PMP deck Flashcards

1
Q

100 point method

A

a voting scheme of the type that is used in brainstorming exercises. Each stakeholder is given 100 points that he or she can use for voting in favor of the most important requirements. The 100 points can be distributed in any way that the stakeholder desires.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

100% rule

A

Any work package in the WBS should consist of 100% of all work for the work package. If you miss something add and recalculate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A3

A

A way of thinking and systematic problem solving process that collects pertinent information on a single sheet of A3 paper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acceptance criteria

A

refers to specific conditions that must be met for a project to be considered complete. typically focused at user story level. Acceptance criteria is usually based on a project’s objectives; it includes things like delivering a working product, meeting deadlines, or fulfilling specific customer requirements. The WHAT. (DoD is the how)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

affinity grouping

A

Estimating method of classifying items into categories. T-shirt sizes, Fibonacci numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

agile vs incremental

A

If the project team plans only for the following iteration in detail, then this is an agile life cycle, not an incremental life cycle. But in incremental, the project team plans the project as much as they know and they make changes to the plans as they move forward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Always on fishbowl windows

A

Remote agile. 5-8 people. People inside the fishbowl chat, outsiders listen. Long lived video conference link for the whole workday. Reduce collaboration lag.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

analogous estimating

A

comps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Assumption log

A

The assumption log is a document where you will record all assumptions identified in the project. The assumption log is created as an output of the Develop Project Charter process early in the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Auditing

A

Auditing examines a project’s goals and achievements, including adequacy, accuracy, efficiency, effectiveness, and compliance with applicable methodologies and regulations. It tends to be a formal, one-sided process that can be highly demoralizing to team members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

burndown chart

A

work remaining in a time box or remaining story points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

burnup chart

A

work completed toward a deliverable or completed story points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Business analyst

A

If a business analyst is assigned to a project, requirement-related activities are the responsibility of that role.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Business documents

A

Business case and benefits management plan (summary of the project’s benefits expected by the business, how they will be delivered and how they will be measured.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

change control board

A

Group of people accountable for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying or rejection changes to the project. Predictive only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

change management by project type

A

Predicitve: prevent change. Agile: don’t try to prevent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Change request

A

Usually required in order to modify a deliverable. Waterfall. “may be a corrective action, a preventive action, or a defect repair” . Trigger perform integrated change control process. CCB may or may not approve/be relevant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

change saturation

A

attempting too much change in too short a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

communication channels

A

Based on the number of people that talk to each other in a project, you calculate the number of communication channels. We can represent it numerically using the
n (n – 1) /2 formula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

completion criteria

A

specific outcomes that the project was supposed to achieve to be determined successful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

completion criteria

A

Answer these two critical questions about each work package: (1) What does it mean to be complete with this task? (2) How will we know it was done correctly?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

configuration management

A

It tracks the different revisions to the design, blueprints, technical specifications, and can tell you which one is the latest revision, so that the right part can be identified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

conflicts on team

A

talk to members separately to find out root cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

constrained optimization

A

In a constrained optimization method, you make complex mathematical calculations to select a project. These mathematical calculations are based on various best and worst case scenarios, and probability of the project outcome. Depending on the outcome of these calculations, you compare the candidate projects and the select a project with the best outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

constraints in a contract

A

contractual provisions that are limiting factors for the contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Contingency reserves

A

to offset known risks. Contingency reserve can be removed when the identified risk does not occur. Then, it returns to the company or client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Continuous integration

A

Continuous integration requires the upfront writing of automated tests. Continuous integration cannot guarantee zero bugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

contract performance reporting

A

document the performance of the sellers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Control chart

A

Control charts illustrate how a process behaves over time and defines the acceptable range of results. Control charts commonly have three types of lines:

Upper and lower specification limits
Upper and lower control limits
Planned or goal value
When a process is outside the acceptable limits, the process is adjusted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

cost objectives

A

the budget goals for a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cost of quality

A

refers to all of the costs that are incurred to prevent defects in products, or costs that are a result of defects in products.
includes They are Cost of Conformance and Cost of Non Conformance. quality is driven by prevention. Quality strives to complete the work correctly the first time to prevent negative results and loss of time and money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

cost reimbursable contract

A

use RFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cost variance

A

Simple: Actual vs planned. EVM: CV=earned value-Actual cost…positive CV means under budget.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CPI

A

How efficiently the work is being performed with regard to budgeted cost. Earned value/actual costs. Greater than 1 is good, less than 1 is bad.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

crash

A

Add resources to a project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Crystal methods

A

Crystal is an agile framework focusing on individuals and their interactions, as opposed to processes and tools. processes should be modeled to meet the requirements of the team.The methods are color-coded to signify the risk to human life. For example, projects that may involve risk to human life will use Crystal Sapphire while projects that do not have such risks will use Crystal Clear. Hybrid tailoring methodology. Scalable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cumulative flow diagram

A

Indicates features completed over time, in development, in backlog. Stacked waves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Daily scrum questions

A

What did you do yesterday?
What will you do today?
What (if anything) is blocking your progress?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Defect trend analysis

A

Agile/scrum. Defect Trend chart shows the cumulative defects opened versus cumulative defects closed for the last 30 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Design of Experments

A

The design of experiments (DOE) is a tool for simultaneously testing multiple factors in a process to observe the results. Credited to statistician Sir Ronald A. Fisher, DOE is often used in manufacturing settings in an attempt to zero in on a region of values where the process is close to optimization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

design for x

A

Design for X (DfX) is a set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design. The “X” in DfX can be different aspects of product development, such as reliability, deployment, assembly, manufacturing, cost, service, usability, safety and quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

dynamic scope clause

A

in a contract, gives the buyer the buyer flexibility to add or remove features to the product in the future (without changing the size of the work package)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

EMV

A

expected monetary value (of risk) = p(risk)*$ impact. Impact included payoff minus cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Estimate at completion

A

EAC. Forecasting technique,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Earned value

A

Earned Value = Percent complete (actual) x Task Budget.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

exception report

A

Exception Report is a focused report drawing attention to instances where planned and actual results are expected to be, or are already, significantly different. Note: an exception report is usually triggered when actual values are expected to cross a predetermined threshold that is set with reference to the project plan. The actual values may be trending better or worse than plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Executing processes

A

performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Expectancy theory

A

Expectancy theory suggests that individuals are motivated to perform if they know that their extra performance is recognized and rewarded (Vroom, 1964). Consequently, companies using performance-based pay can expect improvements. Performance-based pay can link rewards to the amount of products employees produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Exploratory testing

A

The simultaneous process of test design and test execution. Unlike scripted testing, it doesn’t restrict the tester to a predefined set of instructions. This shouldn’t be seen as a lack of preparation but rather as a method of not constraining the tester.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Exploratory testing

A

Focused on user stories, not functional details. Exploratory testing should be used in addition to functional testing. Exploratory testing is not for testing within the story but for testing the functional aspect of the completed story.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

F2F

A

predecessor must finish before this task finishes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

fast track

A

Perform activities in parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Feature driven development

A

Iterative and incremental driven from client perspective. Provides the most complete set of methods for the needs of large software development projects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Five directions of stakeholder influence

A

The five directions to include are Upward, Downward, Outward, Sideward, and Prioritization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

force field analysis

A

a framework for understanding the factors which can influence and impact a potential change. This change can be associated with an individual, organizational, or improvement project. For change to happen, the driving (helping) forces must be strengthened, or the resisting (hindering) forces weakened.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

FPIF vs FPAF contract

A

Incentive vs award fee. A FPAF contract is used to motivate contractors for aspects of performance that cannot be measured objectively.. FPIF more objective (cost or schedule metrics).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

gap analysis

A

comparison of actual performance with potential or desired performance; that is the current state and the desired future state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Generalizing specialist

A

A generalized specialist is not a jack of all trades. It is an individual with deep knowledge in a particular specialization who also has learned to be productive in other team roles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Good communication

A

High information density and high interactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Gulf of evaluation

A

gap between an external stimulus and a person’s interpretation of it. In simple words, the gulf of evaluation is the struggle of realistically judging the current state of the system and the level of aid that the artifacts provide us to do this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Gulf of execution

A

gap between what the user desires to do and how they carry out that intent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

hard vs soft logic

A

about dependencies. Hard logic dependencies are inherent in the work (foundation first, then floors). soft logic dependencies are best practices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Herzberg’s theory

A

otivation-Hygiene theory or Two-factor theory. According to the theory, people’s job satisfaction depends on two kinds of factors, hygiene factors (work conditions, relationships) and motivators (challenge, responsibility, recognition).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

impediment vs obstacle vs blocker

A

Impediment: something that slows down or hinders progress. Obstacle: something you need to move, go around, avoid, or overcome, using a strategy. Blocker: causes work to stop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Initiating processes

A

performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project, including obtaining authorization to start or phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Integrated change control

A

the process of reviewing all change requests within a project, analyzing those requests and implementing approved changes. Must be well documented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

integrated project delivery

A

“Integrated project delivery is a collaborative alliance of people, systems, business structures and practices into a process that harnesses the talents and insights of all participants to optimize project results, increase value to the owner, reduce waste, and maximize efficiency through all phases of design, fabrication, and construction.” Collaboration and co-location are the primary ways that allow the integrated team to integrate processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Invitation for Bid

A

IFBs are typically used when purchasing goods and services when the government agency knows exactly what it needs to purchase. There will be little, if any, variation between the scope of the contract from one vendor to the next. Thus, price becomes the sole factor – lowest bidder wins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Iterative vs incremental

A

Iterative allows feedback on partially completed work, while incremental provides deliverables that can be used immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

KPIs

A

Key performance indicators, which are tied to business goals. all KPIs are metrics, not all metrics are KPIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Lessons learned: What, who, what result

A

what went right, wrong, needs to be improved. team creates, report to stakeholders. PM should not lead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Management reserves

A

to offset unknown risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Maslows needs

A

physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

McClelland’s theory of needs

A

People need achievement, affiliation, or power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Monitoring and controlling processes

A

include tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress and performance of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

MoSCoW

A

Prioritization schema. Stands for Must have Should have Could have Won’t have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Murder board

A

This is a pre-initiation meeting that allows senior management and other decision makers to determine if the project should be launched or not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

negotiations goal

A

collaboration (not win/lose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Net present value

A

Positive NPV (NPV > 0): the project is profitable. The anticipated financial gains outweigh your present-day investment.
Negative NPV (NPV < 0): the project is not profitable. Expenses are more significant than returns, so you will likely lose money on this project. NPV numbers are already discounted.

80
Q

Opportunity cost

A

Value of the alternative that was not chosen.

81
Q

Ouichi Theory Z

A

States that workers need to be involved with the management process. Places more reliance on the attitude and responsibilities of the workers.

82
Q

Parametric estimating

A

calculate an estimate based on known or historical data scaled to parameters in your current project

83
Q

Pareto chart

A

A Pareto chart is a bar graph. The lengths of the bars represent frequency or cost (time or money), and are arranged with longest bars on the left and the shortest to the right. In this way the chart visually depicts which situations are more significant.

84
Q

Parkinson’s law

A

work expands to fill the time available.

85
Q

PESTLE

A

studies the key external factors (Political, Economic, Sociological, Technological, Legal and Environmental) that influence an organisation. A PESTLE analysis allows a strategic and systematic evaluation of a business’s prospects, risks and opportunities in a new environment. While a SWOT analysis concentrates on a company’s internal processes, PESTLE provides information on external factors.

86
Q

Planned value

A

the budgeted cost for the work scheduled to be done. This is the portion of the project budget planned to be spent at any given point in time. This is also known as the budgeted cost of work scheduled (BCWS)

87
Q

Planning processes

A

required to establish the project’s scope, refine objectives, and define the course of action needed to accomplish the project’s objectives.

88
Q

point of total assumption

A

point on FFP contract where the seller bears all the cost overrun .

89
Q

Precedence diagramming

A

top number: duration. top corners: forward pass (earliest dates). Bottom corners: backward pass (latest dates). Bottom number: Float (difference between bottom and top corners on either side)

90
Q

Present value

A

Found by taking the future value and dividing by 1 plus the interest rate, to the power of N time periods. Let’s say you are comparing two projects to decide which one to pursue. Project A has an NPV of $10,000 and takes three years to complete. Project B has an NPV of $20,000 and takes five years to complete. Which project will you choose?

Since NPV already considers the time value of money, you don’t need to account for how long a project takes to complete. Therefore, you only need to compare the net present values of each project. Project B has a higher NPV, so that is the project you should choose.

91
Q

procurement package

A

A procurement package is a formal documentation that describes the goods, services, and/or works to be procured (bought) by an organization, which contains all the information and instructions necessary for suppliers and prospective bidders to understand the scope of the procurement and to prepare and submit their bids, including the contract documents, specifications and conditions of contract. Help ensure that sellers are submitting complete proposals.

92
Q

Product analysis

A

Product Analysis for projects that have a product as a deliverable, it is a tool to define scope that generally means asking questions about a product and forming answers to describe the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects of what is going to be built or manufactured.

93
Q

product owner

A

responsible for maximizing the value of the product and he/she manages/makes changes in the Product Backlog (project manager does not). Relative risk, MVP, and product roadmap matter to managing backlog. team capacity does not (that happens in sprint planning). Product owner Attends daily standup.

94
Q

Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

A

A technique used to estimate project duration through a weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely activity durations when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates. related to three-point estimating. PERT is determined using three points: Optimistic (O), Most Likely (M), and Pessimistic (P).
PERT estimate formula is: (O + 4M +P) / 6

95
Q

project brief

A

High level overview of goals, deliverables, and processes for the project

96
Q

Project charter

A

A project charter sets out the scope, objectives, and people involved in the project. This formal document uses all that information to authorize the project. So the charter lets the project manager use organizational and outsourced resources to complete the project. Once the Project Charter is approved, it cannot be changed throughout the project life cycle.

97
Q

project governance

A

he set of rules, procedures and policies that determine how projects are managed and overseen. These rules and procedures define how decisions are made during projects. As part of the oversight process, project governance also determines the metrics by which project success is measured.

98
Q

project management plan

A

Describes how project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed

99
Q

Project network diagram

A

depicted as a chart with a series of boxes and arrows. This network diagram tool is used to map out the schedule and work sequence for the project, as well as track its progress through each stage — up to and including completion.

100
Q

Project phases

A

Initiation, planning, execution, monitor and control, close

101
Q

Project resiliency:how to support

A

Tackle emergent risks. Right budget and schedule contingencies, flexible processes, empowered team, frequent review of early warning signs.

102
Q

Project scope statement

A

work or deliverables that need to be met in order to complete a project. To manage that in waterfall projects (traditional), we use a project scope statement - project planning document where we define the scope of the project. Includes:
Product scope description, deliverables, acceptance criteria, project exclusions

103
Q

Project stakeholders

A

individuals and organizations who are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion”. Project stakeholders usually include the project manager, the customer, team members within the performing organization, and the project sponsor.

104
Q

Prompt list

A

Risk ID technique. checklist with a category of risk. This tool is a simple series of broad risks, such as Environmental or Legal, rather than specific risks, like flooding or regulatory changes. The idea is to push (prompt) you to think and brainstorm of risks in groups and eventually prioritize them.

105
Q

Pure risk

A

can only have negative outcomes i

106
Q

PV

A

Planned value. the budgeted cost for the work scheduled to be done. This is the portion of the project budget planned to be spent at any given point in time.

107
Q

quality objectives

A

level of quality in the products or services delivered

108
Q

Referent power

A

a type of power that stems from a leader’s ability to inspire and influence others. This authority comes from the extent to which people admire, respect, and like a specific leader

109
Q

relative weighting prioritization

A

Agile prioritization method. The priority and rank are determined by dividing the value score as below:
(Benefit score + Penalty score) / (Cost score + Risk score)
In relative weighting prioritization, if the results come out in numerical value, it becomes easier for the product owner to arrive at a faster prioritizing decision.

110
Q

Requirements management plan

A

How to ID, document, control project requirements. describes the requirements artifacts, requirement types (including attributes), the requirements management process, and the metrics and tools to be used for measuring, reporting, and controlling changes to the requirements.

111
Q

requirements traceability matrix

A

This chart is a table that tracks each requirement through all the associated phases of the project until each requirement is considered done.

112
Q

residual risk

A

risk leftover after a primary risk is responded to and proper precautions have been taken

113
Q

Secondary risk

A

risk response creates a different risk that must still be managed.

114
Q

resource level

A

adjust start and finish so supply of resources meets demand

115
Q

resource management plan

A

how resources are acquired, allocated, monitored, and controlled

116
Q

retrospective meeting

A

During retrospective meetings, the team discusses how they did with the previous iteration. Newly learned lessons are added to the retrospective findings, therefore, retrospective findings are updated as a result of these meetings. Retrospectives can also be helpful for knowledge transfer, too. But the following iteration is not planned during this meeting.

117
Q

RFP vs RFQ vs IFB

A
118
Q

risk analysis - when to do what type

A

Do qualitative risk analysis for all risks in the risk register. Use that to prioritize. Then, do quantitative risk analysis for the prioritized risks.

119
Q

Risk management plan

A

General approach to managing risks on the project. Does not address specific risks that might arise, only how they will be managed

120
Q

Risk report

A

Info on overall project risk and summary info on individual risks

121
Q

Risk responses should be

A

(1) appropriate for the significance of the risk, (2) cost effective, (3) realistic within project context, (4) agreed to by relevant stakeholders and (5) owned by a responsible person

122
Q

risk trigger

A

identifies the risk symptoms or warning signs. a indicator that a risk is about to occur or has occurred

123
Q

risk vs issue

A

Risk is an event that has not happened yet but may; an issue is something that already has happened. The main differences are related to timing and probability.

124
Q

Rolling wave planning

A

Iterative planning technique. Near term work planned in detail, future work planned at a higher level.

125
Q

Run chart

A

A run chart is a line graph that shows data points over time. Run charts are helpful in identifying trends and predicting future performance.

Run charts are similar to control charts, plotting data results over time, however there are no defined control limits.

126
Q

Salience model for stakeholder analysis

A

Analyze stakeholders based on power, urgency, legitimacy (appropriate involvement)

127
Q

schedule variance

A

simple: performance on critical path. EVM: SV= earned value-planned value

128
Q

Scope baseline: elements and what it’s part of

A

Approved version of scope statement, WBS, and associated WBS dictionary . Necessary to get approval as part of project management plan.

129
Q

scope management plan

A

In PM plan. How the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated

130
Q

Scrum master

A

Makes sure team working conditions are appropriate and sustainable

131
Q

selecting a seller in contracts

A

According to buyer firm’s selection criteria. may not necessarily be “best weighted score”

132
Q

seven basic quality tools

A

Stratification
Histogram
Check sheet (tally sheet)
Cause and effect diagram (fishbone or Ishikawa diagram)
Pareto chart (80-20 rule)
Scatter diagram
Control chart (Shewhart chart)

133
Q

Single source

A

Many vendors, and you prefer one (sole source = only one vendor available)

134
Q

SLA

A

service level agreement (SLA) is part of a contract between a service provider and a customer, defining the types and standards of services to be offered. Focuses on what seller must do/perform not on the purchaser.

135
Q

smoke testing

A

a software testing process that determines whether the deployed software build is stable or not. Smoke testing is a confirmation for QA team to proceed with further software testing. It consists of a minimal set of tests run on each build to test software functionalities. Smoke testing is also known as “Build Verification Testing” or “Confidence Testing.”

136
Q

SPI

A

How efficiently the scheduled work is being performed. Earned value/planned value. Greater than 1 is good, less than 1 is bad.

137
Q

Spotify model

A

The Spotify model is a scaled agile approach, which emphasizes on the importance of culture, network, people engagement and contribution. It helps organizations to increase their innovation, communication, accountability and quality.

138
Q

sprint review

A

demonstrate/approve latest updates from the sprint (not for retrospective/prioritizing)

139
Q

Stakeholder management

A

Actively working with stakeholders and resolving their issues

140
Q

Stakeholder register

A

Identifies stakeholders and their involvement in the project. Different form engagement plan because engagement plan reflects how to engage stakeholders (processes tools techniques)

141
Q

study the process workflow and outputs

A
142
Q

Summary description

A

is an overview of the project or phase presented when the project or phase is closed.

143
Q

T&M contract

A

use when scope is unclear

144
Q

TCPI

A

To Completion Performance index. How efficiently must we use our remaining resources (financial)? A measure of the cost performance that is achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal, expressed as the ratio of the cost to finish the outstanding work to the remaining budget.

145
Q

Technical review board

A

used when a change request is made to an existing project

146
Q

theory of constraints

A

a methodology for identifying the most important limiting factor (i.e., constraint) that stands in the way of achieving a goal …By its very nature, the Theory of Constraints calls for the type of continuous process improvement that is the focus of Lean, Six Sigma and Lean Six Sigma

147
Q

Macgregor Theory X Y

A

In management, X, Y and Z are theories of human motivation relating to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and how human behavior and motivation are factors in productivity. McGregor’s XY theory is mainly focused on management and motivation from the manager’s and organization’s perspective. Theory X: authoritative mgt. Theory Y: Participative/incentive based management.

148
Q

throughput (chart)

A

Accepted deliverables (over time)

149
Q

tight matrix

A

co-location of team members

150
Q

Triangular distribution

A

Triangular Distribution: E = (o + m + p ) / 3

where E is Estimate; o = optimistic estimate; p = pessimistic estimate; m = most likely estimate
(three-point estimating alternate to PERT)

151
Q

Tuckman’s ladder

A

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and adjourning

152
Q

upper control limit

A

a boundary for a control chart’s quality

153
Q

utility function

A

willingness to tolerate risk

154
Q

validate scope

A

part of monitor and control process. process of formal acceptance of a project or phase’s deliverables.

155
Q

Value analysis

A

looks into reducing the overall cost of the project without impacting the scope.

156
Q

Value stream mapping

A

Measures ratio of value-adding activities to non value-adding activities. Lean method. document, analyze, improve flow of information or materials, identify waste

157
Q

Velocity

A

rate of completion per sprint in agile. excludes in-progress user stories. Customer can only derive value from completed user stories.

158
Q

WBS (3 levels)

A

Work breakdown structure. Hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by team to accomplish objectives and create deliverables. Decompose scope into 1. Control accounts 2. Planning packages 3. Work packages

159
Q

WBS dictionary

A

Supporting document for WBS that provides detailed information about each component in WBS. Includes acceptance criteria for each work package.

160
Q

WBS>Work package>Activity list: example

A

a work package in my “Cook Christmas Dinner” project’s WBS might be Baking a fruit cake. The activities would be the major individual steps in the recipe to bake the fruit cake.

161
Q

weak vs strong matrix

A

power to functional manager vs project manager

162
Q

What do you need to create the project budget

A

schedule and cost estimates

163
Q

when is incremental best?

A

best suited for projects with dynamic requirements, as well as frequent small deliveries. Additionally, it should be used for projects where speed to deliver small increments is an important goa

164
Q

Which documents provide relevant information to decide the continued viability at a stage gate?

A
  1. Project charter, 2 business case, 3 benefits management plan. 2+3 are called the business documents
165
Q

Who enforces project rules?

A

Project team members. PM may lead/escalate.

166
Q

wideband delphi

A

Estimating method where SMEs complete multiple rounds of estimates, discuss, converge on consensus. H and L estimators explain their rationale. Planning poker is a variation.

167
Q

Work authorization system

A

enables PM to assign the project team to work.

168
Q

Work package

A

Lowest level in wbs

169
Q

workaround

A

response to an immediate risk

170
Q

XP

A

Extreme Programming (XP) is an agile software development framework that aims to produce higher quality software, and higher quality of life for the development team. Hybrid tailoring methodology. XP is best used by a small team of programmers, between 2 and 12. Not scalable.

171
Q

expert judgement

A

OUTSIDE experts, not the PM’s judgement

172
Q

CTQ

A

Critical to Quality Tree (also known as a CTQ Tree) is a Six Sigma tool used to identify the needs of the customer and translate that information into measurable product and process requirements. It allows organizations to understand the characteristics of a product or service that most drives quality for customers.

173
Q

quantitative risk management

A

the process of converting the impact of risk on the project into numerical terms.

174
Q

Quality management processes

A
  1. plan 2. assure 3. control
175
Q

definitive vs budget vs ROM estimate

A

They differ in their levels of accuracy. Rough Order of Magnitude Estimate: -25 percent to +75 percent
Budget Estimate: -10 percent to +25 percent
Definitive Estimate: -5 percent to +10 percent

176
Q

which artifacts can come from templates

A

scope management plans, WBS and project scope change control forms .

177
Q

business case

A

the compelling reason for the project’s existence, and closely managing it is critical since any changes are likely to affect all aspects of the project. However, it does not provide information to the project manager on project-related activities.

178
Q

Finish to finish

A

a relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity also finishes. Best if one thing can start while the other is partially but not completely finished

179
Q

when to use progress reporting

A

Progress reporting is helpful if stakeholders prefer to keep a close watch on the status of projects, understand the fundamentals of a project well, and do not have time to perform a deep dive.

180
Q

personal bias

A

non-objective perspective based on an appraiser’s experiences and preferences rather than objective measures. Appraisers should be cautious and skeptical about their ability to gauge a person’s abilities with whom they have a conflict.

181
Q

strictness or leniency error

A

The strictness or leniency error is the tendency for an appraiser to grade in an excessively strict or lenient manner.

182
Q

systemic behavior

A

holistic behavior and is described as working together and for the common good. You might see systemic behavior as the golden rule – treating others as you want to be treated. Patiently explaining complex systems to other people is especially important for people with systemic behavior personality indicators.

183
Q

courteous behavior

A

allows people to empathize with others’ positions while also considering their concerns.

184
Q

what to do if none of the answers are great choices

A

choose the answer that has the most definitive result ( Give them a test/survey rather than have convos with everyone.)

185
Q

nonconformance costs

A

loss of customers, rework, downtime

186
Q

quality control

A

its concern is not the acceptance of the work being done but the quality or CORRECTNESS of the work.

187
Q

when to identify stakeholders

A

Stakeholders can be identified in the project’s initiating, planning, executing, monitoring, and controlling phases. Stakeholders should be identified throughout a project, except at the closing phase.

188
Q

cost of conformance

A

PREVENTION costs. This includes acquiring and maintaining equipment, planning, training your team, and keeping good documentation. It can also include having the right people for the job, doing good research, and more.
APPRAISAL costs include any resources used to identify or fix errors in deliverables during the project.

189
Q

mitigate risk

A

proactively change the plan lower the probability or impact

190
Q

qualitative risk analysis

A

Ranking risk is based on the qualitative values of very high, high, medium, low, and very low attributes of identified risks

191
Q

RFP

A

generally an opportunity for sellers to describe how they would tackle a custom project on behalf of the buyer (HOW)

192
Q

RFI

A

The request for information is a request for an in-depth description of a product or service offered by a seller (WHAT)

193
Q

project sponsor

A

focused on the big picture of their project. She wants to know if the team will deliver the expected value on time and on budget. She attends the review meetings and is the project’s primary advocate.

194
Q

source selection: when?

A

executing stage

195
Q

spike

A

used to investigate new technologies or training for the team.

196
Q

weak matrix

A

functional management will have more authority than the project manager.

197
Q

strong matrix

A

the project manager has most of the decision-making power over the project, while the department head has more limited authority.