Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PMP Exam Prep > PMBoK Vocabulary > Flashcards

PMBoK Vocabulary Flashcards

1
Q

acceptance criteria

A

A set of conditions that are met before deliverables are accepted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

activity list

A

A documented tabulation of schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a sufficiently detailed scope of work description so project team members understand what work is to be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

actual cost (AC)

A

The realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

adaptive approach

A

A development approach in which the requirements are subject to a high level of uncertainty and volatility and are likely to change throughout the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

affinity diagram

A

A diagram that shows large numbers of ideas classified into groups for review and analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

agile

A

A term used to describe a mindset of values and principles as set forth in the Manifesto for Agile Software Development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

alternative analysis

A

A method used to evaluate identified options in order to select the options or approaches to use when performing the work of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

analogous estimating

A

A technique for estimating the duration, cost, or required resources for an activity or project using historical data from a similar activity or project. See also bottom-up estimating, parametric estimating, program evaluation and review technique (PERT), and multipoint estimating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

artifacts

A

Documents and other items created during a portfolio, program, or project to help manage it and provide information to the project team, stakeholders, and management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

assumption

A

A factor in the planning process considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Assumption and Constraint Analysis

A

An assessment that ensures assumptions and constraints are integrated into the project plans and documents, and that there is consistency among them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

assumption log

A

A project document used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Authority

A

The right to apply project resources, expend funds, make decisions, or give approvals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

backlog

A

An ordered list of work to be done, often written as user stories, and prioritized by the business to manage and organize an adaptive or agile project’s work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

backlog refinement

A

Progressive elaboration of the content in the backlog and (re)prioritization of it to identify the work that can be accomplished in an upcoming iteration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

backward pass

A

A critical path method technique for calculating the late start and late finish dates by working backward through the schedule model from the project end date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

baseline

A

The approved version of a work product that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Basis of Estimates

A

Supporting documentation outlining the details used in establishing project estimates such as assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges, and confidence levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

benchmarking

A

The comparison of actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

benefits management plan

A

The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a program or project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bid Documents

A

All documents used to solicit information, quotations, or proposals from prospective sellers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bidder Conference

A

The meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement.
AKA: contractor conferences, vendor conferences, or pre-bid conferences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Blocker

A

An obstacle that prevents the team from achieving its objectives.
AKA: impediment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

budget

A

The approved estimate for the portfolio, program, or project, or any work breakdown structure component or schedule activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

budget at completion (BAC)

A

The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

burndown chart

A

A graphical representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

burnup chart

A

A graphical representation of the work completed toward a milestone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

business case

A

A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits to be delivered by a portfolio component, program, or project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Business Model Canvas

A

A one-page, visual summary that describes the value proposition, infrastructure, customers, and finances. Often used in Lean Startup situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

business value

A

The net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor that may be tangible, intangible, or both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cadence

A

A rhythm of activities conducted throughout the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

cause-and-effect diagram

A

A visual representation that helps trace an effect back to its root cause. A cause-and-effect diagram may also be known as a fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Change

A

A modification to any formally controlled deliverable, project management plan component, or project document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

change control

A

A process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines associated with the project are identified, documented, approved, or rejected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

change control board (CCB)

A

A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

change control plan

A

A component of the project management plan that establishes the change control board, documents the extent of its authority, and describes how the change control system will be implemented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

change control system

A

A set of procedures that describes how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Change Log

A

A comprehensive list of changes submitted during the project and their current status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

change request.

A

A formal proposal to modify a document, deliverable, or baseline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Check Process Group

A

The process(es) performed to formally complete or close a project, phase, or contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Check Sheet

A

A tally sheet that can be used as a checklist when gathering data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

communications management plan

A

A component of the portfolio, program, or project management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information will be administered and disseminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

complexity

A

A characteristic of a program or project or its environment that is difficult to manage due to human behavior, system behavior, and ambiguity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Confirmation bias

A

A type of congitive bias that confirms preexisting beliefs or hypotheses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Conformance

A

The degree to which the results meet the set quality requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

constraint

A

A limiting factor that affects the execution of a portfolio, program, project, or process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

contingency

A

An event or occurrence that could affect the execution of the project, which may be accounted for with a reserve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

contingency plan

A

A document that describes actions to take if predetermined trigger conditions occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

contingency reserve

A

Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

continuous delivery

A

The practice of delivering feature increments immediately to customers, often through the use of small batches of work and automation technology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Contract

A

A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product, service, or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Control

A

The process of comparing actual performance with planned performance, analyzing variances, assessing trends to effect process improvements, evaluating possible alternatives, and recommending appropriate corrective action as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Control chart

A

A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

cost baseline

A

The approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

cost management plan

A

A component of a program or project management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

cost of quality (COQ)

A

All costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraisal of the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failure to meet requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

cost performance index (CPI)

A

A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

cost variance (CV)

A

The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

cost-benefit analysis

A

A financial analysis method used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

cost-plus-award-fee contract

A

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

A

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

cost-plus-incentive-fee contract

A

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

cost-reimbursable contract

A

A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

crashing

A

A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Criteria

A

Standards, rules, or tests on which a judgement or decision can be based or by which a product, service, result, or process can be evaluated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

critical path

A

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

critical path method.

A

A method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of scheduling flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Cumulative Flow Diagram

A

A chart indicating features completed over time, features in other states of development, and those in backlog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

cycle time

A

The total elapsed time from the start of a particular activity or work item to its completion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cycle Time Chart

A

A diagram that shows the average cycle time of the work items completed over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

daily coordination meeting (or daily standup)

A

A brief, daily collaboration meeting in which the team reviews progress from the previous day, declares intentions for the current day, and highlights any obstacles encountered or anticipated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

dashboard

A

A set of charts and graphs showing progress or performance against important measures of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Data Gathering and Analysis Methods

A

Methods used to collect, assess, and evaluate data and information to gain a deeper understanding of a situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

decision tree analysis

A

A diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

decomposition

A

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

definition of done (DoD)

A

A checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

definition of ready (DoR)

A

A team’s checklist for a user-centric requirement that has all the information the team needs to be able to begin working on it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

deliverable

A

Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Delivery Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with delivering the scope and quality that the project was undertaken to achieve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

development approach

A

A method used to create and evolve the product, service, or result during the project life cycle such as an adaptive, predictive, or hybrid method.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Development Approach and Life Cycle Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with the development approach, cadence, and life cycle phases of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

DevOps

A

A collection of practices for creating a smooth flow of delivery by improving collaboration between development and operations staff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Digital Product

A

A product or service that is delivered, used, and stored in an electronic format

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Discretionary Dependency

A

A relationship that is based on best practices or project preferences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

duration

A

The total number of work periods required to complete an activity or work breakdown structure component, expressed in hours, days, or weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

early finish date

A

In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can finish based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

early start date

A

In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

earned value (EV)

A

The measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Earned Value Analysis (EVA)

A

An analysis method that uses a set of measures associated with scope, schedule, and cost to determine the cost and schedule performance of a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

earned value management (EVM)

A

A methodology that combines scope, schedule, cost, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

effort

A

The number of labor units required to complete a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component, often expressed in hours, days, or weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

emotional intelligence

A

The ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective emotions of groups of people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)

A

Conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the portfolio, program, or project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

enterprise risk management

A

An approach to managing risk that reflects the organization’s culture, capability, and strategy to create and sustain value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

epic

A

A large, related body of work intended to hierarchically organize a set of requirements and deliver specific business outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Estimate

A

A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome of a variable such as project costs, resources, effort, or durations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

estimate at completion (EAC)

A

The expected total cost of completing all work expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

estimate to complete (ETC)

A

The expected cost to finish all the remaining project work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Estimating Methods

A

Methods used to develop an approximation of work, time, or cost on a project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Executing Process Group

A

Those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

expected monetary value (EMV)

A

The estimated value of an outcome expressed in monetary terms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Explicit Knowledge

A

Knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

External dependency

A

A relationship between project activities and non-project activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

fast tracking

A

A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

feasibility analysis

A

A study that produces a potential recommendation to address business needs. It examines feasibility using one or more of the following variables: operational, technology/system, cost-effectiveness, and timeliness of the potential solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

feature

A

A set of related requirements or functionalities that provides value to an organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

finish-to-finish

A

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

finish-to-start

A

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

firm-fixed-price contract

A

A type of fixed-price contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller’s costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Fixed Duration

A

A type of activity where the length of time required to complete the activity remains constant regardless of the number of people or resources assigned to the activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

fixed duration

A

A type of activity where the length of time required to complete the activity remains constant regardless of the number of people or resources assigned to the activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

fixed-price contract

A

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

fixed-price-incentive-fee contract

A

A type of contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract) and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller meets defined performance criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

fixed-price-with-economic-price-adjustment contract

A

A fixed-price contract, but with a special provision allowing for predefined final adjustments to the contract price due to changed conditions such as inflation changes or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Flow

A

The measure of how efficiently work moves through a given process or framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Flowchart

A

The depiction in a diagram format of the inputs, process actions, and outputs of one or more processes within a system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

forecast

A

An estimate or prediction of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

forward pass

A

A critical path method technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates by working forward through the schedule model from the project start date or a given point in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

free float

A

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any successor or violating a schedule constraint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Function Point

A

An estimate of the amount of business functionality in an information system, used to calculate the functional size measurement of a software system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Gantt chart

A

A bar chart of schedule information where activities are listed on the vertical axis, dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and activity durations are shown as horizontal bars placed according to start and finish dates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

governance

A

The framework for directing and enabling an organization through its established policies, practices, and other relevant documentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Grade

A

A category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use but do not share the same requirements for quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Hierarchy chart

A

A chart that begins with high-level information that is progressively decomposed into lower levels of detail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Histogram

A

A bar chart that shows the graphical representation of numerical data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

hybrid approach

A

A combination of elements from both adaptive and predictive approaches that is useful when there is uncertainty or risk around the requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

impact

A

A measure of the effect of a risk on one or more objectives if it occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Impact Mapping

A

A strategic planning method that serves as a visual roadmap for the organization during product development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

incremental approach

A

An adaptive development approach in which the deliverable is produced successively, adding functionality until the deliverable contains the necessary and sufficient capability to be considered complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Indefinite Delivery Indefinite Quantity (IDIQ)

A

A contract that provides for an indefinite quantity of goods or services, with a stated lower and upper limit, within a fixed period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Influence Diagram

A

A graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

information radiator

A

A visible, physical display that provides information to the rest of the organization, enabling timely knowledge sharing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Initiating Process Group

A

Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Interation planning

A

A meeting to clarify the details of the backlog items, acceptance criteria, and work effort required to meet an upcoming iteration committment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Internal Dependency

A

A relationship between two or more project activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Interpersonal Skills

A

Skills used to establish and maintain relationships with other people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

issue

A

A current condition or situation that may have an impact on one or more objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

issue log

A

A project document where information about issues is recorded and monitored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

iteration

A

A short cycle of development during which a product or deliverable is released or further matured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

iteration plan

A

A detailed plan for the current iteration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

iteration review

A

A meeting held at the end of an iteration to demonstrate the work that was accomplished during the iteration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

iterative approach

A

A development approach that focuses on an initial, simplified implementation then progressively elaborates, adding to the feature set until the final deliverable is complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

kanban board

A

A visualization tool that shows work in progress to help identify bottlenecks and overcommitments, thereby allowing the team to optimize the workflow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

key performance indicator (KPI)

A

Metric defined by an organization’s leadership that is used to evaluate an organization’s progress toward meeting the targets or end states identified in their objectives or goals, helping to achieve strategic alignment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

kickoff meeting

A

A gathering of team members and other key stakeholders at the beginning of a project to formally set expectations, gain a common understanding, and commence work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

lag

A

The amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Last Responsible Moment

A

The concept of deferring a decision to allow the team to consider multiple options until the cost of further delay would exceed the benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

late finish date

A

In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can finish based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

late start date

A

In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

150
Q

lead

A

The amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.

151
Q

Lead Time

A

The time between a customer request and the actual delivery

152
Q

Lead Time Chart

A

A diagram showing the trend over time of the average lead time of the items completed in work.

153
Q

Lean Startup Canvas

A

A one-page template designed to communicate a business plan with key stakeholders in an efficient and effective manner

154
Q

lessons learned

A

The knowledge gained during a project that shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future for the purpose of improving future performance.

155
Q

lessons learned register

A

A project document or repository used to record knowledge gained during a project, phase, or iteration so that it can be used to improve future performance for the team and the organization.

156
Q

Life Cycle Assessment (LCA)

A

A tool used to evaluate the total environment impact of a product, process, or system

157
Q

Log

A

A document used to record and describe or denote selected items identified during execution of a process or activity. Usually used with a modifier, such as issue, change, or assumption

158
Q

make-or-buy analysis

A

The decision-making process of gathering and organizing data about product requirements and analyzing them against available alternatives, including the purchase or internal manufacture of the product.

159
Q

Management

A

The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives

160
Q

management reserve

A

Time or money that management sets aside in addition to the schedule or cost baseline and releases for unforeseen work that is within the scope of the portfolio, program, or project.

161
Q

Mandatory Dependency

A

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work

162
Q

matrix organization

A

An organizational structure in which the project manager shares authority with the functional manager temporarily to assign work and apply resources.

163
Q

Measure of Performance

A

Measures that characterize physical or functional attributes relating to system operation

164
Q

Measurement Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with assessing project performance and taking appropriate actions to maintain acceptable performance

165
Q

method

A

A means for achieving an outcome, output, result, or project deliverable.

166
Q

methodology

A

A system of practices, techniques, procedures, and rules used by those who work in a discipline.

167
Q

Metric

A

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it

168
Q

milestone

A

A significant point or event in a portfolio, program, or project.

169
Q

milestone schedule

A

A type of schedule that presents milestones with planned dates.

170
Q

mind mapping

A

A technique used to consolidate ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas.

171
Q

minimum viable product (MVP)

A

A concept used to define the scope of the first release of a solution to customers by identifying the fewest number of features or requirements that would deliver value.

172
Q

model

A

A visual representation of information, both abstract and specific, that operates under a set of guidelines in order to efficiently arrange and convey a lot of information in an efficient manner.

173
Q

modeling

A

Creating simplified representations of systems, solutions, or deliverables such as prototypes, diagrams, or storyboards.

174
Q

Monte Carlo simulation

A

A method of identifying the potential impacts of risk and uncertainty using multiple iterations of a computer model to develop a probability distribution of a range of outcomes that could result from a decision or course of action.

175
Q

Mood chart

A

A visualization chart for tracking moods or reactions to identify areas for improvement

176
Q

most likely duration

A

An estimate of the most probable activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

177
Q

multipoint estimating

A

A method used to estimate cost or duration by applying an average or weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

178
Q

near-critical activity

A

An activity with a total float that is deemed to be low based on expert judgment.

179
Q

near-critical path

A

A sequence of activities with low float that, if exhausted, becomes a critical path sequence for the project.

180
Q

Net Promotor Score

A

An index that measures the willingness of customers to recommend network diagram

181
Q

network path

A

A sequence of activities connected by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram. See also early finish date, early start date, late finish date, late start date, and network logic.

182
Q

objective

A

Something toward which work is to be directed—a strategic position to be attained, a purpose to be achieved, a result to be obtained, a product to be produced, or a service to be performed.

183
Q

objectives and key results (OKRs)

A

A goal-setting framework used to define and track objectives and their outcomes. OKRs are typically used in business settings to align individual, team, and organizational goals with measurable results.

184
Q

opportunity

A

A risk that would have a positive effect on one or more portfolio, program, or project objectives.

185
Q

optimistic duration

A

An estimate of the shortest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance. See also most likely duration and pessimistic duration.

186
Q

organizational breakdown structure

A

A hierarchical representation of the project organization that illustrates the relationship between project activities and the organizational units that will perform those activities.

187
Q

organizational process assets (OPAs)

A

Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to and used by the performing organization.

188
Q

organizational project management (OPM)

A

A framework in which portfolio, program, and project management are integrated with organizational enablers in order to achieve strategic objectives.

189
Q

Osmotic Communication

A

Means of receiving information without direct communication by overhearing through nonverbal cues

190
Q

outcome

A

An end result or consequence of a process or project.

191
Q

overall risk

A

The effect of uncertainty on the portfolio, program, or project as a whole.

192
Q

parametric estimating

A

An estimating technique in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and project parameters. See also analogous estimating, bottom-up estimating, program evaluation and review technique (PERT), and multipoint estimating.

193
Q

performance measurement baseline (PMB)

A

Integrated scope, schedule, and cost baselines used for comparison to manage, measure, and control project execution. See alsobaseline, cost baseline, schedule baseline,andscope baseline.

194
Q

pessimistic duration

A

An estimate of the longest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

195
Q

PESTLE analysis

A

A strategic planning tool used to systematically evaluate political, economic, sociocultural, technological, legal, and environmental factors. These factors provide a view of the project’s external operating environment and indicate potential opportunities and threats

196
Q

phase gate

A

A review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a program or project.

197
Q

planned value (PV)

A

The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.

198
Q

Planning Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with the initial, ongoing, and evolving organization and coordination necessary for delivering project deliverables and results

199
Q

Planning Process Group

A

Those processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve

200
Q

portfolio

A

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives. See also program and project.

201
Q

Precision

A

Assessment of exactness in the quality management system

202
Q

Predictive Approach

A

A development approach in which the project scope, time, and cost are determined in the early phases of the life cycle

203
Q

Prioritization Matrix

A

A scatter diagram that plots effort against value so as to classify items by priority

204
Q

Prioritization Schema

A

Methods used too prioritize portfolio, program, or project components, as well as requirements, risks, features, or other product information

205
Q

Probabilistic Estimimating

A

A method used to develop a range of estimates along with the associated probabilities within that range

206
Q

probability and impact matrix

A

A grid for mapping the probability of occurrence of each risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs. See also risk.

207
Q

procurement management plan

A

A component of the program or project management plan that describes how a team will acquire goods and services from outside of the performing organization.

208
Q

product

A

An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in itself or a component item.

209
Q

product life cycle

A

A series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.

210
Q

product management

A

The integration of people, data, processes, and business systems to create, maintain, and evolve a product or service throughout its life cycle.

211
Q

product owner

A

A person responsible for maximizing the value of the product and accountable for the end product.

212
Q

Product Scope

A

The features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result

213
Q

program

A

Related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.

214
Q

program evaluation and review technique (PERT)

A

A technique used to estimate project duration through a weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely activity durations when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

215
Q

program management

A

The application of knowledge, skills, and principles to a program to achieve the program objectives and to obtain benefits and control not available by managing program components individually.

216
Q

program management office

A

A management entity that standardizes the program-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques to maximize the return on program investments.

217
Q

program management plan

A

A document that integrates the program’s subsidiary plans and establishes the management controls and overall plan for integrating and managing the program’s individual components.

218
Q

program manager

A

The person authorized by the performing organization to lead the team or teams responsible for achieving program objectives.

219
Q

progressive elaboration

A

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available.

220
Q

project

A

A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

221
Q

Project Brief

A

A high-level overview of the goals, deliverables, and processes for the project

222
Q

project charter

A

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

223
Q

project charter

A

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

224
Q

project governance

A

The framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activities in order to meet or exceed target project objectives.

225
Q

Project Lead

A

A person who helps the project team to achieve the project objectives, typically by orchestrating the work of the project

226
Q

project life cycle

A

The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its completion.

227
Q

project management

A

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

228
Q

Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK)

A

Term to describe the knowledge within the profession of project management

229
Q

project management information system (PMIS)

A

An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes.

230
Q

project management office

A

A management entity that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques to maximize the return on project investments.

231
Q

project management plan

A

The document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.

232
Q

Project Management Process Group

A

A logical grouping of project management inputs, tools, techniques, and outputs. Includes Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

233
Q

Project management team

A

Members of the project team who are directly involved in project management activities

234
Q

project manager

A

The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives.

235
Q

project organization chart

A

A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.

236
Q

project phase

A

A collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables.

237
Q

Project Review

A

An event at the end of a phase or project to assess the status, evaluate the value delivered, and determine if the project is ready to move to the next phase or transition to operations.

238
Q

project schedule

A

An output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources.

239
Q

project schedule network diagram

A

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities.

240
Q

project scope

A

The work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions.

241
Q

project scope statement

A

The description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints.

242
Q

Project team

A

A set of individuals performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives

243
Q

Project Vision Statement

A

A concise, high-level description of the project that states the purpose and inspires the team to contribute to the project

244
Q

Project Work Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with establishing project processes, managing physical resources, and fostering a learning environment

245
Q

Prototype

A

A working model used to obtain early feedback on the expected product before actually building it

246
Q

qualitative risk analysis

A

The consideration of a range of characteristics such as probability of occurrence, degree of impact on the objectives, manageability, timing of possible impacts, relationships with other risks, and common causes or effects.

247
Q

Quality

A

Degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements

248
Q

quality audit

A

A structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.

249
Q

quality management plan

A

A component of the program or project management plan that describes how an organization’s policies, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives.

250
Q

Quality Metrics

A

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it

251
Q

Quality policy

A

The basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management

252
Q

Quality report

A

A project document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions, and a summary of finding from quality control activities and may include recommendations for process, project, and product improvements.

253
Q

quantitative risk analysis

A

The combined effect of identified risks on the desired outcome.

254
Q

RACI (responsible, accountable, consulted, informed) matrix

A

A type of responsibility assignment matrix that uses responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities.

255
Q

readiness assessment

A

An assessment that occurs as the organization approaches solution deployment. It helps the organization understand the extent to which the organization is prepared for the transition and evaluates the organization’s readiness to integrate and sustain the solution.

256
Q

Register

A

A written record of regular entries for evolving aspects of a project, such as risks, stakeholders, or defects.

257
Q

regression analysis

A

An analytical method where a series of input variables are examined in relation to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship.

258
Q

relative estimating

A

A method for creating estimates that are derived from performing a comparison against a similar body of work, taking effort, complexity, and uncertainty into consideration.

259
Q

release

A

One or more components of one or more products, which are intended to be put into production at the same time.

260
Q

release plan

A

The plan that sets expectations for the dates, features, and/or outcomes expected to be delivered over the course of multiple iterations.

261
Q

release planning

A

The process of identifying a high-level plan for releasing or transitioning a product, deliverable, or increment of value.

262
Q

requirement

A

A condition or capability that is necessary to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need.

263
Q

Requirements documentation

A

A record of product requirements and other product information along with whatever is recorded to manage it

264
Q

requirements management plan

A

A component of the program or project management plan that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

265
Q

requirements traceability matrix

A

A grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

266
Q

reserve

A

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk, often used with a modifier (e.g., management reserve, contingency reserve) to provide further detail on what types of risk are meant to be mitigated.

267
Q

reserve analysis

A

A method used to evaluate the amount of risk on the project and the amount of schedule and budget reserve to determine whether the reserve is sufficient for the remaining risk.

268
Q

resource breakdown structure

A

A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type.

269
Q

resource management plan

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how project resources are acquired, allocated, monitored, and controlled.

270
Q

Responsibility

A

An assignment that can be delegated within a project management plan that describes how the assigned resources incurs a duty to perform the requirements of the assignment

271
Q

responsibility assignment matrix

A

A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package.

272
Q

result

A

An output from performing project management processes and activities.

273
Q

retrospective

A

A regularly occurring workshop in which participants explore their work and results in order to improve both the process and product.

274
Q

rework

A

Action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

275
Q

risk

A

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more portfolio, program, or project objectives.

276
Q

risk acceptance

A

A risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the risk and taking no action unless it occurs. Acceptance of the risk’s implication(s) usually means using schedule and/or cost reserves and accepting scope and/or quality reduction(s).

277
Q

risk analysis

A

The activities related to defining the characteristics of a risk and the degree to which it can impact objectives.

278
Q

risk appetite

A

The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward.

279
Q

risk assessment

A

The process of identifying, analyzing, and determining the probability of occurrence of a risk and its impacts if it does occur.

280
Q

risk avoidance

A

A risk response strategy that involves eliminating the threat or protecting the portfolio, program, or project from its impact.

281
Q

risk breakdown structure

A

A hierarchical representation of potential sources of risk.

282
Q

risk enhancement

A

A risk response strategy that involves increasing the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity.

283
Q

risk escalation

A

A risk response strategy that involves transferring the ownership of the risk to a relevant party in the organization because the risk is outside of scope or the team does not have sufficient authority to address it.

284
Q

risk exploiting

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs.

285
Q

risk exposure

A

An aggregate measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a portfolio, program, or project.

286
Q

risk management

A

Activities used to identify, analyze, respond to, and monitor risks at the enterprise, portfolio, program, or project level.

287
Q

risk mitigation

A

A risk response strategy that involves decreasing the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat.

288
Q

risk register

A

A repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded.

289
Q

risk sharing

A

A risk response strategy that involves allocating ownership of an opportunity to a third party that is best able to capture the opportunity or absorb the impact of the threat.

290
Q

risk threshold

A

The measure of acceptable variation around an objective that reflects the risk appetite of the organization and stakeholders.

291
Q

risk tolerance

A

The degree of uncertainty that an organization or individual is willing to withstand.

292
Q

risk transference

A

A risk response strategy that involves shifting the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response.

293
Q

Risk-Adjusted Backlog

A

A backlog that includes product work and actions to address threats and opportunities

294
Q

roadmap

A

A high-level timeline that depicts such things as milestones, significant events, reviews, and decision points.

295
Q

rolling wave planning

A

An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level.

296
Q

root cause analysis

A

An analytical method used to determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance, defect, or risk.

297
Q

rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

A

An initial estimate of the cost of a project or parts of a project, with a rough accuracy range. This estimate provides stakeholders and decision makers with a general idea of the project cost’s order of magnitude. The ROM estimate is refined over time as more information becomes available during the project, following the concept of progressive elaboration.

298
Q

S-curve analysis

A

A technique used to indicate performance trends by using a graph that displays cumulative costs over a specific time period.

299
Q

Scatter Diagram

A

A graph that shows the relationship between two variables

300
Q

schedule baseline

A

The approved version of a schedule model that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results.

301
Q

schedule compression

A

A technique used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope.

302
Q

schedule forecasts

A

Estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time the schedule is calculated.

303
Q

schedule management plan

A

A component of the program or project management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.

304
Q

schedule model

A

A representation of the plan for executing the project’s activities, including durations, dependencies, and other planning information, used to produce a project schedule along with other scheduling artifacts.

305
Q

schedule network analysis

A

A technique to identify early and late start dates, as well as early and late finish dates, for the uncompleted portions of project activities.

306
Q

schedule performance index (SPI)

A

A measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the ratio of earned value to planned value.

307
Q

schedule variance (SV)

A

A measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value.

308
Q

scope baseline

A

The approved version of formal scope documents that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results.

309
Q

scope creep

A

The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.

310
Q

scope management plan

A

A component of the program or project management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.

311
Q

Sensitivity analysis

A

An analysis method to determine which individual project risks or other sources of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes by correlating variations in project outcomes with variations in elements of a quantitative risk analysis model

312
Q

servant leadership

A

The practice of leading the team by focusing on understanding and addressing the needs and development of team members in order to enable the highest possible team performance.

313
Q

Simulation

A

An analytical method that models the combined effect of uncertainties to evaluate their potential impact on objectives

314
Q

single-point estimating

A

An estimating method that involves using data to calculate a single value that reflects a best guess estimate.

315
Q

Specification

A

A precise statement of the needs to be satisfied and the essential characteristics that are required

316
Q

sponsor

A

An individual or a group that provides resources and support for the portfolio, program, or project, and is accountable for enabling success.

317
Q

sprint

A

A timeboxed interval within a project during which a usable and potentially releasable increment of a product is created.

318
Q

sprint review

A

A collaborative review session where the team demonstrates the work that was completed during the sprint to stakeholders and solicits their feedback.

319
Q

stakeholder

A

An individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a portfolio, program, or project.

320
Q

Stakeholder analysis

A
321
Q

stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

A

A matrix that compares current and desired stakeholder engagement levels.

322
Q

stakeholder engagement plan

A

A component of the program or project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote productive involvement of stakeholders in program or project decision-making and execution.

323
Q

stakeholder register

A

A project document that includes information about project stakeholders including an assessment and classification of project stakeholders.

324
Q

start-to-finish

A

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has started.

325
Q

start-to-start

A

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started.

326
Q

statement of work (SOW)

A

A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project.

327
Q

steering committee

A

An advisory body of senior stakeholders who provide direction and support for the portfolio, program, or project team and make decisions outside of the team’s authority.

328
Q

story map

A

A visual model of all the features and functionality desired for a given product, created to give the team a holistic view of what they are building and why.

329
Q

story point

A

A unit used to estimate the relative level of effort needed to implement a user story.

330
Q

Strategic Plan

A

A high-level document that explains an organization’s vision and mission plus the approach that will be adopted to achieve this mission and vision, including the specific goals and objectives to be achieved during the period covered by the document

331
Q

Strategy artifacts

A

Documents created prior to or at start of the project that address strategic, business, or high-level information about the project

332
Q

Swarm

A

A method in which multiple team members focus collectively on resolving a specific problem or task

333
Q

SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats) analysis

A

Analysis of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of an organization, project, or option.

334
Q

Tacit Knowledge

A

Personal knowledge that can be difficult to articulate and share such as beliefs, experience, and insights

335
Q

tailoring

A

The deliberate adaptation of approach, governance, and processes to make them more suitable for the given environment and the work at hand.

336
Q

Team charter

A

A document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well as establishes clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members

337
Q

Technical Performance Measures

A

Quantifiable measures of technical performance that are used to ensure system components meet the technical requirements

338
Q

test plan

A

A document describing deliverables that will be tested, tests that will be conducted, and the processes that will be used in testing.

339
Q

threat

A

A risk that would have a negative effect on one or more portfolio, program, or project objectives.

340
Q

throughput

A

The number of items passing through a process.

341
Q

time and materials (T&M) contract

A

A type of contract that is a hybrid contractual arrangement containing aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts.

342
Q

timebox

A

A short, fixed period of time in which work is to be completed.

343
Q

to-complete performance index (TCPI)

A

A measure of the cost performance that should be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal, expressed as the ratio of the cost to finish the outstanding work to the remaining budget.

344
Q

tolerance

A

The quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality requirement

345
Q

total float

A

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint. See also free float, critical path, near-critical activity, and near-critical path

346
Q

trend analysis

A

An analytical method that uses mathematical models to forecast future outcomes based on historical results.

347
Q

Triple bottom line

A

A framework for considering the full cost of doing business by evaluating a company’s bottom line from the perspective of profit, people, and the planet.

348
Q

use case

A

An artifact for describing and exploring how a user interacts with a system to achieve a specific goal.

349
Q

user story

A

A brief description of an outcome for a specific user, which is a promise for a conversation to clarify details.

350
Q

validation

A

The assurance that a product, service, or result meets the needs of the customer and other identified stakeholders.

351
Q

value

A

The ratio of benefit to investment that is gained from achieving the goals of a portfolio, program, or project.

352
Q

value delivery office

A

A project delivery support structure that focuses on coaching teams, building agile skills and capabilities throughout the organization, and mentoring sponsors and product owners to be more effective in those roles.

353
Q

value delivery system

A

A collection of strategic business activities aimed at building, sustaining, and/or advancing an organization.

354
Q

value proposition

A

The value of a product or service that an organization communicates to its customers.

355
Q

value stream map

A

A display of the critical steps in a process and the time taken in each step used to identify waste.

356
Q

Vanity metric

A

A measure that appears to show some result but does not provide useful information for making decisions

357
Q

variance

A

A quantifiable deviation, departure, or divergence away from a known baseline or expected value.

358
Q

variance analysis

A

A technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance.

359
Q

variance at completion (VAC)

A

A projection of the amount of budget deficit or surplus, expressed as the difference between the budget at completion and the estimate at completion.

360
Q

velocity

A

A measure of a team’s productivity rate at which the deliverables are produced, validated, and accepted within a predefined interval.

361
Q

Velocity chart

A

A chart that tracks the rate at which the deliverables are produced, validated, and accepted within a predefined interval.

362
Q

verification

A

The evaluation of whether or not a product, service, or result complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition.

363
Q

Vision statement

A

A summarized, high-level description about the expectations for a product such as target market, users, major benefits, and what differentiates the product from others in the market

364
Q

Voice of the Customer

A

A planning method used to provide products, services, and results that truly reflect customer requirements by translating those customer requirements into the appropriate technical requirements for each phase of project or product development

365
Q

waste

A

Activities that consume resources and/or time without adding value.

366
Q

WBS dictionary

A

A document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, scheduling, cost, and resource information about each component in the work breakdown structure.

367
Q

what-if scenario analysis

A

The process of evaluating scenarios in order to predict their effect on project objectives.

368
Q

Wideband Delphi

A

An estimating method in which subject matter experts go through multiple rounds of producing estimates individually, with a team discussion after each round, until a consensus is achieved

369
Q

work breakdown structure (WBS)

A

A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.

370
Q

work in process (WIP)

A

The project tasks or activities that are in progress but have not yet been completed.

371
Q

work package

A

The work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost, effort, duration, and resources are estimated and managed.

PMP Exam Prep (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions