PMP Basics Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the scope baseline, contained in the project management plan?

Project Scope Statement
​WBS
​WBS Dictionary
​Requirements Documentation

A

Requirements Documentation

is an input to the project scope baseline’s development, however it is not a component of the scope baseline itself. These documents describe how individual requirements satisfy business needs. They begin as high-level items that are progressively elaborated upon as more information is known.

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2
Q

Components of Scope Baseline are:

A

Project Scope Statement
​WBS
​WBS Dictionary

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3
Q

Which conflict resolution technique is most likely to result in a permanent resolution?

Compromise
​Smoothing
​Collaborate/Problem Solve
​Negotiation

A

The collaborate/problem solve is the best way to resolve conflict.

Multiple viewpoints are discussed and shared using this technique while team members have the opportunity to examine all the perspectives of the issue. Collaborating will lead to a true consensus where team members commit to the decision. This is the conflict resolution approach project managers use most often and is an example of a win-win conflict resolution.

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4
Q

Identification of organizational strategies, goals, and objectives, analyzing the situation, making recommendations, and defining evaluation criteria best describe:

A

A Business Case

Which can used as an input to the develop Project Charter process.

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5
Q

Interpersonal skills displayed by communicating a vision and inspiring stakeholders to support the work and outcomes of the project:

A

Leadership Skills

Successful stakeholder engagement requires strong leadership skills in communicating a vision and inspire stakeholders to support the work and outcomes of the project. Leadership skills guide and direct the team in accomplishing the project’s objectives.

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6
Q

A document that lists all the project team members, their roles, and communication information:

A

A Project Team Directory

The team directory is a documented list of project team members, their project roles, and communication information. A RAM will indicate each project team member as well, however it shows different information although there may be some overlap between the two (i.e. team member’s skill or position title). A RAM is usually depicted as a chart or table and indicates which member is assigned to which task as well as all those they are responsible for overseeing.

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7
Q

An output from the Close Project or Phase Process:

Organizational Process Asset Updates
Accepted Deliverables
Work Performance Information
Change Requests

A

Organizational Process Asset Updates

Project documents updates, final product, service, or result transition, final report and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of the close project or phase process. This is a vitally important area to understand when conducting projects as it culminates the work completed and provides guidance into the future regarding the project’s creation (whether a good, service, update, or other).

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8
Q

The configuration control should be focused on the specification of:

Schedule and Quality
​Risk and Resources
​Deliverables and Processes
Scope and Cost

A

Deliverables and Processes

Configuration control should be focussed on deliverables and processes. This is in direct contrast to change control, which focusses on identifying, documenting, and approving change requests pertaining to project documents or baselines.

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9
Q

A tool and technique used in the manage quality process?

Quality Control Measurements
​Design for X (DfX)
Quality Metrics
​Benchmarking

A

Design for X (DfX)

Design for X (DfX) is a set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design. DfX can control or even improve the product’s final characteristics. The X in DfX can be different aspects of product development, such as reliability, deployment, assembly, manufacturing, cost, service, usability, safety, and quality. Using DfX may result in cost reduction, quality improvement, better performance, and customer satisfaction.

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10
Q

In which process are the project deliverables reviewed and accepted?

Control Scope
​Closing
​Plan Scope
​Validate Scope

A

Validate Scope

Validate scope is the process in which the customer and sponsor verify that the deliverables match what was agreed upon in the scope of the project.

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11
Q

Which project management process provides inputs to the formal acceptance of project deliverables?

Control Quality
​Control Scope
​Manage Quality
​Validate Scope

A

Control Quality

Formal acceptance of project deliverables occurs through the validate scope process. The control quality process is responsible for verifying the correctness of a deliverable, while the validate scope process is responsible for obtaining formal acceptance of the deliverable. Verified deliverables that are completed and checked for correctness through the control quality process becomes an inputs into the validate scope process. Formal acceptance occurs after quality control activities are performed.

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12
Q

Which of the following is a valid tool or technique that aids the project manager in developing the project charter?

Organizational Process Assets
​Information Management
​Expert Judgement
Decision Making

A

Expert Judgement

Expert Judgment is one of the four sets of tools and techniques of the Develop Project Management Plan process. The other tools and techniques include the following: meetings, data gathering (Brainstorming, checklists, focus groups, interviews), and interpersonal and team skills (conflict management, facilitation, meeting management). The other options listed are incorrect.

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13
Q

A component-specific tool to verify that a set of required steps has been performed. This tool is called a(n):

PDCA Check
​Assumption Log
​Checklist
Risk Register

A

Checklist

A checklist is a structured tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed. Many organizations have standardized checklists in their SOP’s and processes performed frequently. An organization may also elect to use generic risk checklists from the industry they operate in.

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14
Q

Which of the following is an example of a chart, used on agile/adaptive projects, that tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog?

Burndown Chart
Histogram
​Control Chart
​Scatter Diagrams

A

Burndown Chart

An iteration burndown chart tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog. The rest of the choices are quality management tools.

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15
Q

Which of the following stakeholder groups- especially if large in size- is ideal for overall project success?

Supportive Stakeholders
Unaware Stakeholders
​Neutral Stakeholders
​Leading Stakeholders

A

Supportive Stakeholders

Supportive stakeholders. Neutral and unaware stakeholders usually don’t post any serious threat, but they are volatile and can sway in any direction as more info becomes available. Leading stakeholders can be positive, although these effects are best observed in lower numbers. Supportive stakeholders are typically low in potential to disrupt the project, yet high in potential for collaboration.

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16
Q

The on-demand scheduling approach used in agile environments is based on the Theory-of-Constraints (ToC) and pull-based scheduling concepts based in lean manufacturing in order to limit a team’s work in progress. This is also called:

5S
​Gemba
​Andon
​Kanban

A

Kanban

The on-demand scheduling approach used in agile environments is also referred to as the kanban system, or simply kanban. These systems maintain a backlog, or queue of work that is pulled from whenever resources become available to meet the needs of the activity. This method is especially useful in projects that evolve incrementally.

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17
Q

A project is slipping on its schedule. Management is worried that the project will be late and that this will cost the organization several thousand dollars in fines and penalties. They’ve asked the project manager to use a schedule duration compression technique that will help the project finish on time. The technique that the project manager can use, however, should not add costs to the project. What duration compression technique should the project manager use in this instance?

Leads & Lags
​Resource Optimization
​Crashing
Fast Tracking

A

Fast Tracking

Fast tracking is the best answer in this scenario. Costs were the original constraint on this project, so it’s unlikely the project manager would be provided more resources to assist with the project. Fast tracking can increase project risk and might cause the project team to have to rework tasks after completion. Crashing often increases the costs of the project, directly and indirectly. Also consider that crashing doesn’t always come up with the optimal result. There is always a point of diminishing returns when adding additional resources.

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18
Q

The project manager develops a process improvement plan to encourage continuous process improvement during the life of the project. Which of the following is a valid tool or technique to assist the project manager in assuring the success of the process improvement plan?

Configuration Management System
​Change Control System
​Process Analysis
​Benchmarking

A

Process Analysis

Process analysis identifies opportunities for process improvements. This analysis also examines problems, constraints, and non-value-added activities that occur during a process.

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19
Q

Which of the following options is not part of the PMI Talent Triangle?

Strategic and business management
​Leadership
​Technical project management
​Teamwork

A

​Teamwork

The 3 skills that comprise the PMI Talent Triangle are technical project management, strategic and business management, and leadership. These are the areas in which a project manager needs to be skilled and knowledgeable to achieve success. The categories can be disaggregated much further into more specific skills and tools however as stated, they cover the full scope of a project manager’s operation. Teamwork, while an essential point of any project, is not considered a skill set in the PMI Talent Triangle.

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20
Q

The risk register contains the details of all identified risks and their current status. This document combines the results of:

Monitor Risks
​Plan Risk Responses, Opportunity Responses
​Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses
(Correct)
​Identify Risks

A

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses.

The risk register contains the results of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Plan Risk Responses. It includes all risks identified as well as descriptions, categories, probabilities, and the causes/effects of each. It also defines the risk owner and proposed responses to the risk in the event it plays out as documented.

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21
Q

In your project, you are analyzing the costs incurred in a project. Which of the following costs can be classified under the cost of conformance?

Testing​
Warranty Costs​
Rework Costs
Lost Business Costs

A

Testing

The testing costs are part of the cost of conformance. Cost of conformance includes prevention costs, training document processes, equipment, and time/wages. This may be contrasted with the other overall costs of quality, including appraisal costs and the cost of nonconformance.

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22
Q

You and your team have decided to conduct more tests because of the high risk associated with your project. What type of risk strategy are you using?

Exploitation
​Mitigation
Transfer
Avoidance

A

Mitigation

According to the PMBOK® Guide, 6th. Edition, the purpose of mitigation is to reduce the probability that a risk will occur and/or reduce the impact of the risk to a level where you can accept the risk and its outcomes. It’s easier to take actions early on that will reduce the probability of a risk event or its consequences than it is to fix the damage once it has occurred. Some examples of risk mitigation include performing more tests, using less complicated processes, creating prototypes, and choosing more reliable vendors.

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23
Q

Communications management plans should include all of the following except:

Stakeholder Communication Requirements
​Escalation Process
​Reasons for Information Distribution
​Risk Register

A

Risk Register

The risk register is not included in the communications management plan. It is an output of the risk management process that is updated throughout the life cycle of the project as new risks become apparent and documented risks change in nature, probability, or severity.

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24
Q

Which process is concerned with providing forecasts to update current cost information?

Close Project or Phase
Project Management Information System (PMIS)
Monitor and Control Project Work
Direct and Manage Project Work

A

Monitor and Control Project Work.

During the monitor and control work process, performance data is gathered and passed to the controlling processes. This process is responsible for keeping track of all project measures including cost. Forecasts can be derived in many ways however the most common type of cost control techniques is earned value analysis. This calculation is executed during the monitor and control phase of the project as it requires inputs such as earned value (EV) that can only be determined once work has been completed to some degree.

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25
Q

This tool and technique of the close project or phase process can be used to improve the metrics of the organization by comparing what was initially planned with what was executed by the end of the project:

Trend Analysis
​Variance Analysis
​Regression Analysis
​Document Analysis

A

Variance Analysis

Variance analysis can be used to improve the metrics of the organization by comparing what was initially planned with the actual end result. It is important to perform these types of analyses as they provide insight into the success of the project.

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26
Q

In the sender-receiver model for communication, anything that interferes with the transmission and reception/understanding of a message is called:

Decode
​Noise
Medium
​Constraint

A

Noise

Noise is the term for an interference with transmission and reception during communication. The sender-receiver communication model provides a basic (yet thorough) model for interpersonal communication and the steps involved in conveying a message through speech. The sender encodes the communication with their intended message, then transmits it to the receiver. The receiver then receives the message and decodes it (interprets it) to unveil the contents from the sender. When there is an interruption or interference in this model, this is considered noise.

27
Q

A document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. It includes project purpose, and measurable project objectives and related success criteria. It also has a clearly defined start date for the project. Which document is this describing?

Project Management Plan
​Project Scope Statement
​Change Management Plan
​Project Charter

A

Project Charter

The project charter is a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

28
Q

In agile/adaptive project environments, requirements classified as “epics” are decomposed into:

Work Packages
​WBS Elements
​User Stories
​WBS Dictionary

A

User Stories

User stories are decomposed from epics in an agile project environment. Stories, also called “user stories,” are short requirements or requests written from the perspective of an end user. Epics are large bodies of work that can be broken down into a number of smaller tasks (called stories).

29
Q

Cost of Quality (CoQ) principles include:

The costs of deploying a project configuration management system

The costs involved when changes are made to requirements

The costs of ensuring conformance to requirements

The costs associated with eliminating requirements

A

The costs of ensuring conformance to requirements.

Cost of Quality (CoQ) includes the costs of ensuring conformance to requirements. It is broken down into two main ideals. The first is investing in preventing nonconforming products by designing quality or quality checks into production to detect and correct errors prior to their occurrence. The second is investing in proper quality assurance to ensure that rework is minimal to nonexistent as it saps resources that need not be used

30
Q

A project manager is currently ensuring that the stakeholders clearly understand the project’s goals, objectives, benefits, and risks. This relates to which of the following processes?

Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Control Stakeholders
​Identify Stakeholders
​Plan Communications Management

A

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Manage stakeholder engagement involves activities such as engaging stakeholders at various stages to maintain their commitment, managing their expectations through negotiation and communication, addressing risks, and resolving issues (among others). It is of critical importance to perform this process well and foster positive relationships with stakeholders.

31
Q

As a project manager, you are concerned with both prevention and inspection of errors in a work product. What is the main difference between prevention and inspection?

A

Prevention is keeping errors out of the process while inspection refers to keeping errors out of customers’ hands.

Prevention is keeping errors out of the process while inspection refers to keeping errors out of customers’ hands. It is always better to design quality into deliverables than to identify them during or after production.

32
Q

Which group, according to the PMBOK, is responsible for reviewing, evaluating, and approving documented changes to the project?

Configuration Control Board (CCB)

Change Control Board (CCB)


Change Configuration Board (CCB)

Scope Control Board (SCB)

A

Change Control Board (CCB)

The Change Control Board (CCB) is responsible for managing changes to the project. This is a formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, deferring, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating such decisions.

33
Q

Which of the following is an input to the close project or phase process?

Enterprise Environmental Factors
​
Inspections and Audits
​
Lessons Learned Register

Organizational Process Asset Updates

A

Lessons Learned Register

The lessons learned in the phase or project will be finalized before being entered into the lessons learned repository.

34
Q

You have team members located in 5 countries. Due to the nature of the project, you are unable to find a time that is acceptable to all team members. Which conflict resolution technique is best suited for this situation?

Force
​Avoid
​Compromise
Withdrawal

A

Compromise

A compromise requires searching for options that bring some degree to satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict. This would be the best way to handle the current situation as the difference of time zone is not under the control of anyone.

35
Q

Which document provides the basis to measure success and progress throughout the project life cycle by comparing the results with the objectives and the identified success criteria?

The Business Case
A Business Need
​Project Statement of Work (SOW)
Project Management Plan

A

The Business Case

The business case provides the basis to measure success and progress throughout the project life cycle by comparing the results with the objectives and the identified success criteria. It typically views the project through the lens of the organization and what they set out to achieve with the project, rather than the progression or iterations within the project. For example, high level executives may be more concerned with a specific ROI (Return on Investment) from the project rather than, say, the CPI (Cost Performance Index) at a given point.

36
Q

A risk register is created during which of the following processes?

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
​
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
​
Identify Risks


Plan Risk Responses

A

Identify Risks

The risk register is an output of the identify risks process, and updates to the risk register occur as an output of every risk process that follows this one. By the end of the plan risk responses process, the risk register contains these primary elements: identified list of risks, risk owners, risk triggers, risk strategies, contingency plans, and contingency reserves.

37
Q

In the communication model, who is responsible for ensuring that the message was received and understood?

The Receiver
​The Sender
Both Sender & Receiver​
The Medium

A

Both Sender & Receiver

The two parties are equally responsible (the sender and the receiver). It is the sender’s responsibility to make sure that the information is clear and complete and to ensure that the message is correctly understood. It is the receiver’s responsibility for ensuring the message was received in its entirety, understood and acknowledged to the sender.

38
Q

A project manager decides to adopt less complex processes, conduct more tests, and choose a more stable supplier. Which strategy would this be classified as?

Acceptance
​Avoidance
​Transference
​Mitigation

A

Mitigation

Mitigation as these actions reduce the probability and impact of the risk. They don’t eliminate it entirely, nor do they transfer it to another party. This is typically the best option to utilize when there is an element of the risk that is certain to happen or at least likely to occur.

39
Q

Which of the following is a tool and technique of the develop team process?

Organizational Charts
Acquisition
Influence Diagrams
Colocation

A

Colocation

Co-location is a tool and technique used to develop the team. It involves placing team members and units as close together as possible to improve communication, reduce barriers, and enhance collaboration.

40
Q

The primary purpose of the procurement audit is:

A

Reviewing contracting procedures for completeness, accuracy, and effectiveness.

The primary purpose of the procurement audit is to identify lessons learned during the procurement process and ensure it was conducted according to specifications. Procurement audits examine the procurement process to determine areas of improvement (successes) and to identify flawed (failures) processes or procedures. This allows you to reuse the successful processes on other procurement items for this project, on future projects, or elsewhere in the organization. It also alerts you to problems in the process so that you don’t repeat them.

41
Q

Which of the following statements are correct?

A

Product life cycles are interdependent of project life cycles.

Product life cycles are interdependent of project life cycles. Project life cycle refers to the sum of the phases involved in the completion of the project objective. These are generically known as starting the project, organizing, and preparing, carrying out the work, and ending the project. Product life cycles generally refer to a product’s life span, market relevance, or planned obsolescence.

42
Q

Which of the following are not part of the data gathering tools used in the control quality process?

Check Sheets
​Checklists
​Control Chart
Statistical Sampling

A

Control Chart

The control chart is a monitoring tool, rather than one used to gather data. The other options are all used to gather data from the source.

43
Q

Which of the following is not a knowledge management tool and technique?

Change Requests
Networking
Knowledge Fairs and Cafes
Storytelling

A

Change Requests

Change requests are not a knowledge management tool and technique- they are managed through the integrated change control process, governed by the change control board. All other answers are valid tools and techniques used for knowledge management.

44
Q

After risk identification, risks are prioritized for further analysis by assessing the probability and impact. Risks are prioritized as a part of which of the following processes?

Monitor Risks
​Quantitative Risk Analysis
​Sensitivity Analysis
​Qualitative Risk Analysis

A

Qualitative Risk Analysis

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis follows Identify Risks. This is a process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.

45
Q

A project manager presented earned value analysis data in tabular format in a performance report. Another way this could be presented is with:

A Logarithmic Curve
​Linear Graph
S-Curve
Epsilon Graph

A

S-Curve

The S-Curve can be used to visually display earned value analysis data. The S-curve is a cumulative probability distribution that represents the probability of achieving any particular outcome.

46
Q

Which of the following is an output of the identify stakeholder process?

Project Charter
​Risk Register
​Stakeholder Register
​Stakeholder Analysis

A

Stakeholder Register

Outputs of the Identify Stakeholder process include the stakeholder register, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates.

47
Q

A software project requires that government environmental hearings be held prior to site preparation. What kind of dependency is this?

External Dependency
​Soft Logic
​Discretionary Dependency
​Optional Dependency

A

External Dependency

External dependencies deal with the interactions between project and non-project activities, in this case regulations and legalities. These types of dependencies are typically beyond the project team’s control. Discretionary dependencies are also referred to as soft logic. These deal with choices made available to the project team that may reduce risk in some cases but are otherwise non-binding and can be selected arbitrarily.

48
Q

Which document provides high-level risk information that is useful when planning for project risk management?

Risk Management Plan
Project Charter
Risk Register
Risk Report

A

Project Charter

The project charter is an important input to the plan risk management process since it provides the high-level project description and boundaries, high-level requirements, and risks. The risk register is not created until later in the identify risk process. the risk management plan is an output of the plan risk management process. The risk report is not created until later in the identify risk process.

49
Q

Your project is in the initiating phase. What is a valid technique that the project manager can use to validate project alignment with organizational strategy and expected business value?

Conduct Cost Benefit Analysis with Stakeholders

​
Perform Stakeholder Analysis
​
Obtain Project Charter Approval
​
Hold the Kick-Off Meeting
A

Conduct Cost Benefit Analysis with Stakeholders

Conduct cost-benefit analysis with relevant stakeholders to validate project alignment with organizational strategy and expected business value. This will not only help to establish boundaries for the project but will provide a more accurate estimate of the project’s merit, feasibility, and potential economic outcome for the organization if it is undertaken.

50
Q

Which of the following are tools and techniques of the monitor communications process?

A

Expert Judgement, Project Management Information System (PMIS), Meetings.

The tools and techniques of the monitor communications process are: expert judgment, PMIS, data representation (stakeholder engagement assessment matrix), interpersonal and team skills (observation/conversation), and meetings.

51
Q

In your project, some disputes arose over the scope and quality of work. Which of the following is the preferred method of resolving these disputes?

Negotiation​
Appeals Court
Claims Court
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)

A

Negotiation

When a buyer and seller enter into a dispute over the execution of work under the terms of a contract, negotiation is the preferred method of resolution of all claims and disputes.

52
Q

Which process group corresponds to the ‘do’ part of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle?

Planning
​Executing
Monitoring and Controlling
​Closing

A

Executing

Executing corresponds with the ‘do’ portion of the PDCA cycle as it entails, put simply, doing the work by completing project tasks and deliverables.

53
Q

The Budget at Completion (BAC) for a project is $200,000. The Actual Costs (AC) to date are $160,000. The cumulative Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.8. What is the Estimate to Completion (ETC) for the project?

$410,000
​$200,000
​$250,000
​$90,000

A

$90,000

BAC = 200,000 (given), AC= 160,000 (given), CPI = 0.8 (given)
The Estimate to Completion (ETC) equation = EAC – AC EAC = BAC/CPI
=200,000/0.8 = 250,000 ETC = 250,000 – 160,000 = 90,000.

54
Q

The most detailed level of the WBS is called:

WBS Element
​Work Package
Deliverables
Project Scope

A

Work Package

Work packages are the units of work that can be assigned to one person, or a team of people, with clear accountability and responsibility for completing the assignment, and they can be monitored and controlled throughout the project. Assignments are easily made at the work package level but can be made at any level in the WBS. The work package level is where time estimates, cost estimates, and resource estimates are determined. Regardless of the number of levels in a WBS, the lowest level in a WBS is called the work package level.

55
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a work performance report?

Project Dashboard
​Project Charter
Progress Report
​Status Report

A

Project Charter

Project charter is a high-level document that authorizes the project and use of resources, not a performance report. All of the other options may be utilized to display or transmit work performance data.

56
Q

You would like to know more about the project deliverables, work required to complete those deliverables, project constraints, and assumptions. Which of the following documents would be most useful for this purpose?

Project Scope Statement
Scope Management Plan
WBS
Requirements Documentation

A

Project Scope Statement

The preparation of a detailed project scope statement builds upon the major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints that are documented during project initiation. During project planning, the project scope is defined and described with greater specificity as more information about the project is known. Existing risks, assumptions, and constraints are analyzed for completeness and added or updated as necessary. The define scope process can be highly iterative. In iterative life cycle projects, a high-level vision will be developed for the overall project, but the detailed scope is determined one iteration at a time, and the detailed planning for the next iteration is carried out as work progresses on the current project scope and deliverables.

57
Q

When working on a project without definite detailed scope, but similar projects have been done in the past, what is the correct estimate activity durations tool to use?

Three-Point Estimating
​Analogous Estimation
Critical Path Estimation
​Parametric Estimation

A

Analogous Estimation

Analogous estimating is comparing the current project to former, similar projects. It is also one of the best tools to use when limited information is available for the project at hand. It is one of the least accurate tools for deriving this information yet remains useful in specific circumstances like the ones presented above.

58
Q

Reporting performance regarding project progress to stakeholders is part of which knowledge area?

Project Scope Management

Project Quality Management

Project Communications Management


Project Integration Management

A

Project Communications Management

Project reporting is a tool and technique of the manage communications process. Project reporting involves collecting and distributing project information to the necessary parties. The format may range from simple, informal, written communication all the way up to intricate graphs and presentations. This information may be prepared and scheduled regularly or may be shared on an exceptional basis.

59
Q

Which of the following are not inputs to the determine budget process?

Scope baseline, agreements
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Basis of estimates, cost estimates
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Risk register, resource management plan


Cost baseline, requirements traceability matrix

A

Cost baseline, requirements traceability matrix.

Cost baseline and requirements traceability matrix are not inputs to the determine budget process. Cost baseline is instead an output of this process. The requirements traceability matrix refers to a resource management tool used to identify which individual is responsible for completing or overseeing a given activity. The other options are valid in that such documents are in fact inputs to the process or have been completed prior to its inception.

60
Q

Which of the following processes should you use to review the approved change requests?

Direct/Manage Project Work

​
Control Quality
​
Conduct Procurements
​
Monitor/Control Project Work
A

Direct/Manage Project Work

Approved change requests are an output of the perform integrated change control process, and include those requests reviewed and approved for implementation by the project manager. Approved change requests are delivered as an output of this process. Change requests are approved or denied during this period, and once the decision has been made, approved changes go through the direct and manage project work process to be implemented by the team.

61
Q

The project manager meets with the project team to re-evaluate project risks and identifying new risks that arise as the project moves forward. In which activity is the team involved?

Risk Reassessment
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Variance and Trend Analysis
​
Process Improvement Plan
​
Risk Audit
A

Risk Reassessment

The PMBOK recommends conducting risk reassessments during team meetings as a part of the monitor risks process. Reassessment of risks should be a regular activity performed by everyone involved on the project. Meetings that can be used during this process include but are not limited to risk reviews. Risk reviews are scheduled regularly and should examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with overall project risk and with identified individual project risks.

62
Q

Which of the following is not a valid project schedule presentation format:

Activity List
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Activity Attributes
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Bar Chart
​
Network Diagram
A

Activity Attributes

Activity attributes extend the description of the activity by identifying multiple components associated with each activity. They provide detail and identifiers for use in schedule development, however they do not stand alone and cannot be used to present a schedule entirely.

63
Q

Which of the following is an input that you will utilize to develop the project charter?

A

Organizational Process Assets