Theory, Dot Voting, T-shirt Size Method

Question 495

What is a story point?

Answer 495

Story points are a unit of measure for expressing an estimate of the overall effort that will be required to fully implement a product backlog item or any other piece of work.
• When we estimate with story points, we assign a point value to each item.
• The raw values we assign are unimportant. What matters are the relative values.
• A story that is assigned a 2 should be twice as much as a story that is assigned a 1. It should also be two-thirds of a story that is estimated as 3 story points.
• Because story points represent the effort to develop a story, a team’s estimate must
include everything that can affect the effort. That could include:
• The amount of work to do
• The complexity of the work
• Any risk or uncertainty in doing the work

Question 496

What is planning poker?

Answer 496

Planning poker is an agile estimation technique that makes use of story points to estimate the difficulty of the task at hand.
• It is based on the Fibonacci sequence; the story point values that can be assigned either following the Fibonacci or a modified Febonacci numbering sequence.
• Each of these represent a different level of complexity for the overall project.

Question 497

What is buckets theory?

Answer 497

Similar to planning poker, the bucket technique aims for consensus through discussion, and by assigning
values to each task.
• This method relies on placing different values on a table. We call the placements ‘buckets’, but you can just use cards. The values are generally
0,1,2,3,4,5,8,13,20,30,50,100 and 200
• Discussion is key to make sure everyone agrees before the final estimates are set.

Question 498

What is dot voting?

Answer 498

• This one is fairly simple: each person gets a number of dots and uses them to vote on which projects are big and small.
• More dots mean more time and effort is required. Fewer dots indicate a fairly straightforward and quick item.

Question 499

What is the T-shirt Size Method?

Answer 499

• The items are estimated in standard tshirt sizes (i.e., XS, S, M, L, and XL).
• It can give a quick and rough estimate for how much work is expected for a project. The sizes can be converted into numbers at a later stage – when the team assigns a relative size to the project on hand.
• If estimators propose sizes that do not match up, then the team voices their opinions on the topic and must eventually reach a consensus.
• This is a pretty informal method that is great to use for a large number of items.

Question 500

What are some agile information radiators?

Answer 500

Task board, Product and Sprint Backlog, Backlog Grooming, Burndown & Burnup Charts, Velocity

Question 501

What is velocity?

Answer 501

• At the end of each iteration, the team adds up
effort estimates associated with user stories that were completed during that iteration. This total is called velocity.
• Knowing velocity, the team can compute (or revise) an estimate of how long the project will take to complete, based on the estimates associated
with remaining user stories and assuming that velocity over the remaining iterations will remain approximately the same.

Question 502

What is disciplined agile?

Answer 502

• Disciplined Agile — a tool kit that harnesses hundreds of Agile practices to guide you to the best way of working for your team or organization. More of a hybrid approach
• The Disciplined Agile (DA) tool kit provides straightforward guidance to help organizations streamline their processes in a context-sensitive
manner, providing a solid foundation for business
agility.

Question 503

What is extreme programming- XP?

Answer 503

Extreme programming (XP) is a software development methodology intended to improve software quality and responsiveness to changing customer requirements. As a type of agile software development,[1][2][3] it advocates frequent releases in short development cycles, intended to improve productivity and introduce checkpoints at which new customer requirements can be adopted.

Question 504

What is Kanban?

Answer 504

• Kanban is a lean method to manage work.
• This approach aims to manage work by balancing demands with available capacity, and by
improving the handling of systemlevel bottlenecks.
• Work items are visualized to give participants a view of progress and process, from start to finish.
• Work is pulled as capacity permits, rather than work being pushed into the process when requested.

Question 505

What is needed to assemble a project team?

Answer 505

• estimate, aquire and manage teams of people as well as human resources required outside of the team

Question 506

What is a stakeholder?

Answer 506

An individual group or org that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, programs, or portfolio

Question 507

What is a stakeholder register?

Answer 507

a list of individuals or orgs who are actively involved in the project, whose interests may be negatively or positively affected by the performance or completion of the project and whose needs or expectations need to be considered

Question 508

What is a resource management plan?

Answer 508

Project doc that identifies resources and how to acquire, allocate, monitor and control them

Contains:
Role/responsibilities: Defines roles, authority, responsibility, competence

whats in the plan: project org chart, resource mgmt, training strategies, team devt methods, resource controls, recognition plan

Question 509

What is a RACI chart?

Answer 509

A common type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Responsible, Accountable, Consulted and Informed statuses define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities- outlaid in table with R A C or I assigning to roles and tasks

Question 510

What is a team skills appraisal?

Answer 510

Enable the team to holistically identify its strengths and weaknesses, assess opportunities for improvement, build trust, and establish effective communication

Question 511

What are the pre-assignment tools?

Answer 511

Helps assess candidates before assigning and confirming team roles

Attitudinal surveys, specific assessments, structured interviews, ability tests, focus groups

Question 512

What is a team charter?

Answer 512

A document that enables the team to establish its values, agreements, and its practices as it performs its work together

Question 513

A team charter includes:

Answer 513

shared values, guidelines for communication, decision making guidelines, conflict resolution measures, meeting time/frequency and channel

Question 514

What are ground rules?

Answer 514

clear expectations regarding the code of conduct for team members

Question 515

What is conflict managment?

Answer 515

Apply strategies or resolutions methods to deal with disagreements

Question 516

What are some conflict management approaches?

Answer 516

Withdrawal/avoid:
smooth/accommodate:
compromise/reconcile:
force/direct:
collaborate/problem solve:

Question 517

Project agreement objectives

Answer 517

Reporting and verification criteria for objectives are an important part of the project agreement. the project mat also specify a Definition of Done

Traditional: identify each deliverable and objective acceptance criteria for each

Agile: deliverable will vary as the product backlog is added to, reprioritized and so forth

Question 518

What is an agile negotiation strategy?

Answer 518

Exact deliverables will vary as the customer modifies, adds, and reprioritizes items in the product backlog

Question 519

What is an traditional negotiation strategy?

Answer 519

An important objective clearly designates the project’s intended deliverables and how they will be measured and compensated

Question 520

Prioritization techniques to determine objectives

Answer 520

Can include: review product backlog, kano model, MoSCoW (MSCW) analysis, paired comparison analysis, 100 points method

Question 521

Resource calendars

Answer 521

Identify working days, shisfts and when specific resources are made available to the project

Question 522

Lessons learned register

Answer 522

A project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so that it can be used in the current project and entered in the lessons learned repository

Question 523

Special intervals when projects may require scheduled down time for various reasons

Answer 523

Examples:
Black out times when deliverables are handed over for implementation
Go Live- occurs at end of project timeline
Agile- uses iterations or numerous releases of aspects of the solution over the projects timeline

Question 524

What are the methods to reach consensus?

Answer 524

Fist of five: closed fist disagreement, fist of 5 complete agreement
Roman voting: thumbs up or down (sometimes sideways for neutral)
Polling: hear opinions then vote
Dot voting: distribute dots equally, then each person allocates dots according to highest preference

Question 525

What is consensus?

Answer 525

A collaborative process to reach a decision that everyone can support

Question 526

What is the formula for 3 point estimating?

Answer 526

Asks the estimators to provide most likely (tM); optimistic (tO); and pessimistic (tP) estimates then divide by 3

tE= (tO + tM + tP) / 3

time estimated= (optimistic + most likely + pessimistic) / 3

Question 527

Should you avoid using absolute time estimates in an agile approach?

Answer 527

Yes, Story Point techniques uses points, NOT time units, to estimate the difficulty of implmenting a user story. It’s an abstract measure of effort required to implment work

Question 528

What’s another term for standard deviation?

Answer 528

One sigma

Question 529

What is retrospective?

Answer 529

• A regular check on the effectiveness of quality processes
• look for the root cause of issues then suggest trials of new approaches to improve quality
• evaluate any trial processes to determine if they are working and should be continued, need adjusting or discontinued

Question 530

What are the 5 phases of retrospective?

Answer 530

1. set the stage
2. gather and share data
3. generate insights
4. make decisions
5. close

Question 531

What are T shaped skills?

Answer 531

measured off of breadth of knowledge and depth of knowledge

T- Generalist
I- Specialist

Question 532

What is the project vision?

Answer 532

A clear vision of the desired objectives and how it aligns with the orgs strategic goals. Might include:

• key desired objectives
• key features/benefis
• differentiators

Question 533

Formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

Answer 533

Project charter

Question 534

What are the project charter contents?

Answer 534

• Assigned PM and responsibility / authority level
• name and authority of project sponsor
• requirements, objectives, risk, etc

Question 535

What is the project overview statement?

Answer 535

Communicates enterprise -wide the intent and vision of the project

• written with brevity and clarity
• captures objective, problem of oppty, criteria for success

Question 536

What does the kickoff meeting consist of?

Answer 536

Meeting goals:
- establish project context, assist in team formation, ensure team alignment to the overall project vision

Activities:
- define vision statement, estimation of effort, prioritization, product backlog

Question 537

What is iteration planning?

Answer 537

A collaborative agile ceremony, sometimes called sprint planning, for the team and the customer to:

• review the highest prioritized user stories or key outcomes
• ask questions
• agree on forecasts for story completion in the current iteration

Question 538

What are some Agile Ceremonies?

Answer 538

Scrum
Sprint planning meeting
Sprint
Daily standups
Sprint review
Print retrospective

Question 539

what are sprint boards?

Answer 539

help to visualize work and enable the team and stakeholders to track progress as work is performed

promote visibility and maximize efficiency and accountability

Question 540

What is a product box collaboration game?

Answer 540

Techniques used to explain an overarching solution. Helps to understand:

• different types of users of a solution
• their priorities and likes/dislikes
• key aspects of a solution that drive the most critical value aspects

Question 541

What is a business case?

Answer 541

• documented economic feasibility
• establishes benefits of project components
• provide a basis for authorization of further project activities

Question 542

Business needs document contain

Answer 542

• provide high-level deliverables
• prerequisite of formal business cases
• describe requirements- what needs creating and or performing

Question 543

Project implementation plan

Answer 543

• consider all stakeholders, schedules, risks, budgets, quality standards
• identify deliverables- due at end of project
• identify project outputs- delivered throughout the project

Question 544

Rolling wave plan

Answer 544

an iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work further in the the future is planned at a higher level

Question 545

Rolling wave planning is

Answer 545

• used in agile or predictive approaches
• a form of progressive elaboration applied to work packages, planning packages, and release planning
• decompose work down to the known level of detail during strategic planning
• decompose work packages into activities as work progresses

Question 546

Progressive elaboration

Answer 546

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project mgmt plan as greater amounts of info and more accurate estimates become available

Question 547

What is the agile PM methodology?

Answer 547

• team works collaboratively with the customer to determine the project needs
• the coordination of the customer and the team drives the project

Question 548

What is the predictive / plan driven PM methodology?

Answer 548

• project needs, requirements and constraints are understood and plans are developed accordingly
• plans drive the project forward

Question 549

What is the hybrid driven PM methodology?

Answer 549

• combines strategies from the agile or predictive as required
• can switch approaches based on need, changing work requirements or circumstances

Question 550

Insert details on life cycles

Question 551

Scope management plan is..

Answer 551

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled and validated

Question 552

Scope management plan contains..

Answer 552

• should include processes to prepare a project scope requirement
• enables the creation of WBS from the detailed project scope statement
• establishes how the scope baseline will be approved and maintained
• specifies how formal acceptance of the completed project deliverable will be obtained
• can be formal or informal, broadly framed or highly detailed

Question 553

What are the scope management tools and techniques

Answer 553

• expert judgement
• alternative analysis
• meetings

Question 554

Project requirements

Answer 554

The actions, processed, or other conditions the project needs to meet e.g. milestone dates, contractual obligations, contraints, etc.

Question 555

Product requirements

Answer 555

The agreed upon conditions or capabilities of a product, service, or outcome that the project is designed to satisfy

Question 556

Project scope

Answer 556

The work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions

Question 557

Product scope

Answer 557

The features and functions that characterize a product, service or result

Question 558

Project and product scope contain..

Answer 558

• Predictive: the scope baseline for the project is the approved version of the project scope statement, WBS, and associated WBS dictionary
• Agile-Backlogs: including product requirements and user stories, reflect current project needs
• Measure completion of project scope against the project mgmt plan
• measure completion of the product scope against product requirements

Question 559

Risk Tolerances…

Answer 559

Risk Appetite is the degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward. In other words, Risk Appetite is the amount of risk that an organization is prepared to pursue

Risk tolerance indicates the sensitivity of an organization to risks. Critical projects force organizations to take more risks than uncritical projects.

Risk Threshold is “The level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and below which risks may be accepted.”

Question 560

Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)

Answer 560

Conditions (internal or external) not under the control of the project team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project at organizational, portfolio, program or project level

Question 561

Organizational process assets (OPAs)

Answer 561

Plans, processes, policies, procedures and knowledge bases specific to and used by the performing org. these assets influence the mgmt of the project

Question 562

EEFs and OPAs..

Answer 562

• projects exist and operate in environments that may influence them, favorably or unfavorably
• are two major categories of project influences

Question 563

What are some internal and external Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)

Answer 563

include all policies, practices, procedures, and legislation that exist both inside and outside of the organization that will impact the way you manage a project.

This ranges from environmental, anti-discrimination, and occupational health and safety legislation to the choice of the project management system used by the organization, its personnel management policies, and PMI’s Code of Ethics. Some elements of the EEF are mandatory, while others represent good practice or cultural norms.

Question 564

What are some assets for Organizational process assets (OPAs)

Answer 564

OPAs comprise of information, tools, documents, or knowledge that your organization possesses. Assets are a useful or valuable thing, person, or quality. These assets, along with your PMP®, will assist the Project Manager to meet the project objectives and endeavors.

OPAs are broken into categories of processes, procedures, and corporate knowledge. Some examples of OPAs are:

Previous Project Plans
Software Tools
Database of Project Information
Lessons Learned
Knowledge Base
Organizational policies and procedures
Historical Information
Project Templates

Question 565

Document analysis

Answer 565

Technique used to gain project requirements from current documentation evaluation

Question 566

Focus groups

Answer 566

An elicitation technique that brings together prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result

Question 567

Questionnaires and surveys

Question 568

Benchmarking

Answer 568

Comparison of actual or planned products, processed, and practices to those of comparable orgs to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis for measuring performance

Question 569

Benefits of benchmarking

Answer 569

• Evaluates and compares a business or project’s practices with others
• Identifies best practices in order to meet or exceed them

Question 570

Interviews

Answer 570

A formal or informal approach to elicit info from stakeholders by talking with them directly

Question 571

Benefits of interviews

Answer 571

• Helps to identify a stakeholder’s reqs, goals, or expectations for a project
• use to identify/define features and functions of desired projects deliverables

Question 572

What are some group decision making techniques?

Answer 572

Voting:
Autocratic decision making:
Multicriteria decision analysis:

Question 573

Types of voting

Answer 573

Unanimity:
Majority:
Plurality:
Agile methods:

Question 574

What are 2 types of data representation?

Answer 574

Mind Mapping

Affinity Diagram

Question 575

What does mind mapping do for data representation?

Answer 575

Consolidates ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate ideas

Question 576

What does an affinity diagram do for data representation?

Answer 576

Allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis

Question 577

Observations

Answer 577

A technique used to gain knowledge of a specific job role, task, or function in order to understand and determine project reqs

Question 578

Facilitated workshops

Answer 578

Organized working sessions led by qualified facilitators to determine project requirements and to get all stakeholders together to agree on project outcomes

Question 579

Context diagrams

Answer 579

Visual depiction of product scope, showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.) and how people and other systems interact with it

Question 580

Storyboarding

Answer 580

a prototyping method using visuals or images to illustrate a process or represent a project outcome

Question 581

Prototyping

Answer 581

Assists in the process of obtaining early feedback on reqs by providing a working model of the expected product before building

Question 582

Requirements documentation

Answer 582

• describes how individual reqs meet prject business needs

Question 583

Types of requirements

Answer 583

• business
• stakeholder
• transition and readiness
• quality
• project
• solutions (functional and non-functional)

Question 584

What are 4 types of nonfunctional requirements?

Answer 584

• availability
• capacity
• continuity
• security

Question 585

Requirements management plan

Answer 585

A component of the project or program mgmt plan that describes how requirements will be analyzed documented and managed

Question 586

Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM)

Answer 586

Links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them

Question 587

What is involved in collecting project requirements?

Answer 587

Review

• scope mgmt plan
• reqs mgmt plan
• stakeholder engagement plan
• project charter
• stakeholder register

Question 588

Project scope statement

Answer 588

The description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions and constraints

Question 589

What are some scope tools and techniques?

Answer 589

• Expert judgement:
• Facilitation:
• Product analysis:
• Multi criteria decision analysis
• Alternatives analysis

Question 590

Product Analysis

Answer 590

Tool to define scope by asking questions about a product and forming answers to describe the use, characteristics and other relevant aspects of the product

Question 591

Product analysis consists of..

Answer 591

Product breakdown:
Requirement analysis:
Value analysis:
Value engineering:
Systems engineering: 
Systems analysis:

Question 592

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer 592

A hierarchical decomposition of a project’s total scope of work to accomplish project objectives and create the required deliverables

Question 593

Code of accounts

Answer 593

Numbering system that uniquely identifies each component of WBS

Question 594

WBS dictionary

Answer 594

Provides detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling info about each component in the WBS

Question 595

Decomposition

Answer 595

A technique of dividing and subdividing the project scope and deliverables into smaller more manageable parts

Question 596

Control account

Answer 596

A mgmt control point where scope, budget, actual cost and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement

Question 597

Planning package

Answer 597

A WBS component below with the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities

Question 598

Work package

Answer 598

the work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration are estimated and managed

Question 599

Scope baseline

Answer 599

Approved version of a scope statement, WBS and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changes using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results

Question 600

Scope baseline components include

Answer 600

Project scope statement, WBS, work packages, planning packages, WBS dictionary

Question 601

Product backlog

Answer 601

A list of the expected work to deliver the product

Question 602

Iteration backlog

Answer 602

include items from the prodcut backlog that can conceivably be completed within the time period based on the team’s capability

Question 603

User stories

Answer 603

Short descriptions of required functionality; told from user’s POV

Question 604

User stories do what?

Answer 604

• Help teams fopcus on that value provided to the user
• suggest who will benefit from the work and how
• driven by description instead of technical specifications to give holistic view

Question 605

Tools and techniques for verifying scope are..

Answer 605

• Definition of done
• Definition of ready
• Acceptance criteria
• Iteration reviews
• Variance analysis
• Trend analysis

Question 606

Definition of done

Answer 606

checklist of required critera for a deliverable to be considered ready for customer use

Question 607

Definition of ready

Answer 607

checklist for a user-centric requirement with all required info to begin work

Question 608

Acceptance criteria

Answer 608

a set of conditions to meet before acceptance of deliverables

Question 609

Iteration reviews

Answer 609

interval at or near the conclusion of a timeboxed iteration when the project team shares and demonstrates the work produced during the iteration with stakeholders

Question 610

Variance analysis

Answer 610

technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance

Question 611

Trend analysis

Answer 611

an analytical technique that uses the mathematical models to forecast future outcomes based on historical results

Question 612

Schedule management plan

Answer 612

A component of the project or program mgmt plan that establishes the criteria and activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule

Question 613

Benefits of schedule management plan are

Answer 613

• describes how activities will be defined and elaborated
• identifies a scheduling method and scheduling tool to be used
• determines the format of the schedule
• establishes criteria for developing and controlling the project schedule

Question 614

Components of the schedule management plan

Answer 614

• accuracy of activity duration estimates
• project schedule model used
• organizational procedure links used with the WBS
• units of measure to be used
• rules of performance measurements to be used
• process descriptions to explain how schedule mgmt processes are to be documented throughout project
• reporting formats to be used
• control thresholds to be used for monitoring schedule performance

Question 615

Iterative scheduling with backlog benefits

Answer 615

• delivers business value early and incrementally
• allow changes during the entire project
• does not work well with projects featuring complex dependency relationships

Question 616

Iterative scheduling with backlog process

Answer 616

• use progressive elaboration (rolling wave) to schedule activities
• use a specific time window
• define reqs in user stories
• prioritize stores
• select based on priority and time box
• add remaining stories to backlog
• construct later based on their priority

Question 617

On demand scheduling

Answer 617

• does not use traditional schedules
• team members “pull” work from a queue when available
  based on Kanban and lean methodologies
• provides incremental business value
• levels out work of team members
• works best when activities can be divided into equal amounts
• does not work well with projects comprised of complex dependency relationships

Question 618

Project activity

Answer 618

a distinct, schedule portion of work performed during a project

Question 619

A work package is the lowest level of the WBS. True or false?

Answer 619

True

Question 620

A task refers to the project mgmt software. True or false?

Answer 620

True

Question 621

Feature

Answer 621

a set of related requirements that allows the user to satisfy a business objective or need

Question 622

Epic

Answer 622

a very large collection of user stories. Epics can be spread across many sprints

Question 623

Benefits of working with features

Answer 623

• scheduling aligned to features ensure associated work is coordinated
• estimating features offers visibility to when blocks of functionality can be released to the business and end users
• progress can be measured by drawing a ration of accepted to remaining features

Question 624

Milestones

Answer 624

a significant point or event in a project, program or portfolio

Question 625

Milestone chart

Answer 625

• provides the summary level view of project milestones
• uses icons or symbols
• useful for upper mgmt who only require an overview

Question 626

Activity Dependency

Answer 626

a logical relationship that exists between two project activities
determine the precedence relationships

Question 627

Types of activity dependencies

Answer 627

• Mandatory
• Discretionary
• External
• Internal

Question 628

Mandatory activity dependency

Answer 628

a relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work

Question 629

Discretionary activity dependency

Answer 629

a relationship that is established based on knowledge of best practices with a particular application area or an aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired

Question 630

External activity dependency

Answer 630

a relationship between activities and non-project activities

Question 631

Internal activity dependency

Answer 631

contingent on inputs within the project team’s control

Question 632

Precedence Relationship

Answer 632

• express a logical dependency in precedence diagramming methods
• it is a logical relationship between activities that describes what the activity sequence should look like
• always assigned to activities bases on the dependencies of each activity: predecessor activity drives the relationship, successor activity is driven by the relationship

Question 633

Activity Duration Estimates Types

Answer 633

• Activity duration
• Elapsed time
• Effort

Question 634

Activity duration estimate

Answer 634

The quantitative assessment of the likely numver of time periods that are required to complete an activity

Question 635

Elapsed time

Answer 635

The actual calendar time required for an activity from start to finish

Question 636

Effort estimate

Answer 636

The number of labor units required to complete a scheduled activity or WBS component, often expressed n hours, days, or weeks. Contrast with duration

Question 637

Gantt Chart

Answer 637

A bar chart of schedule inof where activities are listed on the vertical axis, dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and the activity durations are shown as horizontal bars placed accordingl to start and finsih dates

Question 638

Gantt chart useful for

Answer 638

• start and end dates, duration and order
• precedence relationships
• % completion and actual progress
• presentation of project status to team and mgmt

Question 639

Critical path method

Answer 639

Estimates the minimum project duration and determines the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network paths with the schedule model

Question 640

critical path activity

Answer 640

Any activity on the critical path in a project schedule

Question 641

Use the critical path method..

Answer 641

• sequence activities to represent the longest path through the project
• goal is to determine the shortest possible project duration
• use early start (ES); early finish (EF); late start (LS); and late finish (LF) dates for all activities
• Do not factor in resource limitation

Question 642

Forward path math always takes the highest # / input

Answer 642

True

Question 643

Backwards path math always takes the smallest number

Answer 643

True

Question 644

Features and epics

Answer 644

• usually described as short phase

- includes activities and efforts such as documentation, bug fixes, testing, and quality/defect repairs

Question 645

Milestone list

Answer 645

identifies all project milestones and indicates whether the milestone is mandatory, such as those are optional or required by contract

Question 646

What are the different types of float?

Answer 646

• Float
• Total Float
• Free Float

Question 647

What is float?

Answer 647

The amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early date without delaying the project finish date or consecutive activities

Question 648

What is total float?

Answer 648

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint

Question 649

What is free float?

Answer 649

The amount of time that a scheduled activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any successor or violating a schedule constraint

Question 650

What is agile release planning?

Answer 650

High-level timeline of the release schedule based on product roadmap and vision for the product’s evolution

Question 651

What does agile release planning do?

Answer 651

• Determines the number of iterations or sprints in the release
• Allows product owner and team to decide how much needs to be developed and how long it will take to have a releasable product

Question 652

Ongoing progress based on traditional methodology

Answer 652

Measure progress according to schedule by:

• Monitoring project status to update the schedule
• Managing changes to schedule baseline

Question 653

Ongoing progress based on agile methodology

Answer 653

Evaluate progress by:

• Comparing the total amount of work delivered and accepted to the amount estimated for the current time period
• Reviewing work in regular spring demos
• Conducting scheduled reviews to record lessons learned (or retrospectives)
• Determine the rate at which deliverables are produced, validated and accepted

Question 654

Smoothing techniques

Answer 654

• Adjusts the activities of a schedule model to keep resource reqs within the predefined resource limits and within free and total floats
• Does not change the critical path or delay the completion date
• May not optimized all resources

Question 655

Levelling techniques

Answer 655

• Adjusts start and finish dates based on resource constraints
• Goal is to balance demand for resources with available supply
• Use when shared or critically required resources have limited availability or are overallocated
• Can change the critical path

Question 656

Levelling and Smoothing techniques help

Answer 656

use resource optimization to adjust the start and finish dates

Question 657

What are some schedule compression techniques?

Answer 657

• Crashing

- Fast-tracking

Question 658

Cost estimates

Answer 658

• Develop an approximation of the cost for each activity in project
• Use logical estimates to provide a basis for making sound decisions and they establish baselines

Question 659

What are some cost / estimating techniques?

Answer 659

• Analogous estimating
• Parametric estimating
• Bottom up estimating

Question 660

What are some advantages and disadvantages for analogous estimating?

Answer 660

Adv: can ensure no work is inadvertently omitted from work estimates
Dis: can sometimes be difficult for lower-level managers to apportion cost estimates

Question 661

What are some advantages and disadvantages for parametric estimating?

Answer 661

Adv: is not time consuming
Dis: may be inaccurate depending on the integrity of the historical info

Question 662

What are some advantages and disadvantages for bottom-up estimating?

Answer 662

Adv: is very accurate and gives lower-level mgrs for responsibility
Dis: may be very time consuming. Can be used only after the WBS has been well-defined

Question 663

Project compliance plan is

Answer 663

A sub-plan of the project management plan to classify compliance categories, determine potential threats to compliance, analyze the consequences of noncompliance and determine the necessary approach and action to address compliance needs

Question 664

Lessons learned register

Answer 664

• is used during and after projects
• starts with budgets from previous, similar projects
• contain valuable cost-estimating info, both successes and shortcomings

Question 665

Cost baseline

Answer 665

Is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any mgmt reserves.
It can only be changes though a formal change control and is basis for comparison to actual results

Question 666

Cost baseline helps

Answer 666

• monitor and measure cost performance
• includes budget contingency
• is tailored for each project

Question 667

Funding limit reconciliation

Answer 667

Is the process of comparing the planned expenditure of project funds against and limits of the commitment funds for the project to identify and variances between the funding limits and the planned expenditures
- balance the check book (look at how much spent)

Question 668

Quality

Answer 668

Is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements

Question 669

Standards are

Answer 669

Documents established as a model by an authority, customer or by general consent

Question 670

Regulations are

Answer 670

Reqs that can establish product, process or service characteristics including applicable administrative provisions that have govt-mandated compliance

Question 671

De facto regulations

Answer 671

regulations that are widely accepted and adopted through use

Question 672

De jure regulations

Answer 672

regulations that are mandated by law or have been approved by a recognized body of experts

Question 673

ISO 9000 Series

Answer 673

is a quality system standard that can be applies to any product, service or process in the world

Question 674

Quality mgmt plan

Answer 674

is a component of the project mgmt plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives

Question 675

What are benefits of a quality mgmt plan?

Answer 675

• decisions based on accurate info
• sharper focus on projects value prop
• cost reductions
• mitigate schedule overruns from rework

Question 676

Cost of quality (CoQ)

Answer 676

is all costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in preventing nonconformance to reqs, appraisal of the products or service for conformance to reqs and failure to meet reqs

Question 677

Quality metrics

Answer 677

A description of a project ort product attribute and how to measure it

Question 678

Tolerance

Answer 678

quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality req

Question 679

Quality audit

Answer 679

a structured , independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, process and procedures

Question 680

What are some control quality tools?

Answer 680

• data gathering
• data analysis
• data representation

Question 681

What are types of data gathering?

Answer 681

• questionnaires and surveys
• checklists
• statistical sampling

Question 682

What are types of data analysis?

Answer 682

• performance reviews

- root cause analysis

Question 683

Performance reviews

Answer 683

technique that is used to measure, compare, and analyze actual performance of work in progress on the project against the baseline

Question 684

Root cause analysis

Answer 684

Analytical technique used to determine the basis underlying reason that causes a variance, defect or a risk
- FMEA (failure mode and effect analysis)

Question 685

What are 4 types of data representation for quality?

Answer 685

• cause and effect diagram
• scatter diagram
• control chart
• pareto chart

Question 686

Cause and effect diagram

Answer 686

Breaks down the causes of the problem statemen identified into discrete branches, helping to identify the main or root cause of the problem
- also called (ishikawa or fishbone diagram)

Question 687

Cause and effect diagram is also called

Answer 687

Fishbone diagram, why why diagrams. or Ishikawa diagrams

Question 688

Scatter diagram

Answer 688

Graph that shows the relationship between 2 variables
- demonstrated a relationship between any element of a process, environment, or activity on one axis and a quality defect on the other axis

Question 689

Control chart

Answer 689

A tool used to determine the predictability, behavior and stability of a process over time. A graphic display of project data against established control limits to reflect both the ma and min values
- rule of 7 means frequency outside of mean (below or above) where it is 7 in a row: possibility of it going back to above or below mean is not likely

Question 690

what are some benefits of a control chart?

Answer 690

• gives visibility to where corrective actions can prevent further problems
• ideal for repetitive processes with predictable results

Question 691

Pareto chart

Answer 691

a histogram used to rank causes of problems in a hierarchical format that is used to help determine the most frequent defects, complains, or other factors that affect quality
- reflects back to 80/20 rule

Question 692

What are some characteristics of a pareto chart?

Answer 692

• demonstrates the frequency of occurrence
• analyzes data sets related to a specific problem or issue
• does not define the root cause of a problem

Question 693

Integration management

Answer 693

assessment and coordination of all plans and activates that are built, maintained, and executed throughout a project that helps get an integrated view of all the plans and can identify and correct gaps or conflicts

Question 694

Project management information system (PMIS)

Answer 694

an information system consisting of tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project mgmt processes (ex. Microsoft project)

Question 695

Configuration mgmt plan

Answer 695

identify and account for project artifacts under configuration control and how to record and reprt changes to the,
- identification, maintenance, status, reporting and verification of configurable items

Question 696

Change mgmt plan

Answer 696

provided direction for managing the change control process and documents the roles and responsibilities of the change control board (CCB)
- identification, impact analysis, documentation and approving or rejecting of change requests

Question 697

What are some approaches for managing change?

Answer 697

• disciplined agile (DA)
• scrum of scrums
• scaled agile framework (SAFe)

Question 698

Disciplined agile (DA)

Answer 698

a hybrid tool kit that harnesses hundreds of agile practices to devise the best “way of working” (WoW) for your team or organization

Question 699

Scrum of scrums

Answer 699

a technique for operation of scrum at scale for multiple team working on the same product, coordination discussions of progress on interdependencies, and focusing on how to integrate the delivery of software

Question 700

Scaled agile framework (SAFe)

Answer 700

a knowledge base of integrated patterns for enterprise-scale, lean-agile development

Question 701

Procurement strategy

Answer 701

The approach by the buyer to determine the project delivery method and the type of legally binding agreements that should be used to deliver the desired results

Question 702

Delivery solution

Answer 702

Planning and analysis–> detailed design–> implementation or installation–> testing–> training–> handover–> support an maintenance

Question 703

Make or buy analysis

Answer 703

the process of gather and organizing data about product reqs and analyzing them against available alternatives including the purchase or internal manufacture of the product

Question 704

Make or buy decisions

Answer 704

decisions made regarding the external purchase or internal manufacture of a product

Question 705

Statement of work (SOW)

Answer 705

a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project

Question 706

Procurement SOW

Answer 706

describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services or results

Question 707

Procurement mgmt plan

Answer 707

a component of the project or program mgmt plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside of the performing org

Question 708

What are some benefits of a procurement mgmt plan?

Answer 708

• specifies the type of contracts that will be used
• describes the process of obtaining and evaluating bids
• mandates standardized procurement docs
• describes how providers will be managed

Question 709

Source selection criteria

Answer 709

A set of attributes desired by the buyer which a seller is required to meet or exceed to be selected for a contract

Question 710

Bidder conferences

Answer 710

meeting with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement

Question 711

What are some different types of traditional contracts?

Answer 711

• fixed price
• cost reimbursable
• time and material

Question 712

Fixed price contract

Answer 712

sets the fee will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it

• also known as lump sum contract
• provides a max protection o buyer but requires a lengthy prep
• for projects with a high degree of certainty about parameters

Question 713

Cost-reimbursable contract

Answer 713

involving payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit

• includes incentives for meeting certain objectives, such as costs, schedule, targets
• suited for projects when parameters are uncertain

Question 714

Time and material (T&M) contract

Answer 714

hybrid contractual arrangement containing aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price. combined a negotiated hourly rate and full reimbursement for materials
- suite for projects when a precise statement of work cannot be prescribed

Question 715

What are some agile contract types?

Answer 715

• capped time and materials contract
• target cost contracts
• incremental delivery contracts

Question 716

Capped time and material contract

Answer 716

works like a traditional T&M contractt however has an upper limit set on customer payment

• customer pay up front for the capped cost limit
• suppliers benefit in case of early time-frame changes

Question 717

Target cost contract

Answer 717

supplier and customer agree on final price during project cost negotiation

• primarily for mutual cost savings if runs below budget
• may allow both parties to face addl costs if budget exceeds

Question 718

Incremental delivery contracts

Answer 718

customers review contracts during the contract life cycles at pre-negotiated designated points of the contract lifecycle
- customers can make required chances, continue to terminate the project at these points

Question 719

Control procurements process

Answer 719

Process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as appropriate and closing out contracts

Question 720

Project governance

Answer 720

the framework, functions and processes that guide project mgmt activities in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet organizational, strategic and operational goals

Question 721

Phase gates

Answer 721

a review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project/program
- also called gate, tollgate. kill point

Question 722

What are some types of phase-to-phase relationships?

Answer 722

• sequential relationships

- overlapping relationships

Question 723

Sequential relationship

Answer 723

contain consecutive phases that start only when the previous phase is complete
- reduces the level of uncertainty

Question 724

Overlapping relationship

Answer 724

contain phases that start prior to the previous phase ending

- increases the level of risk and may cause rework if something from the previous phase directly affects the next phase

Question 725

Knowledge mgmt

Answer 725

a store of historical information about lessons learned in projects

Question 726

Risk

Answer 726

An uncertain event or condition that if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives

Question 727

Trigger condition

Answer 727

An event or situation that indicates that a risk is about to occur

Question 728

Project risk mgmt

Answer 728

Includes the processes if conducting risk mgmt planning, identification, analysis, response planning, response implementation, and monitoring risk on a project

Question 729

Risk mgmt plan

Answer 729

A component of the project, program, or portfolio mgmt plan that describes how risk mgmt activities will be structured and performed

Question 730

What are some risk identification techniques?

Answer 730

• expert judgement
• data gathering
• data analysis
• interpersonal and team skills
• prompt lists
• meetings

Question 731

What are some risk classification approaches?

Answer 731

• effect-based risk classification

- source-based risk classification

Question 732

What are the components of effect-based risk classification approach?

Answer 732

Schedule, cost, quality, scope

Question 733

What are the components of source-based risk classification approach?

Answer 733

Internal. external, technical, non-technical, industry-specific, generic

Question 734

What are the 4 types of risk classification?

Answer 734

• known known: info that is fully studied and well understood
• known unknown: info that is understood to exist but is not in the possession of the person seeking it
• unknown unknown: something unforeseeable
• unknown known: info that an individual or org has in its possession but whose existence, relevance or value has not been realized

Question 735

Risk threshold

Answer 735

The max amount of risk, and the potential impact of that risk occurring, that a project manager or key stakeholder is willing to accept

Question 736

Risk appetite

Answer 736

The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accepting anticipation of a reward

Question 737

Risk tolerance

Answer 737

The level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and below which risks may be accepted

Question 738

Qualitative risk analysis

Answer 738

Process of prioritizing individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their profitability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics

Question 739

What are some benefits of qualitative risk analysis?

Answer 739

• focuses on high priority risks
• subjective based on team’s perception of risks
• provides the list of prioritized risks for further actions

Question 740

Probability and impact matrix

Answer 740

A grid of mapping the probability of each risk occurrence and its potential impact on project objectives (x and y axis with probability and impact)

Question 741

Quantitative risk analysis

Question 742

What are some characteristics / benefits of quantitative risk analysis?

Answer 742

• provides addl quantitative risk info to support risk response planning
• best for large/complex projects, strategically important projects, when required by contract or key stakeholder

Question 743

Contingency response strategies

Answer 743

Responses which may be used in the event that a specific trigger occurs. also known as contingency plan or fallback plan

Question 744

Business value

Answer 744

Net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor. Benefit may be tangible, intangible or both

Question 745

Product roadmap

Answer 745

Strategic doc and plan which guides why the product will be delivered and how the product will meet objectives and the product vision
- mostly used in agile approaches

Question 746

What are benefits of incremental delivery?

Answer 746

• enables value delivery sooner
• get higher customer value and increased market share
• allows partial delivery to customers
• enables early feedback for the project team allowing for adjustments to the direction, priorities, and quality

Question 747

Minimum viable product (MVP)

Answer 747

Smallest collection of features that can be included in a product for customers to consider it functional
- “bare bones” or “no frills” functionality in Lean

Question 748

What are some benefits of minimum viable product (MVP)?

Answer 748

• allows stakeholders to see and experience project outcomes
• channel feedback and idea generation
• provides inspiration to team and models urgency

Question 749

Minimum business increment (MBI)

Answer 749

In disciplined agile- the smallest amount of value that can be added to a product or service that benefits the business
- all releases that are after the MVP

Question 750

What are advantages of minimum business increment (MBI)?

Answer 750

• enable project team to deliver value sooner
• help team validate improvements
• enables team to incrementally build on success or pivot as needed

Question 751

What are benefits of cycles and timeboxes?

Answer 751

• timeboxes allow for better telemetry over time
• timeboxes create a sense of urgency
• cycling the project through similar timeboxes provides progress measurement from one timebox to the next
• more predictable measurements

Question 752

Communications mgmt plan

Answer 752

A component of the project, program, or portfolio mgmt plan that describes how, when and by whom info about the project will be administered and disseminated

Question 753

Communication models

Answer 753

A description, analogy, or schematic used to represent how the communication process will be performed for the project

Question 754

Communication methods

Answer 754

A systematic procedure, technique, or process used to transfer info among project stakeholders

Question 755

What are 2 communication methods?

Answer 755

• push, pull: Push communication method is suitable when the urgent response is not required. However, the recipient takes some action on receipt of the message. Pull communication is an informational type of communication. Senders convey the message through websites, bulletins, etc.
• interactive: most efficient method of communication to ensure a common understanding as it is real time. Interactive communication should be used when an immediate response is required and when the communication is sensitive or likely to be misinterpreted

Question 756

What are the stakeholder categories?

Answer 756

Sponsors, customers and users, sellers, functional managers, organizational groups, business partners, other stakeholders

Question 757

Stakeholder register

Answer 757

Includes but is not limited to: identification info, assessment info, and stakeholder classification

Question 758

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

Answer 758

A matrix that compares current and desired stakeholder engagement levels

Question 759

Project artifacts examples to agile projects

Answer 759

Product backlog, increment, roadmap, vision statement, release plan, sprint backlog

Question 760

Configuration mgmt

Answer 760

A tool used to manage changes to a product t service being produced as well as changes to any project docs

Question 761

Configuration mgmt system

Answer 761

A collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts

Question 762

What are the benefits of configuration mgmt?

Answer 762

• controls product iterations
• controls the steps for reviewing and approving product prototypes, testing, standards and blueprints
• ensures that the product specification are current

Question 763

Version control

Answer 763

A system that records changes to a file in a way that allows you to retrieve previous changes made to it

Question 764

What are some causes of project changes?

Answer 764

• inaccurate initial estimates
• specification changes
• new regulations
• missed reqs

Question 765

Change control systems

Answer 765

A set of procedures that describes how modification to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled

Question 766

What are some change control systems?

Answer 766

Forms, tracking methods, processes, approval levels

Question 767

Change control board

Answer 767

A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such deliveries

Question 768

Approved change requests

Answer 768

Requests that have been received and approved in accordance with the integrated change control plan and are ready to be schedule for implementation

Question 769

What are types of change requests?

Answer 769

• corrective action: adjusts the performance of the project work with the project mgmt plan
• preventative action: ensures future performance of the project work with the project mgmt plan
• defect repair: modifies a non-conformance within the project
• update: modifies a project doc or plan

Question 770

What are the differences between risks and issues?

Answer 770

Risks: focused on the future, can be positive or negative, are documented in risk register, response is called a risk response

Issues: focused on the present, will always be negative, are documented in the issue log, Response is called a workaround

Question 771

Issue log

Answer 771

A document where info about issues is recorded and monitored

Question 772

What are the different types of knowledge types and their differences?

Answer 772

Explicit: can be codified using symbols such as works, numbers and pics. Can be documented and shared with others

Tacit: personal knowledge that can be difficult to articulate and share such as beliefs, experience and insights

Question 773

Servant leadership

Answer 773

The practice of leading through services to the team, by focusing on understanding and addressing the needs and development of team members in order to enable the highest possible team performance

Question 774

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Answer 774

Metrics used to evaluate an orggs progress toward meeting its goals and objectives

Question 775

Team development stages (Tuckman ladder)

Answer 775

• forming
• storming
• norming
• performing
• adjourning

Question 776

What are some performance tracking techniques?

Answer 776

• scrum/agile/kanban boards
• throughput metrics
• cycle time
• quality metrics
• earned value
• bar charts
• velocity

Question 777

Scrum/agile/kanban boards

Answer 777

Based on the Japanese mgmt method of pulling cards to various stages as they are work on, physical or electronic boards can track work as it progress across various stages or categories

Question 778

Throughput metrics

Answer 778

measurement of the team’s work that has moved from one stage to another stage over a certain time

Question 779

Cycle time

Answer 779

Measurements of work that has progressed all the way from plan to completed or delivered

Question 780

Quality metrics

Answer 780

Various measurements to track quality deliverables, defects and acceptable output

Question 781

Earned value

Answer 781

Tracking cost and effort performance against a planned value

Question 782

Bar charts (gantt)

Answer 782

Using the project schedule to track performance over time

Question 783

Velocity

Answer 783

Measurement of total output from an iteration to attempt to predict iteration outputs

Question 784

Earned value mgmt (EVM)–> insert addl details from course snapshots

Answer 784

A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress

Question 785

In projects that use Earned value mgmt (EVM), the cost baseline is referred to as the performance measurement baseline. True or false?

Answer 785

True

Question 786

Planned value (PV), earned value (EV), and actual cost (AC) determine..

Answer 786

Schedule and cost variance

Question 787

Planned value

Answer 787

The authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work

Question 788

Earned value

Answer 788

The measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work

Question 789

Actual cost

Answer 789

The realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during s specific time period

Question 790

What are the Earned value mgmt (EVM) measures for schedule control?

Answer 790

Schedule variance (SV)
Schedule performance index (SPI)

Question 791

Schedule variance (SV)

Answer 791

A measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the EV and PV
(SV=EV-PV)
- a positive SV indicates a project is ahead of schedule
- a 0 SV indicates a project is on schedule
- a negative SV indicates a project is behind schedule

Question 792

Schedule performance index (SPI)

Answer 792

A measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the patios of EV to PV
(SPI=EV/PV)
- SPI greater than 1.0 indicates a project is ahead of schedule
- SPI of 1.0 means it is on schedule
- SPI is less than 1.0 means it is behind schedule

Question 793

What are some Earned value mgmt (EVM) measure for cost control?

Answer 793

• Cost variance (CV)

- Cost performance index (CPI)

Question 794

Cost variance (CV)

Answer 794

The amount of budget deficit/surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between EV and AC
(CV=EV-AC)
- a positive CV indicates a project is ahead of schedule
- a 0 CV indicates a project is on schedule
- a negative CV indicates a project is behind schedule

Question 795

Cost performance index

Answer 795

A measure of cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ration of EV to AC
(CPI= EV/AC)
- CPI greater than 1.0 indicates a project is ahead of schedule
- CPI of 1.0 means it is on schedule
- CPI is less than 1.0 means it is behind schedule

Question 796

Estimation at completion (EAC) analysis

Answer 796

The current projected final cost of the project

• based on the current spending efficiency (CPI)
• calculated from the following formula where BAC is the projected budget at completion (BAC)

EAC = BAC / CPI

Question 797

Estimate to complete analysis (ETC)

Answer 797

The amount of money needed to complete the project
- based on the current spending efficiency of the project

ETC = EAC - AC

Question 798

What are some performance report types?

Answer 798

• information radars
• burndown chart
• burnup chart
• earned value mgmt reports
• variance analysis reports
• work performance reports
• quality reports
• dashboards
• task boards

Question 799

Information radiators

Answer 799

Big visual boards to display in high traffic public locations about the project and the advancement of the project. Aim is to radiate info to all about the project work

Question 800

Burndown chart

Answer 800

A graph to show the progress by plotting the burning down of work during an iteration or other time period

Question 801

Burnup chart

Answer 801

A graph to show the progress and gains made by the project team over time

Question 802

Earned value mgmt reports

Answer 802

Graphs and values based on the earned value mgmt equations

Question 803

Variance analysis reports

Answer 803

Graphs and their analysis comparing actual results to expected results

Question 804

Work performance reports

Answer 804

The physical or electronic representation of work performance info compiled in project docs, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness

Question 805

Quality reports

Answer 805

Charts and reports based on the qulaity metrics collected

Question 806

Dashboards

Answer 806

Physical or electronic summaries of the progress, usually with visuals or graphics to represent the larger data set

Question 807

Task boards

Answer 807

Physical or electronic depictions of the work that must be done and their current state

Question 808

What does crashing technique do?

Answer 808

Shortens schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources *overtime, addl resources

• works only for activities on critical path
• does not always produce a viable alternative and may result in increased risk and cost

Question 809

What does fast-tracking do?

Answer 809

Perform activities in parallel to reduce time

- May result in rework, increased risk, and cost

Question 810

Value stream map

Answer 810

A lean enterprise technique used to document, analyze and improve the flow of info or material required to produce a product or service for a customer

Question 811

Retrospectives and lessons learned do..

Answer 811

• gather data on improvements and recognize successes
• review what went well and what could have been better
• involve everyone and respect their input
• avoid the blame game and focus on improvements

Question 812

Agile retrospectives are held

Answer 812

as necessary throughout the project

Question 813

Lessons learned are held

Answer 813

at the end of projects

Question 814

Impediments

Answer 814

situations, conditions and actions that slow down or hinder progress
- track with issue log, kanban board, SW applications

Question 815

Obstacles

Answer 815

Barriers that should be able to be avoided or overcome with some effort or strategy

Question 816

Blockers

Answer 816

Events or conditions that cause stoppages in the work or advancement

Question 817

Daily standup (daily scrum)

Answer 817

A brief, daily collab meeting in which the team reviews progress from the previous day, declares intentions for the current day, and highlights any obstacles encountered or anticipated

Question 818

What are some causes of conflict?

Answer 818

• competition
• difference in objectives, value and perceptions
• disagreements on role reqs, work activities, approached
• communication breakdowns

Question 819

Conflict mgmt

Answer 819

application of one or more strategies to deal with disagreements

Question 820

What are some conflict mgmt appproaches?

Answer 820

• smooth / accommodate
• withdrawal / avoid
• collaborate / problem solve
• force / direct
• compromise / reconcile

Question 821

Smooth / accommodate conflict mgmt approach

Answer 821

• emphasizes areas of agreement

- concede position to maintain harmony and relationships

Question 822

Withdrawal/avoid conflict mgmt approach

Answer 822

• retreat from the situation

- postpone the issue

Question 823

Collaborate / problem solves conflict mgmt approach

Answer 823

• incorporate multiple viewpoints

- enable cooperative attitudes and open dialogue to reach consensus and commitment

Question 824

Force / direct conflict mgmt approach

Answer 824

• pursue your viewpoint at the expense of others

- offer only win/lose solutions

Question 825

Create card for EVM and applicable formulas / tips

Question 826

Stakeholder engagement plan

Answer 826

Identifies the strategies and actions required to promote productive involvement of stakeholders in project or program decision making and execution

Question 827

What are some self-regulating elements?

Answer 827

• self control
• trustworthiness
• innovation
• adaptability
• conscientiousness

Question 828

Empathy

Answer 828

the ability to understand feelings of another, to see from their point of view

Question 829

Organizational theory

Answer 829

The study of how people, teams, and orgs behave

Question 830

What are 5 characteristics of organizational theory?

Answer 830

• self actualization
• esteem
• belonging
• safety
• physiological

Question 831

What are 4 theories of organizational theory?

Answer 831

• Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
• McGregor’s theory x and theory y
• McClelland’s achievement theory
• Herzberg’s motivation theory

Question 832

What are 3 characteristics of active listening?

Answer 832

• reflecting: repeat message, verify understanding
• attending: eye contact, lean towards
• following: non verbal gesture or verbal response, questions

Question 833

Why should you use a risk register?

Answer 833

• to track and manage risks
• validate legal and regulatory compliance for deliverables
• perform a summary check of compliance before end of project

Question 834

For compliance-related risks, include..

Answer 834

• the identified risk
• risk owner
• impact of realized risk
• risk responses

Question 835

Configuration mgmt system allows to

Answer 835

• track, versioning and control
• records deliverable components
• includes compliance info, including proof of validation
• records deliverable components
• is handed over with the deliverables

Question 836

Variance analysis

Answer 836

create regular reports on project variance and details of actions taken to control and keep the project on track
- should include identification of the variant, plans for bringing the project or deliverable back into compliance, any proposed changes required to meet compliance reqs

Question 837

What are some potential threats to compliance?

Answer 837

• identification of new vulnerabilities
• changes in legal or regulatory reqs
• errors in testing and validation to confirm compliance
• error or bugs in deliverables
• lack of awareness of compliance reqs

Question 838

What are some implications of not remediating compliance issues?

Answer 838

• negative impact on the timeline
• cost overruns
• increased risks

Question 839

Quality mgmt plan

Answer 839

a component of the project mgmt plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures, and guideline will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives

Question 840

Quality mgmt plan does what?

Answer 840

• describes resources and activities needed to achieve the necessary quality objectives
• sets expectations for the project’s quality reqs

Question 841

Control quality process outputs

Answer 841

• verifies they meet functional and nonfunctional reqs
• identifies and suggests potential improvements
• validates alignments with compliance reqs
• provides feedback on any identified variances

Question 842

Quality audits

Answer 842

process conducted by an external team that confirms the implementation of approved change requests including updates, corrective actions, defect repairs and preventive actions

Question 843

Sampling is used when

Answer 843

QA cant inspects every product or deliverable to ID quality issues
- can provide similar results and reduce cost of quality

Question 844

What are 2 types of sampling?

Answer 844

• Attribute sampling

- variable sampling

Question 845

Attribute sampling

Answer 845

result either conforms or does not conform

- yes or no, specific

Question 846

Variable sampling

Answer 846

result is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity
- not within yes or no- within scale,

Question 847

Business value

Answer 847

the net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor, the benefit of which may be tangible, intangible or both

Question 848

Benefits mgmt plan

Answer 848

a document that describes how and when the benefits of a project will be derived and measured

Question 849

What are the components of a benfits mgmt plan?

Answer 849

• target benefits: tangible and intangible business value to be realized
• strategic alignment: how the benefits align with the orgs business strategies
• timeframe: when the benefits will be realized
• benefits owner: person that monitors, records and reports the benefits
• metrics: diret and indirect measurements of realized benefits
• risks: risks associated

Question 850

What are sprint reviews and demos?

Answer 850

At end of each iteration or sprint, team does a print review or demo

• in early stages, help obtain the product owner’s acceptance of the story and any feedback
• focus on completing whole user stories in each sprint
• verify that the capability is “potentially shippable”

Question 851

Disciplined agile

Answer 851

A hybrid tool kit that harnesses hundreds of agile practices- agile, lean and traditional sources- to guide you to the best way of working for team/org

Question 852

You should use disciplined agile (DA) approaches to support dynamic work environments. True or false?

Answer 852

True

Question 853

What are some advantages pf disciplined agile (DA) approaches?

Answer 853

• feature or capability assessment
• improve org tolerance for change
• a time cadence for subsequent releases

Question 854

Benefit cost analysis

Answer 854

A systematic approach to estimating the strengths and weaknesses of alternatives used to determine options which provide the best approach to achieving benefits while preserving savings

Question 855

What are some characteristics of a benefits cost analysis?

Answer 855

• frequently used to compare potential projects to determine which one to authorize
• select the alternative which demonstrates that benefits outweigh costs by the greatest amount
• alternative should not be chosen when costs exceed benefits
• accuracy of the estimates of cost and benefits determines the value of the benefit cost analysis

Question 856

Present value (PV)

Answer 856

Current value of a future sum of money or stream of cash flows given a specific rate of return

Question 857

Present Value (PV) calculation

Answer 857

PV= FV / (1 + R)^n

Ex: if you need $3000 in three yrs and can invest your money at 8% interest
$2381.5= $3000 / (1 + .08)^3

r=rate, n=periods, PV=present value

Question 858

Net present value

Answer 858

I financial tool used in capital budgeting comparing the value of a currency unit today to the value of the same currency unit in the future, after taking inflation and discount rate into account

• Present value of all cash outflows minus the present value of all cash inflows
• PV cashflows minus PV cash inflows
• bigger is better

Question 859

Internal rate of return (IRR)

Answer 859

The discount rate at which the NPV of the project is 0. it is calculated iteratively by setting up the NPV calculation in a spreadsheet or other software and changing the discount rate until the NPV equals 0
- The interest rate that makes the net present value of all cash flow equal to 0. IRR is also a financial tool often used in capital budgeting
bigger is better

Question 860

Net promoter score (NPS)

Answer 860

a metric used in customer experience programs to measure customer loyalty

Question 861

A/B Testing

Answer 861

Used in marketing, is a method for determining user preferences. different sets of users shown similar services and asked to determine the difference which is the independent variable
- used to optimize the solution you provide to users

Question 862

Monte carlo simulation

Answer 862

analysis technique in which a computer model is iterated many times, with the input values chosen at random for each iteration driven by the input data, including probability distributions and probabilistic branches
- outputs are generated to represent the range of possible outcomes for the project

Question 863

Simulation

Answer 863

analytical technique that models the combined effect of uncertainties to evaluate their potential impact on objectives

Question 864

Difference between Stakeholder engagement plan and Stakeholder mgmt plan:

Answer 864

Stakeholder engagement plan: how to

Stakeholder mgmt plan: ??

Question 865

What are some skills related to emotional intelligence?

Answer 865

Personal

• self awareness
• self regulation
• motivation

Interpersonal

• social skills
• empathy

Question 866

What are some elements of self-awareness?

Answer 866

• emotional intelligence
• accurate self-assessment
• self confidence

Question 867

Maslow hierarchy of need

Answer 867

states that people are motivated by having a purpose of contribution via pyramid structure
- physiological, safety, belonging, esteem, self-actualization

Question 868

McGregor’s Theory X and Y

Answer 868

X: Early 1900s indiustrial revolution mgmt approach
- people are last in the chain behind money, material, equipment’s
- workers seen as self-centered, lazy
- need stric supervision
Y: enlightened approach
- willing and eager to accept responsibility and work to org objectives
- work without supervision and direct own efforts
- recognition of potential in people
- can delegate

Question 869

McClelland theory of needs

Answer 869

most motivated by one of 3 needs

• need for achievement: drive to excel and succeed, challenges
• need for affiliation: be liked and belong, collaborative
• need for power: control and status, competitive

Question 870

Herzbergs. Motivator Hygien Theory

Answer 870

Money does not create motivation. 2 main factors for workplace success

• hygiene factors:” areas related tp workplace (pay, stable job, environment)
• motivating agents: focused on non financial characteristics of work (do more, education, etc.

Question 871

Decision tree analysis

Answer 871

a diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty

Question 872

decision tree analysis characteristics

Answer 872

• support selection of the best several action options
• branches represent different decisions or events, each of which can have costs and risks
• the end points of branches in the tree repreent the outcome from following that path, negative or positive
• calculate the expected monetary value of each branch

Question 873

What does PESTLE stand for?

Answer 873

• Political
• economic
• social
• technical
• legal
• environmental

Question 874

What does PESTLE do?

Answer 874

Identifies the external business environment factors that can affect the value and desired outcomes of a project

• help better understand the external factors that can introduce risk, uncertainty, provide opps
• TECOP (technical, environmental, commercial, operational, political)
• VUCA (volatility, uncertainty, complexity, ambiguity)

Question 875

Backlog reprioritization

Answer 875

re-prioritizes the backlog as stories or reqs change

- business value determines the priority in changes

Question 876

Benefit cost ratio

Answer 876

Compares the benefit to the cost of the initiative

• bigger is better
• format is 4:1 which means benefit outweighs the cost

Question 877

Opportunity cost

Answer 877

associated with taking another oppty. what you give up or leave on the table to take another oppty
- the biggest amount not chosen

Question 878

Payback period

Answer 878

amount of time needed to earn back the original investment on the project
- select the project with the shortest payback period

Question 879

Expected monetary value (EMV)

Answer 879

total threats - total opptys = contingency reserves

Question 880

Project mgmt office (PMO)

Answer 880

A mgmt structure that standardizes the project related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools and techniques
- types: supportive, controlling, directive

Question 881

Continuous improvement

Answer 881

Ongoing effort to improve products, services or processes

- includes improving business strategy, business results, and customer, employee, and supplier relationships

Question 882

Characteristics of continuous improvement

Answer 882

• aim for small, incremental improvements or large breakthroughs
• a business strategy that is developed at the org level for projects to adopt and use
• might be implemented by an orgs PMO

Question 883

W. Edwards Deming’s philosophy of improving quality

Answer 883

Aims to reduce expenses, increase productivity, and thus increase market share. 4 concepts

• better design
• higher level
• improvement
• greater sales

Total quality mgmt (TQM) mgmt and employees focus on ways to improve quality

Question 884

Pioneers of quality

Answer 884

• W Edward Deming
• ## Joseph Curan

Question 885

Plan- do - check - act (PDCA)

Answer 885

Model frame from Deming for continuous improvement

Question 886

Continuous improvement (Kaizen) / lean manufacturing

Answer 886

the deliver of customer value to the customer with the least amount of waste in short period of time

Question 887

Joseph Duran top pricniple

Answer 887

1. top mgmt involvement
2. widespread training in quality
3. project by project approach to quality improvement

Question 888

Duran 80/20 and pareto principle

Answer 888

80% of problems due to 20% problem causes

Question 889

Fitness for use

Answer 889

Real needs of the customers and stakeholders are defined and then attempted to satisfy
- main goal is to ID and satisfy the real need of each

Question 890

Zero defects

Answer 890

doing it right the first time believes can avoid defects that focused on prevention

Question 891

insert quality theorist info here

Answer 891

refer to notes

Question 892

Kaizen

Answer 892

• many small changes or improvements
• small changes less likely to require major expenses
• ideas come from workers
• all emplyees should improve their performance
• all encouraged to take ownership

Question 893

Two types of continuous improvement approaches

Answer 893

• Kaizen

- plan do study act

Question 894

What are some continuous improvement tools?

Answer 894

• lessons learned register
• retrospectives
• experiments

Question 895

Models Across different performance domains

Answer 895

Question 896

Methods Across different performance domains

Answer 896

Question 897

Artifacts Across different performance domains

Answer 897

Question 898

Project Lifecycles Snapshot

Answer 898

Question 899

The agile scrum framework

Answer 899

Question 900

What’s the difference between Configuration control and change control?

Answer 900

Configuration control is focused on the specification of both the deliverables and the process, whereas change control is focused on identifying, documenting, and controlling changes to the project. A configuration management system with integrated change control provides a standardized and effective way to centrally manage approved changes within the project.

Question 901

What are the different types of risk strategies?

Answer 901

• Avoidance strategies that seek to remove threats are actually aiming to eliminate uncertainty. The upside equivalent is to exploit identified opportunities—removing the uncertainty by seeking to make the opportunity definitely happen.
• Risk transfer is about allocating ownership to enable effective management of a threat. This can be mirrored by sharing opportunities—passing ownership to a third party best able to manage the opportunity and maximize the chance of it happening.
• Mitigation seeks to modify the degree of risk exposure, and for threats this involves making the probability and/or impact smaller. The opportunity equivalent is to enhance the opportunity—increasing its probability and/or impact to maximize the benefit to the project.
• The accept response to threats includes the residual risk in the baseline without special measures. Opportunities included in the baseline can similarly be ignored—adopting a reactive approach without taking explicit actions.

Question 902

TEST PREP / RESEARCH

Question 903

What is rolling wave planning?

Answer 903

Rolling Wave Planning is an iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 153] (Domain: Process, Task 9)

Question 904

What is refactoring?

Answer 904

Refactoring is a product quality technique whereby the design of a product is improved by enhancing its maintainability and other desired attributes without altering its expected behavior. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 153] (Domain: Process, Task 7)

Question 905

What are the core values of XP?

Answer 905

XP’s foundational core values are communication, simplicity, feedback, courage and respect. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 102] (Domain: People, Task 3)

Question 906

Where are work packages within the WBS?

Answer 906

They are always at the lowest level of the WBS

Question 907

What is a fishbowl window?

Answer 907

A fishbowl window is a long-lived video conferencing link between two or more locations. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 46] (Domain: People, Task 11)

Question 908

What is a spike?

Answer 908

Spikes are time-boxed research experiments and are useful for learning and may be used in circumstances such as estimation, acceptance criteria definition, and understanding the flow of a user’s action through the product. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 56] (Domain: Process, Task 7)

Question 909

What is a Persona?

Answer 909

A persona defines an archetypical user of a system, an example of the kind of person who would interact with it. The idea is that if you want to design effective software, then it needs to be designed for a specific person. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 153] (Domain: Process, Task 8)

Question 910

What is technical debt?

Answer 910

Technical debt refers to the deferred cost of work not done at an earlier point in the product life cycle. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 154] (Domain: Process, Task 5)

Question 911

PDM includes four types of dependencies or precedence relationships:

Answer 911

• Finish-to-start. The initiation of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.
• Finish-to-finish. The completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.
• Start-to-start. The initiation of the successor activity depends upon the initiation of the predecessor activity.
• Start-to-finish. The completion of the successor activity depends upon the initiation of the predecessor activity.

Question 912

According to the precedence diagramming method (PDM), what is the most and least common type of precedence relationship?

Answer 912

Most: Finish-to-start (FS)
Least: Start-to-finish (SF)

Question 913

What is fast tracking?

Answer 913

the decision is to work several tasks in parallel that were scheduled to be run consecutively

Question 914

What are two types of schedule compression techniques?

Answer 914

• Crashing and Fastr-tracking

Question 915

What is crashing?

Answer 915

Crashing is a specific type of project schedule compression technique performed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration. Typical approaches to crashing a schedule include reducing activity durations and increasing the assignment of resources. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 59] (Domain: Process, Task 6)

Question 916

What is scrumban?

Answer 916

Scrumban is an Agile approach originally designed as a way to transition from Scrum to Kanban. As additional Agile frameworks and methodologies emerged, it became an evolving hybrid framework in and of itself where teams use Scrum as a framework and Kanban for process improvement. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 108] (Domain: Process, Task 13)

Question 917

What is the role of an agile coach?

Answer 917

An Agile coach is usually responsible for helping the management of an organization to understand the advantages of Agile practices, tools and techniques. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 150] (Domain: Process, Task 1)

Question 918

What is the purpose of time-boxing?

Answer 918

durations during which the team works steadily toward completion of a goal. Time-boxing helps to minimize scope creep as it forces the teams to process essential features first, then other features when time permits. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 62] (Domain: Process, Task 6)

Question 919

Which of the following components of a project scope statement is useful in reducing scope creep?

Answer 919

Exclusions

Project exclusions identify what is excluded from the project. Explicitly stating what is out of scope for the project helps manage stakeholders’ expectation and can reduce scope creep. Other choices cannot help more in this regard. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 246] (Domain: Process, Task 8)

Question 920

Project scope statement

Answer 920

This document describes the project’s deliverables in detail and the work that is required to create those deliverables. It also forms the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes are within or outside the project’s boundaries. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 84] (Domain: Process, Task 8)

Question 921

What are prevention costs?

Answer 921

The activities such as measuring, examining, and verifying to determine whether work and deliverables met requirements and product acceptance criteria are variously referred to as inspections, audits, reviews, product reviews, and walkthroughs. Prevention is not a valid term to describe these activities. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 88] (Domain: Process, Task 7)

Question 922

What does decomposition do?

Answer 922

The decomposition technique allows the project manager to create smaller and more manageable pieces of work from the larger work packages. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 84] (Domain: Process, Task 8)

Question 923

Requirements Traceability Matrix

Answer 923

Requirements Traceability Matrix is used for tracing requirements to project scope, objectives, and test strategy. Tracing requirements to project risk is not a valid use. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 83] (Domain: Process, Task 8)

Question 924

What is a context diagram?

Answer 924

A context diagram defines the boundary between the system and its environment. This diagram is a high-level view of a system. The context diagram is an example of a scope model. In this case, the context diagram is showing the scope of the project. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 84] (Domain: Process, Task 6)

Question 925

Variance analysis refers to cost performance measurements used to determine the magnitude of variation in comparison to the original cost baseline. What is the trend on the percentage range of acceptable variances as the project progresses?

Answer 925

The percentage range of acceptable variances will tend to decrease as the project progresses.

At the start of the project, larger percentage variances are acceptable. However, as more work is accomplished, the percentage range of acceptable variances will tend to decrease. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 105] (Domain: Process, Task 5)

Question 926

You are conducting a feasibility analysis of multiple available options to deliver a certain capability to the organization. Each of the available options involves an upfront initial investment followed by periodic maintenance costs. Further each option promises a different revenue stream for the business. Which of the following analytical techniques evaluates investment potential considering time-value of money?

Answer 926

Discounted cash flow

Discounted cash flow analysis uses future free cash flow projections and discounts them to arrive at a present value estimate, which is used to evaluate the potential for investment. The rest of the choices are incorrect because Pareto analysis is carried out to identify the most significant factors out of many; earned value management is carried out to monitor and control cost of an ongoing project; while the Monte Carlo is a simulation technique used to analyze project risks. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 102] (Domain: Process, Task 5)

Question 927

Your project is running behind schedule and so far the cost performance hasn’t been that good. You have been requested to present the project progress to the steering committee and pay special attention to the project’s cost performance during your presentation. You need to calculate a metric that would indicate the required cost performance in order to complete the project on budget. Which of the following metrics would you use to demonstrate this?

• EAC
• CPI
• TCPI
• SPI

Answer 927

TCPI

The To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) indicates the required cost performance in order to complete the project on budget. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 105] (Domain: Process, Task 5)

Question 928

What is a burndown chart?

Answer 928

A burndown chart is a graphical representation of work left to do versus time. The outstanding work is shown on the vertical axis and time along the horizontal. It is useful for predicting when all of the work will be completed. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 109] (Domain: Process, Task 6)

Question 929

What is Technical Performance Analysis

Answer 929

Technical performance analysis is used to compare the planned and actual technical achievements, schedules, and other performance criteria. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 98] (Domain: People, Task 3)

Question 930

What is the formula for ?three-point estimate (based on beta distribution)?

Answer 930

Estimate = (Optimistic + (Most Likely *4) + Pessimistic)/6. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 178] (Domain: Process, Task 5)

Question 931

What is a control chart?

Answer 931

Control charts graphically display the interaction of process variables on a process. Control charts have three lines: a center line which gives the average of the process, an upper line designating the upper control limit (UCL) and showing the upper range of acceptable values, and a lower line designating the lower control limit (LCL) and showing the lower range of acceptable values. Points that fall outside of this range are evidence that the process may be out of control.

Question 932

What are the 4 types of dependencies?

Answer 932

Mandatory Dependencies are either required by the law or contract and sometimes they are inherent in the nature of the work. Due to these, the work must be done in a certain order. They are also called Hard Logic.

Discretionary Dependencies are defined by the Project Team as a certain order of activities is more suitable for the nature of work. These are also called Preferred Logic, Preferential Logic or Soft Logic.

External Dependencies are defined between project activities and non-project activities. The project activities are done by the Project Team. The non-project activities are done by people who are external to the Project Team e.g. representatives from Client’s organization, Vendors’ organization or any other external groups within the same organization.

Internal Dependencies are defined between two project activities. Generally, the Project Team has complete control over the project activities.

Question 933

Which of the following Agile methods provides a product development framework that is an adaption of Toyota Product System (TPS) principles and practices to the software development domain and is based on a set of principles and practices for achieving quality, speed, and customer alignment?

Answer 933

Lean Software Development (LSD) is an adaption of Toyota Product System (TPS) principles and practices to the software development domain and is based on a set of principles and practices for achieving quality, speed, and customer alignment. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 152] (Domain: Process, Task 13)

Question 934

Which of the following is a model of skills acquisition that describes progression from obeying the rules, through consciously moving away from the rules, and finally through steady practice and improvement finding an individual path?

Answer 934

The Shu-Ha-Ri model of skills acquisition describes progression from obeying the rules (Shu means to obey and protect), through consciously moving away from the rules (Ha means to change or digress), and finally through steady practice and improvement finding an individual path (Ri means to separate or leave). [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 119] (Domain: People, Task 12)

Question 935

Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)

Answer 935

The Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical presentation of the project risks sorted by risk categories. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 122-127] (Domain: Process, Task 3)

Question 936

Which of the following organizational improvement models consist of five phases: initiating, diagnosing, establishing, acting and learning?

Answer 936

IDEAL is an organizational improvement model that is named for the five phases it describes: initiating, diagnosing, establishing, acting, and learning. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 152] (Domain: Process, Task 13)

Question 937

You are aware that cost and schedule risks are prevalent in your project. You want to compare the technical accomplishments during the project to the schedule of technical achievements and identify the deviations. What should you perform to provide this information?

Answer 937

Technical performance analysis is used to compare the planned and actual technical achievements, schedules, and other performance criteria. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 98] (Domain: People, Task 3)

Question 938

What is an information radiator?

Answer 938

An information radiator is a physical display that provides information to the rest of the organization enabling up-to-the-minute knowledge sharing without having to disturb the team. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 152] (Domain: People, Task 3)

Question 939

Which of the following is the method of collaboratively creating acceptance test criteria that
are used to create acceptance tests before delivery begins?

Answer 939

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATTD) is the method ofcollaboratively creating acceptance test criteria that are used to create acceptance tests before delivery begins. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition,
Page 150] (Domain: Process, Task 13)

Question 940

In a cost plus contract, do you add the desired profit to the budget?

Answer 940

No, just the contingency and mgmt reserves

Question 941

Which of the following requires system-level testing for end-to-end information, unit testing
for the building blocks, and, in between, determines if there is a need for integration testing?

Answer 941

“Test at all levels” employs system-level testing for end-to-end information, unit testing for the building blocks, and, in between, determines if there is a need for integration testing. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 56]
(Domain: Process, Task 7)

Question 942

Which of the following is a product quality technique whereby the design of a product is improved by enhancing its maintainability and other desired attributes without altering its expected behavior?

Answer 942

Refactoring is a product quality technique whereby the design of a product is improved by enhancing its maintainability and other desired attributes without altering its expected behavior. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition,
Page 153] (Domain: Process, Task 7)

Question 943

Control charts exhibit all the following characteristics except:

Answer 943

The specification limits are determined using
standard statistical calculations.
The control limits for a control chart are statistically determined. However, the specification limits are based on the customer requirements

Question 944

Which of the following is a collection of lightweight Agile software development methods focused on adaptability to a particular circumstance?

Answer 944

The Crystal family of methodologies is a collection of lightweight Agile software development methods focused on adaptability to a particular circumstance. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 151] (Domain: Process, Task 13)

Question 945

Which of the following arrangements allows least flexibility to the buyer to alter the contracted scope of works?

Answer 945

A not-to-exceed time and materials allows replacing original scope with new scope. The dynamic scope option allows scope adjustments at specified points in the project. The early cancellation option allows termination halfway through the project. The fixed-price arrangement is the least flexible option. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 78] (Domain: Process, Task 11)

Question 946

Some projects may require tailoring to Agile approaches. However, a team that is new to Agile approaches needs to start using established Agile approaches before tailoring these approaches or to invent a new custom approach. This concept is in line to which of the following improvement model?

Answer 946

The Shu-Ha-Ri model of skills acquisition describes progression from obeying the rules (Shu means to obey and protect), through consciously moving away from the rules (Ha means to change or digress), and finally through steady practice and improvement finding an individual path (Ri means to separate or leave). [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 119] (Domain: Process, Task 13)

Question 947

A team of engineers is reviewing a scatter diagram to determine how the changes in two variables in a new type of automobile tire are related. The closer the points on the diagram are to a diagonal line, _______________.

Answer 947

The more closely they are related

A scatter diagram shows the pattern of relationship between two variables. The closer the points are to a diagonal line, the more closely they are related. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 189] (Domain: Process, Task 7)

Question 948

Which of the following is a simplistic version of the Rational Unified Process (RUP) and is an understandable approach to developing business application software using Agile techniques and concepts?

Answer 948

Agile Unified Process

Agile Unified Process is a simplistic version of the Rational Unified Process (RUP) and is an understandable approach to developing business application software using Agile techniques and concepts. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 150] (Domain: Process, Task 13)

Question 949

Your organization requires a comprehensive business analysis activity to precede project initiation for all complex and high value projects. In complex and high value projects, which of the following activities will typically be performed by a business analyst prior to the project initiation?

Answer 949

Typical business analyst’s responsibilities would include determining problems, identifying business needs, and recommending viable solutions for meeting those needs. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition - The Standard for Project Management Page 13] (Domain: Process, Task 1

Question 950

Monte Carlo Analysis

Answer 950

Monte Carlo Analysis is a technique that computes or iterates the project cost or the project schedule many times, using input values selected at random from probability distributions of possible costs or durations. In this way, one can calculate a distribution of possible total project costs or completion dates. [PMBOK® Guide 7th edition, Page 177] (Domain: Process,
Task 3)

Question 951

Which of the following is the practice of using a lightweight set of tests to ensure that the most important functions of the system under development work as intended?

Answer 951

Smoke testing is the practice of using a lightweight set of tests to ensure that the most important functions of the system under development work as intended. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 154] (Domain: Process, Task 7)

Question 952

Which of the following arrangements allows least flexibility to the buyer to alter the contracted scope of works?

Answer 952

Fixed-price arrangements

A not-to-exceed time and materials allows replacing original scope with new scope. The dynamic scope option allows scope adjustments at specified points in the project. The early cancellation option allows termination halfway through the project. The fixed-price arrangement is the least flexible option. [Agile Practice Guide, 1st edition, Page 78] (Domain: Process, Task 11)