Pleadings and Motions Flashcards

1
Q

Amended Complaint and Timeliness of Answer

A

within original time remaining
OR
14 days from service of amended complaint

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2
Q

if there is No clear evidence that D committed the charge, is atty subject to sanctions?

A

no sanctions if atty to best of her info, know, and belief certifies that the factual contentions

  • have evidentiary support
  • will likely have evidentiary support after reasonable opportunity for discovery
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3
Q

What the requirements for a preliminary injunction? Is notice required?

A

Issued prior to a full hearing on the merits, upon notice to the defendant
May be issued to a P if:
1. P is likely to succeed on the merits
2. P is likely to suffer irreparable harm in the absence of relief
3. Balance of equities is in P’s favor, and
4. Injunction is in the public interest

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4
Q

What the requirements for a TRO? How long can it last? Is notice required? Is notice required in CA?

A
  1. immediate and irreparable injury
  2. cert efforts to give notice
  3. moving pt provides some security to compensate adverse pt if wrongly granted

14 days

Notice is not required if irreparable harm and atty certifies efforts made to give notice and why notice should not be required

in CA, if notice, 15 day max

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5
Q

Does a pt’s failure to supplement earlier mandatory disclosures foreclose him from using an affidavit from a witness not disclosed in opposing a MSJ?

A

Yes - rule 37 if a pt fails to disclose info or ID a witness as required by rule 26 (initial disclosure), pt may not use that info to supply evidence on a motion

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6
Q

What is a 12b6 failure to state a claim must demonstrate?

A

that even if every fact asserted is taken as true, no recovery is plausible under any legal theory

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7
Q

When does relation back apply to a new claim?

A

when it is STO - D would have had notice from the original complaint that an amended pleading would have the new allegation

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8
Q

when MUST a necessary party be joined?

what are the factors for determining whether a party is necessary?

A

if it doesn’t destroy diversity,

§ court cannot grant complete relief to existing parties without that party, or

§ his interests may be impaired or impeded if the case proceeds without joining him, or

§ there is risk of inconsistent judgment or do liability

__________

i. Extent to which judgment would prejudice the parties in the person’s absence;
ii. Extent to which prejudice could be reduced or avoided by protective provisions;
iii. Whether a judgment rendered would be adequate; and
iv. Whether the plaintiff would have an adequate remedy if action were dismissed for nonjoinder

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9
Q

when may a party be joined?

A

i. a claim is made by each Π and against each Δ relating to or arising out of the same series of occurrences or tx, and
ii. question of fact or law common to all the parties

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10
Q

when can a party intervene as of right?

when can a party intervene with ct’s discretion? is there a special requirement for CA?

A

right:

  • non[arty has interest in property or transaction that is subject of the action
  • result may impair nonparty’s interst
  • nonparty’s interest not adequately represented by existing parties

permissive - ct must consider undue delay/prejudice to existing pts

  • conditional right under fed statute
  • intervenor’s claim/defense and original action share common question of law or fact

CA - intervenor’s intersest must be “direct and immediate”

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11
Q

what the requirements and special rules for interpleader?

A

rule 22 - permits nationwide service, usual jx req

section 1355 - requires only minimum diversity, $500 aic

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12
Q

what are the requirements for cert of classaction?

A

CANT

PERQ

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13
Q
what the requirements for class action under CAFA?
when can a federal ct NOT hear a case under CAFA?
A
  1. minimum diversity
  2. aggregate AIC >$5M
  3. ## 100+ class membersno fed ct jx if primary Δs are states, state officials, gov’t entities; or action relates to affairs of a corporation and is based on laws of state of incorporation; or action solely relates to federal securities laws
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14
Q

when is notice required for a class action? what is required?

A

common question of law or fact

best notice practicable to all “reasonably identifiable”

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15
Q

requirements for class action in CA?

A

Class action when Q is of common or general interest, of many persons, or numerous pts + oicable to bring all before the court. Requires (1) ascertainable class and (2) well-defined community of interest among class members (factors: predominate common Q of law or fact, substantial benefit to pts and ct, adequate rep of interest).

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16
Q

when can a pt use relation back for claims/defenses?

in california?

A

nly if new claim/defense arose from the same transaction or occurrence as original
□ Same STO if D, upon reading the original complaint, would have notice of the amended pleading would have the new allegations
□ [CA] amended pleading must also involve same accident/injuries, and refer to same offending instrumentality

17
Q

when can a pt use relation back for new paties?

A

can be added to complaint even though SOL has run as to him, only if…
□ 1) The claim arose from the same transaction or occurrence alleged in the original claim,
□ 2) New pt had notice of the action w/in time limit for service (90 days from filing of original complaint), and
□ 3) New pt knew or should have known w/in 90 of filing that, but for a mistake concerning the identity of the proper party, he would have been included in the original action
[CA] n/a

18
Q

what must happen before sanctions are imposed? how much time?

A

§ Other pt must make a separate motions for sanctions by first serving motion on the party AND give an opportunity to correct or w/d
If not withdrawn/corrected by pt w/in 21, may file motion w/ ct

19
Q

what is notice pleading? when is heightened pleading required?

A

Complaint requires notice pleading that puts Δ on notice of enough facts to raise a plausible claim (plausibly suggesting entitlement to relief, not merely conceivable). Also applies to cross-claims, 3P claims, counterclaims.

○ Heightened pleading: Must plead with particularity if Π claims fraud, mistake, special damages (not reasonably anticipated for the type of claim asserted), or conditions precedent not being satisfied

20
Q

what is required for pleading in cali? what is D are not identified?

A

○ [CA] Fact/code pleading all pleadings must contain statement of all material, operative facts supporting p.f. c/a and demand for relief, and amount of damages
§ just right: no “conclusions” and not too detailed to be considered “evidence”
§ Heightened pleading also applicable
§ [CA] Doe defendants: Δ can be sued under a fictitious “Doe” designation if original complaint is timely filed against all Δs (including Does) + Π’s genuine ignorance of Doe’s identity is pleaded
□ Π has 3 years from filing of complaint to identify and serve Does with amended complaint

21
Q

when can a pt amend? how long does the other party have to respond?

A

As of right, a party may amend (1) within 21 days of service before a responsive pleading (not motion) or (2) if pleading requires a response, 21 after responsive pleading/pre-answer motion. May also amend w/ leave of ct or other pt’s written consent. Other pt has 14 to respond or remaining response time for original pleading

22
Q

what is the standard for failure to state a clam? when does it become a MSJ?

A

§ Claim will be dismissed if it fails to assert legal theory of recovery cognizable at law or allege facts sufficient to support cognizable claim; and court treats well-pleaded facts as true, resolves doubts/inferences in P’s favor, and views pleading in light most favorable to P (limited to pleadings)
§ If evidentiary material presented in a 12(b)(6) MTD, treat as motion for summary judgment (FRCP 12(d))
○ Court must give all parties opportunity to respond with material pertinent to the motion

23
Q

what must be raised in the first reponse or are otherwise waived?

A

PJ, process, service, venue
AND affirmative defenses MUST be raised must be at beginning of the case in the FIRST response by answer or pre-answer MTD/demurrer, or they are waived!

24
Q

what are the possible post answer motions?

A
  1. motion for judgment on the pleadings - after answer filed, allows court to dispose of a case when material facts are not in dispute and judgment on merits can be achieved based on content of pleadings
    1. [CA] before filing the motion, the moving party must meet and confer and try to resolve
  2. motion for a more definitive statement - responding party may move for more definite statement if claim for relief is so vague or ambiguous that party cannot reasonably draft responsive pleading
  3. motion to strike: when pleading contains insufficient defense, or redundant, immaterial, impertinent, or scandalous material – court may order such defense or material stricken; can be used to avoid unnecessary time and money in litigating invalid issues
    1. [CA] w/I 30 days and must meet and confer to attempt and resolve before filing
25
Q

what are the Cali specific motions?

A

○ [CA] Motion to quash to assert (a) lack of PJ, (b) improper process and/or (c) improper service of process must be at special appearance (sole purpose of appearance is MTQ)—or waived!
○ [CA] General demurrers: failure to state facts sufficient for a claim, lack of SMJ (Unlimited or limited)
○ [CA] Special demurrers: pleading is ambiguous, lack of legal capacity to sue, misjoinder of parties (Unlimited only)
○ [CA] Anti-SLAPP: Special motion to strike a complaint targeted against Δ’s constitutionally protected speech. Seeks to show Π’s lawsuit has no merit. SLAPP = Strategic Lawsuit Against Public Participation
§ File w/in 60 days of the (SLAPP) complaint. Anti-SLAPP motion to strike stays all discovery
□ Δ first has burden to show prima facie case that Π’s cause of action arises based on an act in furtherance of Δ’s A1 rights in connection with “public interest” or at a “public forum”
□ Burden shifts to Π to establish a probability of prevailing on the merits (going to the jury)
§ SLAPPback motion: Δ who wins on anti-SLAPP motion may assert malicious prosecution by Π

26
Q

when is a lawyer cer when filing pleading?

A

o best of his knowledge, information, and belief, formed after a reasonable inquiry that
§ pleading is not presented with improper purpose
§ claims, defenses, legal contentions are warranted by existing law or by nonfrivolous argument for extending or modidying the law
§ factual contentions have evidentiary support

27
Q

what is the process for sanction?

A

§ Other pt must make a separate motions for sanctions by first serving motion on the party AND give an opportunity to correct or w/d
□ If not withdrawn/corrected by pt w/in 21, may file motion w/ ct