PMP Flashcards

1
Q

CV

A

Cost Variance

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2
Q

FPIF

A

Fixed Price Incentive Fee

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3
Q

LeSS

A

Large Scale Scrum

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4
Q

T&M

A

Time and Materials Contract

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5
Q

EEF

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors

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6
Q

PDM

A

Precedence Diagramming Method

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7
Q

BRD

A

Business Requirements Document

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8
Q

CFD

A

Cumulative Flow Diagram

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9
Q

SOW

A

Statement of Work

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10
Q

ATDD

A

Acceptance Test Drive Develeopment

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11
Q

CPFF

A

Cost plus fixed fee

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12
Q

CPM. How is it used?

A

Critical Path Method. Longest path on the timeline.

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13
Q

PV

A

Planned Value

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14
Q

FFP

A

Firm fixed price

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15
Q

DoD

A

Definition of Done

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16
Q

EAC

A

Estimate of Completion

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17
Q

FPEPA

A

Fixed price with economic price adjustment

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18
Q

EVM

A

Earned Value Management

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19
Q

FF

A

finish to finish

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20
Q

PDCA

A

Plan do check act

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21
Q

FS

A

Finish to start

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22
Q

WBS

A

Work breakdown structure

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23
Q

OPA

A

Organizational process assets

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24
Q

NPS

A

net promotor score

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25
Q

CPIF

A

Cost plus incentive fee

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26
Q

DoR

A

Definition of Ready

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27
Q

A graph that displays cumulative costs over a specified period of time

A

S-Curve

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28
Q

Refers to a person with various depths of specialization in multiple skills required by the team

A

Pain drip, broken comb

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29
Q

4 Agile Values

A
  1. Individuals and interactions over process and tools. 2. Working software over comprehensive docs. 3. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation. 4. Responding to change over following a plan
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30
Q

XP practice where two programmers work together

A

pair programming

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31
Q

Core principle of agile where a project sponsor is told about features to be implemented three iterations from now

A

Defer decisions. Don’t decide until you have to.

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32
Q

Who determines work to be done in the iteration backlog

A

Team

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32
Q

What is critical to success on an agile project

A

Stakeholder satisfaction

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33
Q

10 Knowledge areas

A

Integration, scope, schedule, cost, quality, resource, communication, risk, procurement, stakeholder

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34
Q

5 process groups

A

Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring & controlling, closing

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35
Q

What process produces the Scope baseline

A

Create wbs

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36
Q

What process produces the performance measurements baseline

A

Develop project management plan

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37
Q

What process group is Perform Integrated Change Control found in

A

Monitoring and controlling

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38
Q

Order of actions for closing process

A

Formal acceptance, write lessons learned, release the team, close the contract

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39
Q

Highest priority action when dealing with a large number of change requests

A

Preventing unnecessary changes

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40
Q

What is a user story?

A

Descriptions of required functionality and are generally developed during the requirements workshop

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41
Q

Decomposition levels of an agile project

A

Epic > feature > story > task

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42
Q

Decomposition levels of traditional project

A

Project > control account > work package > work package dictionary

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43
Q

What is the delphi technique?

A

Requirements are anonymously collected from SMEs to avoid bias

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44
Q

When is a tornado diagram used

A

During Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process to display the sensitivity analysis data to dermine which risks have the most potential impact

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45
Q

Product scope is measured against what

A

Scope statement

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46
Q

Three point Estimating Formula

A

(optimistic +4* realistic + pessimistic)/6

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47
Q

Parametric Estimating

A

Building estimate off of an assumption of a building back and rolling it up into the larger picture

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48
Q

Analogous estimating

A

Top-down. Not as accurate. Relies on historical information.

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49
Q

PERT Standard Deviation

A

Used to provide a range: (Pessimistic - Optimistic)/6

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50
Q

What is resource levling

A

Generally increases the critical path. Technique used when resources are limited or over-allocated. Adjusts schedule to match resource availability.

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51
Q

What is resource smoothing

A

Used to ensure the critical path doesn’t change. Allows activities to float as required.

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52
Q

Agile planning tools

A

T-shirt sizing. Planning poker. Allows a group to vote using a point system.

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53
Q

Cumulative flow diagram

A

Agile tool to see how much work is getting done between phases.

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54
Q

Team velocity

A

Agile tool to track the team efficiency and speed per sprint.

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55
Q

Slack formula

A

LS-ES or LF-EF

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56
Q

Early finish formula

A

EF = ES + duration -1

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57
Q

Late start formula

A

LS = LF - duration +1

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58
Q

What is calculated during a forward pass of a critical path method diagram

A

ES and EF

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59
Q

Define total float

A

Amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the project comletion date

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60
Q

Define free float

A

Amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the early start of its successor

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61
Q

Define monte carlos simulation

A

Technique used to estimate what if possible outcomes. Randomly generates inputs and runs simulation to determine outcomes.

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62
Q

What technique should be used when insufficient resources are available

A

Resource leveling. Lengthens total time and cost potentially

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63
Q

Define analogous estimates

A

Uses a top down approach to give a general estimate. Often given by management at the beginning of the project. Less costly and time consuming option

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64
Q

Define progressive elaboration

A

Discovering greater levels of details as the project moves forward

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65
Q

ITTO

A

Input, Tools & Techniques, Outputs

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66
Q

5 Process Groups

A

Initiating, Planning, Executing, monitor & controlling, and closing. Each phase has all 5 process groups.

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67
Q

10 knowledge areas

A

Integration, scope, schedule, cost, quality, resources, communications, risk, procurement, and stakeholders.

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68
Q

When the exam mentions stakeholders, what does that mean?

A

It means everyone that is affected by the project

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69
Q

Who are deliverables accepted by?

A

Either the sponsor or customer

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70
Q

What is the role of a product owner?

A

Agile project role that prioritizes the product backlog (list of features)

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71
Q

PM in Functional Organization

A

PM has very little power. Resources are controlled by the functional managers

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72
Q

PM in virtual Organization

A

PM is low to moderate. Uses virtual PM tools

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73
Q

PM in Organic/Simple Organization

A

PM does not exist. Usually small businesses

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74
Q

PM in Project Oriented Organization

A

PM controls all resources. High power.

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75
Q

PM in Weak Matrix Organization

A

PM has a little more power than in a functional organization. Part time PM position

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76
Q

PM in Balanced Matrix Organization

A

PM power is close to equal with the functional manager. Full time position.

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77
Q

PM in Strong Matrix Organization

A

PM has the most power over resources. Functional manager has very little power.

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78
Q

What matrix is the PMP exam based on

A

PMP exam is based on the strong matrix unless otherwise noted

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79
Q

Process groups of initiating and integration management

A

Develop project charter

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80
Q

Planning + Integration management

A

Develop project plan, management plan

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81
Q

Executing+ Integration management

A

Direct & Manage work, manage project knowledge

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82
Q

Monitoring/Controlling+ Integration management

A

Monitor and control project work, perform integrated change control

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83
Q

Closing+ Integration management

A

Clos project or phase

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84
Q

Planning + scope management

A

Plan scope management, collect requirements, define scope, create WBS

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85
Q

Monitoring & controlling + scope management

A

Validate scope, control scope

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86
Q

Schedule management + Planning

A

Plan schedule management, define activities, sequence activities, estimate activity durations, develop schedule

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87
Q

Monitoring & Controlling + schedule management

A

Control schedule

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88
Q

Planning + Cost Management

A

Plan cost management, estimate costs, determine budget

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89
Q

Monitoring/controlling + Cost managme

A

Control costs

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90
Q

Planning + Quality Management

A

Plan quality management

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91
Q

Monitoring/Controlling + Quality Management

A

Control Quality

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92
Q

Executing + Quality Management

A

Manage Quality

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93
Q

Planning + Resource Management

A

Plan resource management, estimate activity resources

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94
Q

Executing + Resource Management

A

Acquire resources, develop team, manage team

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95
Q

Monitoring/Controlling + Resource management

A

Control Resources

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96
Q

Planning + Communication Management

A

Plan commmunications managment

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97
Q

Executing + Communication Management

A

Manage communications

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98
Q

Monitoring/Controlling + Communication Management

A

Monitor communication

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99
Q

Planning +risk management

A

Plan risk management, identify risks, perform qualitative risk analysis, perform quantitative risk analysis, plan risk responses

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100
Q

Executing +risk management

A

implement risk response

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101
Q

Monitoring/controlling +risk management

A

Monitor risk response

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102
Q

Initiating + Stakeholder management

A

Identify stakeholders

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103
Q

Planning + Stakeholder management

A

Plan stakeholder engagement

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104
Q

Executing + Stakeholder management

A

Managment stakeholder engagement

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105
Q

Monitor/controlling + Stakeholder management

A

Monitor stakeholder engagement

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106
Q

Planning + Procurement Management

A

Plan procurement management

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107
Q

Executing + Procurement Management

A

Conduct procurements

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108
Q

Monitoring/Controlling + Procurement Management

A

Control Procurements

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109
Q

What three baselines are part of the planning stage

A

Cost, scope, time

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110
Q

When is the project management plan and other subsidiary plans created?

A

Planning phase

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111
Q

What two processes are done in parallel

A

Executing and monitoring and controlling

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112
Q

What knowledge area is the assumption log created in

A

Integration management

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113
Q

What knowledge area is the requirements documentation created in

A

Scope management

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114
Q

What process creates the change management plan

A

Develop Project Management Plan

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115
Q

What process creates the configuration management plan

A

Develop Project Management Plan

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116
Q

What process creates the Scope Baseline

A

Create WBS

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117
Q

Define work performance data

A

Raw data about work being done

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118
Q

Define work performance information

A

Work that was performed compared to the plan

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119
Q

What methods does Agile include

A

Scrum, Extreme programming (XP), Kanban, lean development,

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120
Q

Four Agile values

A
  1. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools. 2. Working software over comprehensive documentation. 3. Custom collaboration over contract negotiation. 4. Responding to change over following a plan.
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121
Q

What is a retrospective and when is it used?

A

Used in agile methodologies to reflect on what went wrong and what went right during that iteration

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122
Q

Define product backlog

A

Project requirements from the customer

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123
Q

Define sprint backlog

A

Work the team selects to get done in the next sprint

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124
Q

Define product owner

A

Designated person that represents the customer on the project

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125
Q

What is the difference between the sprint review meeting and the sprint retrospective meeting?

A

Sprint retrospective is the team only. Sprint review includes the customer and focuses on the iterations output

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126
Q

Define MVP in agile

A

Minimal viable product

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127
Q

Between time, cost , and scope what is fixed for a traditional project?

A

Scope

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128
Q

Between time, cost , and scope what is fixed for a variable project?

A

Time, cost

129
Q

Define grooming in agile

A

Adding and/or removing items on the product backlog

130
Q

What are key differences between SCRUM and XP

A

In XP, sprint is known as iteration. Iterations are generally shorter (2 weeks). Product owner is known as the customer

131
Q

What special principles does XP support

A

Pair programming, collective code ownership, test driven development

132
Q

Define test driven development

A

Tests that the codes need to pass are written first. Code is then written to pass the test

133
Q

What are the main principles of lean

A

eliminate waste, empower the team, deliver fast, optimize the whole, build quality in, defer decisions, amplify learning

134
Q

Define integration

A

The unification of all of the other knowledge areas

135
Q

Define knowledge areas

A

Integration, scope, schedule, cost, quality, resource, communication, risk, procurement, stakeholder management. Left side of most important table

136
Q

Define process groups

A

Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring/ controlling, closing. Top row of most important table

137
Q

Define Business documents and the two main types

A

Information as to why a project should be initiated. Business case and benefits management plan

138
Q

Define business case

A

Business document defining why a project should be done. Contains cost benefit analysis,

139
Q

Define Economic Value Add (EVA)

A

Business case support that shows the impact to the net value over time from a project

140
Q

Define project benefits management plan

A

Plan to describe the main benefits of a project.

141
Q

Components of a project charter. What phase is this done in?

A

Initiating. Project justification/purpose, name/authority of PM, High level requirements (scope, budget, milestones, risks), stakeholder list, exit criteria (things that might cause the project to be cancelled)

142
Q

What is an input to all executing, monitoring/controlling, and closing processes

A

Project management plan

143
Q

What project plan creates the WBS? What is the output of the WBS?

A

Scope baseline

144
Q

What 4 baselines are in the project management plan?

A

Scope, schedule, cost, performance measurement.

145
Q

What is the performance measurement baseline used for? Where does it live?

A

Integrates scope, schedule, and costs into one baseline to track performance. Lives in the project management plan.

146
Q

What knowledge area is responsible for rolling up all others?

A

Integration Management

147
Q

What is the process Manage Project Knowledge used for. What knowledge area and process group is it in? What is the main output?

A

Used to manage knowledge gained before, during, and after project. Found in Integration management and execution phase. Main output is lessons learned register

148
Q

What is the order of actions when a change is requested? Both traditional and Agile

A

Record change request, assess (impact to project), approve or deny. Add to Product backlog and re-prioritize by project owner.

149
Q

What is the order of actions for closing project or phase?

A

Transfer deliverables, capture lessons learned, release project team

150
Q

What are key outputs of the closure phase?

A

Final product, final report, project doc updates, OPA updates,

151
Q

Where is the scope of a traditional project stored? Where in agile?

A

Project scope statement. Product backlog.

152
Q

What are the components of the scope baseline (Output of Create WBS)?

A

Project scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary

153
Q

Decomposition order of an agile project

A

Epic>Feature> Story > Task

154
Q

What inputs are constant for all of monitor and controlling? Outputs?

A

Inputs: Project management plan & work performance data. Outputs: Work performance information & change requests

155
Q

What is the flow for deliverables?

A

Deliverables > Validated deliverables (by control quality) > Accepted deliverables (by customer)

156
Q

Walkthroughs, reviews, product reviews, and audits are examples of what method of examining work

A

Inspection

157
Q

Define analogous Estimating

A

Top down. Relies on historical info. Quick and less accurate

158
Q

Parametric Estimating

A

Uses math to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and variables

159
Q

Three point estimating (PERT) - Beta distribution

A

(optimistic + 4*realistic + Pessimistic)/6

160
Q

Three point estimating - Triangle distribution

A

(optimistic + realistic + Pessimistic)/3

161
Q

Three point estimating - Standard deviation

A

(Pessimistic - Optimmistic)/6. Range

162
Q

Define bottom up estimates

A

Most accurate to estimate cost or time.

163
Q

Resource leveling

A

Balancing resources so each person is no more than 100% utilized. Generally causes increases to critical path.

164
Q

Resource smoothing

A

Allows activities to change if there is a float so the critical path is not impacted

165
Q

Definition and Impacts of crashing

A

Add more resources to activities to complete them faster. Adds cost

166
Q

Definition and impact of fast tracking

A

Do activities in parallel instead of sequential. Increases risk.

167
Q

Difference between lead and cycle time

A

Lead time is completion of entire process, cycle time is completion of a part of the process

168
Q

What does the forward pass on a CPM diagram calculate?

A

Early start (ES) and Early Finish (EF)

169
Q

What does the backward pass on a CPM diagram calculate?

A

Late start (LS) and Late finish (LF)

170
Q

Define total float

A

The amount of time an activty can be delayed without affecting the project completion

171
Q

Free float

A

Amount of time an activity can be delayed without impact early start of successor

172
Q

Sunk Cost

A

Amount of money already spent on the project

173
Q

Value Engineering

A

AKA value analysis. Finding less costly ways to complete work

174
Q

Indirect cost

A

Costs not included in the project budget

175
Q

What are outputs of the Control Costs process

A

Work performance information, change requests, cost forcasts

176
Q

Outputs of Determine Budget process

A

Cost baseline, project funding requirements

177
Q

Outputs of Estimate Costs process

A

Cost estimates, basis of the estimates

178
Q

ROM Estimate and ranges

A

Rough order of magnitude (least accurate). -25% to +75%

179
Q

Budget Estimate and range

A

Middle accuracy. -10% to +25%

180
Q

Definitive Estimate and range

A

Most accurate -5% to +10%

181
Q

Define contingency reserves

A

Included in the cost baseline and controlled by PM

182
Q

Define management reserves

A

Not included in the cost baseline and controlled by the company

183
Q

Funding Limit Reconciliation

A

When funding is limited due to year end or other factors which cause updates to the project

184
Q

BAC

A

Budget at Completion. Original budget of the project

185
Q

PV

A

PV = Planned % complete *BAC. Planned value. Amount of money worth of work that should of been done.

186
Q

EV

A

EV = Actual % complete *BAC. Amount of money worth of work actually done.

187
Q

AC

A

Actual Cost. AMount of money already spent

188
Q

CV

A

Cost Variance. CV=EV-AC. Negative indicates over budget

189
Q

CPI

A

Cost performance index. CPI = EV/AC. Value over 1 indicates under budget

190
Q

SV

A

Schedule Variance. SV = EV-PV. Difference between the amount of work we should have done vs what was actually done. Negative is behind schedule.

191
Q

SPI

A

Schedule Performance Index. SPI = EV/PV. Rate of how we are meeting the project schedule. Value over 1 indicates ahead of schedule

192
Q

EAC

A

Estimate at Completion. EAC = BAC/CPI. Forecasting total cost of project based on current rate

193
Q

ETC

A

Estimate to Completion. ETC = EAC-AC. Forecasting amount of money needed to finish the project

194
Q

VAC

A

Variance at Completion. VAC=BAC-EAC. Difference between original and forecasted budget. Positive for projects at or under budget

195
Q

TCPI

A

To complete performance index. TCPI = (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC). Performance that needs to be met to finish the project within the budget. Should be 1 or less. .8 means only 80% level of work is needed to finish on budget

196
Q

Total cost & cost baseline equation

A

Total cost = cost baseline + management reserves. Cost baseline = project cost + contingency reserves

197
Q

What are the three processes in communication management

A

Communications management plan, Manage communications, monitor communications

198
Q

Define TQM

A

Total quality management. All employees are responsible for product quality and have an impact on quality

199
Q

Define Verified Deliverable. What process is this an Output? What process is it an input?

A

Deliverable verified by the team (Before the customer accepts). Control Quality. Validate Scope.

200
Q

Difference between manage quality and control quality processes

A

Manage quality looks at the processes used to produce the deliverables. Control quality will inspect deliverables to see if they meet the quality requirements

201
Q

What is pair negotation

A

Agile method to check in with the customer to see if the customer approves of how something is working

202
Q

Main outputs of Plan Quality Management process

A

Quality Management Plan, Quality Metrics

203
Q

Main Outputs of Manage Quality process

A

Quality Reports, Test and evaluation documents

204
Q

Main outputs of Control Quality process

A

QC measurements, verified deliverables, work performance information

205
Q

Main outputs of Plan Resource Management

A

Resource managmement plan, team charter

206
Q

Main outputs of Estimate Activity Resources

A

Resource requirements, resource breakdown structure, basis of estimates

207
Q

Main outputs of Acquire Resouces

A

Physical resource assignments, project team assignments, resource calendar

208
Q

Main Outputs of Develop Team

A

Team performance assessments, change requests

209
Q

Main outputs of Manage Team

A

Change requests

210
Q

Main outputs of control Resources

A

Work performance information, change requests

211
Q

Components of the Resource Management Plan

A

Roles & responsibilities, org chart, staffing management plan (staff acquisition & release, training needs, recognition/rewards, compliance, safety)

212
Q

Stages of a team

A

Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

213
Q

Define McGregors Theory X

A

Believes people do not like to work. Is a micro manager

214
Q

Define McGregors Theory Y

A

Believes people will do a good job. Always the best theory to follow.

215
Q

Theory Z

A

Concern with increasing employee loyalty. Emphasises the well being of employees. Results in increased productivity and support for the org.

216
Q

David McClellands theory of needs

A

People need achievement, power, and affiliation to be motivated

217
Q

Herzberg Theory

A

Two factor: If hygiene factors (pay, job security, work conditions) aren’t met, motivating factors (achievement, responsibility, etc) cannot be acheived

218
Q

Expectancy Theory

A

People will perform according to the benefits they expect to receive

219
Q

Define smooth accommodate conflict resolution

A

Downplaying/delaying issue. Lose lose situation

220
Q

Withdrawal/avoid conflict resolution

A

One person walks away. yield lose solution

221
Q

Problem solving conflict resolution

A

Makes both sides happy. Preferred method for PMP. win win

222
Q

Compromising/reconcile conflict resolution

A

Both sides give up a little to come to a conclusion. lose lose

223
Q

Force/direct conflict resolution

A

one side gets everything they want and other side gets nothing. Win lose solution.

225
Q

What does the communication management plan store?

A

Who, when, how its delivered, where its stored

226
Q

Communication channels formula

227
Q

Input project documents for the Plan Communications Management process

A

Requirements doc, stakeholder register

228
Q

Define individual project risk

A

Negative or positive impacts to project objectives (impact to time, scope, cost)

229
Q

Define overall project risk

A

Whether the project is positive or negative for the stakeholders

230
Q

Main outputs of the identify risk process

A

risk register, risk report

231
Q

What process group does perform quantitative and qualitative risk analysis (2 processes) take place in

232
Q

What are two common outputs for any “Monitor” process

A

Work performance information and change requests

233
Q

Key components of a risk management plan

A

How will risk be identified? How will qual and quan analysis be done? How do you respond? Implement? Monitor/Control? What is your risk breakdown structure (RBS)

234
Q

Difference between risk register and risk report

A

Risk register describes individual risks. Risk report is overall project risks

235
Q

Primary objective of perform qualitative risk analysis process

A

Prioritize risks found in the risk register by risk probability and impact

236
Q

Primary objective of perform quantitative risk analysis process

A

Assign a numerical value to the risk. How many days delay or cost impact etc

237
Q

Expected monitory value equation (EMV)

A

EMV = Impact(probability) … Impact = cost

238
Q

Strategies for negative risk response

A

Escalate, avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept

239
Q

Strategies for positive risk response

A

Escalate, exploit, share, enhance, accept

240
Q

What is a risk based spike (Agile)

A

Short proof of concept to investigate whether a solution would solve a particular risk

241
Q

Define risk trigger

A

Warning signs that a potential risk is about to occur

242
Q

Elements of a contract

A

Scope, roles/responsibilities, how to perform work, terms and conditions, warranties and penalties, payment terms, termination clauses, change request process, incentives, insurance and performance bonds

243
Q

Who takes the risk on fixed price contract? Cost reimbursable, time and material?

A

Seller, buyer, buyer

244
Q

When do you use a fixed price contract? Cost reimbursable, time and material?

A

When scope is defined. When scope is not defined. When scope is high level.

245
Q

Define cost reimbursable contract

A

The buyer pays for the work expenses and then pays the seller a fee for his profit.

246
Q

What are the outputs of Plan Procurement Management process?

A

Procurement Management Plan, Bid Documents, Procurement Statement of Work, Procurement Strategy, Source Selection Criteria, Make/Buy Decisions, Independent Cost Estimates, Change Requests

247
Q

Define the Procurement Management Plan

A

Part of the project management plan. Will house constraints and assumptions.

248
Q

Define procurement strategy output

A

What type of agreement to use and how the project would like delivery to take place

249
Q

Define procurement statement of work

A

What will be procured. Outline of specifications and quality requirements for a particular part of the project and if any warranties are needed

250
Q

Define bid documents

A

Used to get a response from suppliers. Included in an RFQ/RFP

251
Q

What are the outputs of the conduct procurements process?

A

Selected sellers, agreements

252
Q

Define claims administration

A

Settling a dispute between a seller and buyer

253
Q

Outputs of control procurement process

A

Closed procurements, work performance information

254
Q

What is the order of operations at the end of a contract?

A

Get formal acceptance, write lessons learned, release the team, close the contract

255
Q

What is the main output of the Identify Stakeholders process? What process group is it in?

A

Stakeholder register. Initiating.

256
Q

What is the main output of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement?

A

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

257
Q

What is the salience model?

A

Used on large complex projects to describe stakeholders power, urgency, and legitimacy

258
Q

Stakeholder cube

A

3D stakeholder model: Interest, power, influence

259
Q

Items in the stakeholder register

A

Contact info, role on project, communication requirements, expectations of project, How they are influenced, Power influence level

260
Q

5 levels of stakeholder engagement

A

Unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, leading (Current & desired levels)

261
Q

Difference between stakeholder engagement and communications plan

A

Engagements says what needs to be done. Communication states when and how.

262
Q

Who will be able to help the team the most to identify what roles the stakeholders will play and how/what they will contribute to the project

A

Stakeholders

263
Q

What are the three domains of project management

A

People, process, business environment

264
Q

Order of operations for conflict management

A

Understand source and stage, analyze the context, evaluate/recommend/reconcile

265
Q

When does identification and analysis of stakeholders take place?

A

Throughout the project

266
Q

Who is the only person that can prioritize the product backlog

A

Product owner (Representative of the customer)

267
Q

What is the difference between an iterative and incremental life cycle

A

Incremental delivers portions of a final usable product. Iterative allows for feedback for unfinished work to improve and modify that work. Agile is both.

268
Q

What 3 root causes of conflict make up 50% of all conflicts?

A

Schedule, project priority, resources

269
Q

Difference between I and T shaped people in agile

A

I shaped have one speciality. T shaped have a specialty and general breadth of knowledge

270
Q

What is a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)?

A

Illustrates association between work packages and team members

271
Q

Define pre-assignment

A

Pre-assignment involves selecting project team members in advance. It occurs when specific people were promised as part of the project proposal, the project is dependent on expertise of particular persons, or staff assignments are defined within the project charter.

272
Q

What is your first action when receiving a change request?

A

Analyze change impact

274
Q

What are some types of unplanned training? What process does it occur in?

A

Conversation, observation, project performance appraisal. Controlling process of managing the project team.

275
Q

What is the purpose of the risk management plan? What does it not do?

A

Describes how risk management will be structured and performed on the project. It does not identify individual risks or the probability of their occurrence.

276
Q

What process verifies deliverables? Accepts deliverables?

A

Control quality. Validate scope.

277
Q

On a control chart, a source of variation that is intermittent, not inherent in the system, and is not predictable is known as

A

Special or assignable cause

278
Q

What is funding limit reconciliation? When is it used?

A

This will reconcile the availability of funds with their expenditure and it will necessitate the scheduling of work to be adjusted to smooth or regulate the expenditures. Determine budget process.

279
Q

What is interactional leadership?

A

Combines transactional, transformational, and charismatic qualities to suit the group dynamics.

280
Q

What is transformational leadership?

A

Empowers, encourages, and inspires.

281
Q

What is transactional leadership?

A

Performance-focused. Goal and objective-oriented.

282
Q

What is charismatic leadership?

A

Energetic, inspiring, and passionate about convictions but may be motivated by personal goals.

283
Q

Define workaround

A

a response to a threat (or problem) that has occurred for which a prior response had not been planned or was not effective.

284
Q

What is the last thing that should be done in the close project process?

A

release project resources

285
Q

What technique is used during implement risk responses to help execute risk response outside of the project team

A

Influencing

286
Q

When faced with a dilemma in PMI where you catch someone doing something bad what do you do

A

Always be a snitch

287
Q

Order of operations when a change is requested

A

Document/analyze for feasibility, determine cost/benefit, submit change request, perform integrated change control process, update PM plan and project docs, communicate with stakeholders

288
Q

halo effect

A

The tendency to move people into project management because they are good in their technical fields.

289
Q

What two processes are in the initiating phase

A

Develop project charter. Identify stakeholders

290
Q

Define affinity diagram

A

allows large numbers of ideas to be sorted into groups for further review and analysis

291
Q

Define matrix diagram

A

seeks to show the strength of relationships among factors, causes, and objectives that exist between the rows and columns that form the matrix.

292
Q

Components of the requirements traceability matrix

A

description, owner, source, priority, and status of product requirements.

293
Q

What should always be done before any action is taken

A

Assess the change/situation etc.

294
Q

Inputs to the identify stakeholders process

A

business documents including business case (includes initial stakeholders) and benefits management plan

295
Q

What documents are used at the end of a phase to decide if the project will progress?

A

Project charter, business case, benefits management plan

296
Q

What is the ideal number of working agreements in a project charter

297
Q

What are three main benefits of emotional intelligence

A

conflict resolution, anticipating the actions of others, and reducing staff turnover

298
Q

What is a downside of a projectized organization?

A

No functional home for the project team. Released after each project.

299
Q

Whos responsible for prioritizing change requests in a traditional project? agile?

A

Project manager. Product owner.

300
Q

Difference between single source and sole source

A

Single source means there is only one place your company wants to do business with. Sole source means there is only one place you can buy it.

301
Q

What is the title of the individual responsible for managing the contract?

A

Procurement Administrator

302
Q

Typical components of an agile charter

A

What done looks like, how we are going to work together, why the project is being done, who benefits and how

303
Q

What does the scope management plan accomplish?

A

scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated. How deliverables formal acceptance will be handled.

304
Q

What is the resource breakdown structure (RBS)

A

Hierarchical representation of resources by category and type

305
Q

What is an environmental scan?

A

process that systematically surveys and interprets relevant data to identify external opportunities and threats that could influence future decisions. Laws and regulations, market trends, and new technology have the PESTLE factors that an environmental scan will normally look out for. Political, economic, social, technological, legal, environmental

306
Q

What document contains guidelines for staffing and recruiting processes

A

Organization process assets (OPA)

307
Q

Who is accountable for a project bringing value to a company?

A

Project sponser

308
Q

What type of organizational structure can lead to having two or more “bosses”?

309
Q

How do you mitigate risk in an agile project when some user stories are identified as high risk?

A

Include risky stories in early iterations

310
Q

What is expectancy theory

A

proposes that employees are motivated when they are given assignments they feel confident they can achieve, when they value the compensation you offer and when they believe you will compensate them as promised.

311
Q

What are residual risks?

A

leftover risks that are expected to remain after the planned response of risk has been taken

312
Q

What is a Release Train Engineer?

A

a Program Level role who facilitates program level processes and execution, drives continuous development, manages risks and escalates impediments

313
Q

What are the most important factors in stakeholder analysis

A

Power, impact, influence, requirements, and expectations.

315
Q

What is the purpose of a risk owner

A

Responsible for implementing the appropriate risk response strategy

316
Q

What is the difference between a risk and an issue

A

An issue is a current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives. Whereas a risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives

317
Q

What is the main purpose the stakeholder engagement plan

A

defines the process to ensure the stakeholders are engaged in the manner necessary to manage their expectations, including those related to product deliverables.

318
Q

What does the integrated change control process do?

A

evaluate impacts on schedule, costs, and other knowledge areas before the change approval and implementation. Whenever a change request could affect any one of the project baselines, an integrated change control process is necessary.