PM 2500 Flashcards

1
Q

Operation Definition

A
  • ongoing execution of activities
  • same product / repetitive service
  • standard processes or procedures
    routine
  • never-ending projects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Project Definition

A
  • Defined as a temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
  • a definite beginning and end.
  • Projects are temporary but the product, service or result can exist beyond the duration of the project.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Examples of Projects

A
  • Service - website, internet, banking
  • Product - (tangible) construction, car, cell phone
  • Result - (no tangible product or service) research
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Examples of Operations

A
  • Running routine reports on an organization’s dashboard
  • Meeting every Mon, Wed, Fri with the clinical team
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Operations Vs Projects

A
  • Running a B & B vs. establishing a new B & B
  • Assembly line producing existing models of cars vs. design of a new model of car
  • Management of visiting a tourist destination (Whistler, Butchart Gardens) vs. creating a new tourist destination in Squamish.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Outcome

A

An end result or consequence of the process or project”. Outcomes can include outputs and artifacts, but have a broader intent by focusing on the benefits and value that the project was undertaken to deliver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Product

A

An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in itself or a component item.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Objectives of a project

A
  • Outcomes or Products or a combination of both.
  • Need to be determined at the beginning of the project.
  • Documented in the project charter, must be clear and achievable.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Strategic alignment

A
  • Should be in every project charter.
  • project initiation should align with company’s strategic goals.
  • More likely to be supported if they align.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Project Management definition

A

Application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements.
- Balancing constraints (scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources, HR management).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Portfolio

A

Collection of “projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.
- large number of projects that may or may not be related.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Program

A

Group of “related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.
- coordinated to maximize benefits and control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Project

A

Individual Projects that are either within or outside of a program are still considered part of a portfolio.
Projects are often used as a means for achieving the goals and objectives within an organization’s strategic plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Project Manager

A
  • Responsible for ensuring project objectives are met.
  • ## Person assigned to lead the project team.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Personal Effectiveness

A

Effective - doing the right thing at the right time.
Efficient - using the appropriate resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Project Manager Functions

A
  • Oversight and coordination
  • Present objectives and feedback
  • Facilitate and support
  • Perform work and contribute insights
  • Apply expertise
  • Provide business direction and insight
  • Provide resource and direction
  • Maintain governance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Oversight and coordination

A

lead, monitor, and control activities; also includes evaluation and analysis. Includes monitoring and working to improve overall well-being of project team members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Present objectives and feedback

A

collaborate with customers and end users to provide perspectives and insight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Customer

A

individual or group who has requested or is funding the project and the end user is the individual or group who will experience the direct user of the project deliverable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Facilitate and Support

A

People in this function encourage participation, collaboration and a shared sense of responsibility for outputs. Includes evaluation of performance and the provision of feedback for learning and growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Perform work and contribute insights

A

Provide the knowledge, skills, and experience necessary to product the products and realize the outcomes of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Apply expertise

A

Subject matter experts and provide expertise in the project, offering advice and support and contribute to the project team’s learning process and work accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Provide business direction and insight

A

Guide and clarify the direction of the project or product outcome. - Review requirements to prioritize
- Feedback allows for efficient interaction amongst stakeholders, customers and team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Provide resource and direction

A

Promote the project and communicate the organizations’ vision, goals and expectations”, and are advocates. Useful for escalating issues/risks, this function pushes decisions outside the authority of the project team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Maintain governance

A

Approve and support recommendations made by the project team and monitor project progress in achieving the desired outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Competencies (Hard Skills) of PMs

A

Skills are easily quantifiable unlike soft skills which are related to one’s personality.
- Technical PM Leadership
- Strategic and Business Management
- Knowing the business (e.g. carpenter, engineer, electrician) if applicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Competencies (Soft Skills) of a PMs

A

combination of people skills, social skills, communication skills, character traits, attitudes, career attributes, social intelligence and emotional intelligence quotients among others.
- Team Building
- Motivation
- Communication
- Decision making
- Political and cultural awareness
- Negotiation
- Trust building
- Conflict management
- Coaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Other skills

A
  • Conflict management
  • Financial Management and Accounting
  • Purchasing and Procurement
  • Sales and Marketing
  • Unions and Collective - Agreements
  • Contract and Commercial Law
  • Manufacturing and Distribution
  • Supply Chain Management
  • Strategic Planning
  • Organizational Development
  • Health and Safety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

4 major phases of a project

A

AKA project life cycle. Starting a project, organizing and preparing, carrying out the work, and ending the project.
Involve uncertainty (risks - opportunities and threats). Must produce deliverables to proceed to the next phase.

Once a project is divided into phases, each phase becomes a sub-project and will go through its own process groups. (process groups ARE NOT phases of project).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Value

A

worth, importance, or usefulness of something. Defined differently by groups:
- Customers: ability to use specific features or functions of a product.
- Organizations: business value as determined with financial metrics.
- Societal: contribution to groups of people, communities, or the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tangible vs Intangible Value

A

Tangible (Monetary assets, Stakeholder Equity, Tools, Market Share)
Intangible (Goodwill, Brand Recognition, Public Benefit, Reputation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

5 process groups

A

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, and Closing.

Each phase will follow each of of the 5 process groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Why have phases?

A
  • Added control; easier to control larger projects
  • Reduce or mitigate risk
  • Logical sub-sets of the work – distinct focus
  • Generally sequential, sometimes there may be an overlap
  • Significant deliverable
  • Celebrate successes between phases prior to commencing next phase
  • Go-no-go, stage gates, kill points (all mean the same thing) the opportunity to the organization to close a project
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Attributes of phases

A
  • The work in the specific phase is different from other phases.
  • Deliverables or objectives require processes unique to the phase.
  • Closure involves the transfer of deliverable. The closure generally requires approval.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Project phase examples

A
  • Feasibility study
  • Design
  • Build
  • Test
  • Deploy
  • Close
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Phase-end review

A

Each phase formally initatied.
During review - explicit goal of obtaining authorization to close current phase and initiate subsequent phase.
AKA: phase exits, phase gates, kill points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Kill points

A

stakeholders decide that the project is not worth completing in its current state. It may be restarted with different criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Go/No-Go

A
  • when a project requires a decision being made to continue with the remainder of the project or not
  • If you need to pause, recheck or to re-verify in your project, then you have a no-go decision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Initiation Process Group

A

Processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.
- initial scope is defined
- initial financial resources are committed
- Internal and external stakeholders identified (initial list)
- PM selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Planning Process Group

A

Processes required to establish the total scope of the effort, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve.

  • Develop the Project Management Plan
  • Develop project documents

Significant changes occurring throughout the project life cycle trigger a need to revisit one or more of the planning processes and possibly some of the initiating processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Executing Process Group

A

Processes performed to complete the work defined in the PM Plan to satisfy the project requirements.

  • Coordinating people and resources
  • Managing stakeholder expectations
  • Integrating and performing the activities of the project
  • Creates planning updates and re-baselining (changes to activity durations, resource productivity and availability, and deal with unanticipated risks).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

A

processes required to track, review and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate corresponding changes

The key benefit is that project performance is measured and analyzed at regular intervals, appropriate events, or exception conditions, to identify variances, so that corrective action can be taken.
- Recommending corrective or preventive action
- Monitoring the ongoing project activities against the Project Management Plan
- Monitoring the project performance measurement baseline
- Ensuring approved changes are being implemented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Preventive actions

A

proactive actions exercised to eliminate the cause of mistake/error and to prevent the occurrence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Corrective actions

A

Actions employed to eliminate the cause of the mistake/error in order to mitigate its recurrence. Corrective actions should always be followed by a preventive action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Closing process group

A

Processes performed to formally complete or close a project, phase, or contract.

  • Obtain acceptance by the customer or sponsor to formally close the project or phase
  • Conduct post-project or phase-end review
  • Record impacts of tailoring to any process
  • Document lessons learned
  • Apply appropriate updates to organizational process assets
  • Archive all relevant project documents in the project management information system (PMIS) to be used as historical data
  • Close out all procurement activities, ensuring termination of all relevant agreements
  • Perform team members’ assessments and release project resources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Project Charter

A

Formally authorizes the project or phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Project Management Plan

A
  • States how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled
  • Subsidiary plans to address scope, schedule, cost, quality, etc., management
  • Project Documents to address management activities across knowledge areas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Project life cycle

A

The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Project phase

A

A collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Phase gate

A

A review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a program or project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Project management processes

A

A systematic series of activities directed toward causing an end result where one or more inputs will be acted upon to create one or more outputs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Project management process group

A

a logical grouping of project management inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs. the project management process groups include initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing. PM process groups are not project phases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

PM knowledge area

A

An identified area of PM defined by its knowledge requirements an described in terms of its component processes, practices, inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In which Process Group do the knowledge areas Scope Management and Schedule Management occur?

A

Planning Process Group

Rationale: Meaningful planning is vital to the successful execution of a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Would “Organizing the Winter Olympics” be considered a “project” or “operations”? And provide rationale

A

Project: The Olympics would be a project as it has a defined start and stop. The end is reached at the end of the games. The objectives have been met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Stakeholder Definition

A

An individual, group, or organizations that may:

affect, be affected by or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program or portfolio

who directly or indirectly influence a project and its performance or outcome in either a positive or negative way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Analyze and document stakeholder…

A
  • Requirements (wants)
  • Expectations (ambiguous/undefined requirements)
  • Interests (do they care?)
  • Involvement (if/how) good communication needed, determine timing.
  • Interdependencies (who is connected)
  • Influence (+ or -)
  • Potential impact on project success
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Stakeholders are impacted by:

A

A decision
An activity
Outcomes of the project, program or portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Examples of stakeholders

A

Customers
Sponsors
The Performing Organization
The Public
The Functional Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where (documents) can you identify stakeholders

A
  • Project Charter
  • Business Documents
  • Project Management Plan
  • Project Documents
  • Agreements
  • Procurement Documents
  • Enterprise Environmental Factors
  • Organizational Process Assets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Groups

A

Groups of individuals that have no organizational title

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Organizations

A

Groups of individuals acting with an organizational title (for example, the Health & Safety Department, WorkPlace Health, WorksafeBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Project balance

A

balance demands, needs and expectations as they all influence the project based on their amount of power.

Balance project objectives with stakeholder expectations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Failure to identify stakeholders

A
  • delays
  • cost increases
  • unexpected issues
  • project cancellation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

BCIT has been working on adding another coffee shop to the SW3 Building. The project has been approved and the new coffee shop will be on the main floor. A contractor has been hired to complete the project in three months. Who are the stakeholders for this project?

A
  • Project team
  • Health and Safety certification organizations
  • Another coffee shop
  • Instructors
  • Coffee shop suppliers
  • Contractors
  • BCIT communications department (which class will be affected etc.?)
  • BCIT custodian staff
  • Finance department
  • BCIT staff (administration)
  • Hydro and water company (maintenance)
  • Students
  • Any food and beverage shop
  • Patrons
  • All those using SW3
  • Parking
  • Security
  • BCIT Board of Directors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Why prioritize stakeholders?

A
  • Saves time and resources
  • Assists requirement gathering
  • Allows for continuous reviews throughout the project
  • Enables PM to take charge and communicate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Power interest grid

A

Analyze stakeholders based on level of authority (power) and their level of concern (interest) in relation to project outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

High power - high interest stakeholders

A

Decision makers. Greatest impact on project success. Must closely manage their expectations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

High power - low interest stakeholders

A

Keep them in loop and satisfied. Have power. May exploit their power if they become dissatisfied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Low power - high interest

A

Ensure adequately informed. Can be beneficial to the specifics of project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Low power - low interest

A

monitor, but don’t tire with unnecessary updates or communication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Tools and techniques for stakeholder identification

A
  • Expert Judgement
  • Data Gathering
  • Data Analysis
  • Data Representation
  • Meetings
73
Q

Stakeholder register

A

a project document that includes information about project stakeholders, including an assessment and classification of project stakeholders.

Is not static, changes occur throughout project.

74
Q

Stakeholder identification information

A

name, organizational position, location, role in project, contact info

75
Q

Stakeholder assessment information

A

name, organizational position, location, role in project, contact info

76
Q

Stakeholder classification

A

Internal/external, supporter/neutral/resistor.

77
Q

Collecting Requirements

A

Criteria for determining, documenting and managing stakeholders’ needs and requirements to meet the project objectives.

78
Q

Requirement

A

condition or capability that is necessary to be present in the final product or outcome of the project.

79
Q

Types of requirements

A
  • Business
  • Stakeholder
  • Solution
  • Transition
  • Project
  • Quality
80
Q

Business requirement

A

The “brand look” of a product: e.g., Apple products. Themes, looks, branding.

81
Q

Stakeholder requirements

A

How much power or interest a stakeholder has (for instance, a lot of power and a lot of interest).

82
Q

Solution Requirements

A

Available solutions.
Providing solutions to an impass: e.g., renovation in bathroom that you are unable to do unless you 1) provide another option or 2) add more money to project.

83
Q

Transition Requirements

A

From one area to another, one database to another.
When deliverables are created in phases: e.g., the output of one work package is the Input to another

84
Q

Project Requirements

A

Location of the project, constraints.

What is the structure forcing you to do? e.g., army projects – behind closed doors.

85
Q

Quality Requirements

A

Specifications of a product: e.g., longevity of a car, ISO standards

86
Q

Requirements sources of information

A
  • Project Charter (High level project and product requirements)
  • Project Management Plan (Scope, Requirement, stakeholder management plans)
  • Project Documents (Assumptions Log, Lessons Learned Register, Stakeholder Register)
  • Business Documents (Business Case)
  • Enterprise Environmental Factors (EFFs)
  • Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)
87
Q

Assumption Log

A
  • Contains high level strategic and operational assumptions and constraints identified in Business Case level
  • Lower level assumptions and constraints are generated throughout the project.
  • Created at the same time as the Project Charter
88
Q

Tools and techniques to collect requirements

A
  • Expert Judgement
  • Data Gathering through Interviews
  • Focus Groups
  • Interpersonal & Team Skills through Facilitated Workshop
  • Data representation
  • Data Gathering through Brainstorming
  • Data Gathering Through Questionnaires and Surveys
  • Prototypes
  • Benchmarking
  • Decision making
  • Interpersonal & team skills through observation
  • Context diagrams
89
Q

Examples of expert judgement

A
  • Senior management
  • Other units within the organization
  • identified key stakeholders
  • project managers who have worked on projects in the same area (directly or through lessons learned)
  • SMEs in business or project area
  • industry groups and consultants
  • professional and technical associations.
90
Q

Data gathering through interviews

A
  • Direct information discovery from stakeholders – formal or informal
  • Questioning – prepared or spontaneous questions, one-on-one or in groups
  • Lessons learned and experienced project participants, stakeholders, subject matter experts (SMEs)
  • Identifying and defining required functions and features
91
Q

What is the difference between a function and a feature?

A

Functions are an activity or purpose intended for a thing. Ex: cell phone functions are that it can make a call, receive a call, etc
Features are characteristic attributes of a product, Ex: a cell that has a thumb print password, or panorama photos.

92
Q

What percentage of a Project Manager’s communication is delivered via body language (non-verbal communication) – those behaviour and actions aside from words themselves?

A

55%

93
Q

What percentage of a Project Manager’s message is attributed to the choice of words?

A

17%

94
Q

Besides body language and choice or words what else does communication involve?

A

Tone, intonation, and other aspects of speech.

95
Q

Characteristics of a good interview

A
  • clearly defined goals
  • two-way communication
  • a trusting relationship is established
  • capture the feelings and opinions of the interviewee
  • informal gathering of information
96
Q

Data gathering through focus groups

A

Led by a trained moderator, focus groups consist of authorized and experienced stakeholders and SMEs assembled to gain an understanding about the expectations and attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result.

97
Q

Interpersonal & Team Skills through Facilitated Workshop

A
  • Groups of x-sectional stakeholders to define product requirements.
  • quickly define x-functional requirements and reconcile stakeholder differences.
  • well-facilitated, build trust, foster relationships, improve communication, leading to improved consensus.
  • allow early identification and resolution of issues.
98
Q

Other data gathering methods

A
  • Brainstorming - nominal group technique, multi-criteria decision analysis.
  • Questionnaires and surveys (large audience, quick turnaround). Useful for collecting attitudes, beliefs, behaviour, and characteristics.
99
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

Type of reactivity in which individuals modify an aspect of their behavior in response to their awareness of being observed

100
Q

Requirements Documentation

A
  • Describes how requirements meet the business need for the project

Baseline requires unambiguous requirements: measurable, testable, traceable, complete, consistent, and acceptable to key stakeholders

101
Q

Requirements tracebility matrix

A
  • links requirements to their origin and traces through throughout project
  • links requirements to business and project objectives.
  • tracks requirements to ensure final delivery
  • provides structure for managing changes to the product scope
102
Q

Tracing (columns on traceability matrix)

A
  • Business needs, opportunity, goals and objectives
  • Project objectives
  • Project Scope/WBS deliverables
  • Product design
  • Product development
  • Test strategy and test scenarios
  • High-level requirements to more detailed requirements
103
Q

Context diagrams to collect requirements

A

Graphical representations that depict project scope, show ‘flow’ of business processes and how people and systems interact with each other.

104
Q

When to use a questionnaire?

A
  • people are widely dispersed
  • large numbers of people are involved in the project
  • exploratory study to gauge opinion
  • Prior to a series of interviews
105
Q

Open-ended questions advantages

A
  • unlimited number of possible answers
  • can elaborate in detail and explain responses.
  • unforeseen conclusions can be drawn
  • self-expressive responses permitted
  • reveal respondent’s reasoning, thinking process, and frame of reference
106
Q

Open-ended questions disadvantages

A
  • responses may be unrelated or buried in useless detail.
  • hard to apply statistics
  • articulate and well-read respondents have an advantage.
  • questions may be too general
  • increased time needed for thoughtful responses
  • respondents could be intimidated by questions.
  • may require more space on questionnaire.
107
Q

Close-ended questions advantages

A
  • easy, quick to respond
  • easier to explore statistically
  • more likely to answer about sensitive topics
  • fewer irrelevant or confused answers
  • less articulate or less literate are not disadvantaged
  • duplication is easier
108
Q

Close-ended questions disadvantages

A
  • ideas can be suggested that respondent may not have thought of.
  • respondents with no opinion or knowledge can answer regardless
  • can be frustrated their desire answer isn’t an option
  • confusing if many choices are offered
  • misinterpretation if a question can go overlooked
  • force respondents to give simplistic responses to complex issues.
109
Q

Methods of applying questionnaires

A
  • all respondents all at once
  • hand back questionnaire on their own time
  • mailing, giving deadline and providing return envelope.
  • Email/web friendly.
110
Q

Prototypes to collect requirements

A
  • Working model of expected results allows stakeholder feedback
  • Supports the concept of progressive elaboration
  • Provides better quality requirements
111
Q

Benchmarking to collect requirements

A

compare process/operations with other organizations to identify best practices and improvement ideas.

112
Q

Decision making to collect requirements

A

voting - including decisions based on unanimity, majority, or plurality.

113
Q

Interpersonal and team skills through observation

A

direct way of viewing individuals in their environment performing their jobs or tasks and carrying out processes.

Useful way of establishing what is happening - activities, messages, influence, relationships.

114
Q

Project scope

A

work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with specified features and functions.

115
Q

Project scope mgmt steps

A
  1. Plan Scope Mgmt
  2. Collect Requirements
  3. Define scope
  4. Create WBS
  5. Validate scope
  6. Control scope
116
Q

Plan Scope Management

A

creating a scope management plan to outline how the scope will be defined, validated and controlled.

117
Q

Collect Requirements

A

The process of determining, documenting and managing stakeholder needs and requirements.

118
Q

Define Scope

A

Developing a comprehensive description of the project and product. Builds on deliverables, assumptions, constraints for project initiation.

119
Q

WBS

A

Subdividing deliverables into move manageable components.

120
Q

Validate Scope

A

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

121
Q

Control Scope

A

Monitoring the status of the scope and managing changes to the scope baseline.

122
Q

Product scope

A

Features and functions that characterize a product. Ex: phone, function = make a call. Features = add ons for marketability (camera).

123
Q

Project scope

A

Clear and detailed work performed to deliver a product, service or result with specified features and functions.

124
Q

Project scope management

A

Includes processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

125
Q

Why do you want to ensure that only the work required is done?

A

Prevents scope creep (uncontrolled changes in project scope).

126
Q

Project influences

A
  • Organizational process assets (OPAs)
  • Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)
127
Q

Organizational Process Assets

A

Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to and used by performing organization. Corporate knowledge base, historical info, lessons learned.

128
Q

Enterprise Environmental Factor (EFF)

A

Conditions, not under control of the project team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project. EEFs considered inputs to most planning processes. ex: organizational culture, standards and regulations, infrastructure, HR

129
Q

Scope creep

A

uncontrolled expansion to project or product scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources. Scope creek not = changes in scope.

130
Q

Where to find information about scope?

A

Project mgmt plan (risk, quality, stakeholder, communication plan)
- Project charter (high level description)
- EEFs (culture, personnel, infrastructure)
- OPA (policies and procedures, historical information, lessons learned).

131
Q

Tools and techniques to plan scope management

A
  • Expert Judgement: SMEs/consultant
  • Data analysis: evaluate options in order to choose approach
  • Meetings - develop and define scope.
  • Decision making - how does team/organization make decisions (voting, meeting?)
  • product analysis - Q&A to describe characteristics about what will be developed.
132
Q

Requirements management plan

A

How requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed throughout the project, includes process for: how to plan, track and report. configuration management activities, prioritization process, metrics and rationale.

133
Q

Outputs of scope

A
  • project scope statement
  • project document updates (assumption log, requirements documentation, requirements traceability matrix, stakeholder register.
134
Q

Project Scope Statement Definition

A

Describes, in as much detail, the project’s deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables and result in acceptance of the project.
- contains explicit exclusions (if any)
- live document

135
Q

Assumption Log

A

Contains high level strategic and operational assumptions and constraints identified at the Business Case level. It is created at the same time as the Project Charter.
lower level ones are generated throughout the project.

136
Q

Constraints

A

Anything that limits options; a restriction (internal or external) that can affect the performance of a project. (time, money and resources most common).

137
Q

Assumptions

A

Factors that are considered true, real or certain without proof. Involve a degree of risk. Need plan to mitigate the risk.

138
Q

Components of a project scope statement

A
  • all info re: description, deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions.
    Shared agreement amongst team and stakeholders.
139
Q

Product scope description

A

characteristics of product, service or result. Concise description answering what, when, where, why and how of project. All components need to aligned with SMART goals

140
Q

Deliverables

A

outputs of the project interim or final product, service or results. Reflect customer/stakeholder requirements, required quality level and results foreseen by organizations.

141
Q

Acceptance Criteria

A

Process and criteria for accepting completed deliverables. Stakeholder’s requirements for product/project. *Need acceptance criteria for each deliverable.

142
Q

Project exclusions

A

What is excluded from the project (not in scope). Helps manage stakeholders expectations.

143
Q

SMART goals

A

-Specific: focus on specific idea
-Measurable: Quantify how the idea can be measured
-Achievable - Defined so that idea can be achieved with current knowledge, skills and ability
-Realistic - Indicate what can be reasonable achieved, given available resources
-Time-Bound: detail when the result can be attained.

144
Q

Scope validation

A

Formalized accpetance by customer in regards to deliverables. Reviewing deliverables to esnure completed as per requirements and obtain formal acceptance of delivables.

145
Q

Quality control

A

Primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables and meeting the quality requirements specified for the deliverables.

146
Q

Inputs to validate scope

A

Project mgmt plan
Project docs - lessons learned, quality reports, RTM
Verified deliverables - completed and checked for correctness by the QC process
Work performance data - Degree of compliance with requirements.

147
Q

Data vs information

A

Data: information in raw, unorganized form that refers to, or represent, conditions, ideas or objects.

Information: when data is processed, interpreted, or organized, make them more useful and meaningful.

148
Q

Inspection

A

Measuring, examining, verifying to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and acceptance critieria. (product reviews, audit, walkthroughs)

149
Q

Group decision-making techniques

A

Collectively decide.
Unanimity - all consent
Majority - >50% in favor of one group
Plurality - decision by largest block in a group decision (not majority but larger representation, a number greater than another.

150
Q

WBS

A

tool used to map out decomposition of deliverables.
Organizes and defines total scope.
Each descending level represents increasingly detailed definition of work

151
Q

Why use a WBS?

A
  • Detailed illustration of scope
  • Monitors Progress
  • Creates an accurate cost and schedule estimation
  • Builds project teams and sub-groups
  • Establishes framework for managing the work to its completion
  • Creates better communication to project sponsors, stakeholders, and team members
  • Increases confidence that 100% of the work is identified and included
152
Q

WBS supports PMs by

A
  • separates project deliverables into component parts.
  • method for managing complex projects
  • framework for specifying performance objectives.
  • Planning and supporting assignment of responsibilities.
  • Determining resource requirements (technical skill, experience and knowledge)
  • Facilitate reporting and analysis (resource allocation, cost estimate, expenditures, performance).
153
Q

100% rule

A

100% of work needed to accomplish project must be included in the WBS. Captures all deliverables (Internal, external, and interim). Includes project management

154
Q

PM in WBS

A

always include. only gets broken down if you are outsourcing any tasks.

155
Q

How to build a WBS

A

Name of project at the top
- 2nd level = deliverables
- Create hierarchical code scheme for WBS starting from 1.0 (project title) 1.1… (deliverables) and another digit for components.

156
Q

Work package

A

Decompose deliverables tot he level comfortably cost estimated and managed. AKA planned work.
Can be scheduled, cost-estimated, monitored and controlled. AKA activities/tasks

157
Q

WBS development tools

A
  • Outlines and org charts
  • Fishbone diagrams
  • brainstorming techniques
  • top down and bottom up development strategies.
158
Q

Decomposition

A
  • identifying and analyzing deliverables and related work.
  • structuring and organizing the WBS
  • Decomposing upper WBS into lower level detailed components.
  • Developing and assigning ID codes to WBS components.
  • Verifying degree of decomposition.
159
Q

8-80 Rule (8-80-10)

A

Reminder to limit the size of WBS work packages.
8 - 80hrs are right size. < 1 day is too granular, >2 weeks too long to manage properly.

160
Q

Pareto principle

A

80/20 rule
80% of results/effects comes from 20% of work/causes. Focus on 20% of work that is most important (most productive and fruitful).

161
Q

Just in Time

A

Means making “only what is needed, when it is needed, and in the amount needed”.

162
Q

Control account

A

mgmt control point of scope, cost, schedule integrated and compared to earned value for performance msmt.
Has 2 or more packages, through each work package.

163
Q

WBS dictionary

A

Detailed description of work packages and control accounts.
Info about deliverable, activity, scheduling information.

164
Q

WBS dictionary components

A
  • Code of Account
  • Description of Work
  • Responsible Organization
  • List of Schedule Milestones
  • Associated Schedule Activities
  • Resources Required
  • Cost Estimates
  • Quality Requirements
  • Acceptance Criteria
  • Technical References
  • Contract Information
165
Q

Problems from WBS defects

A
  • Missed deadlines and extended schedule
  • Over budget
  • Unable to use new product or feature
  • scope changed and is unmanageable
  • ongoing project now, no end in sight
  • Members confused about responsibilities
  • planned work does not get done.
166
Q

Integrated change process

A

1) Receive request
2) Evaluate how and when change may impact the project
3) Inform stakeholders of impact and receive approval
4) Authorize change and update related documents and work agreements
5) Communicate change to all parties
6) Close change request.

167
Q

Change requests

A

Expand or reduce scope, modify policies/procedures, modify cost/budget, revise schedules.

168
Q

Defect repair

A

Formally documented defect with a recommendation repair or place the component.

169
Q

What project mgmt plans need to updated after change?

A
  • Scope mgmt plan
  • Scope baseline
  • Schedule baseline
  • Cost baseline
  • Performance msmt baseline.
170
Q

output of collecting requirements

A

Requirements documentation
Requirements traceability matrix

171
Q

T/F Organization Process Assets are always an input to a process

A

True. These consist of plans, processes, policies and procedures specific to the internal organization.

172
Q

T/F Stakeholder register is an output of collect requirements

A

False. It’s an input.

173
Q

T/F It is important to use expert judgement in creating WBS

A

True. Another term is subject matter experts who can provide lessons learned and experience to assist the Project Manager in decomposing the deliverables.

174
Q

T/F A Requirements Traceability Matrix is the Output to Plan Scope.

A

False. It is an output to Collect Requirements

175
Q

T/F Management Plan updates are the outputs of processes.

A

True. Updates to plans are always an output.

176
Q

T/F When you Validate Scope you are not agreeing to changes to the scope.

A

False. During Validate Scope, you are formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables and the output can be authorized Change Requests

177
Q

T/F Deliverables, Assumptions, Exclusions and Constraints are found in an output document to Plan Scope Management.

A

False. The elements described are a part of the Scope Statement; this is an output to Define Scope.

178
Q

T/F Interviews are the best way to gather information about Control Scope

A

False. Interviews are a tool & technique of Collect Requirements.