PMP Flash Cards

1
Q

When does the life cycle of a product or service begin?

A

At its conception; it ends with its closure.
This cycle can begin with an assessment of the product or service from a business perspective (business need and benefit), continue with the hand off to operations and end with the discontinuation or completion of the product or service.

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2
Q

What is a product management system?

A

The aggregation of the processes, tools, techniques, methodologies, resources, and procedures to manage a project.

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3
Q

According to PMBOK Guide, what is a portfolio?

A

Projects, programs, subportfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.

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4
Q

According to PMBOK Guide, what is project management?

A

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements. It is accomplished through the use of the five Process Groups (Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing).

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5
Q

What is a constraint?

A

A limiting factor that affects the execution of a project, program, portfolio or process.

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6
Q

What is the benefit of portfolio management?

A

Better alignment of projects and programs with organizational objectives, with the goal being to maximize the value of the entire portfolio.

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7
Q

What are 4 types of organizational structures?

A

Functional (traditional)
Matrix
Projectized
Composite

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8
Q

What are the organizational characteristics of a projectized structure?

A

Project manager authority= High to almost total
Resource Availability=High to almost total
Budget controlled by= Project Manager
Role of the PM=Full time
Project management admin staff=Full time

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9
Q

Why is the composite organizational structure considered somewhat of a hybrid?

A

In this type of structure, one project may be organized in a functional manner; another project could be organized using a matrix or projectized type of structure. In addition, the composite structure could have a separate silo solely for PM working alongside resources from other silos who are also managing projects.

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10
Q

According to PMI, what is a process?

A

A systematic series of activities directed towards causing an end result such that one or more inputs will be acted upon to create one or more outputs.

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11
Q

What is the difference between tools and inputs?

A

Tools are tangible items used in the performance of an activity to produce a result.

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12
Q

What are the 8 processes in the Executing Process Group?

A
Direct and Manage Project Work
Perform Quality Assurance
Acquire Project Team
Develop Project Team
Manage Project Team
Manage Communications
Conduct Procurements
Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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13
Q

What are the 10 project management Knowledge Areas?

A
Project Integration Management
Project Scope Management
Project Time Management
Project Cost Management
Project Quality Management
Project Human Resource Management
Project Communications Management
Project Risk Management
Project Procurement Management
Project Stakeholder Management

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14
Q

What Project Integration Management process occurs in the Executing Process Group?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

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15
Q

What are the 6 processes of Project Scope Management?

A
Plan Scope Management
Collect Requirements
Define Scope
Create WBS (work breakdown structure)
Validate Scope
Control Scope

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16
Q

Which Project Time Management processes occur in the Planning Process Group?

A
Plan Schedule Management
Define Activities
Sequence Activities
Estimate Activity Resources
Estimate Activity Duration
Develop Schedule

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17
Q

Which Project Cost Management process occurs in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control Costs

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18
Q

Which Project Quality Management process occurs in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control Quality

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19
Q

Which Project Communications Management process occurs in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control Communications

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20
Q

What are the 4 processes of Project Procurement Management?

A

Plan Procurement Management
Conduct Procurements
Control Procurements
Close Procurements

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21
Q

Which 4 groups of people does the Project Management Institute Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct apply to?

A

All PMI Members
Nonmembers who hold a PMI Certification
Nonmembers who apply for a PMI certification
Nonmembers who serve PMI in a volunteer capacity

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22
Q

What do mandatory standards describe?

A

Firm Requirements

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23
Q

How would you best describe the aspirational requirement related to responsibility?

A

Doing what you say you will do

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24
Q

How would you best describe the aspirational requirement related to fairness?

A

Demonstrating complete transparency in your decision making process

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25
Q

What are the Project Integration Management processes and in which Process Group does each process fit?

A

Develop Project Charter=Initiating
Develop Project Management Plan=Planning
Direct and Manage Project Work=Executing
Monitor and Control Project Work=Monitoring and Controlling
Perform Integrated Change Control=Monitoring and Controlling
Close Project or Phase=Closing

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26
Q

What is the primary deliverable of the Develop Project Charter process?

A

The project charter

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27
Q

When does Close Project or Phase occur?

A

When the work of the project or phase is complete.
When the work stops (before the work is complete).

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28
Q

What is the definition of a Statement of Work?

A

A narrative description of the products, services or results or services to be delivered by the project.

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29
Q

What is the term for “an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan”?

A

Corrective Action

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30
Q

Which important project document is described by the following statement?

“A document, or collection of documents, created by the project manager based on input from the project team, stakeholders, management, and others, that is used to manage the project”

A

The project management team

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31
Q

What are the 5 inputs to Develop Project Charter?

A
Project statement of work
Business Case
Agreements
Enterprise environmental factors
Organizational process assets

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32
Q

What are the 4 outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A

Change Requests
Work performance reports
Project management plan updates
Project documents updates

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33
Q

When is a project considered successful?

A

When it meets stakeholders’ expectations

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34
Q

The project plan is the basis on which project work will be done and measured. TRUE OR FALSE?

A

TRUE

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35
Q

What does scope creep not add to a project?

A

Value

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36
Q

How does PMBOK Guide define verification?

A

The evaluation of whether or not a product, service or system complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition. It is often an internal process.
Contrast with validation.

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37
Q

What are the 2 tools and techniques of the Create WBS process?

A

Decomposition
Expert judgement

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38
Q

What are the 6 Project Time Management processes and which Process Groups do they fit in?

A
Define Activities=Planning
Sequence Activities=Planning
Estimate Activity Resources=Planning
Estimate Activity Durations=Planning
Develop Schedule=Planning
Control Schedule=Monitoring and Controlling

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39
Q

What is meant by the terms “lead” and “lag”?

A

Lead=the amount if time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.

Lag=the amount of time whereby a successor activity is required to be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity

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40
Q

What are the characteristics of the project schedule?

A

It is calendar based
It has resources assigned
It is signed off as part of the project management plan
It forms the basis for measuring schedule performance

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41
Q

What are the 4 types of dependencies or precedence relationships?

A

Finish to start
Finish to finish
Start to start
Start to finish

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42
Q

Which activities have no slack or float?

A

Typically, the activities on the critical path have no float or slack; therefore, the project manager needs to watch these activities more closely than other that have float or scheduling flexibility.

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43
Q

What are the 4 inputs for the Define Activities process?

A

Schedule management plan
Scope baseline
Enterprise environmental factors
Organizational process assets

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44
Q

What are the 3 outputs of the Define Activities process?

A

Activity list
Activity attributes
Milestone list

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45
Q

What is the formula for the three point estimate, PERT?

A

Te=(To+4Tm+Tp)/6

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46
Q

What is reserve analysis?

A

An analytical technique to determine the essential features and relationships of components in the project management plan to establish a reserve for the schedule, duration, budget, estimated cost, or funds for a project.

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47
Q

What is the Estimate Costs process?

A

The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities.

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48
Q

What is analogous estimating?

A

A technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or a reject using historical data from a similar activity or project.

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49
Q

What are the 3 PERT estimates?

A

Most likely (Cm)
Optimistic (Co)
Pessimistic (Cp)

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50
Q

What are 4 of the different ways to determine EV?

A

Fixed formula rule
Weighted milestones
Apportioned effort
Percent complete

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51
Q

In the initiation phase, what is the cost estimate called?

What is its range?

A

ROM(rough order of magnitude)

Range=-25% to +75%

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52
Q

What are the 7 inputs to the Estimate Costs process?

A
Cost management plan
Human resource management plan
Scope baseline
Project schedule 
Risk register
Enterprise environmental factors
Organizational process assets

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53
Q

What are the 3 outputs of the Determine Budget process?

A

Cost baseline
Project funding requirements
Project documents updates

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54
Q

What are the 10 tools and techniques for Estimate Costs?

A
Expert judgment 
Analogous estimating 
Parametric estimating 
Bottom up estimating
Three point estimating
Reserve analysis
Cost of quality
Project management software
Vendor bid analysis
Group decision making techniques

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55
Q

What is PV(planned value)?

A

The authorized budget assigned to schedule work

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56
Q

What does the term ETC mean?

A

Estimate to complete

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57
Q

What are the formulas SV(schedule variance) and CV(cost variance)?

A

SV=EV-PV
CV=EV-AC

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58
Q

What is the general form of the EAC formula?

A

EAC=AC+ETC

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59
Q

What is the TCPI (to complete performance index) formula when the BAC is still achievable?

A

TCPI= BAC-EV/BAC-AC

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60
Q

What are the 3 processes of Project Quality Management?

A

Plan quality management
Perform quality assurance
Control quality

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61
Q

What is the difference between validation and verification?

A

Validation is the assurance that a product, service, or system meets the needs of the customer and other identified stakeholders.

Verification is the evaluation of whether or not a product, service, or system complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition.

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62
Q

What is attribute sampling?

A

Method of measuring quality that consists of noting the presence (or absence) of some characteristic (attribute) in each of the units under consideration. After each unit is inspected, the decision is made to accept a lot, reject it, or inspect another unit.

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63
Q

What is accuracy?

A

An assessment of correctness

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64
Q

What are the 4 processes of Project Human Resource Management?

A

Plan Human Resource Management
Acquire Project Team
Develop Project Team
Manage Project Team

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65
Q

What information does the RAM show?

A

Who is responsible to do the work (but not when the work should be completed)

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66
Q

What types of activities are involved in networking?

A

Meetings, correspondence, and informal conversations

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67
Q

PMBOK notes that special consideration should be given to the process of releasing resources once their project work is complete. Why?

A

To lower costs by better defining when and how team members will be released, as well as to help with team member uncertainty about their future after the project

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68
Q

What are the HR responsibilities of the project manager?

A

Creating role and responsibility assignments
Developing a staff management plan
Publishing an org chart
Creating job descriptions
Identifying and fulfilling training needs
Negotiating for team resources
Creating a team directory
Identifying and providing team-building activities
Providing in out to project staff performance appraisals
Managing meetings

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69
Q

Which factor enables the project managers expert authority to influence stakeholders?

A

The project managers knowledge or expertise in both project management and technical areas

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70
Q

What is the purpose of a war room?

A

Serves as a common meeting room where team members can exchange information

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71
Q

What is Herzogs Hygiene Theory say about the hygiene factors?

A

It states that if the hygiene factors are met, people are neutral but not motivated. Poor hygiene factors are demotivating, but improving hygiene factors typically will not increase motivation.

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72
Q

What is McGregors theory Y?

A

Theory Y assumes that people want to achieve, are creative, will work on their own, and will do a good job given the right motivation. Theory Y managers believe in participative management, providing support, and showing concern for their teams.

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73
Q

What is involved in the Manage Project Team process?

A

Tracking team members performance
Dealing with conflict
Handling changes and issues by both the project managers and the team

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74
Q

According to the PMI, what are some sources of conflict?

A

Scarce resources
Scheduling priorities
Personal work styles

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75
Q

What does proper Human resource management mean?

A

Making effective use of everyone involved with the project, including the project team, sponsors, customers, contractors and other stakeholders

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76
Q

What is team building?

A

Getting a temporary group of people together and getting them to work together

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77
Q

What tools are involved in the Develop Project Team process?

A
Interpersonal skills
Training.team building activities
Ground rules
Colocation 
Recognition and rewards 
Personnel assessment tools

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78
Q

What do the Project Communications Management processes ensure?

A

Timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and disposition of project information

Chapter 10

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79
Q

What does effective communication mean?

A

That the information is provided in the right format, at the right time, and with the right impact

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80
Q

As part of the communication process, what is the sender responsible for?

A

Making the information clear
Making the information complete
Confirming that the information is properly understood

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81
Q

What is the senders responsibility in communication?

A

To make the message clear and complete, and to confirm that it is properly understood

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82
Q

What is the risk of not expending project resources in communicating information?

A

Project failure

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83
Q

What are the 5 tools and techniques used in the Plan Communications Management process?

A
Communication requirements analysis
Communication technology
Communication models
Communications methods
Meetings

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84
Q

What are the 4 outputs from the Manage communications process?

A

Project communications
Project management plan updates
Project documents updates
Organizational process assets updates

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85
Q

What are the 5 inputs to the control communications process?

A
Project management plan
Project communications 
Issue log
Work performance data
Organizational process assets

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86
Q

What is the formula for the potential lines of communication channels?

A

Potential lines = N(N-1)/2 where N=stakeholders involved

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87
Q

What are some elements of a communications management plan

A

*stakeholder communication requirements
*information to be communicated
*reason for distribution of info
*time frame and frequency
*person responsible for communicating
*pearson responsible for authorizing communication
*person/groups who will receive communication
*methods or tech used to convey
*resources allocated
*escalation process
*method for updating
*glossary of common terminology
*flow chart
*constraints
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88
Q

What are the overall characteristics of matrix structures

A

*Overall focus-Operations and projects
*Authority-two bosses: functional manager and project manager
*manager focus-project manager: control of projects
*Employee focus-Split between projects and operations
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89
Q

What are the organizational characteristics of a functional structure?

A

*Project manager authority-Little or none
*Resource availability-Little or none
*Budget controlled by-Functional Manager
*Role of project manager-Part time
*Project management administrative staff-Part time
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90
Q

What are tools and techniques?

A

Actions applied to the inputs to create outputs; examples of tools and techniques are measuring, planning, applying a skill, templates, software, etc.
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91
Q

Which Process Group do these processes belong to?

  • Develop Project Charter
  • Identify Stakeholders
A

Initiating Process Group

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92
Q

What are the 2 processes in Closing Process Group?

A
  • Close Project or Phase
  • Close Procurements

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93
Q

Which Project Integration Management process occurs in the Initiating Process Group?

A

Develop Project Charter

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94
Q

Which Project Integration Management process occurs in the Closing Process Phase?

A

Close Project or Phase

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95
Q

Which Project Scope Management processes occur in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A
  • validate scope
  • control scope

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96
Q

What are the 4 processes of Project Cost Management?

A
  • Plan Cost Management
  • Estimate Costs
  • Determine Budget
  • Control Costs

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97
Q

Which Project Quality Management process occurs in the Planning Process Group?

A

Plan Quality Management

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98
Q

Which Project Human Resource Management process occurs in the Planning Process Group?

A

Plan Human Resource Management

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99
Q

What project communications management process occurs in the Planning Process Group?

A

Plan Communications Management

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100
Q

Which Project Risk Management processes occur in the Planning Process Group?

A
  • Plan Risk Management
  • Identify Risks
  • Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
  • Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
  • Plan Risk Responses

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101
Q

Which Project Procurement Management process occurs in the Executing Process Group?

A

Conduct Procurements

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102
Q

What are the 4 values that the PMI considers most important for the project management profession?

A
  • Responsibility
  • Respect
  • Fairness
  • Honest

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103
Q

How would you best describe the mandatory requirement related to responsibility?

A

The duty to take ownership for the decisions you make or fail to make

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104
Q

How would you best describe the aspirational requirement related to respect?

A

The duty to inform yourself about norms and customs of others and avoid engaging in behavior that others might consider disrespectful

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105
Q

How would you best describe the aspirational requirement related to honesty?

A

The duty to seek the truth?

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106
Q

What project document identifies why the project should be funded and how the project meets the business needs described in the SOW?

A

The business case

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107
Q

Which project management process involves doing the work outlined in the project management plan to achieve the project goals?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

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108
Q

What is the responsibility of the change control board?

A

To review evaluate, and approve (or reject) change requests

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109
Q

What is the term for the “person, or group, providing financial resources for the project”?

A

The project Sponsor

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110
Q

What are the Organizational process assets?

A
  • Plans
  • Process
  • Policies
  • Procedures
  • Knowledge bases

All are specific to and used by performing organization

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111
Q

Is expert judgment an input, tool and technique, or output?

A

Tool and technique

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112
Q

What are the 2 tools and techniques of the Develop Project Management Plan Process?

A
  • Expert Judgment
  • Facilitation techniques

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113
Q

When is a project complete?

A

When formal acceptance is received

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114
Q

What is the “initiator”?

A

The person (or organization) with the ability to authorize the project

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115
Q

What does proper scope management mean?

A

That the required work, and only the required work, is bing done

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116
Q

How do you define the project scope?

A

The work performed to deliver the product, service, or result with the specified features or functions

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117
Q

What are the 2 outputs of the Plan Scope Management process?

A
  • Scope management plan
  • Requirements management plan

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118
Q

What are two specific types of network diagrams?

A
  • AON (activity-on-node)
  • AOA (activity-on-arrow)

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119
Q

What are some risks of crashing or fast-tracking a project schedule?

A
  • Increased costs
  • Unrealistic alternatives
  • Communication challenges

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120
Q

What is decomposition?

A

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts

CHAPTER 6

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121
Q

What is the purpose of a resource calendar?

A

To show when, and for how long, resources (such as equipment, people, and materials) are potentially available

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122
Q

Expert judgment, alternatives analysis, published estimating data, bottom-up estimating, and project management software are tools and techniques from which Project Time Management Process?

A

Estimate Activity Resources

CHAPTER 6

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123
Q

What are the five tools and techniques for the Estimate Activity Durations process?

A
  • Expert Judgment
  • Analogous estimating
  • Parametric estimating
  • Three-point estimates
  • Group decision making techniques
  • Reserve analysis

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124
Q

What are contingency reserves?

A

A budget within the cost baseline or performance measurement baseline that is allocated for identified risks that are accepted and for which contingent or mitigating responses are developed.

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125
Q

What are the 4 processes of Project Cost Management

A
  • Plan Cost Management
  • Estimate Costs
  • Determine Budget
  • Control Costs

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126
Q

What is bottom-up estimating?

A

A method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the work breakdown structure (WBS)

CHAPTER 7

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127
Q

What are the 3 earned value data points?

A
  • PV (Planned value)
  • EV (earned value)
  • AC (Actual cost)

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128
Q

What are the 4 constraints that might affect your cost estimates?

A
  • Limited budget
  • Required delivery dates
  • Availability of skilled resources
  • Organizational policies

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129
Q

What is the usual method of showing the cost baseline and expenditures?

A

An S curve

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130
Q

What are the 9 inputs to the Determine Budget process?

A
  • Cost management plan
  • Scope baseline
  • Activity cost estimates
  • Basis of estimates
  • Project schedule
  • Resource calendars
  • Risk register
  • Agreements
  • Organizational process assets

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131
Q

What are the 6 outputs of the Control Costs process?

A
  • Work performance information
  • Cost forecasts
  • Change Requests
  • Project management plan updates
  • Project documents updates
  • Operational process assets updates

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132
Q

What is the EV (earned value)?

A

The measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work

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133
Q

On the perfect project (executed on schedule and on budget), what will be true relative to EVM at completion?

A

PV=EV=AC=BAC

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134
Q

What is the EAC forecast for a project that has experienced a one-time anomaly, but the remaining work is expected to go as originally planned?

A

EAC=AC+(BAC-EV)/CPI

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135
Q

What is the PERT formula for the mean cost?

A

Mean cost=Co+4Cm+Cp/6

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136
Q

What is the Rule of 7 or the 7 Run Rule?

A

A process is out of control whenever 7 data points in a row are above or below the mean.

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137
Q

What are the objectives of a quality audit?

A
  • Identify good or best practices
  • Identify gaps and shortcomings
  • Share good practices within the organization or industry
  • Proactively improve processes to raise team productivity
  • Highlight contributions identified through the audit in the lessons learned repository

CHAPTER 8

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138
Q

According to Deming, who has responsibility for the cost of quality?

A

Deming suggests that 85 % of the cost of quality is management’s responsibility and under managements’ control

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139
Q

What are the 6 Project Risk Management processes?

A
  • Plan Risk Management
  • Identify Risks
  • Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
  • Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
  • Plan Risk Responses
  • Control Risks

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140
Q

What are the strategies for positive risks (opportunities)?

A
  • Exploit
  • Enhance
  • Share
  • Accept

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141
Q

What are the main responsibilities of risk owners?

A
  • Tracking their assigned risks
  • Implementing the documented risk response plan if/when the risk occurs
  • Monitoring the risk for changes in probability or impact

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142
Q

Why are documentation reviews considered tools and techniques for Identify Risks?

A

Project documentation, including plans, assumptions, previous project files, and plans from past projects can be good indicators of project risks.

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143
Q

How does PMI define risk?

A

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

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144
Q

What are the primary inputs to Plan Risk Management?

A
  • Project management plan
  • Project charter
  • Stakeholder register
  • Enterprise environmental factors
  • Operational process assets

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145
Q

Risk assessment includes which 3 risk management processes?

A
  • Identify Risks
  • Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
  • Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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146
Q

What is the formula for calculating the risk score and how is this score used?

A

P x I=Risk Score

When performing qualitative risk analysis, calculate a risk score for each risk identified on the risk register in order to determine which risks have the highest score and should be considered by quantitative risk analysis and/or risk response planning.

CHAPTER 11

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147
Q

What are some other terms for “contract”?

A
  • Agreement
  • Understanding
  • Subcontract
  • Purchase order

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148
Q

What is “procurement”?

A

Purchasing goods, services, or results typically from outside the organization.

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149
Q

What are the 4 Project Procurement Management processes?

A
  • Plan Procurement Management
  • Conduct Procurements
  • Control Procurements
  • Close Procurements

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150
Q

What are the 3 main types of contracts?

A
  • Fixed-price contracts
  • Cost-reimbursable contracts
  • Time and materials

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151
Q

What are some of the components of a procurement management plan?

A
  • Contract types
  • Procurement documents to be used
  • Procedure for managing multiple vendors
  • Processes for handling make or buy decisions
  • Outline of requirements for contract WBS
  • List of prequalified sellers
  • Metrics to be used to evaluate and manage sellers

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152
Q

Which factors are considered in a make or buy analysis?

A
  • Cost
  • Technical ability of the organization to do the work
  • Capacity of the organizations facilities
  • Available personnel
  • Time required to complete the project

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153
Q

What are some examples of source selection criteria (a tool and technique for Plan Procurement Management)?

A
  • understanding of need
  • Overall or life-cycle cost
  • Technical capability
  • Risk
  • Management approach
  • Warranty
  • Financial capacity
  • Production capacity and interest
  • Business size and type
  • Past performance of sellers
  • References
  • Intellectual property rights
  • Proprietary rights

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154
Q

What is the formula for price?

A

Price=Cost + Profit

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155
Q

What are the 3 steps in stakeholder analysis?

A
  • Step 1: Identify all potential stakeholders and their roles, interest, knowledge, expectations, and influence levels
  • Step 2: Analyze the potential impact or support that each stakeholder could generate, and classify the stakeholders according to a defined management strategy.
  • Step 3: Assess how key stakeholders are likely to react in various situations

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156
Q

What is involved in the Identify Stakeholders process?

A
  • Identifying all stakeholders
  • Assessing stakeholders and documenting information about their major requirements, interests, involvement, and impact on project success
  • classifying stakeholders based on assessment

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157
Q

What is a stakeholder?

A

An individual, group, or organization who may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project.

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158
Q

What are the 4 inputs to the Identify Stakeholders process?

A
  • Project charter
  • Procurement documents
  • Enterprise environmental factors
  • Organizational process assets

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159
Q

What are the 3 tools and techniques used in the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A
  • Communication methods
  • Interpersonal skills
  • Management skills

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160
Q

What are the 2 outputs from the Plan Stakeholder Management process?

A
  • Stakeholder management plan
  • Project documents updates

CHAPTER 13

161
Q

What are the 5 outputs from the Control Stakeholder Engagement?

A
  • Work performance information
  • Change requests
  • Project management plan updates
  • Project documents updates
  • Organizational process assets updates

CHAPTER 13

162
Q

What is the purpose of the process improvement plan?

A

Indicates how processes will be identified and analyzed toward enhancing the value of the process.

CHAPTER 8

163
Q

What is precision?

A

A measure of exactness

CHAPTER 8

164
Q

What are some of the organizational process assets that can influence the Plan Human Resource Management process?

A
  • Organizational standard processes and policies and standardized role descriptions
  • Templates for organizational charts and position descriptions
  • Historical information about the organizational structures that have worked in previous projects
  • Escalation procedures for handling issues within the team and organization

CHAPTER 9

165
Q

What are some additional formats of a RAM that you can use to document team member roles and responsibilities?

A
  • Hierarchical-type charts
  • Matrix based charts
  • Text oriented formats
  • Other sections of the project management plan

CHAPTER 9

166
Q

What kind of information does the human resource plan provide to the project manager?

A

Guidance on how human resources should be defined and brought on to the project, along with how the resources should be managed, controlled, and eventually released from the project?

CHAPTER 9

167
Q

According to PMBOK, the staffing management plan helps projects managers deal with planning related to which type of resource-related issues?

A
  • Staff acquisition
  • Timetable
  • Staff release plan
  • Training needs
  • Recognition and rewards
  • Compliance
  • Safety

CHAPTER 9

168
Q

What is the belief on which the project manager’s reward authority is based?

A

That the project manager can issue rewards

CHAPTER 9

169
Q

In which Process Group is team building typically shown?

A

Executing

CHAPTER 9

170
Q

According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, what is true about a person’s level in the hierarchy?

A

It is constantly changing, moving up and down, depending on external circumstances.

CHAPTER 9

171
Q

According to the Achievement Theory, which 3 needs motivate people?

A
  • Achievement
  • Power
  • Affiliation
172
Q

What is meant by a situational continuum in leadership theory?

A

That project managers adapt their leadership style based on the job maturity of the team members

CHAPTER 9

173
Q

In a matrix organizational structure, whose responsibility is it to manage the dual reporting relationship effectively?

A

The Project Manager

CHAPTER 9

174
Q

What is the view of the PMI regarding the collaborate/problem solve method of resolving conflict?

A

The collaborative/problem Solve technique for resolving conflict leads to consensus and commitment

CHAPTER 9

175
Q

What is referent authority?

A

Authority that is inferred to the project manager by the team members

CHAPTER 9

176
Q

What is a war room?

A

A room set aside for the project’s use when team members are located in separate facilities; a common approach to colocation of the project team

CHAPTER 9

177
Q

What are the multiple dimensions of communication activity?

A
  • Internal and external
  • Formal and informal
  • Vertical and horizontal
  • Official and unofficial
  • Written and oral
  • Verbal and nonverbal

CHAPTER 10

178
Q

What are the 5 key components of the communication model?

A
  • encode
  • transmit message
  • decode
  • acknowledge
  • feedback/response

CHAPTER 10

179
Q

To distribute information effectively, which aspects of information do you need to focus on?

A
  • sender-receiver models
  • choice of media
  • writing styles
  • meeting management techniques
  • presentation techniques
  • facilitation techniques

CHAPTER 10

180
Q

What does efficient communication mean?

A

Providing only the information that is needed

CHAPTER 10

181
Q

How is a change log used?

A

As a comprehensive list of changes made during a project. This typically includes dates of the change and impacts in terms of time, cost, and risk.

CHAPTER 10

182
Q

What type of information might included in detailed performance reports?

A
  • Analysis of past performance
  • Current status of risks and issues
  • Work completed during the reporting period
  • Work to be completed in the next reporting period
  • Summary of changes approved in the period
  • Forecasted project completion

CHAPTER 10

183
Q

What are the 4 inputs to the Plan Communications Management process?

A
  • project management plan
  • stakeholder register
  • Enterprise environmental factors
  • Organizational process assets

CHAPTER 10

184
Q

What are the 5 outputs from the control communications process?

A
  • Work performance information
  • Change requests
  • Project management plan updates
  • Project documents updates
  • Organizational process assets updates

CHAPTER 10

185
Q

What are the 2 kinds of risk?

A

Negative risks (threats): Can result in increased cost, lost time, or other detrimental results to the project

Positive risks (opportunities): Can save time or money or produce other project benefits

CHAPTER 11

186
Q

What is the primary difference between Plan Risk Management and Plan Risk Responses?

A

Plan risk Management: The process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a project

Plan Risk Responses: The process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives

CHAPTER 11

187
Q

What is the difference between secondary risks and residual risks?

A

Secondary: A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response

Residual: A risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented

CHAPTER 11

188
Q

What is impact?

A

The consequences to the project if an event occurs

CHAPTER 11

189
Q

What is the primary output of Identify Risks?

A

The risk register

CHAPTER 11

190
Q

Risk probability and impact assessment, probability and impact matrix, risk data quality assessment, risk categorization, risk urgency assessment, and expert judgment are tools and techniques for which Project Risk Management process?

A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

CHAPTER 11

191
Q

What are some other terms for “seller”?

A
  • Contractor
  • Subcontractor
  • Vendor
  • Supplier
  • Service provider

CHAPTER 12

192
Q

What is a “teaming agreement”?

A

A legal, contractual agreement between two or more entities to form a partnership or joint venture

CHAPTER 12

193
Q

What are 2 noncompetitive forms of procurement?

A

Sole Source: There is only one provider of the needed service or project

Single Source: There are multiple sources from which the buyer selects one, based upon various reasons or criteria

CHAPTER 12

194
Q

What are the characteristics of a cost-reimbursable contract?

A
  • The seller is reimbursed for actual costs, plus a profit
  • The buyer has the greatest risk for price unless a ceiling is established on cost and/or price.
  • It is used when there is uncertainty about the project or when the buyer is looking for a solution rather than a specified product
  • Incentives or penalties can be included

CHAPTER 12

195
Q

Which types of items or work should not be contracted out?

A
  • Innovative products
  • Trade secrets
  • High Profile products
  • Products that require strict quality control

CHAPTER 12

196
Q

Contract change control system, procurement performance reviews, inspection and audits, performance reporting, payment systems, claims administration, and records management system are tools and techniques for which Project Procurement Management process?

A

Control Procurements

CHAPTER 12

197
Q

List 8 items of information the stakeholder management plan often provides.

A
  • desired and current engagement levels of key stakeholders
  • Scope and impact of change to stakeholders
  • Identified interrelationships
  • Stakeholder communication requirements
  • Information to be distributed to stakeholders
  • Reason for the distribution of that information
  • Time frame and frequency for the distribution of required information
  • Method for updating and refining the stakeholder management

CHAPTER 13

198
Q

What are the management skills that the project manager might apply when managing stakeholder engagement?

A
  • facilitating consensus
  • Influencing people
  • Negotiating agreements
  • Modifying organizational behavior

CHAPTER 13

199
Q

What is a key stakeholder?

A

A stakeholder who is in a decision-making or management role who is impacted by the project’s outcome?

CHAPTER 13

200
Q

What is the output from the Identify Stakeholders process?

A

Stakeholder register

CHAPTER 13

201
Q

What are the 5 outputs from the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A
  • Issue log
  • Change requests
  • Project management plan updates
  • Project documents updates
  • Organizational process assets updates

CHAPTER 13

202
Q

What are the 4 inputs of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

A
  • Project management plan
  • Issue log
  • Work performance data
  • Project documents

CHAPTER 13

203
Q

What are the 5 Process Groups in PMBOK?

A
  • Initiating
  • Planning
  • Executing
  • Monitoring and Controlling
  • Closing
204
Q

What are the 11 processes in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A
  • Monitor and Control Project Work
  • Perform Integrated Change Control
  • Validate Scope
  • Control Scope
  • Control Schedule
  • Control Costs
  • Control Quality
  • Control Communications
  • Control Risks
  • Control Procurements
  • Control Stakeholder Engagement

CHAPTER 3

205
Q

Which Project Integration Management processes occur in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A
  • Monitor and Control Project Work
  • Perform Integrated Change Control

CHAPTER 3

206
Q

What are the 6 processes of Project Integration Management?

A
  • Develop Project Charter
  • Develop Project Management PLan
  • Direct and Manage Project Work
  • Monitor and Control Project Work
  • Perform Integrated Change Control
  • Close Project or Phase

CHAPTER 3

207
Q

how would you best describe the aspirational requirement related to respect?

A

The duty to inform yourself about norms and customs of others and avoid engaging in behavior that others might consider disrespectful

CHAPTER 3

208
Q

Which Project Scope Management Processes occur in the Planning Process Group?

A
  • Plan Scope Management
  • Collect Requirements
  • Define Scope
  • Create WBS (Work Breakdown Schedule)

CHAPTER 3

209
Q

Which Project Time Management Process occurs in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control Schedule

CHAPTER 3

210
Q

What are the 3 processes in Project Quality Management?

A

*Plan Quality Management
*Perform Quality Assurance
*Control Quality
CHAPTER 3

211
Q

What are the 4 processes in Project Human Resource Management

A
  • Plan Human Resource Management
  • Acquire Project Team
  • Develop Project Team
  • Manage Project Team

CHAPTER 3

212
Q

What are the 3 processes in Project Communications Management?

A
  • Plan Communications Management
  • Manage Communications
  • Control Communications

CHAPTER 3

213
Q

What are the 6 processes of Project Risk Management?

A
  • Plan Risk Management
  • Identify Risks
  • Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
  • Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
  • Plan Risk Responses
  • Control Risks

CHAPTER 3

214
Q

What Procurement Management process occurs in the Planning Process Group?

A

Plan Procurement Management

CHAPTER 3

215
Q

What are the consequences for project management professionals who do not meet mandatory standards?

A

Disciplinary action

CHAPTER 3

216
Q

How would you best describe the mandatory requirement related to Respect?

A

The duty to show a high regard for the resources entrusted to you

CHAPTER 3

217
Q

How would you best describe the mandatory requirement related to Honesty?

A

The duty to understand the truth and always act in a truthful manner

CHAPTER 3

218
Q

What are the key components of the project SOW?

A
  • Business needs for the project
  • Product scope description
  • Strategic plan (how the project relates to the strategic plan)

CHAPTER 4

219
Q

What are the 3 main reasons that organizations undertake projects?

A
  • To solve a business problem
  • To address a business need
  • To exploit a business opportunity

CHAPTER 4

220
Q

When in doubt on project issues, change requests, or if you have questions, what should you refer to?

A

The project management plan

CHAPTER 4

221
Q

“Collecting the project(or phase) records, documenting the results, obtaining formal acceptance, and transferring the completed (or canceled) project or phase to the appropriate party” describes which Project Integration Management process?

A

Close Project or Phase

CHAPTER 4

222
Q

What is “integrated change control”?

A

The process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan; and communicating their disposition

CHAPTER 4

223
Q

What are types of Revision?

A
  • Any modification
    • Recording performance
    • Updating estimates
    • Reporting Status
    • Forecasts

SECTION 6 Page 376

224
Q

What are requirements of Rebaselining?

A

*Infrequently done
*Requires formally approved change
*Historic (Previous) baselines should be preserved
SECTION 6 page 376

225
Q

What is a CRITICAL PATH?

A

*Longest path in time through the schedule network

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

226
Q

What are the 3 calculation types for CRITICAL PATH?

A
  • Forward pass to determine the early start and finish for each activity
  • Backward pass to determine the late start and finish for each activity
  • Float for each activity (The critical path is the path with zero float)

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

227
Q

What is Analogous estimating?

A

The development of a project estimate on the basis of the historical information from a completed project that is substantially similar to the project being estimated

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

228
Q

What is Duration?

A

The number of working periods that it is estimated will be needed to complete an activity or project

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

229
Q

What is Effort?

A
  • Number of work units required to complete an activity or project
  • Usually measured in person hours, person days, etc

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

230
Q

What does Parametric Estimating involve?

A

Multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by a known productivity rate

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

231
Q

What is float?

A

Schedule flexibility

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

232
Q

What are three forms of Float?

A
  • Free float
  • Total Float
  • Project Float

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

233
Q

What does a project schedule network diagram show?

A

The activities of the project in terms of their dependency relationships

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

234
Q

What is another name for Project Schedule network diagram?

A

Also known as a precedence diagram or activity on node diagram (AON)

SECTION 6 PAGE 377

235
Q

What is the PMIS (project management information system)?

A

An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management process. It is used to support all aspects of the project from initiating through closing, and can include both manual and automated systems.
CHAPTER 4

236
Q

What are enterprise environmental factors (EEF) ?

A

Conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project, program or portfolio

CHAPTER 4

237
Q

What is the primary output of Close Project or Phase?

A

Final product, service, or result transition

CHAPTER 4

238
Q

What are the 5 inputs of the Develop Project Charter Process?

A
  • Project statement of work
  • Business case
  • Agreements
  • Enterprise environmental factors
  • Organizational process assets

CHAPTER 4

239
Q

What is the lowest level that a project manager manages the project to?

A

Work package level

CHAPTER 5

240
Q

What can a work authorization system help to prevent?

A

Scope Creep

CHAPTER 5

241
Q

Typically, what is the product scope detailed, managed, and measured against?

A

The product requirements

CHAPTER 5

242
Q

What do you call providing customers with extras not originally included in the project charter or project plan in an effort to exceed their expectations?

A

Scope Creep

CHAPTER 5

243
Q

What are the 5 inputs of the Control Scope process?

A
  • Project management plan
  • Requirements documentation
  • Requirements traceability matrix
  • Work performance data
  • Organizational process assets

CHAPTER 5

244
Q

What does the Project Time Management processes ensure?

A

The timely completion of a project

CHAPTER 6

245
Q

What are 2 methods for schedule compression?

A
  • Crashing: Adding resources to critical path activities
  • Fast tracking: Applying a lead to activities that would typically start only after precedent activities are finished

CHAPTER 6

246
Q

What are 3 ways to graphically depict a project schedule?

A
  • Network diagram
  • Bar chart or Gantt chart
  • Milestone chart

CHAPTER 6

247
Q

What does a network diagram show, and what does it not show?

A

It shows the project’s scheduled activities and the logical relationships among those activities. It might or might not show the duration for each activity.

It does NOT show the start and finish dates of the project, nor the resources needed for the activities.

CHAPTER 6

248
Q

Decomposition, rolling wave planning, and expert judgement are tools and techniques for which process?

A

Define Activities

CHAPTER 6

249
Q

The schedule baseline, project schedule, schedule data, project calendars, project management plan updates, and project documents updates are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A

Develop Schedule

CHAPTER 6

250
Q

How is TOTAL float calculated?

A

Total float

  • LS-ES
  • LF-EF
251
Q

How is FREE float calculated

A

Free float
ESsuccessor-EFpredecessor

CHAPTER 6

252
Q

What is meant by the terms “work effort” and “duration”?

A
  • Work Effort: the total number of labor units required to complete an activity, typically stated in person hours, person days, person weeks, etc
  • Duration: The number of work periods that it will take to complete an activity

CHAPTER 6

253
Q

What is the Determine Budget process?

A

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline

CHAPTER 7

254
Q

What is parametric estimating?

A

An estimating technique in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data or project parameters

CHAPTER 7

255
Q

What is AC (Actual Cost)?

A

The realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specified time period

CHAPTER 7

256
Q

What does the scope baseline consist of?

A
  • Scope statement
  • WBS
  • WBS dictionary

CHAPTER 7

257
Q

Later in the Planning phase, what is the cost estimate called? What is its range?

A

Definitive Estimate
Range=-5% to +10%

CHAPTER 7

258
Q

What are the 3 outputs of the Estimate Costs process?

A
  • Activity cost estimates
  • Basis of estimates
  • Project documents updates

CHAPTER 7

259
Q

What are the 4 inputs to the Control Costs process?

A
  • Project Management plan
  • Project funding requirements
  • Work performance data
  • Organizational process assets

CHAPTER 7

260
Q

What is the function of the reserve analysis tool in Estimate Costs?

A
  • To establish the contingency reserve, which is an allowance for unplanned, not initially identified, but potentially required changes (known unknowns)
  • To make sure that adequate reserves remain as the project progresses

CHAPTER 7

261
Q

What is the total planned value for a project also known as?

A

The BAC (budget at completion)

CHAPTER 7

262
Q

What does forecasting mean?

A

An estimate or prediction of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast. The information is based on the project’s past performance and expected future performance, and includes information that could impact the project in the future, such as estimate at completion and estimate to complete.

CHAPTER 7

263
Q

What are the formulas for SPI (schedule performance index) and CPI (cost performance index)?

A

SPI=EV/PV

CPI=EV/AC

CHAPTER 7

264
Q

What is the EAC forecast for a project that is expected to accomplish the ETC work at the current CPI rate?

A

EAC= [BAC/cumulative CPI]

CHAPTER 7

265
Q

What is the TCPI (to-complete performance index) formula when the original BAC is no longer achievable and the project is rebaselined to the new EAC?

A

TCPI=BAC-EV/EAC-AC

CHAPTER 7

266
Q

What 4 types of cost are considered to be part of the cost of quality?

A
  • prevention costs
  • Appraisal costs
  • Internal failure costs
  • External failure costs

CHAPTER 8

267
Q

What are the 5 levels of maturity in CMMI?

A
  • Initial
  • Managed
  • Defined
  • Quantitively managed
  • Optimizing

CHAPTER 8

268
Q

What is variable sampling?

A

The determination of the degree of conformity (along a continuous scale) to a general characteristic

CHAPTER 8

269
Q

What are the enterprise environmental factors that can influence the Plan Human Resource Management process?

A
  • Organization, culture, and structure
  • Existing human resources
  • Geographical dispersion of team members
  • Personnel administration policies
  • Marketplace conditions

CHAPTER 9

270
Q

When determining project roles and responsibilities, what do you need to define?

A
  • Role
  • Authority
  • Responsibility
  • Competency or qualification

CHAPTER 9

271
Q

What type of theory is used to describe the manner in which individual resources, teams and entire organizational units behave?

A

Organizational Theory

CHAPTER 9

272
Q

What else does the staffing management plan show besides when and how team members will be released?

A

Training needs, recognition and rewards, and regulation or contract compliance

CHAPTER 9

273
Q

On which factors is the legitimate or formal authority of the project manager based?

A

Position, or formal authority, in the organization

CHAPTER 9

274
Q

Which factors contribute to the project manager’s referent authority?

A
  • The project manager’s personality
  • References by the project manager to the support and authority of someone higher in the organization
  • Respect the team members have for the project manager

CHAPTER 9

275
Q

What is Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs Theory?

A
  • basic physical needs
  • safety and security needs
  • Social needs
  • Self-esteem needs
  • Self Actualization needs

CHAPTER 9

276
Q

What is the Expectancy Theory of motivation?

A

People are motivated if they expect to see a positive outcome. They will be motivated and remain productive as long as the reward meets their expectations, they believe the reward is strongly tied to their behavior, and they are capable of doing the work requested. This theory states that people will live up (or down) to what you expect of them.

CHAPTER 9

277
Q

Why is the Manage Project Team process more complex in a matrix organization?

A

Because the team members’ loyalties and accountabilities are split?

CHAPTER 9

278
Q

What does confronting mean in the context of conflict management?

A

Solving the problem

CHAPTER 9

279
Q

What is a project organization chart?

A

A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.

CHAPTER 9

280
Q

What is colocation?

A

Physically locating all or most team members in the same location to allow them to work more effectively together.

CHAPTER 9

281
Q

What are the 3 Project Communications Management processes?

A
  • Plan Communication Management
  • Manage Communications
  • Control Communications

CHAPTER 10

282
Q

What are the 5 factors that can affect project communication technology?

A
  • Urgency of the need for information
  • Availability of technology
  • Expected project staffing
  • Duration of the project
  • Project environment

CHAPTER 10

283
Q

What are 3 communication methods?

A
  • Interactive
  • Push
  • Pull

CHAPTER 10

284
Q

Approximately how much of the project manager’s time should be spent communicating?

A

90%

CHAPTER 10

285
Q

What is an issue log?

A

A project document used to document and monitor elements under discussion between project stakeholders.

CHAPTER 10

286
Q

What type of information might be included in simple performance reports?

A
  • Percent complete
  • Status of scope, schedule, cost and quality

CHAPTER 10

287
Q

What are the 2 outputs from the Plan Communications Management process?

A
  • Communications management plan
  • Project documents updates

CHAPTER 10

288
Q

What are the 4 inputs to the Manage Communications process?

A
  • Communications Management Plan
  • Work performance reports
  • Enterprises environmental factors
  • Organizational process assets

CHAPTER `10

289
Q

What are the 3 tools and techniques used in the Control Communications process?

A
  • Information management systems
  • Expert judgment
  • Meetings

CHAPTER 10

290
Q

What is the primary goal of risk management?

A

Increase the probability and impact of positive risks (opportunities) and decrease the probability and impact of negative risks (threats)

CHAPTER 11

291
Q

What is a workaround and when might it be used?

A

A response to a threat that has occurred, for which a prior response had not been planned or was not effective

CHAPTER 11

292
Q

What is the difference between contingency reserves and management reserves?

A

Contingency reserves: Budget within the cost baseline or performance measurement baseline that is allocated for identified risks that are accepted and for which contingent or mitigating responses are developed.

Management reserves: An amount of the project budget withheld for management control purposes. These budgets reserved for unforeseen work that is within the scope of the project. The management reserve is not included in the performance measurement baseline (PMB).

CHAPTER 11

293
Q

What is probability?

A

The likelihood that the event or condition may occur.

CHAPTER 11

294
Q

Which process uses information-gathering techniques as tools and techniques?

A

Identify Risks process

CHAPTER 11

295
Q

What are some examples of information gathering techniques?

A
  • Brainstorming
  • Delphi technique
  • Interviewing (or expert interviewing)
  • Root Cause Analysis

CHAPTER 11

296
Q

What are the 13 inputs to Identify Risks?

A
  • Risk management plan
  • Cost management plan
  • Schedule management plan
  • Quality management plan
  • Human resource management plan
  • Scope baseline
  • Activity cost estimates
  • Activity duration estimates
  • Stakeholder register
  • Project documents
  • Procurement documents
  • Enterprise environmental factors
  • Organizational process assets

CHAPTER 11

297
Q

What is the formula for calculating the EMV and how is this value used?

A

P x Value of I=EMV

When performing quantitative risk analysis, calculate the EMV for each high-priority risk in order to estimate the potential loss (or gain) of time or money if the event occurs.

CHAPTER 11

298
Q

What are some other terms for “buyer”?

A
  • Client
  • Customer
  • Prime Contractor
  • Contractor
  • Acquiring organization
  • Government agency
  • Service requestor
  • Purchaser

CHAPTER 12

299
Q

When taking the PMBOK test, do you assume you are the BUYER or SELLER?

A

Buyer

STUDY GUIDE-Per Darrell Stiffler

300
Q

What are outputs?

A

Products, results or services generated by a process. May be inputs to a successor process

CHAPTER 3

301
Q

What are the 3 tools and techniques used in the Plan Stakeholder Management process?

A
  • Expert judgment
  • Meetings
  • Analytical techniques

CHAPTER 13

302
Q

What are three distinct forms of matrix structures identified by the PMI?

A
  • Weak matrix
  • Balanced matrix
  • Strong matrix

CHAPTER 2

303
Q

What are inputs?

A

Any items, whether internal or external to the project that is required by a process before that process proceeds? May be outputs from predecessor processes

CHAPTER 3

304
Q

What is a chief advantage of a composite structure?

A

The flexibility for management to adapt the approach to managing projects in the organization according to the characteristics of the project

CHAPTER 2

305
Q

What is a “proposal”?

A

Also called a bid, tender, or quote, a proposal is a document prepared by the seller to explain the costs, services, terms, etc., by which the seller will meet the terms of the contract with the buyer.

CHAPTER 12

306
Q

What are the 5 elements of a contract? Explain them

A

C= Capacity: The authority to sign contracts for your organization
C=Consideration: Money paid for the work performed under the contract
O= Offer: What the buyer is willing to pay the seller for the work of the contract
L=Legal: Purpose for which the work will be completed
A=Acceptance: What the seller agrees to take in payment for the work performed

CHAPTER 12

307
Q

What are the characteristics of a fixed-price contract?

A
  • Risk (of cost) is highest for the seller.
  • It is the most common type of contract
  • The seller sets a fixed price, including costs to compensate for risks
  • If the scope is not well-defined, the buyer risks not getting what was needed; the seller risks time and cost
  • Incentives or penalties can be added

CHAPTER 12

308
Q

What procurement documents are generally used with each type of contract?

A
  • RFB (request for bid), IFB (invitation for bid) for fixed-price contracts
  • RFQ (request for quote) for time and material contracts
  • RFP (request for proposal) for cost plus contracts

CHAPTER 12

309
Q

What Project Procurement Management process occurs in the Closing Process Group?

A

Close Procurements

CHAPTER 12

310
Q

Bidder conference, proposal evaluation techniques, independent estimates, expert judgment, advertising, analytical techniques, and procurement negotiations are tools and techniques for which Project Procurement Management process?

A

Conduct Procurements

CHAPTER 12

311
Q

What are 4 ways to classify stakeholders?

A
  • Power/Interest grid
  • Power/Influence grid
  • Influence/impact grid
  • Salience model (power, urgency, and legitimacy)

CHAPTER 13

312
Q

Why would a project manager need to manage stakeholder engagement?

A
  • increases likelihood of project acceptance
  • Keeps issues from becoming concerns
  • Helps stakeholders understand project benefits
  • Helps stakeholders understand project risks
  • Limits disruptions during the project
  • Helps influence stakeholder expectations
  • Encourages stakeholder participation

CHAPTER 13

313
Q

What does “leading” mean as a stakeholder classification?

A

Aware of a project and its impacts; engaged in ensuring project success

CHAPTER 13

314
Q

What are 3 tools and techniques used in the Identify Stakeholders process?

A
  • Stakeholder analysis
  • Expert judgment
  • Meetings

CHAPTER 13

315
Q

What are the 4 inputs to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A
  • Stakeholder management plan
  • Communication management plan
  • Change log
  • Organizational process assets

CHAPTER 13

316
Q

According to PMBOK, what is a PMO (Project management office)?

A

An organizational structure that standardizes the project-related governance and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools and techniques.

CHAPTER 2

317
Q

What are the stages of a product life cycle?

A
  • Concept
  • Delivery
  • Growth
  • Maturity
  • Retirement

CHAPTER 2

318
Q

What are some examples of project stakeholders?

A
  • customer or end user
  • sponsor
  • PMO
  • Project Manager
  • project team
  • Functional managers
  • Operations management
  • Senior management
  • Influencers
  • Performing organization

CHAPTER 2

319
Q

In a projectized org structure, who does the project team report to?

A

The project manager

CHAPTER 2

320
Q

Which Project Risk Management process occurs in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control risks

CHAPTER 3

321
Q

Which Project Procurement Management process occurs in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control Procurements

CHAPTER 3

322
Q

What are the 2 types of standards outlined in each section of the Project Management Institute Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?

A
  • Mandatory
  • Aspirational

CHAPTER 3

323
Q

What do aspirational standards describe?

A

Conduct you aspire to achieve

CHAPTER 3

324
Q

How would you best describe the mandatory requirement related to fairness?

A

The duty to make fair decisions, act impartially, and objectively

CHAPTER 3

325
Q

What does project integration mean?

A
  • How the project fits into the organization or enterprise
  • How all the pieces or components of the project fit together

CHAPTER 4

326
Q

What is the purpose of a configuration management system?

A

To define and document how changes to the product are to be submitted, tracked, reviewed, and approved or rejected.

CHAPTER 4

327
Q

What is the project charter?

A

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

CHAPTER 4

328
Q

What are the 5 outputs of Direct and Manage Project Work?

A
  • Deliverables
  • Work performance data
  • Change requests
  • Project management plan updates
  • Project documents updates

CHAPTER 4

329
Q

What are the 4 outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A
  • Approved change requests
  • Change log
  • Project management plan updates
  • Project documents updates

CHAPTER 4

330
Q

What are 3 responsibilities of the project initiator or sponsor?

A
  • Providing financial resources for project
  • Formally accepting the product of the project
  • Protecting the project from changing priorities or political changes

CHAPTER 5

331
Q

Which type of plan should address scope creep and performing work not included in the project charter?

A

A comprehensive scope management plan

CHAPTER 5

332
Q

What are the 5 inputs of the Validate Scope process?

A
  • Project management plan
  • Requirements documentation
  • Requirements traceability matrix
  • Verified deliverables
  • Work performance data

CHAPTER 5

333
Q

What are 4 types of dependencies?

A
  • Mandatory
  • Discretionary
  • External
  • Internal

CHAPTER 6

334
Q

What is the PMI definition of critical path?

A

The sequence of activities that represent the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration

CHAPTER 6

335
Q

What is rolling wave planning?

A

An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level.

CHAPTER 6

336
Q

What are the typical activities of variance analysis?

A
  • look at the baseline and the actual difference
  • Determine the cause of the differences
  • Determine whether corrective action is necessary

CHAPTER 6

337
Q

Activity duration estimates and project documents updates are the outputs for which Project Time Management process?

A

Estimate Activity Durations

CHAPTER 6

338
Q

What are the 7 tools and techniques for the Control Schedule process?

A
  • Performance review
  • Project management software
  • Resource optimization technique
  • Modeling techniques
  • Leads and lags
  • Schedule compression
  • Scheduling tool

CHAPTER 6

339
Q

What is resource leveling? Give an example of a resource leveling heuristic?

A

Resource leveling: A technique in which start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource constraints with the goal of balancing demand for resources with available supply

Heuristics examples:

  • Work can be leveled only between resources of the same type
  • Critical path activities have priority in leveling over noncritical path activities

CHAPTER 6

340
Q

What are the 8 parameters normally established by the cost management plan?

A
  • Unit of measure
  • Level of precision
  • Level of accuracy
  • Organizational procedure links
  • Control thresholds
  • Rules of performance measurements
  • Reporting formats
  • Process descriptions

CHAPTER 7

341
Q

What is the three-point estimate named PERT?

A

A technique for estimating that applies a weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

CHAPTER 7

342
Q

What are the 4 EVM status measures?

A
  • SV (Schedule variance)
  • CV (Cost variance)
  • SPI (Schedule performance index)
  • CPI (cost performance index)

CHAPTER 7

343
Q

What are some resources for which cost estimates should be developed on a project?

A
  • Labor
  • Materials
  • Equipment
  • Services
  • Facilities
  • Inflation allowance
  • Contingency
  • Cost of financing

CHAPTER 7

344
Q

What are the 2 main categories of cost in cost of quality?

A

Conformance and noncoformance

CHAPTER 7

345
Q

What are the 5 tools and techniques for the Determine Budget process?

A
  • Cost aggregation
  • Reserve analysis
  • Expert judgment
  • Historical relationships
  • Funding limit reconciliation

CHAPTER 7

346
Q

What are the 6 tools and techniques for the Control Costs process?

A
  • Earned value management
  • Forecasting
  • To-complete performance index (TCPI)
  • Performance reviews
  • Project management software
  • Reserve analysis

CHAPTER 7

347
Q

What does the term EAC mean?

A

Estimate at completion

CHAPTER 7

348
Q

What is the most accurate EAC formula that works in every project case and must be used when the original estimates are fundamentally flawed?

A

EAC=AC+ a new bottom-up ETC

CHAPTER 7

349
Q

What is the EAC forecast for ETC work considering both SPI and CPI factors?

A

EAC=AC + [BAC-EV/cumulative CPI x Cumulative SPI]

CHAPTER 7

350
Q

What is the standard deviation (o’) formula for the PERT equation?

A

o’=(Cp-Co)/6

CHAPTER 7

351
Q

What is the Trend of 7 rule?

A

A process is out of control whenever 7 data points follow a trend up or down across the mean

CHAPTER 8

352
Q

What are Ishikawa’s 7 basic quality control tools?

A
  • Cause and effect diagrams
  • Control charts
  • Flowcharts
  • Histograms
  • Pareto charts
  • Run charts
  • Scatter diagrams

CHAPTER 8

353
Q

What is Philip Crosby’s quality theory and what is his main point?

A

The Zero Defects theory
Main point: It is better to prevent defects from occurring at all, thereby saving the cost of nonconformance.

CHAPTER 8

354
Q

What is tolerance?

A

The quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality requirement

CHAPTER 8

355
Q

Which type of chart is frequently used to outline project roles and responsibilities?

A

RAM (responsibility assignment matrix)

CHAPTER 9

356
Q

Where does informal and formal networking take place?

A

Within an organization, industry, or professional environment

CHAPTER 9

357
Q

What are some components of the human resource management plan?

A
  • Roles and responsibilities
  • Project organization charts
  • Staffing management plan

CHAPTER 9

358
Q

The Acquire Project Team process involves getting the human resources assigned to the project. What is the project manager’s responsibility in this process?

A
  • Identify the appropriate personnel
  • Document the skills or knowledge needed
  • Negotiate with functional managers and other project managers for the desired resources
  • Assign the project staff
  • Create a team directory

CHAPTER 9

359
Q

What is the belief on which the project manager’s penalty or punishment authority is base?

A

The project manager can inflict unpleasant consequences

CHAPTER 9

360
Q

What are the stages of team development?

A
  • Forming
  • Storming
  • Norming
  • Performing
  • Adjourning

CHAPTER 9

361
Q

According to Herzberg’s Hygiene Theory, what are the 2 factors that contribute to motivation?

A

Hygiene factors and motivating factors

CHAPTER 9

362
Q

What is McGregor’s Theory X?

A

assumes people are generally lazy and will avoid work unless threatened. They require constant supervision, have no ambition, and require direct control to work effectively. Theory X managers believe people are motivated by punishment or money

CHAPTER 9

363
Q

What are the 4 elements of the Situational Continuum Model?

A
  • Tell or direct: The project manager tells the team or a subordinate what to do
  • Sell or coach: The project manager guides or leads through creative questioning
  • Participate: The project manager works with the team or subordinate to lead them
  • Delegate: The project manager delegates work or issues to the team or subordinate

CHAPTER 9

364
Q

What is the new view of conflict?

A

Conflict is necessary, can be beneficial, allows the team to grow and come up with more creative project solutions, and is best resolved by the team members and their immediate manager

CHAPTER 9

365
Q

Which conflict resolution techniques are noted in PMBOK?

A
  • withdraw/avoid
  • Smooth/Accomodate
  • Compromise/Reconcile
  • Force/Direct
  • Collaborate/Problem Solve

CHAPTER 9

366
Q

What is representative authority?

A

Authority that is granted to an individual by a group

CHAPTER 9

367
Q

Name 9 communication skills (most are also common for general management skills).

A
  • Listening actively and effectively
  • Questioning to ensure better understanding
  • Educating to be more effective
  • Fact-finding
  • Setting and managing expectations
  • Persuading to act
  • Negotiating agreements
  • Resolving conflict
  • Summarizing, recapping, and identifying the next steps

CHAPTER 10

368
Q

In communication between a sender and receiver, who is responsible for making sure that the information is received, understood, and acknowledged?

A

The receiver

CHAPTER 10

369
Q

What are some information distribution tools?

A
  • Hard copy distribution
  • Electronic communication and conferencing
  • Electronic tools

CHAPTER 10

370
Q

What is included in work performance measurements?

A
  • Planned versus actual schedule
  • Planned versus actual cost performance
  • Planned versus actual technical performance

CHAPTER 10

371
Q

What are the 5 tools and techniques used in the Manage Communications process?

A
  • Communication technology
  • Communication models
  • Communication methods
  • Information management systems
  • Performance reporting

CHAPTER 10

372
Q

What are the strategies for negative risks (threats)?

A
  • Avoid
  • Transfer
  • Mitigate
  • Accept

CHAPTER 11

373
Q

What is the purpose of the planning meetings and analysis in the Plan Risk Management process?

A

Conducting high-level plans for risk management activities, which might:

  • Determine the definitions of risk, probability, and impact for projects
  • Assign risk responsibilities
  • Establish risk reserve approaches
  • Tailor templates for risk documents
  • Develop cost elements and schedule activities for the project budget and schedule

CHAPTER 11

374
Q

Why is the stakeholder register an input to Identify Risks?

A

Key stakeholders, especially customers, identified in the stakeholder register should participate in identifying risks

CHAPTER 11

375
Q

What is a trigger condition?

A

An event or situation that indicates that a risk is about to occur

CHAPTER 11

376
Q

Updates to the risk register are key outputs of which 4 Project Risk Management processes?

A
  • Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
  • Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
  • Plan Risk Responses
  • Control Risks

CHAPTER 11

377
Q

Risk related contract decisions are outputs of which Project Risk Management process?

A

Plan Risk Responses

CHAPTER 11

378
Q

What is PTA (points of total assumption)?

A

PTA is the not-to-exceed cost, set by the buyer, in a cost-plus contract. When the actual costs differ from the estimated costs, the buyer and seller split the difference along an agreed-upon split. Any costs above the PTA must be paid solely by the seller. The formula:

PTA=[ceiling price-total price/buyer share]+Total Cost

CHAPTER 12

379
Q

What are some characteristics of a contract?

A
  • Formal, mutually binding agreement between parties
  • Terms are enforceable by the legal system
  • Changes must be formally controlled and in writing
  • All requirements should be stated in the contract
  • All contractual requirements must be met
  • All requirements including reporting requirements, payments terms, ownership and copyright terms must be documented in the contract

CHAPTER 12

380
Q

What are the characteristics of a time and material contract?

A
  • The buyer and seller both share the risk of costs
  • It is a cross between fixed-price and cost plus contracts
  • The unit price is established but not the quantity
  • The scope of work does not have to be known
  • The total price of the contract is initially unknown

CHAPTER 12

381
Q

What is the purpose of the contract SOW?

A

To describe the work the contractor will provide in enough detail that sellers can determine whether they can provide the needed services

CHAPTER 12

382
Q

Selected sellers, agreements, resource calendars, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates are outputs for which Project Procurement Management process?

A

Conduct Procurements

CHAPTER 12

383
Q

What is involved in the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A

Communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and to address issues they bring up as they occur

CHAPTER 13

384
Q

What are the interpersonal skills that the project manager might apply when managing stakeholder engagement?

A
  • Building trust
  • Resolving conflict
  • Actively listening
  • Overcoming resistance to change

CHAPTER 13

385
Q

What are the 4 inputs to the Plan Stakeholder Management process?

A
  • Project management plan
  • Stakeholder register
  • Enterprise environmental factors
  • Organizational process assets

CHAPTER 13

386
Q

What are the 3 tools and techniques used in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

A
  • information management systems
  • Expert judgment
  • Meetings

CHAPTER 13

387
Q

According to PMBOK what is a program?

A

A group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually

CHAPTER 2

388
Q

What is a stakeholder?

A

An individual, group, or organization who may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project

CHAPTER 2

389
Q

What are common characteristics of project life cycles?

A
  • The phases are sequential in nature
  • They embrace the transfer of technical information from one phase to another as necessary
  • Costs and staffing levels usually
    • Are low at the beginning
    • Peak somewhere in the middle phases
    • Drop off rapidly toward the end
390
Q

What is another name for a functional organization?

A

Traditional organization

CHAPTER 2

391
Q

How is a functional organization organized?

A

A functional organization is structured as a hierarchical organization where each employee has one clear superior, and staff are groups by areas of specialization and are managed by a person with expertise in that area.

CHAPTER 2

392
Q

Which Project Integration Management process occurs in the PLanning Process Group?

A

Develop Project Management Plan

CHAPTER 3

393
Q

How would you describe Project Scope Management?

A

Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

CHAPTER 3

394
Q

What are the 7 processes of Project Time Management?

A
  • Plan Schedule Management
  • Define Activities
  • Sequence Activities
  • Estimate Activity Resources
  • Estimate Activity Durations
  • Develop Schedule
  • Control Schedule

CHAPTER 3

395
Q

Which Project Cost Management processes occur in the Planning Process Group?

A
  • Plan Cost Management
  • Estimate Costs
  • Determine Budget

CHAPTER 3

396
Q

Which Project Quality Management process occurs in the Executing Process Group?

A

Perform Quality Assurance

CHAPTER 3

397
Q

Which Project Human Resource Management processes occur in the Executing Process Group?

A
  • Acquire Project Team
  • Develop Project Team
  • Manage Project Team

CHAPTER 3

398
Q

Which Project Communications Management process occurs in the Executing Process Group?

A

Manage Communications

CHAPTER 3