Platoon Chief Exam 2024 Flashcards
According to Operational Policy 101.00 – Rules and Regulations; a member reports for
duty more than ___ minutes past their scheduled hour will be considered to have “failed
to report”
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
B) 30
According to Operational Policy 109.00 – WSIB Reporting Obligations and Procedures;
who is responsible to complete the injured/ill worker’s accident report?
A) The injured/ill worker’s District Chief
B) The injured/ill worker’s Platoon Chief
C) The injured/ill worker’s Return to Work Services manager
D) The injured/ill worker’s Immediate Supervisor
D) The injured/ill worker’s Immediate Supervisor
According to Operational Policy 114.00 – On-Duty Members – Critically Injured or
Admitted to Hospital; The injured member’s immediate Supervisor at the time of the
accident/injury is responsible for completing and submitting the “Report of Accidental
Injury and Occupational Disease” within ___ hours of the incident to the City of Hamilton
Human Resources?
A) 8
B) 12
C) 24
D) 36
C) 24
According to Operational Policy 123.00 – Offensive Materials and Actions; a firefighter
has posted something offensive in the workplace, who is responsible for ensuring
offensive materials are not displayed in the workplace?
A) District Senior Officer
B) Officers
C) Platoon Chief
D) Assistant Deputy Chief
B) Officers
According to Operational Policy 123.00 – Offensive Materials and Actions; Officers shall
be responsible for the following:
A) Personnel violating this policy are referred to the District Senior Officer
B) Offensive materials are removed, and offensive actions cease
C) Ensuring all crew members are familiar with this policy
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to Operational Guideline 212.00 – Injured Worker Checklist – Career; which
of the following is not an action for the immediate Supervisor to take?
A) The immediate Supervisor shall contact a Worker Representative from the
J.O.H.S.C.
B) The immediate Supervisor shall contact the Duty Officer at the time of the
occurrence and leave a detailed voice message
C) If seeking medical attention, the immediate Supervisor shall provide the injured
worker with the Functional Abilities Form before they leave the workplace
D) The immediate Supervisor shall complete the on-line (HES Intranet site) “Report
of Accidental Injury and Occupational Disease Form” within 24 hours of the
occurrence
C) If seeking medical attention, the immediate Supervisor shall provide the injured
worker with the Functional Abilities Form before they leave the workplace
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire
Department Peer Support; who may request the Peer Support Team to attend for
appropriate intervention?
A) The Company Officer only
B) The Senior Officer only
C) Any individual involved
D) The Deputy Chief only
C) Any individual involved
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire
Department Peer Support; a ___________ is a structured group discussion typically
conducted with homogenous groups, ideally within 2-5 days post incident.
A) Defusing
B) Debriefing
C) Crisis Intervention
D) Post Incident Analysis
B) Debriefing
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire
Department Peer Support; a ___________ is typically a small group (<20; usually the
crews involved) in a structured discussion regarding a critical incident, and is conducted
shortly after the incident, ideally during the same shift, primarily as an educational
process
A) Post Incident Analysis
B) Debriefing
C) Crisis Intervention
D) Defusing
D) Defusing
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire
Department Peer Support; which of the following would be a critical incident and/or
traumatic event causing an Occupational Stress Injury?
A) Serious injury or death of a civilian resulting from HFD operations
B) Death of a patient following extraordinary and prolonged expenditure of physical
and emotional energy during rescue efforts
C) Events that seriously threaten a firefighter’s life
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; which of the following
reporting guidelines is incorrect?:
A) Upon return to the station, all Career and Volunteer Operations Officers, who
responded on an apparatus or who were in charge of a crew on the fire
ground shall complete the appropriate sections of the incident report within
two (2) hours of their apparatus returning to the station.
B) All officers are to complete their applicable incident report sections as
directed in the HFD Fire Incident Reporting Manual
C) Unless otherwise directed, all pending reports are to be completed by the
Career Officers before they go off-duty. Should a call come in close to shift
change, it is expected that the officer will complete the report and submit the
associated overtime
D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be
completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant
damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department.
D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be
completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant
damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 - Incident Reporting; the Officer’s
Supplemental and the (Master) Incident Report should be supplemented by additional
details provided from the Officer’s __________ from the scene?
A) Observations
B) Notes
C) Assigned Tasks
D) Actions
B) Notes
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; the Officer’s
Supplemental shall be completed in ________ detail to indicate the actions of the
Officer and crew. This space is to be used in the same manner as the narrative area on
the (Master) Incident Report.
A) Little
B) Minimal
C) Great
D) Limited
C) Great
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; Company Officers
observing Fire Code violations or concerns (not immediately dangerous to life and
health) at a property attended by HFD shall report such to the
______________________ using the Incident Action Request.
A) Platoon Chief
B) District Chief
C) The Senior Officer for that District
D) Fire Prevention Bureau
D) Fire Prevention Bureau
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; Company Officers
observing serious Fire Code violations (immediately dangerous to life and health) in a
property attended by the HFD, that Officer shall notify the:
A) Platoon Chief
B) District Chief
C) The Senior Officer for that District
D) Fire Prevention Bureau
C) The Senior Officer for that District
According to Operational Guideline 305.00 Submission of Lists/Damage Reports on
FDM (#437); if an emergency situation requiring IMMEDIATE repair arises after 1700
hours and before 0800 hours or on holidays or weekends, contact the
_______________________.
A) Deputy Chief
B) District Senior Officer
C) Duty Officer
D) Platoon Chief
B) District Senior Officer
According to Operational Policy 401.00 – Operating Apparatus –
Responses/Movements; Members losing their right to drive (revoked, lost, suspended,
or allowed to expire) shall immediately report the relevant conditions in writing to:
A) The Training Officer responsible for apparatus
B) Their Captain
C) Their Senior Officer
D) The Deputy Chief of Operations
C) Their Senior Officer
According to Operational Policy 401.00 – Operating Apparatus –
Responses/Movements; A copy of the employees written report of notification of loss of
driving privileges as well as the report for the renewed license status must be forwarded
to the member’s:
A) Division Chief / Deputy Chief
B) Platoon Chief / Deputy Chief
C) Division Chief / Training Division
D) Platoon Chief / Division Chief
D) Platoon Chief / Division Chief
According to Operational Guideline 408.00 – Breakdown of Apparatus; which of the
following statements is incorrect?
A) At the discretion of the Platoon Chief, during irregular hours when the Mechanical
Division is not open, the On Call Mechanic should be contacted to ascertain
whether an on-site visit by the Mechanic is feasible
B) Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile during weather below
freezing temperature and unable to engage the pump shall leave all inlets and
outlet valve controls in the open position in order to prevent freezing
C) Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile on the road during weather
below freezing temperature shall leave apparatus at idle speed, engage fire
pump and circulate water in order to prevent damage due to freezing.
D) The Mechanical Division must be contacted before using the services of any
towing company for towing or for the use of using starter cables for discharged
batteries. After hours, the On-Call Mechanic shall be contacted or the Chief
Mechanical Officer
B) Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile during weather below
freezing temperature and unable to engage the pump shall leave all inlets and
outlet valve controls in the open position in order to prevent freezing
According to Operational Guideline 415.00 – Damage or Theft Involving HFD Property;
what are the Senior Officer’s responsibilities for theft or vandalism?
A) In the event of unaccounted equipment, the Senior Officer may direct to initiate
searches of fire stations and apparatus using fire station personnel. A thorough
search shall take place and be documented in an email to the appropriate Deputy
Chief
B) The Senior Officer is responsible for conducting or assigning an investigation into
the theft from or malicious damage to fire stations.
C) The Senior Officer is responsible for notification of Hamilton Police Service when
equipment is lost or damaged under suspected criminal circumstances. A report
shall be filed regardless of dollar loss
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to Operational Guideline 415.00 Damage or Theft Involving HFD Property;
you are an Officer in a station where there is suspected theft or vandalism of HFD
property; what action(s) are the responsibility of the Company Officer when there is
suspected theft or vandalism of HFD property.
A) The Officer is responsible for conducting or assigning an investigation into the
theft from or malicious damage to fire stations
B) The Officer shall complete all necessary documentation and notify their Senior
Officer of the occurrence
C) The Officer shall be responsible for notification of Hamilton Police Service when
equipment is lost or damaged under suspected criminal circumstances. A report
shall be filed regardless of dollar loss.
D) In the event of unaccounted equipment, the Officer may direct to initiate searches
of fire stations and apparatus using fire station personnel
B) The Officer shall complete all necessary documentation and notify their Senior
Officer of the occurrence
According to Operational Guideline 421.00 – Hearing Protection; hearing protection
shall be provided for and used by all members when exposed to noise in excess of ___
dBA caused by power tools or equipment, other than in situations where the use of such
protective equipment would create an additional hazard to the user:
A) 110
B) 90
C) 85
D) 75
B) 90
According to Operational Guideline 428.00 – Vehicle Radio Headsets; the radio
headsets have arrange up to _____ metres.
A) 250
B) 350
C) 450
D) 500
C) 450
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the
___________ Level involves deployment of sufficient resources and personnel to meet
the objectives identified in the Incident Action Plan.
A) Strategic
B) Tactical
C) Task
D) Offensive
B) Tactical
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the
___________ Level refers to activities normally accomplished by individual crews.
A) Strategic
B) Tactical
C) Task
D) Offensive
C) Task
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the
___________ Level involves the overall Command of the Incident
A) Strategic
B) Tactical
C) Task
D) Offensive
A) Strategic
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; during
active Defensive Operations, ___________ ____________ becomes critical since
firefighters should not enter the fire area.
A) Fire Control
B) Perimeter Control
C) Property Conservation
D) Incident Command
B) Perimeter Control
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; there are
three simple guidelines that define acceptable levels of risk, which statement(s) is
correct?
A) No risk to the safety of personnel shall be acceptable when there is no possibility
to save lives or property.
B) Activities that present a significant risk to the safety of personnel shall be limited
to situations in which there is a potential to save endangered lives.
C) Activities routinely employed to protect property shall be recognized as inherent
risks to the safety of members, and actions shall be taken to reduce or avoid
those risks.
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; designating
Command by using a unique and consistent identifier is proper practice.
A) Yes - this would normally be the street name where the incident is occurring
(Main Street Command), if the incident has occurred at a large complex /
building; the building’s name may be utilized (City Hall Command)
B) No - it is only necessary for the Incident Commander to identify as ‘Command’
C) No – it is unnecessary to assume Command
D) None of the above
A) Yes - this would normally be the street name where the incident is occurring
(Main Street Command), if the incident has occurred at a large complex /
building; the building’s name may be utilized (City Hall Command)
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
A) Ensure that operations are conducted safely
B) Complete objectives assigned by Command
C) Initiate, maintain and control the communication process
D) Provide Command with essential and frequent progress reports
C) Initiate, maintain and control the communication process
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
A) Coordinate actions with related activities, and adjacent sectors
B) Account for all assigned personnel
C) Re-direct activities as necessary
D) Assume and confirm Command and take an effective position
D) Assume and confirm Command and take an effective position
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
A) Monitor work progress
B) Return companies to service and terminate command
C) Monitor welfare of assigned personnel
D) Request additional resources as required
B) Return companies to service and terminate command
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; using the 10-12 radio code on arrival of the unit assuming Command is proper practice.
A) Yes
B) No
B) No
According to Operational Guideline 502.00 Incident Roles and Responsibilities; which of
the following is a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
A) Remain accountable at all times for the officers and personnel assigned to that
sector
B) Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an
extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes
C) Responsible for the provision of resources to facilitate incident mitigation by
Command
D) Act as an assistant to the Incident Commander, that person gathers and records
information in addition to any other duties that the Incident Commander assigns
A) Remain accountable at all times for the officers and personnel assigned to that
sector
According to the Operational Guideline 503.00 – Safety Officer System; the initial
company officer as the IC/ISO provides the beginning of the Incident Safety Officer
System (ISOS) and ensures that _________ _________ is a priority upon arrival of the
first unit and is maintained though standard transfer of Command and ISO
responsibilities until the incident is stabilized or Command is terminated.
A) Fire Control
B) Firefighter Safety
C) Property Conservation
D) Hazard Identification
B) Firefighter Safety
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General;
considering the level of risk, the Incident Commander will choose the proper strategy to
be used at the fire scene. The strategy can change with conditions or because certain
benchmarks (i.e. Primary search complete) are obtained. The strategic mode will be
based on the following except:
A) The rescue profile (savable occupants/survivability profile)
B) The fire load (what type of fuel is burning and what’s left to burn)
C) The ventilation profile and the ability to perform vertical ventilation
D) The building (type of construction, condition, age, etc.)
C) The ventilation profile and the ability to perform vertical ventilation
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; what level of accountability
occurs when the Incident Commander assumes the responsibility of firefighter
accountability, and when personnel responding to the incident scene other than on
dispatched apparatus must report to the Incident Commander and ensure that their
Accountability Tag is attached to the assigned Apparatus or Crew passport prior to
proceeding with assignment:
A) Level 1 Crew Accountability
B) Level 2 Incident Scene Accountability
C) Level 3 Entry Control
D) Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control
A) Level 1 Crew Accountability
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; what level of accountability
occurs when an entry control site will be established as determined by the Incident
Commander and where accountability boards will be maintained to continuously record
apparatus/crew assignments in the support sectors and which crews have entered the
hazard zone through what entry control point(s).
A) Level 1 Crew Accountability
B) Level 2 Incident Scene Accountability
C) Level 3 Entry Control
D) Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control
D) Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following
statements regarding Personnel Accountability Reports (PARs) is correct?
A) Dispatch will notify the Incident Commander when personnel have been onscene for fifteen (15) minutes; P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change
in fire fighting tactics (i.e. interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises;
In the event of missing personnel, it will be reported that the Company Officer
does not have a P.A.R. and the missing person(s) will be identified
B) P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change in fire fighting tactics (i.e.
interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises (i.e. missing personnel,
building collapse, evacuation tones); Any individual may initiate P.A.R. through
Command whenever they have cause for concern; By identifying the individual
who is reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another
crew or out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be
accounted for by the other crew member(s)
C) Time notification procedure will then be repeated at twenty (20) minute intervals
at the discretion of the Incident Commander; After a missing person has been
identified or rescued, the P.A.R. can cease; By identifying the individual who is
reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another crew or
out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be accounted for by
the other crew member(s)
D) When P.A.R. is initiated all personnel will continue with their assignments and will
maintain radio silence until a P.A.R. is “declared”; Command will request a
Personnel Accountability Report (P.A.R.) starting with the area of highest hazard;
Anytime a RAPID INTERVENTION TEAM (R.I.T.) is deployed, upon completion
of their assigned task a P.A.R. must be activated (P.A.R. shall continue while a
R.I.T. is searching for missing personnel or conducting a firefighter rescue)
B) P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change in fire fighting tactics (i.e.
interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises (i.e. missing personnel,
building collapse, evacuation tones); Any individual may initiate P.A.R. through
Command whenever they have cause for concern; By identifying the individual
who is reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another
crew or out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be
accounted for by the other crew member(s)
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; which of the following statements
is correct?
A) Level 1 Staging is established at a location away from the immediate area of the
incident but having good access to it; Level 1 is used when large numbers of
companies and apparatus are required; Arriving companies without
predetermined assignments stage in a position that gives them the most flexibility
— facing in the direction of travel, out of the block where the incident is taking
place
B) Incoming companies without predetermined assignments take up a staged
position until they receive orders from Command. They can then be quickly
deployed to areas where they may be needed; Staging unneeded apparatus and
personnel until they are assigned a task or return to station if not required is
critical in reducing the potential of freelancing on the fire ground
C) Staged personnel dismount their apparatus, turn off their warning lights unless
needed for safety, proceed to the incident and monitor their radios on the
appropriate channel/tac
D) Level 2 Staging is established when arriving companies without predetermined
assignments stage in a position that gives them the most flexibility — facing in
the direction of travel, out of the block where the incident is taking place; is used
primarily for basic and routine incidents in which Command has not designated
an official staging area
B) Incoming companies without predetermined assignments take up a staged
position until they receive orders from Command. They can then be quickly
deployed to areas where they may be needed; Staging unneeded apparatus and
personnel until they are assigned a task or return to station if not required is
critical in reducing the potential of freelancing on the fire ground
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; effective utilization of Staging
procedures will:
A) Prevent excessive apparatus congestion at the scene; Provides a resource pool
from which Command may assign units and resources at his/her leisure
B) Allow time for Command to evaluate conditions prior to assigning companies;
Place apparatus in an uncommitted location close to the immediate scene to
facilitate more effective assignment by Command
C) Increases radio traffic during the critical initial stages of the incident
D) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are correct
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; you are assigned as the Officer
for Level 2 staging. The radio designation you should use is:
A) Staging Sector with truck designation
B) Level 2 Staging Sector
C) Staging Sector
D) Level 2 Staging Officer
B) Level 2 Staging Sector
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; you arrive on scene where
Command has set-up a Level 2 Staging Area, you have been directed to Stage, Level 2,
you should:
A) Report directly to the scene, advise Dispatch and Command of your arrival on
scene, and then wait for an assignment
B) Report to the Level 2 Staging area, advise Dispatch and Command of your
arrival on scene, and then wait for an assignment
C) Report directly to the scene, report their arrival in person to the Accountability
Officer, and then wait for an assignment
D) Report to the Level 2 Staging area, report their arrival in person to the Level 2
Staging Sector Officer, and then wait for an assignment
D) Report to the Level 2 Staging area, report their arrival in person to the Level 2
Staging Sector Officer, and then wait for an assignment
According to Operational Guideline 506.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT); you have
been assigned to RIT at a high rise incident. Where will you stage?
A) Two floors below the incident
B) At Base
C) One floor below the incident
D) In the ‘clean’ / evacuation stairwell
C) One floor below the incident
According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; the RIT Team shall announce benchmarks as
they are achieved and call for assistance should they be unable to achieve the task.
Which of the following is NOT one of those benchmarks:
A) Low on air
B) Deployed
C) Firefighter Located
D) Firefighter Outside
A) Low on air
According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; which of the following is correct for operations
the entry team shall conduct?
A) Execute the search plan, Benchmark – firefighter low on air, Assess the
firefighter and the environment
B) Attach search line at entry, Provide air management trans-fill air / buddy
breathing, Request additional equipment / personnel for extrication and relay
rescue operations (as required)
C) Execute the search plan, Provide report to Incident Command on the status of
the firefighter (nature of injury, trapped, etc.) and the conditions in the immediate
area of the firefighter (fire, heat, hazards), Prepare to extricate the firefighter
D) Both A and C are correct
B) Attach search line at entry, Provide air management trans-fill air / buddy
breathing, Request additional equipment / personnel for extrication and relay
rescue operations (as required)
According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; RIT personnel should perform the following
tasks, EXCEPT:
A) Assess the emergency scene perimeter 360 degrees of building noting apparatus
placement, points of entry, alternate exit doors and windows
B) Provide additional means of egress (laddering building) for personnel conducting
operations who are operating above the ground floor
C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible
D) Illuminate entrances and exits using lights
C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Equipment Requirements, Communications; you are the Officer for the Rapid
Intervention Team. In order to complete your task and determine what tools / equipment
will be required you and your crew must familiarize yourself with the following except:
A) Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an
extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes
B) Strategies and tactical objectives employed at the incident, Hazards associated
with the incident
C) Access to and egress from the building or incident, Construction of the building
D) Approximate location and task assignment of personnel, Building layout / floor
plan
A) Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an
extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Equipment Requirements, Communications; as the Officer of the RIT, you have three
benchmarks that need to be announced over the radio to the RIT Sector person, they
are:
A) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Secured
B) RIT Activated, Firefighter Secured, Firefighter Outside
C) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Identified, Firefighter Outside
D) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Outside
D) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Outside
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Equipment Requirements, Communications; whenever a MAYDAY or URGENT request
is received, all communications on that frequency are to ______________.
A) Continue
B) Pause
C) Proceed
D) Cease
D) Cease
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Equipment Requirements, Communications; which of the following would not be an
example when to use an Urgent Radio Transmission?
A) Fire conditions change rapidly requiring the IC to switch the fire attack from
offensive to defensive
B) A Missing firefighter
C) A sudden loss of water supply
D) If structural collapse is imminent
B) A Missing firefighter
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; which of
the following statements regarding the Incident Commander is incorrect?
A) The initial Incident Commander will include the fire ground strategy in the onscene report
B) The Incident Commander is responsible for determining the appropriate fire
ground strategy
C) The Incident Commander shall ensure all required fire fighting activities are
safely and efficiently performed by personnel
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; for
defensive fires, the Incident Commander will have to:
A) Ensure that the primary search (where possible) has been completed, that all
saveable occupants are out of the hazard zone
B) Identify cut-off points
C) Protect any exposed occupancies from any fire extension
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; the stage
of the fire becomes a critical factor that affects the rescue approach developed by
Command. Which statement is correct regarding cases of fully involved buildings or
sections of buildings, where immediate entry and primary search activities become
impossible, and survival of occupants is improbable?
A) Fire control efforts must be extended simultaneously with rescue operations in
order to gain entry and control interior access to complete primary search
B) Command must initially report fully involved conditions and that he will not be
ordering a primary search
C) Command must structure a rapid interior search and report “Primary search
complete - ALL CLEAR”. (The interior search for victims will also verify no
fire/fire.)
D) Both A) and C) are correct
B) Command must initially report fully involved conditions and that he will not be
ordering a primary search
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground;
Command must consider factors in developing a basic rescue size-up, the factors are:
A) Affect the fire has on the victims
B) Capability of the crews to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control
fire
C) Number, location and condition of victims
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground;
Command must consider factors in developing a basic rescue size-up. Which of the
following is not one of the factors?
A) Capability of the crews to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control
fire
B) The monetary value of the occupancy
C) Affect the fire has on the victims
D) Number, location and condition of victims
B) The monetary value of the occupancy
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; which of
the following Search Safety Procedures is correct?
A) Be cognizant of any secondary means of egress system established for
personnel involved in a search
B) Do not enter a building in which fire has progressed to the point where viable
victims are not likely to be found
C) Have a charged hose line available when working on the fire floor (or the floor
immediately above or below the fire)
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; which of
the following Search Safety Procedures is incorrect?
A) Inform the Incident Commander immediately of any room or rooms that could not
be searched (give the reason as well)
B) Structuring treatment of victims after removal is unnecessary. Multiple victims
should be removed to any safe location for triage and treatment
C) Coordinate with crews conducting ventilation/Command before opening windows
to relieve smoke and heat during a search
D) Work according to the incident action plan – Do Not Freelance
B) Structuring treatment of victims after removal is unnecessary. Multiple victims
should be removed to any safe location for triage and treatment
According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; what is
the correct sequence for activating the Air Horn Evacuation Signal?
A) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat one more time.
B) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat two more times.
C) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (3) second pause. Repeat two more times.
D) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (3) second pause. Repeat one more time.
B) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat two more times.
According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; which
of the following statements is incorrect?
A) The activation of the “Emergency Evacuation Signal(s)” requires the immediate
and complete withdrawn all personnel from an emergency incident scene
B) The tone shall be put over the air twice; each time shall be 10 second duration
C) Incident Commanders are responsible for all personnel involved at an incident
and to account for all personnel as soon as possible after the activation of an
Evacuation Order
D) All personnel will immediately cease all operations and exit the involved
structure/area. They shall report to their respective apparatus
B) The tone shall be put over the air twice; each time shall be 10 second duration
According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; which
of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Re-entry into the building or danger area shall only be made with the
authorization of the Incident Commander
B) In the event of missing personnel, it will be reported by the Company Officer that
they do not have a PAR. The missing person(s) will be identified to Command by
the Company Officer
C) Area in need of evacuation will be the interior
D) Crews will stand by at their individual apparatus to await further orders
C) Area in need of evacuation will be the interior
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; overhaul shall be
continued until there is no evidence of charring or smoke staining on the material being
removed or the surrounding building material
A) True
B) False
A) True
According to Operational Guideline 608.00 – Overhaul Operations; which statement is
correct?
A) Customer service is of the utmost importance to Hamilton Fire Department and
therefore accommodation of the public is a priority. The state of a building and
the way it is left by HFD personnel is often the measure of the performance of
personnel despite an exemplary firefighting initiative
B) Overhaul operations should be extensive but never reckless in the treatment of
property
C) Overhaul operations should be complimented by extensive salvage efforts to
protect property and contents
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; overhaul; in buildings
where some of the fibre insulating material has been left intact, an active fire watch shall
be maintained for a minimum of ____ _____, followed by evaluation by the Platoon
Chief or a District Chief
A) 0.5 hours
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 2.5 hours
C) 2 hours
According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; which of the following
is not an identifiable characteristic of cellulose insulation?
A) Usually resting on top of other attic insulations
B) Black/grey/charcoal coloured
C) Fibre texture (recycled, shredded paper, etc.)
D) Light weight
B) Black/grey/charcoal coloured
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; to avoid
unnecessary property damage, firefighters shall make every reasonable effort to protect
furnishings with salvage covers or disposable plastic sheeting prior to pulling down
ceilings in occupied structures.
A) True
B) False
A) True
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; relying entirely
on measurements of thermal imaging cameras, heat guns, and other mechanical
devices to determine extinguishment is a best practice for cellulose insulation.
A) True
B) False
B) False
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; circumstances that may cause
an Incident Commander to establish and maintain a fire watch can include:
A) An arson investigation by Hamilton Police
B) A continuing fire risk, risk due to crowd size, and/or undue risk of public hazard
C) Through coordination of the Office of the Fire Marshal
D) None of the above
B) A continuing fire risk, risk due to crowd size, and/or undue risk of public hazard
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; who maintains command for the
fire watch until such time as he/she surrenders that responsibility. This still applies after
that Officer has cleared the incident.
A) The First-in Officer who was acting as the Incident Commander
B) The Safety Officer
C) The most Senior Officer acting as the Incident Commander
D) The Duty Officer
C) The most Senior Officer acting as the Incident Commander
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; factors for consideration by
Chief Officers when selecting apparatus for fire watch includes:
A) Apparatus/equipment requirements, Duration of assignment, Type of occupancy
B) Apparatus/equipment requirements, Geographic location, Maintaining the
availability and readiness of specialty teams
C) Shift call-volume of selected apparatus, Potential Exposures, Maintaining the
availability and readiness of specialty teams
D) All of the above
B) Apparatus/equipment requirements, Geographic location, Maintaining the
availability and readiness of specialty teams
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; factors for consideration by
Chief Officers when selecting apparatus for fire watch includes:
A) Shift call-volume of selected apparatus, Potential Exposures, Maintaining the
availability and readiness of specialty teams
B) Apparatus/equipment requirements, Duration of assignment, Type of occupancy
C) Duration of assignment, Shift call-volume of selected apparatus, Geographic
location
D) All of the above
C) Duration of assignment, Shift call-volume of selected apparatus, Geographic
location
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; in buildings under demolition
when will HFD provide a fire watch?
A) HFD will provide a fire watch for all buildings under demolition
B) During periods where demolition operations will impact public transportation and
road closures
C) HFD does not perform a fire watch, the owner is required to provide a fire watch
in accordance with the fire code
D) During periods when demolition operations will create a fire hazard to
neighbouring properties or partially occupied spaces, a fire watch shall be
provided
D) During periods when demolition operations will create a fire hazard to
neighbouring properties or partially occupied spaces, a fire watch shall be
provided
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 - Fire Watch; the “termination of a HFD fire
watch shall be at the discretion of:
A) The Company Officer from the crew left to conduct the fire watch
B) The Safety Officer, from the respective incident following an inspection
C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident
D) The Platoon Chief
C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident
According to Operational Guideline 611.00 – Shift Change During an Incident; at
approximately _____________ before shift change, the Incident Commander shall
forecast if personnel need change by the incoming platoon from the incident scene.
A) 30 minutes (0.5 hours)
B) 45 minutes (0.75 hours)
C) 60 minutes (1 hour)
D) 90 minutes (1.5 hours)
C) 60 minutes (1 hour)
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson;
‘Firefighters are responsible to do the following’, except:
A) Maintaining scene security and safety
B) Maintaining accurate and complete records - notes and reports
C) Fire cause determination
D) Interviewing witnesses (subsequent interviews may be required by other
authorities)
C) Fire cause determination
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson;
‘Firefighters are responsible to do the following’, except:
A) Conscientiously establishing the cause of every fire
B) Notifying the Provincial Emergency Operations Centre (PEOC) Duty Officer
C) Recognizing and preserving evidence which may relate to fire cause
D) Maintaining the integrity of the fire scene
B) Notifying the Provincial Emergency Operations Centre (PEOC) Duty Officer
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; which
of the following about ‘Collecting Evidence’ is correct:
A) Document then move evidence to safe location. The person(s) who locate the
evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include
this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be
turned over to the Hamilton Police Service
B) Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who
locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery
and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be
removed shall be turned over to the Hamilton Police Service
C) Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who
locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery
and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be
removed shall be turned over to the Incident Commander
D) Document then move evidence to safe location. The person(s) who locate the
evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include
this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be
turned over to the Incident Commander
B) Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who
locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery
and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be
removed shall be turned over to the Hamilton Police Service
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson;
Firefighters may be in the best position to determine the area of origin of the fire and
establish fire cause because they:
A) May find evidence in its original state, untouched and undisturbed
B) Are normally among the first to arrive on the scene seeing the location and
progression of fire in its early stages
C) Can establish whether doors or windows were locked or open
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson;
Firefighters may be in the best position to determine the area of origin of the fire and
establish fire cause because they:
A) Are responsible for fire cause determination at structure fires
B) May talk to witnesses on the scene while facts are still clear in the witnesses’
minds
C) Are trained in fire cause determination
D) Complete a walking inspection of all areas of the premises at a minimum of thirty
(30) minute intervals
B) May talk to witnesses on the scene while facts are still clear in the witnesses’
minds
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; during
arrival at the fire scene Officers should note the following:
A) What window or door the fire was observed through
B) The location of the fire safety plan
C) Height and construction of the building or buildings involved
D) Both A and C are correct
D) Both A and C are correct
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; during
arrival at the fire scene Officers should note the following:
A) Whether doors and windows are secure
B) What means of entry and direction of fire travel there are
C) Ventilation profile of the building
D) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are correct
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; which
of the following statements is correct regarding fire cause and determination?
A) Overhaul should be limited to that which is absolutely necessary
B) Ask witnesses ‘was anyone present when the fire started?’
C) Wash-downs are unlimited in size and scope before fire cause determination
D) Both A and B are Correct
D) Both A and B are Correct
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; you
are interviewing the discoverer of the fire - you should ask simple, clear questions to
gather information from their observations. Which of the following questions would you
not ask?
A) Who turned in the fire alarm?
B) Was anyone present when the fire started?
C) When was the last time the fire alarm system was tested?
D) What was happening when the fire started?
C) When was the last time the fire alarm system was tested?
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; to
establish the cause of a fire, find the point in the building where the fire started (i.e. the
area of origin). Locate the __________ point of burning with the greatest amount of
___________.
A) Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of fuel
B) Higher point of burning with the greatest amount of charring
C) Higher point of burning with the greatest amount of fuel
D) Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of charring
D) Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of charring
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; which
of the following statements is incorrect regarding criminal or suspicious fires?
A) As soon as a fire is deemed suspicious, the District Senior Officer shall be
contacted if not already on the scene.
B) It is the responsibility of the HFD to perform arson investigation(s)
C) When arson is suspected the Office of the Fire Marshal shall be notified
D) Should a questionable situation concerning suspected arson occur on an alarm,
the Officer in charge shall request a Senior Officer for guidance
B) It is the responsibility of the HFD to perform arson investigation(s)
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; you
are the Senior Officer on scene of a fire you deemed criminal or suspicious, what steps
should you follow?
A) Not allow anyone into the scene, Continue scene examination, Request that
Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the premises in
compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure that the police
and/or the fire department protect the scene in cases where the OFM is
responding
B) Not allow anyone into the scene, Stop any further scene examination, Request
that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the
premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure
that the Fire Prevention Bureau is notified
C) Not allow anyone into the scene, Continue scene examination, Request that
Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the premises in
compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure that the Fire
Prevention Bureau is notified
D) Not allow anyone into the scene, Stop any further scene examination, Request
that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the
premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure
that the police and/or the fire department protect the scene in cases where the
OFM is responding
D) Not allow anyone into the scene, Stop any further scene examination, Request
that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the
premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure
that the police and/or the fire department protect the scene in cases where the
OFM is responding
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; the
Incident Commander shall ensure that personnel at the fire submit the Ontario Fire
Marshal’s Witness Statement Forms. The _________ __________will determine which
personnel will be required to submit a Witness Statement.
A) Hamilton Police
B) Incident Commander
C) Fire Marshal
D) Deputy Chief
B) Incident Commander
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro
(Hamilton) International Airport; the staging area for Hamilton Fire Department
apparatus responding to a call on airport property is the:
A) Canadian Warplane Heritage Museum
B) Airport Fire Hall
A) Main Entrance
B) Cargo Jet Building
B) Airport Fire Hall
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro
(Hamilton) International Airport; you are the Officer responding to ‘alarm conditions’ in
the Cargo Jet Building. Airport Fire is on scene and cancels you from the call. What are
your actions?
A) Cancel from the call and return to quarters
B) Continue to the call
B) Continue to the call
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro
(Hamilton) International Airport; the “AIRPORT FIRE” talk group can be found on all
Hamilton Fire Department mobile and portable radios in the channel __ position.
A) Channel 7
B) Channel 9
C) Channel 10
D) Channel 11
C) Channel 10
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro
(Hamilton) International Airport; which of the following statements is correct when
dispatched to an aircraft crash on airport property:
A) Respond to Control Access Gate A (west of main terminal) and standby for an
escort to the incident location, Co-ordinate with Airport ERS to assist in the
control of the incident, Co-ordinate through the on-scene Airport Fire Incident
Commander as required
B) Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area
(Fire Hall) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene
C) On arrival, report to the on-scene Airport Fire Incident Commander, assume
Command from Airport Fire Incident Commander as required, assign tasks such
as: triage, medical assistance and water supply operations for firefighting to
incoming units
D) Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area
(Cargo Jet Building) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene
B) Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area
(Fire Hall) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro
(Hamilton) International Airport; in the event that the Airport Emergency Response
Services respond to an aircraft crash off the airport property, the distance limit for such
a response is within a ______ mile radius of the airport.
A) Three mile
B) Five mile
C) Seven mile
D) Ten mile
B) Five mile
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro
(Hamilton) International Airport; you are dispatched to a ‘Stand-By for Aircraft
Emergency’, you shall:
A) Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the
Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and
escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
B) Respond to Control Access Gate A (west of main terminal), Proceed to the
Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and
escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
C) Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the
Staging Area (Cargo Jet Building) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until
required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
D) Respond to Control Access Gate A (west of main terminal), Proceed to the
Staging Area (Cargo Jet Building) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until
required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
A) Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the
Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and
escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal –
Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire with a loss
estimated at $400,000 in a clandestine drug operation, should the Fire Marshal be
notified?
A) Yes
B) No
A) Yes
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal –
Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire, which of the
following incidents does not meet the criteria for notifying the Ontario Fire Marshal?
A) Fires in multi-unit residential occupancies where fire spread is beyond unit of
origin or where suspected Fire Code violations have impacted on the
circumstances of the event
B) Fires involving circumstances that may result in widespread public concern (e.g.
environmental hazard)
C) Large loss fires, $400,000 and over or where the loss is significant to the
community
D) Fires of unusual origin or circumstances and for which expert investigative
assistance is required with determining cause
C) Large loss fires, $400,000 and over or where the loss is significant to the
community
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal –
Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire, which of the
following incidents does not meet the criteria for notifying the Ontario Fire Marshal?
A) All fires in vulnerable occupancies (i.e. retirement homes, care and treatment
occupancies, and care occupancies as defined in the Fire Code);
B) Explosions (when the explosion is either the primary or secondary event)
C) Fires resulting in either a fatality or serious injury requiring person(s) to be
admitted as in-patient(s) to a hospital
D) Fires resulting in unusual fire/smoke spread;
B) Explosions (when the explosion is either the primary or secondary event)
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal –
Investigation Services; when an OFMEM response is deferred to the next normal work
period, the Provincial Emergency Operations Centre (PEOC) Duty Officer will inform the
caller that all steps shall be taken to secure the scene and that the OFMEM will be
notified of the request at _________.
A) 6:30 am
B) 7:00 am
C) 7:30 am
D) 8:00 am
C) 7:30 am
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal –
Investigation Services; which of the following is correct: When a fire investigation is
assigned to an investigator, it is the responsibility of the fire department to provide all
necessary documents, including, but not limited to:
A) Firefighter statements, dispatch chronology, incident commander report detailing
suppression and salvage activities, and fire prevention files as required by the
investigator
B) Firefighter statements, dispatch chronology, ISO report detailing suppression and
overhaul activities, and IMS training files as required by the investigator
C) Owner/RP statements, dispatch chronology, incident commander report detailing
suppression and overhaul activities, and fire prevention files as required by the
investigator
D) Firefighter statements, dispatch chronology, incident commander report detailing
suppression and overhaul activities, and fire prevention files as required by the
investigator
D) Firefighter statements, dispatch chronology, incident commander report detailing
suppression and overhaul activities, and fire prevention files as required by the
investigator
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal –
Investigation Services; part of the mandate of the OFM is to assist the local police in
identifying a purposely-set fire and to support the local police in carrying out significant
criminal investigations. The successful prosecution of a criminal charge by the police is
dependent on the integrity and continuity of possession of the evidence found at the
scene. It is therefore necessary that the ___________ of the _________ be maintained
prior to the arrival of an OFM or police investigator.
A) Notes of the incident
B) Security of the scene
C) Communications of the incident
D) Safety of the scene
B) Security of the scene
According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; when the Fire
Department is preparing to terminate an incident where there is a possibility of structural
collapse, the Incident Commander shall contact the _____ ________ to respond.
A) Fire Chief
B) Building Department
C) Fire Marshal
D) Hamilton Police
B) Building Department
According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; on the completion
of an incident (no sign of collapse), it is the responsibility of the Incident Commander to
make the Responsible Party aware of the new inherent dangers that are identified by
________________ and any other areas that may be a threat for the assuming parties.
A) Only red tape
B) Only yellow tape
C) Either yellow or red tape
D) None of the above
C) Either yellow or red tape
According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; you are the
Incident Commander at a scene that requires establishing a Red Zone but tape cannot
be initiated because of heat, smoke, and gases, etc. as the Incident Commander you
shall:
A) Set-up Red Zone minimum 15 m away from the spot you want to cordon off, and
place the Safety Officer in position to warn firefighters
B) On the initial radio transmission, the term URGENT shall be repeated three times
followed by the information for the firefighting crews of the Incident Commander
C) Relay this information to Dispatch. Dispatch would make a short formal
announcement to personnel at the scene describing the area and the reason for
the establishment
D) Do nothing, the Red Zone should be disregarded if it cannot be established
safely
C) Relay this information to Dispatch. Dispatch would make a short formal
announcement to personnel at the scene describing the area and the reason for
the establishment
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the
following is correct for breaking of glass windows or doors on the exterior of high-rise
buildings:
A) Do not break glass in high rise unless you have looked out the window or
door to ensure no one will be struck by falling glass within a 30meter safety
zone.
B) Do not break glass in high rise until a charged hose line is in place to begin
hydraulic ventilation.
C) Do not break glass in high rise until your company officer has given a size-up
report to Incident Command detailing smoke conditions.
D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by
Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).
D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by
Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the
following is not a Tactical Objective in a high-rise fire?
A) Start Property conservation early and address loss control in all objectives
B) Secure and maintain a viable exit stairwell
C) Obtain the presence of the building engineer, superintendent or responsible party
D) Manage the spread of existing heat and smoke throughout the building by
pressurizing the stairwells, controlling the building H.V.A.C., and, if possible,
cross ventilation of the fire floor
C) Obtain the presence of the building engineer, superintendent or responsible party
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; a
_______ __ Entrapment is based upon unreasonable entrapment time exceeding 45
minutes, and/or situations involving non-life threatening conditions with medical factors
(i.e. requires medications) or where severe environmental conditions are involved (i.e.
elevated temperatures in the car)
A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D None of the above
B) Level II
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; as the
Company Officer you have determined that there is an immediate threat to life or
extreme environment. This is a _______ __ Entrapment.
A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D) Level IV
C) Level III
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; no rescue
attempt shall be made by HFD personnel if any of the following situations occur(s):
A) Elevator brake is not set prior to or upon performing a mainline disconnect.
B) Upon checking that the power is disconnected it is found that one or more power
phases (legs) are not disconnected.
C) Upon entering the machine room, the elevator is found to be moving
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 619.00 – Emergency Voice Alarm Communication
(EVAC) Systems; which of the following reasons would prompt an announcement
through the EVAC?
A) To update building occupants at regular intervals with relevant information
B) To inform building occupants that Hamilton Fire Department apparatus and
personnel are at scene and investigating the situation
C) To advise occupants of the incident status
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground
Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in
underground areas, you should be familiar with many factors and considerations. Which
of the following is not a factor to control at a fire in an underground facility?
A) Stairways and hallways can act like chimneys for superheated and fire gases
being given off by the fire
B) Smoke migration/contamination of many floors from the actual fire
C) Interstitial and void spaces
D) Establish effective communications system, either by radio or alternate means,
such as Firefighter telephones if available
C) Interstitial and void spaces
According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground
Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in
underground areas, you should be familiar with many factors and considerations. Which
of the following is not a factor to control at a fire in an underground facility?
A) Wearing complete personal protective equipment (PPE) including SCBA
B) Establishing a floor warden
C) Reaching below grade fires can be extremely punishing to crews as they
descend to the fire area
D) Limiting the number of Firefighters committed to the underground until the fire is
located
B) Establishing a floor warden
According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground
Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in
underground areas, you should be familiar with factors and considerations such as:
A) Stairways and hallways can act like chimneys for superheated and fire gases
being given off by the fire
B) Limiting the number of Firefighters committed to the underground until the fire is
located
C) Smoke migration/contamination of many floors from the actual fire
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; if there are Building
Supervisory Staff at the scene, the Incident Commander shall ensure the following
actions take place:
A) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm
reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no
evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm
system; post the completed Form 327 on the entrance to the premises
B) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm
reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no
evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm
system; Check the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status
(no alarm or trouble indicated) before leaving scene
C) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm
reset by Lobby Sector; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via
Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset; If the system
cannot be reset, then fire crews should re-check for activated pull stations,
smoke detectors, or heat detectors
D) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm
reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no
evidence of fire, then instruct Lobby Sector to reset the fire alarm system; Check
the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status (no alarm or
trouble indicated) before leaving scene
B) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm
reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no
evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm
system; Check the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status
(no alarm or trouble indicated) before leaving scene.
According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; if there are no
Building Supervisory Staff at the scene, the Incident Commander shall:
A) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #437 that reflects the
status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible
occupant, if possible; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via
Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset
B) Silence/reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of
the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if
possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building Supervisory
Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire until the
alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset).
C) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the
status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible
occupant, if possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building
Supervisory Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire
until the alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset).
D) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the
status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible
occupant, if possible; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via
Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset
C) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the
status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible
occupant, if possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building
Supervisory Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire
until the alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset).
According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; at a private residence
with the alarm sounding and no answer at the door, the Incident Commander shall:
A) Ensure that windows and door leading to the interior of the building have been
visually examined for smoke or fire conditions inside the building; if an
owner/responsible party cannot be contacted and the Incident Commander feels
that the alarm was initiated by a system malfunction, then a Form 327 shall be
left at the front door of the residence and all HFD vehicles may clear the scene; if
monitored by an alarm company, confirm via Communications that the monitoring
company has obtained a reset
B) Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of
smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage
to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the
structure; if entry to a residence is forced, the Platoon Chief shall be summoned
C) Ensure that windows and door leading to the interior of the building have been
visually examined for smoke or fire conditions inside the building; if an
owner/responsible party cannot be contacted and the Incident Commander feels
that the alarm was initiated by a system malfunction, then a Form 437 shall be
left at the front door of the residence and all HFD vehicles may clear the scene;
ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of
smoke or fire
D) Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of
smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage
to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the
structure; if entry to a residence is forced police shall be summoned
D) Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of
smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage
to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the
structure; if entry to a residence is forced police shall be summoned
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; full Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) and Self-Contained
Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) shall be donned and activated before entering or operating
at any confirmed or suspected natural gas / methane / atmosphere where air monitoring
equipment indicates oxygen (O2) readings are ___% or less, or when observations and
information received upon arrival indicates the presence of natural gas / methane.
A) 22.5%
B) 22%
C) 21%
D) 20%
D) 20%
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; the Incident Commander shall ensure that:
A) Two 45 mm dry hose lines are deployed once personnel are brought forward
B) One 65 mm dry hose lines are deployed once personnel are brought forward
C) One 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought
forward
D) Two 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought
forward
C) One 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought
forward
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at a residence. What
pressure should you expect in the service line?
A) 1207 – 3448 kPa
B) Up to 450 kPa
C) 1.7 – 140 kPa
D) 1.7 kPa
D) 1.7 kPa
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at an Industrial occupancy.
What pressure should you expect in the service line?
A) 1207 – 3448 kPa
B) Up to 450 kPa
C) 1.7 – 140 kPa
D) 1.7 kPa
B) Up to 450 kPa
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at a commercial
occupancy. What pressure should you expect in the service line?
A) 1207 – 3448 kPa
B) Up to 450 kPa
C) 1.7 – 140 kPa
D) 1.7 kPa
C) 1.7 – 140 kPa
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak on a distribution line. What
pressure should you expect in the distribution line?
A) 6205 – 9929 kPa
B) 1207 – 3448 kPa
C) 825 - 1100 kPa
D) Up to 450 kPa
B) 1207 – 3448 kPa
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak on a transmission line.
What pressure should you expect in the transmission line?
A) 9929 – 10205 kPa
B) 6205 – 9929 kPa
C) 6205 - 8929 kPa
D) 825 - 1100 kPa
B) 6205 – 9929 kPa
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; for Rescue and Evacuation of Persons – personnel shall
immediately evacuate the building of all persons and the outdoor area of all civilians and
unnecessary emergency response personnel and apparatus for ____ m in all directions.
For large natural gas / methane leaks or fires, distances up to _____ m downwind
should be considered.
A) 50 m and 250 m
B) 100 m and 500 m
C) 100 m and 800 m
D) 150 m and 1000 m
C) 100 m and 800 m
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are the Incident Commander at a gas leak at a strip mall,
a paramedic rapid response unit and a police vehicle are directly in front of the business
and customers are entering adjoining stores. Your action should be:
A) Leave the paramedic rapid response unit and police vehicle where they are and
have the customers and businesses shelter-in-place
B) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 50 m away in all directions
and have the customers and businesses shelter-in-place
C) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 50 m away in all directions
and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions
D) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 100 m away in all directions
and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions
D) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 100 m away in all directions
and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; which statement is incorrect about prevention of Natural Gas
Fires/Explosions (indoor or Outdoor)?
A) Close all windows and doors of neighbouring buildings to prevent natural gas
from entering
B) Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by
placing the fire apparatus downwind
C) Check all interior levels of neighbouring buildings including basements and
outside areas such as sewers for the presence of natural gas / methane
D) Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by
shutting vehicle engines off if able to do so
B) Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by
placing the fire apparatus downwind
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified
Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are the Incident Commander at a Natural Gas Fire,
which of the following statements is correct?
A) HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire unless the natural gas flow
or leak can be stopped by closing natural gas supply valves before or
immediately after extinguishment of the fire
B) If the fire is isolated to a single appliance, personnel should shut off the natural
gas flow at the service line
C) HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire all escaping natural gas will
be consumed by the fire
D) Personnel should spray a straight stream on any surrounding combustibles
and/or exposures if in danger of igniting before natural gas flow can be stopped
A) HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire unless the natural gas flow
or leak can be stopped by closing natural gas supply valves before or
immediately after extinguishment of the fire
According to Operational Policy 631.00 - Use of Equipment Not Provided by Hamilton
Fire; you are the Officer at an incident where the problem is on the roof of a commercial
building. There is a fixed steel safety ladder with a cage attached to the side of the
building to gain access, is this acceptable to use?
A) Yes, it will make the unit 10-8 quicker
B) No, the crew shall only use equipment that they brought with them to accomplish
their task, including a ladder from the apparatus when one is required
C) Yes, the owner has installed a fixed steel safety ladder with a cage that meets
Occupational Health and Safety Act requirements
D) No, it will be unnecessary to go to the roof once a service technician is on scene
B) No, the crew shall only use equipment that they brought with them to accomplish
their task, including a ladder from the apparatus when one is required
According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Incidents; the Immediate
Danger to Life and Health (IDLH) of CO is ______ ppm.
A) 100 ppm
B) 500 ppm
C) 800 ppm
D) 1200 ppm
D) 1200 ppm
According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Incidents; mandatory
use of SCBA shall be employed with facepiece donned and air activated when CO
readings are in excess of ______ ppm.
A) 25 ppm
B) 9 ppm
C) 100 ppm
D) 50 ppm
A) 25 ppm
According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts;
Single Truck Response – which of the following statements is correct?
A) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a
prolonged nature, they will cancel the volunteer apparatus
B) The unit doing the canceling must be on scene (10-12)
C) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a
prolonged nature, they will not cancel the volunteer apparatus
D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C are correct
According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts;
Single Truck Response – which of the following statements is correct?
A) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a
prolonged nature, they will not cancel the volunteer apparatus
B) The unit cancelling apparatus does not need be on scene (not 10-12)
C) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a
prolonged nature, the volunteer apparatus will continue and assume Command
of the Incident, releasing the Career unit to return to quarters
D) Both A and C are correct
D) Both A and C are correct
According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts;
Multiple Unit Responses – you are in Command at a multiple unit response in the
Volunteer District, which of the following statements is correct when releasing
apparatus:
A) Career apparatus must be kept on scene for overhaul and clean-up operations
B) Return career apparatus as soon as sufficient volunteer resources are on scene,
this will ensure that career can return to their primary response areas
C) All committed resources should be returned to their respective response districts
once the emergency is either under control or adequate volunteer resources are
available
D) The on-duty Senior Officers will not monitor the status of career apparatus and
ensure that the most efficient use of resources is maintained
B) Return career apparatus as soon as sufficient volunteer resources are on scene,
this will ensure that career can return to their primary response areas
According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts;
Multiple Unit Responses – you are in Command at a multiple unit response in the
Volunteer District, which of the following statements is correct when releasing
apparatus:
A) Career apparatus must be kept on scene for overhaul and clean-up operations
B) Return volunteer apparatus as soon as sufficient career resources are on scene,
this will ensure that volunteer can return to their primary response areas
C) For structure fires or other multiple apparatus responses, sufficient resources
must be on scene before an accurate determination of the need to cancel
responding resources can be made
D) All committed resources should be returned to their respective response districts
once the emergency is either under control or adequate volunteer resources are
available
C) For structure fires or other multiple apparatus responses, sufficient resources
must be on scene before an accurate determination of the need to cancel
responding resources can be made
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; which of the
following statements regarding Hydro Electric Emergencies is incorrect?
A) Fire fighting personnel shall not enter an electrical substation or vault without onsite assistance from hydro personnel
B) HFD personnel may pull any hydro meter to disconnect the power supply to a
structure
C) All wires and electrical equipment shall be considered live until confirmed deenergized by hydro provider personnel
D) Command shall request that the Hydro personnel be called to any incident
involving electricity that poses a known or anticipated risk to personnel or
property
B) HFD personnel may pull any hydro meter to disconnect the power supply to a
structure
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when wires
are down, the Incident Commander shall establish a safe zone of at least ____ m (____
ft.) away from wires and anything wires may be touching.
A) 15 m, 50 ft.
B) 12 m, 40 ft
C) 10 m, 33 ft.
D) 6 m, 20 ft.
C) 10 m, 33 ft.
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; if dispatched
to a substation fire, you should secure the area; to keep on-lookers back at least ____
m, ____ ft. for an explosion risk.
A) 50 m, 165 ft.
B) 100 m, 330 ft.
C) 150 m, 490 ft.
D) 200 m, 655 ft
B) 100 m, 330 ft
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; substation
control buildings require special consideration when fighting fires. The nature of the
equipment installed within the station, its high value and susceptibility to damage from
many extinguishing agents requires careful consideration in agent selection.
Preference must be given to ___________ ___________.
A) Carbon Dioxide
B) Potassium Bicarbonate
C) Halon Agents
D) Sodium Bicarbonate
A) Carbon Dioxide
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when
responding to a padmount transformer and/or switching kiosks damaged in an accident,
personnel shall assess the situation from at least _____ metres (____ ft.) back.
A) 6 m, 20 ft.
B) 10 m, 33 ft.
C) 12 m, 40 ft.
D) 15 m, 50 ft.
B) 10 m, 33 ft
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when
responding to a padmount transformer and/or switching kiosks damaged in an accident,
which of the following statements is correct?
A) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet
close together (to minimize the step potential); don’t approach closer than 10
metres (33 ft.) to the vehicle; tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle,
we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said
it is safe to do so.”
B) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet
close together (to minimize the step potential); don’t approach closer than 12
metres (40 ft.) to the vehicle. tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle,
we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said
it is safe to do so.”
C) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet
close together (to minimize the step potential); if possible, provide the
transformer or switching kiosk location and number to Communications, they can
pass it on to Hydro; perform the rescue immediately
D) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet
close together (to minimize the step potential); perform the rescue immediately;
document actions in the Summary report in FDM.
A) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet
close together (to minimize the step potential); don’t approach closer than 10
metres (33 ft.) to the vehicle; tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle,
we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said
it is safe to do so.”
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; you are
responding to a vault explosion, what are your first three actions?
A) Assess the situation from at least 12 metres, (40 ft.); determine the safe zone,
secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that
Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the
service access involved
B) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); attempt to remove the
service access cover; from a safe location apply non-conducting fire
extinguishing substances such as dry chemical or Co2
C) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone,
secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that
Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the
service access involved
D) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone,
secure the area, and keep the public at least 20 metres (65 ft.) back; request that
Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the
service access involved
C) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone,
secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that
Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the
service access involved
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; the Ontario
Ministry of Labour is required to be notified for any one of the following except:
A) The worker advises employer that he/she has been diagnosed with an
occupational disease
B) The worker is critically injured
C) The worker killed on the job
D) The worker invokes their right to refuse
D) The worker invokes their right to refuse
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; which of
the following is correct, critically injured means an injury of a serious nature that,
A) Causes the loss of sight in an eye
B) Produces unconsciousness
C) Involves the fracture of a leg or arm but not a finger or toe
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; which of
the following is correct, critically injured means an injury of a serious nature that,
A) Consists of burns to a minor portion of the body
B) Results in substantial loss of blood
C) Causes the loss of sight in both eyes
D) All of the above
B) Results in substantial loss of blood
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; you are the
Incident Commander on scene where a worker was critically injured on the job site.
What is your responsibility?
A) Begin the investigation into the accident
B) If the Police do not attend an incident involving a worker who is critically injured,
and the Incident Commander feels an Inspector should attend immediately, the
Incident Commander shall direct HFD Communications to notify the Duty Officer
C) Check with Police to confirm that they will be making the MOL notification. This
should be noted in the Incident Report on FDM along with the police officer’s
particulars
D) All of the above
C) Check with Police to confirm that they will be making the MOL notification. This
should be noted in the Incident Report on FDM along with the police officer’s
particulars
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; you are the
Incident Commander on scene where a worker was critically injured on the job site. You
only wish to ensure that the MOL is notified (and immediate response is not an issue)
then the responsibility for making the call to the Ministry of Labour falls upon:
A) The Duty Officer
B) The Incident Commander
C) The Officer of the responding unit
D) The Deputy Chief
C) The Officer of the responding unit
According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you
are the Officer in Charge contacting Communications to request Public Health. You
should have the following information ready:
A) Date and time of Incident, Incident Number, Name and location of establishment
B) Date and time of Incident, Name and location of establishment, Damage Incurred
C) Name and location of establishment, Product Loss, Damage Incurred
D) Name and location of establishment, Actions Performed
B) Date and time of Incident, Name and location of establishment, Damage Incurred
According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; the
Incident Commander will request that Public Health Services be notified in the event of
a fire to the following except at/for:
A) All Long-Term Care Facilities
B) Any fire/emergency situation that does not have the potential to cause a human
health hazard
C) A non-operating Industrial site
D) All Residential Care Facilities
B) Any fire/emergency situation that does not have the potential to cause a human
health hazard
According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you
are the Incident Commander at a Lodging Home where there has been a long power
outage impacting refrigeration units. Based on this response, should you request Public
Health Services?
A) Yes
B) No
A) Yes
According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you
are the Incident Commander at a fire incident at a movie theatre in the lobby area,
based on this response, should you request Public Health Services?
A) Yes
B) No
A) Yes
According to Operational Guideline 639.00 – HSR Buses to Emergency Incidents; you
are in Command of an incident where you will require HSR, which steps are correct
when requesting HSR to the scene?
A) The request shall be made directly to HSR operations, a safe area that is outside
the danger zone will be established, people being evacuated will be brought or
directed to the designated safe area
B) The request shall be directed to communications, a safe area that is outside the
danger zone will be established, people being evacuated will be brought or
directed to the designated safe area
C) The request shall be directed to communications, a safe area that is outside the
danger zone will be established, HSR personnel will be directed into the danger
zone to pick up or transport individuals
D) The request shall be directed to communications, an area inside the danger zone
will be established, people being evacuated will be brought or directed to the
designated area
B) The request shall be directed to communications, a safe area that is outside the
danger zone will be established, people being evacuated will be brought or
directed to the designated safe area
According to Operational Guideline 640.00 - Atmosphere Monitoring at Fires; which of
the following is incorrect regarding the atmospheric levels where you can operate
without SCBA in an environment where smoke was present?
A) 0 ppm for HCN (Hydrogen Cyanide)
B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide)
C) 0 ppm for CO (Carbon Monoxide)
D) Not less than 20.8% Oxygen
B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide)
According to Operational Guideline 643.00 – Request for Excavators; the on-scene
Platoon/District Chief shall:
A) Contact Public Works
B) Contact the Deputy Chief
C) Contact the Duty Officer
D) Contact Building Services
C) Contact the Duty Officer
According to Operational Guideline 645.00 - Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster
University; all laboratories, which contain radioactive material, are posted with warning
signs stating?
A) “Caution – Radioactive Material.”
B) “Danger - - Radioactive material”
C) “Caution - - Radiation”
D) “Danger – Radiation”
A) “Caution – Radioactive Material.”
According to Operational Guideline 645.00 - Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster
University; there are ______ areas on campus where entry must not be made until
Radiation Safety personnel have monitored the areas?
A) 6
B) 3
C) 7
D) 4
D) 4
According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services
Division; the Building Construction Section responds to such matters as:
A) Providing physical security standards through a prevention and deterrence model
for Fire damaged/vacant buildings
B) Fire damaged/vacant buildings, and/or an unsafe condition of a building
C) Investigates complaints on private and public property to ensure compliance with
by-laws
D) None of the above
B) Fire damaged/vacant buildings, and/or an unsafe condition of a building
According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services
Division; you are in Command of an incident with a structurally weakened building,
should you consider notifying the Building Services Division?
A) No, only if the building requires physical securing
B) Yes, Building Services should be notified of a structurally weakened building
C) No, only if the building has had a previous complaint for not complying with bylaws
D) Yes, Building Services should be notified by the owner or responsible party (RP)
of a structurally weakened building
B) Yes, Building Services should be notified of a structurally weakened building
According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services
Division; which of the following circumstances is incorrect when determining if the
Building Services Division Inspector is required:
A) Structurally weakened building
B) Collapsed building
C) Only structures which have been struck by motor vehicles or other objects
D) Hazardous structures
C) Only structures which have been struck by motor vehicles or other objects
According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services
Division; as the Incident Commander, you require the boarding of premises involved in
fire or other damaging circumstance. Where no responsible party is available, you
should request HFD Communications Centre to contact:
A) City of Hamilton Corporate Security
B) City of Hamilton Building Services
C) City of Hamilton Housing
D) City of Hamilton Property Standards Division
D) City of Hamilton Property Standards Division
According to Operational Policy 655.00 – Operation of Aerial Ladders in High Winds;
when sustained wind speeds reach _____ km/h all HFD aerial ladders will not be used.
A) 70 km/h
B) 90 km/h
C) 56 km/h
D) 80 km/h
D) 80 km/h
According to Operational Guideline 703.00 – Designated Medical Officer’s Notification;
the Officer shall:
A) Ensure that any Members who may have been exposed to a suspected
communicable disease decontaminate on return to station
B) Ensure an “Exposure Report Form” and an “Employee Incident/Accident Report
Form” are completed
C) Notify their District Chief immediately when the Supervisor or a Member suspects
an exposure to a communicable disease has occurred
D) All of the Above
B) Ensure an “Exposure Report Form” and an “Employee Incident/Accident Report
Form” are completed
According to Operational Guideline 703.00 – Designated Medical Officer’s Notification;
a “Report of Accidental Injury and Occupational Disease” shall be completed. These
forms shall be forwarded to the ________ _________ before the end of duty on that
particular shift.
A) Duty Officer
B) Medical Officer
C) Deputy Chief
D) Platoon Chief
D) Platoon Chief
According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; HFD uses standard alarm
settings, which of the following settings is not correct?
A) 25 ppm (low) & 40 ppm (high) for carbon monoxide (CO)
B) 10 ppm (low) & 20 ppm (high) for hydrogen sulphide (H2S)
C) 19.5% (low) & 23 ppm (high) for oxygen (O2)
D) 5% (low) & 10% (high) LEL for combustibles
A) 25 ppm (low) & 40 ppm (high) for carbon monoxide (CO)
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; air monitoring results
taken (including a “zero” reading) shall be announced via radio to the Incident
Commander and HFD Communications Centre
A) True
B) False
A) True
According to Operational Guideline 807.00 - Hazardous Materials Incidents – Victim
Management; section 9.01 states which of the following?
A) Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported
B) Deceased are to be left in the ambulance unit all victims have been
transported
C) Deceased are to be left in hot zone until decontaminated
D) Deceased are to be removed first
A) Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; entry into a
clan lab is high risk and shall only be made to conduct a ______ rescue of human life.
Under fire conditions with no life hazard, prevent extension and exposure damage but
do not enter the hazard area.
A) Perceived
B) Known
C) Unknown
D) Speculated
B) Known
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; the Incident
Commander should consider ___________ __________ of attack as appropriate to
protect personnel from unknown chemical exposure, explosion and rapid fire advance.
A) A Defensive Mode
B) An Aggressive Mode
C) A Transitional Mode
D) A Defensive Mode
D) A Defensive Mode
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are the
first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to
suspect a clandestine drug laboratory and potentially change your strategy?
A) Makeshift ventilation pipes, vacuum tubes and plastic or rubber tubing
B) Metal drums and boxes with labels removed or spray painted over
C) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
D) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are correct
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are the
first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to
suspect a clandestine drug laboratory and potentially change your strategy?
A) Bright interior lights left on all day and night
B) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
C) Chemical containers, particularly those that are not properly labelled
D) Both A & B are correct
C) Chemical containers, particularly those that are not properly labelled
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; which of the
following is not considered a hazard associated with clan labs?
A) Clan labs pose serious hazards to emergency response personnel and may also
endanger residents in the community or contaminate the environment due to the
lack of ventilation systems
B) Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural
gas supply
C) The use of water during fire suppression activities may cause a violent explosion
or the release of toxic gases
D) Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive
materials
B) Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural
gas supply
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; which of the
following statements regarding Clandestine Drug Laboratories is incorrect?
A) On occasion, a clan lab and the surrounding property may be protected with
defence systems or “booby-traps” to deter unwanted visitors
B) Electric switches, vacuum pumps, chemical containers, glassware, or anything
that is plugged into an electrical receptacle shall be unplugged
C) Operators of clan labs may not always be familiar with the flammability and
reactivity of some chemicals
D) Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or
furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical
reaction that may be lethal
B) Electric switches, vacuum pumps, chemical containers, glassware, or anything
that is plugged into an electrical receptacle shall be unplugged
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; HFD shall
provide support to Police personnel on scene. Which of the following is not a support
action HFD shall provide?
A) Mitigation of hazardous chemicals
B) Provide research and information on chemicals that are suspected or are known
to be in the laboratory
C) Investigate and seize Clandestine Drug Laboratory equipment
D) Decontamination of any entry personnel
C) Investigate and seize Clandestine Drug Laboratory equipment
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are firstin and still in Command at a Clandestine Drug Laboratory, rescue of persons or fire
suppression are non existent, HFD personnel shall immediately leave the clan lab area
and stand-by at the safe evacuation distance of _____ m - _____ m
A) 25 m – 75 m
B) 50 m – 100 m
C) 75 m – 125 m
D) 100 m – 150 m
B) 50 m – 100 m
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; you are the first
arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a
marijuana grow operation and potentially change your strategy?
A) Makeshift ventilation pipes, vacuum tubes and plastic or rubber tubing
B) Metal drums and boxes with labels removed or spray painted over
C) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
D) Both A & B are correct
C) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; of the following
is not considered a hazard associated with marijuana grow operation?
A) Electrocution from electrical bypass, power lines, secondary distribution panels
and transformers.
B) Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural
gas supply
C) Solvents and pesticides stored in the interior
D) Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive
materials
D) Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive
materials
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; which of the
following statements regarding marijuana grow operations is incorrect?
A) Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or
furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical
reaction that may be lethal
B) Entry into a grow op is high risk and shall only be made to conduct a rescue of
human life known to be in the premises
C) The Incident Commander should consider a defensive mode of attack as
appropriate to protect personnel from unknown chemical exposure, explosion
and rapid fire advance
D) Clues that may indicate the presence of a grow op can include windows are
covered often with dark plastic, foil or newspaper and little snow on the roof in
winter
A) Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or
furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical
reaction that may be lethal
According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; H2S is a colorless gas
with notable odor of (rotten egg/sewer gas) detectable at low levels [measured in parts
per million (ppm] Although pungent at first, it quickly deadens the sense of smell
between the range of ________ ppm.
A) 300 - 500 ppm
B) 200 - 400 ppm
C) 150 - 250 ppm
D) 250 - 350 ppm
C) 150 - 250 ppm
According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; what additional
agencies must be notified in advance in order to avoid contamination of personnel or
equipment?
A) Coroner / morgue
B) HPS (Hamilton Police Services)
C) HPW (Hamilton Public Works)
D) EMS and Hospital
D) EMS and Hospital
According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; locations of such acts
may occur in but not limited to the following areas except where vapors have the ability
to disperse?
A) Vehicles.
B) Open areas
C) Small rooms inside the residence.
D) Apartments
B) Open areas
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational
Response; a confined space is any space that has the following characteristics:
A) Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit. Is not designed for continuous
human occupancy
B) Contains a material that has the potential for engulfing an entrant
C) Is large enough and so configured that a person can enter and perform assigned
work
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational
Response; which of the following is not a characteristic of a confined space?
A) Contains or has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere
B) An excavation made below the surface of the ground where the depth is greater
than the width
C) Has an internal configuration such that an entrant could be trapped or
asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor that slopes downward and
tapers to a smaller cross section
D) Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit. Is not designed for continuous
human occupancy
B) An excavation made below the surface of the ground where the depth is greater
than the width
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational
Response; you are first-in and shall determine the severity and extent of the confined
space rescue emergency. Should a confined space rescue exist, the officer shall do the
following except:
A) Determine if the area is a confined space (by definition)
B) Approach the area from the ends if possible
C) Confirm that all Confined Space / HARR apparatus are responding
D) Tape off the Rescue area, establish safety zone
B) Approach the area from the ends if possible
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational
Response; you are first-in and shall determine the severity and extent of the confined
space rescue emergency. Should a confined space rescue exist, the officer shall do the
following except:
A) Assess Rescue versus Recovery mode, consideration for obvious death
B) Gather information from on-site personnel such as entry permits, MSDS, and
Lockout/Tag out locations
C) Place ground pads around the work area
D) Attempt communication with victim(s)
C) Place ground pads around the work area
According to Operational Policy 903.00 - Smoke Alarm Enforcement Policy (SAEP); a
follow up on SANN’s issued will be conducted as soon as practical after____ hrs. have
expired since its issuance by Operations.
A) 36
B) 24
C) 48
D) 72
B) 24
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the
following is not an objective of a standardized reporting system for fire occurrence?
A) To provide uniform data to national agencies for the documenting of national fire
occurrences
B) To provide a set of minimum requirements for fire safety within and around
existing buildings and facilities for emergency response
C) To provide information to measure the impact of fires, of fire prevention initiatives
and to identify emerging trends or issues in fire occurrence
D) To provide for the collection of data required for understanding of the fire problem
and as mandated by the FPPA
B) To provide a set of minimum requirements for fire safety within and around
existing buildings and facilities for emergency response
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; an objective of
a standardized reporting system for fire occurrence is provide uniform data at the
municipal and provincial level that aims to:
A) Make the full extent of the fire and emergency problem known
B) Reveal facts that require action
C) Develop and administer codes and standards; and for fire prevention and fire
protection research
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; an
___________ is an incident that results in a fire department emergency response.
A) Alarm
B) Occurrence
C) Event
D) Episode
B) Occurrence
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; a fire or
explosion occurrence is defined as any instance of destructive and uncontrolled
burning, including explosion of combustible solids, liquids, or gases.
A) True
B) False
A) True
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the
following shall not be used as a ‘No Loss Outdoor Fire’:
A) For any fire where there was property loss, injury or death
B) For any fire where there was fire spread resulting in an exposure fire
C) For any fire where the fire department suspects that the fire was intentionally
ignited or a result of children playing
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; the
Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (FIPPA) provides the public with
the right of access to information that is collected by public institutions. However, this
does not include data that is collected by fire departments.
A) True
B) False
B) False
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the
Officer at an outdoor trash fire – with no loss, no injury, no fatality – but is suspected
vandalism. The type of occurrence should be reported as:
A) 01 Fire or Explosion
B) 03 Outdoor fire/explosion
C) 23 Open air burning/unauthorized controlled burning
D) 33 Human – Malicious intent, prank
A) 01 Fire or Explosion
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the
Officer at an outdoor trash fire – with no loss, no exposure fire – caused by improperly
discarded ignited material. The type of occurrence should be reported as:
A) 01 Fire or Explosion
B) 03 Outdoor fire/explosion
C) 35 Human Accidental
D) 39 Other False Fire Call
B) 03 Outdoor fire/explosion
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when a fire in a
garage attached to a residence spreads to the residence, or a fire in a vehicle parked
within a structure that spreads to the structure are not considered ‘exposure fires’
because:
A) The fire originates in a vehicle in the detached garage, it is a structure fire, with
the first ignited object being the vehicle in the garage
B) The structure fire is not an exposure fire as the vehicle is viewed as the structure
contents. The area of origin is the garage.
C) The fire originates in a vehicle in the attached garage, it is a structure fire, with
the first ignited object being the vehicle
D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C are correct
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the
Officer at a rupture of a steam boiler due to internal pressure in the boiler. This incident
is considered to be:
A) 02 Explosion
B) 11 Over pressure Rupture
C) 29 Other pre fire conditions (no fire)
D) 39 Other False Fire Call
B) 11 Over pressure Rupture
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when
responding to a medical call if a specific action is undertaken (i.e.) 701 Oxygen
Administered, report the action instead of the condition.
A) True
B) False
A) True
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; where an illegal
operation is encountered, regardless of the nature of the initial call it shall be coded:
A) 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire) or 92 Assisting Police
B) 921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire)
C) 921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 92 Assisting Police
D) 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire) or 59 Other Public Hazard
B) 921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire)
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the
following incidents would not be considered a rescue:
A) People trapped in an elevator
B) People evacuated from an occurrence area for precautionary measures
C) Vehicle extrication
D) Water ice rescue
B) People evacuated from an occurrence area for precautionary measures
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the
following is incorrect regarding Application of Agent or Decision to Defer?
A) Report the time that the extinguishing agent is initially applied by the fire
department to supress the fire
B) Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record an estimate of the hour (0-23),
minute (0-59), and second (0-59)
C) Report the time that the commanding officer makes a decision to defer the
application of agent
D) Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record the exact hour (0-23), minute (0-
59), and second (0-59)
B) Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record an estimate of the hour (0-23),
minute (0-59), and second (0-59)
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when would a
Fire Under Control be reported?
A) When the fire will not make further progress, no further resources will be required
for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer
threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
B) When the fire will not make further progress, further resources will be required for
fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer
threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
C) When the fire’s progress has not been stopped, no further resources will be
required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no
longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
D) When the fire will not make further progress, further resources will be required for
fire attack, the fire is not sufficiently surrounded and quenched, and threatens
further spread or destruction of additional property
A) When the fire will not make further progress, no further resources will be required
for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer
threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the
Officer at a call where a person smoking has fallen asleep which results in a couch fire.
The code for fire ‘possible cause’ that should be used is:
A) Code 44 Unattended
B) Code 45 Improperly Discarded
C) Code 46 Used or Placed Too Close to Combustibles
D) Code 50 Other misuse of Ignition Source/Material Ignited
A) Code 44 Unattended
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the
following statements is correct when determining the estimated dollar loss.
A) The total revenue losses or costs involved to business interruption shall be
added to the estimated loss
B) The property assessment value is an appropriate value for estimating loss
C) The estimated dollar loss is the cost of actual damage to property and property
contents, including open area losses
D) In accordance with Canadian insurance practices, damages and/or destruction of
buildings, installed equipment and contents shall be estimated and reported at
the original cost to purchase
C) The estimated dollar loss is the cost of actual damage to property and property
contents, including open area losses
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; a multi
vehicle collision fire shall be considered an exposure fire. Total exposures should be the
number of vehicles, and exposure reports are required for each additional vehicle.
A) True
B) False
B) False
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the
following is not considered a fire injury?
A) A person injured as a direct result of a fire/explosion (burns, asphyxia)
B) A person injured by fire/explosion which results from an accidental vehicle
collision (burns, asphyxia)
C) A person injured that was caused by escaping the fire explosion (jumps from
third floor, falls down a stairwell)
D) A person injured as a result of destruction caused by the fire/explosion (wall falls,
roof collapse, projectiles hurled)
B) A person injured by fire/explosion which results from an accidental vehicle
collision (burns, asphyxia)
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the
following statements regarding civilian fire deaths is correct?
A) One injury form can encompass multiple fatalities
B) In all instances, death must occur within 30 days of the incident to be classified
as a fire death
C) Includes a person who is known to have committed suicide by fire or explosion
D) An Incident Report and Injury Report is not required for injuries and fatalities
when the OFM investigation is conducted
C) Includes a person who is known to have committed suicide by fire or explosion
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; once
the first in apparatus provides their initial radio report and assumes command, knowing
that the senior officers and C73, C74 will report directly to the scene, how should the
remaining dispatched firefighting apparatus respond?
A) The next truck only responds directly to the scene
B) The next two trucks respond directly to the scene
C) All trucks report directly to the scene
D) None of the above
B) The next two trucks respond directly to the scene
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; what
does ‘staged’ mean?
A) Units stage in the direction of travel, committed to a hydrant, approximately 50
metres from the scene
B) Units stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately 60 metres from
the scene
C) Units stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately 90 metres from
the scene
D) Units stage in the direction of travel, committed to a hydrant, approximately 60
metres from the scene
B) Units stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately 60 metres from
the scene
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a timely
and efficient means of air replacement and rehydration of companies assigned to a
Sector or Division is known as ____________.
A) Rehabilitation
B) Air Management
C) Recycling
D) Medical
C) Recycling
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a formal
assignment where members decontaminate prior to entry and are medically evaluated
before being rehydrated and replenished is known as _________________.
A) Rehabilitation
B) Air Management
C) Recycling
D) Medical
A) Rehabilitation
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a
_______ _________ involves using either the deck gun mounted on top of the engine, a
2 ½-inch handline, or a ground monitor to attack a fire.
A) Quick Hit
B) Master Stream
C) Blitz Attack
D) Indirect Attack
C) Blitz Attack
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a _____
______ is an application of water from an exterior hoseline (not a master stream device)
as a straight stream to the ceiling above a fire.
A) Quick Hit
B) Master Stream
C) Blitz Attack
D) Direct Attack
A) Quick Hit
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; which
of the following statements about quick hits is incorrect?
A) Using a quick hit should be considered when an exterior flow of water would be
faster than attempting to reach the fire from the inside
B) A quick hit essentially is an offensive attack in which we are sending all our water
at once onto the seat of the fire
C) A quick hit does not mean that an interior attack is eliminated
D) A quick hit is a tactic to help facilitate an aggressive interior attack. It will cool the
room, limit fire growth and increase victim survivability in the structure
B) A quick hit essentially is an offensive attack in which we are sending all our water
at once onto the seat of the fire
According to the 2023 Captain Preparation Introduction presentation; which of the
following statements about report writing is incorrect?
A) Notes are taken in chronological order following the sequence of the event and
includes all pertinent information related to report
B) Notes are factual and should be comprehensive
C) Notes with statements or words that refer to derogatory language, contain
sarcasm, or opinions are acceptable
D) Notes are completed as incident / events occur and reports completed
immediately following the incident
C) Notes with statements or words that refer to derogatory language, contain
sarcasm, or opinions are acceptable
According to the 2023 Captain Preparation Introduction presentation; you are writing
your report after an alarm, what should be included in your report summary?
A) Provide appropriate detail, ongoing patient care – be specific on actions or care
being provided, for Incident reports short forms or abbreviations of words is
acceptable
B) Include your size up in summary, detail your actions, indicate probable cause
C) Detail your actions, indicate if Police or EMS were on scene, provide your opinion
as to what happened
D) None of the above
B) Include your size up in summary, detail your actions, indicate probable cause
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; there are a number of reasons to complete a 360 of the building prior to
entry. Which of the following statements contain correct reasons for completing a 360?
A) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify hydrant location, ventilation
profile of the structure (Identify flow paths)
B) Confirm the structure has a basement and if so, what type, confirmation of the
initial strategy, determine accountability location
C) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify life safety / rescue requirements,
determine safest, most appropriate attack position
D) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, confirmation of the initial strategy,
determine accountability location
C) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify life safety / rescue requirements,
determine safest, most appropriate attack position
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; the primary reason to complete a 360 on residential occupancies is to
identify:
A) Immediate life safety issues
B) Determine roof type and dead loads on the roof
C) Identify locations for master stream devices
D) Determine exposures
A) Immediate life safety issues
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; there are times where you may not be able to complete a 360 of a
structure. Which of the following are reasons to not complete a 360.
A) Immediate Life Safety Need – Rescue of the Alpha, Bravo, Delta side
B) Fire has breached the roof
C) Wires down
D) Both A and C are Correct
D) Both A and C are Correct
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; there are times where you may not be able to complete a 360 of a
structure. Which of the following are reasons to not complete a 360.
A) High fence with a gate
B) Fire has breached the roof
C) Wires down
D) Both A and C are Correct
C) Wires down
T/F: According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; if you are unable to complete a 360, Command must report that the 360 is
incomplete, and assign another unit to complete the 360.
A) True
B) False
A) True
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; as an Incident Commander you must listen critically to ‘conditions’ of CAN
reports as they may provide you with a red flag.
A) Can’t locate the fire, high heat encountered
B) A working fire in a concealed space, high heat encountered, limited or no visibility
C) A working fire in a concealed space, limited or no visibility
D) Can’t locate the fire, high ceilings,
B) A working fire in a concealed space, high heat encountered, limited or no visibility
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; ________ ________ is defined as: moving from an assigned work location
to a different geographic work location or exiting the structure to recycle or
rehabilitation.
A) Priority Traffic
B) CAN Report
C) Status Change
D) Follow-Up Report
C) Status Change
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; which of the following is not one of the 8 Functions of Command?
A) Organization
B) Situation Evaluation
C) Emergency Response
D) Revise, Evaluation & Revision
C) Emergency Response
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; which of the following is not one of the 8 Functions of Command?
A) Communications
B) Accountability
C) Continue, Support and Terminate Command
D) Strategy and Incident Action Planning
B) Accountability
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?
A) Accountability
B) Emergency Response
C) Deployment
D) None of the Above
C) Deployment
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?
A) Accountability
B) Emergency Response
C) Tactical Priorities
D) None of the Above
D) None of the Above
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?
A) Organization
B) Accountability
C) Tactical Priorities
D) Both B and C are correct
A) Organization
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?
A) Tactical Priorities
B) Assumption, Confirmation and Positioning
C) Organization
D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C are correct
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; which of the following are central command’s tactical priorities?
A) Conserve property and the environment during and after operations
B) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’
lives
C) Protect, remove, and provide care for endangered customers
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; which of the following is not one of central command’s tactical priorities?
A) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’
lives
B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost
analysis for the incident
C) Stabilize the incident or problem
D) Provide for responder safety and survival
B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost
analysis for the incident
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information.
Which of the following make up your initial report?
A) Clear Alarm – Announce your arrival on scene
B) Building Area Description
C) Problem Description
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information.
Which of the following make up your initial report?
A) Initial IAP – Action plan being taken
B) Declaration of the Strategy
C) Assumption & Naming of Command
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information.
Which of the following make up your initial report?
A) Resource Determination
B) Building Area Description
C) Assumption & Naming of Command
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the
building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of
the following is correct?
A) When a 200’ (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is
SMALL
B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 75% of the fire area/occupancy
– it is MEDIUM
C) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 50% of the fire area/occupancy
– it is LARGE
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the
building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of
the following is incorrect?
A) When a 200’ (60m) line can access less than 25 percent (or less) of the fire
area/occupancy – it is VERY LARGE
B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 65% of the fire area/occupancy
– it is INTERMEDIATE
C) When a 200’ (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is
SMALL
D) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 50% of the fire area/occupancy
– it is LARGE
B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 65% of the fire area/occupancy
– it is INTERMEDIATE
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; prior to making an entry, the first-in command officer shall complete a 360
of the building. The first-in command officer should be observing the following:
A) Any immediate life safety/rescue issues
B) Number of storeys from the Charlie side
C) Basement type and conditions (if known)
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; prior to making an entry, the first-in command officer shall complete a 360
of the building. The first-in command officer should be observing the following except:
A) Any immediate life safety/rescue issues
B) Any other significant critical factors
C) Hydrant location
D) Incident problem(s) and location (if different from Initial Radio Report)
C) Hydrant location
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; assigning units to Operating Positions/Functions in the Hazard Zone using
the “Assignment Model”. This means the Incident Commander should assign fireground
jobs by providing ________, __________, and __________ to the crew company
officer.
A) Task, Location, Objective
B) Task, Assignment, Objective
C) Task, Location, Duration
D) Assignment, Location, Objective
A) Task, Location, Objective
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions,
Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Conditions?
A) Where you are
B) Smoke conditions
C) Fuel loads
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports
presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions,
Actions and Needs. Which would not be a Condition?
A) Interior visibility
B) Search progress
C) Fire conditions
D) What is burning
B) Search progress
