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Instrument > Platinum V4 > Flashcards

Platinum V4 Flashcards

1
Q

What minimums are needed for circling/straight-in/sidestep approaches?

A

-Straight-in/sidestep: forecast weather must meet required visibility minimums.
-Circling: forecast weather must meet required visibility and ceiling minimums.

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2
Q

What is the minimum required fuel reserves?

A

10% of flight time up to 45 minutes or 20 minutes of flight time, whichever is greater.

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3
Q

When should an aircraft follow VFR hemispheric cruising altitudes?

A

When above 3,000 feet AGL

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4
Q

What are the VFR hemispheric cruising altitudes?

A

000-179: odd thousands plus 500 feet
180-359: even thousands plus 500 feet

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5
Q

What are the four types of declared distances and how are they defined?

A

-Takeoff run available (TORA): runway length suitable for the ground roll on takeoff.
-Takeoff distance available (TODA): TORA plus any remaining runway or clearway.
-Accelerate-Stop distance available (ASDA): runway and stopway suitable for deceleration of aborting aircraft.
-Landing distance available (LDA): runway length suitable for landing the aircraft.

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6
Q

Can an aircraft operate beyond a declared distance?

A

Yes, an aircraft can exceed a declared distance for landing or takeoff as long as that surface is marked suitable for landing or takeoff.

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7
Q

What are the weather minimums for takeoff in IMC?

A

-Pilots will not takeoff if the weather is below the lowest compatible approach minimums. Exception: MAJCOMs may publish alternative takeoff minimums and recovery procedures when takeoff weather is lower than published lowest compatible approach minimums. In all cases, takeoff visibility must be 600 RVR or greater.
-AETC When MDS-specific guidance authorizes takeoffs with weather below landing minimums, the guidance is only valid if it prescribes alternate takeoff minima and recovery procedures.

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8
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient required when departing an airfield under IFR?

A

200 ft./NM or published climb gradient, whichever is higher.

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9
Q

What are the different types of IFR departures?

A

DDOOMSS:
-Diverse departure
-Diverse vector departure
-Obstacle departure procedure
-Omnidirectional departure
-MAJCOM certified
-SID
-Specific ATC instructions

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10
Q

What are the different types of ODPs?

A

-Non-standard takeoff minimums
-Specific routing
-Visual climb over airport
-Reduced takeoff runway length
-Any combination above

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11
Q

What does the “Trouble T” on an approach plate indicate?

A

A Trouble T indicated the airfield has published departure procedure

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12
Q

How much clearance does the 40:1 OIS give you from obstacles?

A

48 feet, the 40:1 OIS is equivalent to 152 feet/NM and minimum climb gradient of 200 feet/NM gives an extra 48 feet

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13
Q

Do diverse departures account for low close in obstacles?

A

No

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14
Q

What is the range of the diverse departure assessment area?

A

25 nm in non-mountainous terrain and 46 nm in mountainous terrain.

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15
Q

What is the FAA definition for standard LOC service volume?

A

18 nm with 10 degree and 10 nm for the remaining coverage.

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16
Q

What is an LDA?

A

Localizer type directional aid is a localizer that is offset more than 3 degree from runway centerline.

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17
Q

How many satellites do RAIM and FDE require?

A

-RAIM requires at least five satellites with good geometry to detect a faulty signal
-FDE requires six

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18
Q

How can you tell the difference between a fly by and fly over waypoint?

A

Fly over waypoints are encircled and fly by are not

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19
Q

What are the minimum altitudes over non-congested and congested areas?

A

-Non-congested areas: 500 feet.
-Congested areas: 1000 feet over highest obstacles within 2000 feet.

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20
Q

What is the minimum altitude over national parks and wilderness areas?

A

2,000 feet AGL

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21
Q

What is the maximum airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 knots

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22
Q

What are the airspeed restrictions around class C and D airspaces?

A

Do not exceed 200 knots at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 nm of class C or D airspace.

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23
Q

What is the airspeed restriction with class B airspace?

A

Do not exceed 200 knots in airspace underlying class B airspace or in a VFR corridor through class B airspace.

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24
Q

What is the standard direction for holding?

A

Right-hand turns

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25
Q

Are holding entry methods (teardrop, parallel, direct) mandatory?

A

Holding entry techniques in NAS are not mandatory based on sector, in ICAO they are.

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26
Q

Turn rate in holding?

A

3 degrees per second, 30 degree bank angle, or 25 degree bank angle with autopilot.

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27
Q

What is the lenght of holding at or below 14,000’? Above 14,000’?

A

One minute at or below
One minute and 30 seconds above

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28
Q

What is the method for drift corrections in holding?

A

Determine drift correction on the inbound leg and triple that correction on the outbound leg.

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29
Q

Can you begin the descent or instrument approach if the weather is below minimums?

A

No

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30
Q

When can you continue an approach if the weather goes below minimums?

A

-If you have begun your descent
-Received radar vectore for the approach
-Are established on a segment of the approach

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31
Q

When can you legally descend below the MDA?

A

RWY in sight and safe position to land

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32
Q

How low can you descend using only the approach lights as a reference?

A

100 feet above TDZE

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33
Q

How do you know the required equipment for an approach?

A

The title of the approach

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34
Q

How much clearance does the emergency safe altitude (ESA) give you and over what range?

A

1,000 feet within 100 nm

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35
Q

What clearance does the minimum sector altitude give you and over what range?

A

1,000 feet within 25 nm and 2,000 feet in mountainous terrain.

36
Q

Definition of field elevation?

A

The highest point on any suitable landing surface

37
Q

What is TDZE?

A

Touchdown zone elevation, the highest elevation in the first 3,000 feet of the landing surface.

38
Q

How many degrees off centerline can a straight-in approach be?

A

30 degrees

39
Q

When are you consideres extablished on track?

A

-Within half-full scale deflection
-Within full scale deflection for a LOC
-Within 1x required accuracy for an RNAV (case break)

40
Q

What does it mean if a procedure turn fix has an “at or above” altitude?

A

You cannot descend to the procedure turn completion altitude until established on the inbound course

41
Q

When can you descend if the procedure turn fix does not have a crossing altitude?

A

Soon as you cross the procedure turn fix

42
Q

How long do you time outbound leg on a 45/180 procedure turn?

A

1 min for a cat B aircraft

43
Q

When is a procedure turn not executed?

A

SNERT
-Cleared straight-in
-Flying approach vi NoPT routing
-Established in holding
-Radar vector to final
-Timing approach

44
Q

When does the final approach begin for a precision and non-precision approach?

A

-Precision: Where the glideslope intercepts the minimum glideslope intercept altitude (lightning bolt)
-Non-precision: FAF depicted by a Maltese cross

45
Q

What is a VDP, and how do you calculate one if it isn’t published?

A

-Vidual descent point, it is the point during a non-precision approach when you can descend out of the MDA if the runway is in sight. The VDP normally allows for a 3 degree glideslope.
-HAT/GS

46
Q

Describe what constitutes the “runway environment”

A

APP lights, RWY lights, VASI, PAPI, threshold, markings, touchdown zone, runway

47
Q

What must you do if you go half scale below or full scale above glideslope on an ILS?

A

Adhere to LOC minimums until you reintercept the glideslope, if you become unestablished below LOC minimums you must go missed approach.

48
Q

What is the range of the protected area on a circling approach for a cat B aircraft?

A

1.5 nm
Nye: 1.7 op til 1000’ + 1.8 op til 5000’

49
Q

When must you report the gear down on an approach?

A

Prior to crossing the runway threshold

50
Q

What is the maximum circling speed for a CAT B aircraft?

A

135 KIAS
120 recommended, minimum of 110 KIAS.

51
Q

When can you descend below the MDA on a circling approach?

A

When the pilot is able to place the aircraft on a normal glidepath to the landing runway and execute a safe landing.

52
Q

If doing a sidestep approach, when do you move to the parallel runway?

A

As soon as possible once the runway environment is in sight

53
Q

What do you do if you reach the MAP before the MDA on an approach?

A

Initiate the missed approach procedure

54
Q

What mus you do if you lose sight of the runway during a circling approach?

A

-Execute a climbing turn in the last known direction of the landing runway.
-Intercept and fly the missed approach procedure for the approach runway.

55
Q

Define “Mountainous terrain”

A

Areas where terrain elevation varies by 3,000 feet within 10 NM.

56
Q

What do the letters X, Y, Z after the title of the approach plate mean?

A

More than one approach exists for the same runway using the same guidance equipment.

57
Q

What do the letters A, B, C after the title of the approach plate mean?

A

The approach is designed for circling minimums only, i.e. the approach will not bring you into the airfield in line with a runway.

58
Q

What do you do if you loose RAIM before the FAF on an RNAV approach?

A

Do not descend to the MDA and proceed to the MAP via the FAF, execute the missed approach, and contact ATC

59
Q

What do you do if you get a RAIM failure on a GPS approach and you are inside the FAF?

A

Discontinue the approach (do not descend further, climb missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAP and execute climb out)

60
Q

What is MEA?

A

Minimum enroute altitude. The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

61
Q

What is the MRA?

A

Minimum reception altitude. The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.

62
Q

What is the MCA?

A

Minimum crossing altitude. It’s the minimum altitude a pilot must cross a fix at when in the direction of a higher MEA.

63
Q

What is the MOCA?

A

Minimum obstacle/obstruction clearance altitude. Between radio fixes that satisfies obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route and assures navigation signal reception within 22 nm of a VOR

64
Q

What is the OROCA?

A

Off-route obstruction clearance altitude. An off-route altitude that gives 1,000 feet clearance in non-mountainous terrain and 2,000 feet clearance in mountainous terrain but does not guarantee signal coverage.

65
Q

What is the ORTCA?

A

Off-route terrain clearance altitude. An off-route altitude that gives 3,000 feet terrain clearance within a longitude and latitude grid but does not guarantee signal coverage.

66
Q

What does and underlined NAVAID freq on an approach plate mean?

A

That NAVAID does not have voice transmission capability on that frequency.

67
Q

What does a white “C” on a black square mean on the circling approach minimums line?

A

A modification to your circling approach exists to address an increase in true airspeed due to an increase in altitude.

68
Q

Identify the control tower on an airfield sketch.

A

-Black square with TWR written above it
-If the tower and airport beacon are collocated, only the beacon star symbol will be displayed

69
Q

A black star with a white circle on an airfield sketch denotes what?

A

Airport beacon location

70
Q

At the top of an airfield sketch in an approach plate, what does a white “D” on a black square mean?

A

The runway has a declared distance which may be different than the length listed next to the runway in the sketch (may be due to an obstacle, displaced threshold, etc.)

71
Q

On an approach plate, what does a white “L” on a black circle next to a CTAF mean?

A

A pilot can activate airport lighting on that frequency.

72
Q

In a NORDO situation which route and altitude do you fly?

A

AVE FAME
Route:
-Assigned
-Vectored
-Expected
-Filed

Altitude:
Fly the highest of your:
-Assigned
-Minimum IFR
-Expected

73
Q

According to the Dash-1, when does the gear need to be down during an instrument approach?

A

Prior to the FAF.

74
Q

What is the equivalent of a FAF on an ILS approach?

A

Glideslope intercept (lightning bolt)

75
Q

Comm requirements for radar approaches.

A

1 minute prior to final.
On final 15 sec for ASR and 5 sec for PAR.

76
Q

What is T-6 penetration airspeed?

A

200-250 KIAS

77
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

Severe windshear is that which produces airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 feet per minute.

78
Q

What is required to file IFR to a destination?

A

-Ceiling and visibility at +-1 hour ETA at destination is at or above lowest compatible approach minimums (not including TEMPO)
-If no compatible approach at destination, there must be a nearby location with a compatible approach that has weather +-1 hour of ETA which VFR to final destination (including TEMPO)
-If landing at night at other than home station, there must be operable straight-in glidepath approach guidance.
-If destination has only one compatible runway, include fuel to a suitable alternate.

79
Q

When do you need to file an alternate?

A

-No compatible approach at destination airfield.
- +-1 hour ETA (including TEMPO), ceilings and visibility are below 2,000 feet and 3SM
- +-1 hour ETA (including TEMPO), winds are outside aircraft crosswind limitations.
-Denial of RVSM airspace would keep aircraft from reaching the destination.

80
Q

What are the requirements for an airfield to be an alternate?

A

-Ceilings +-1 hour of ETA are 1000 feet or 500 feet above lowest compatible approach minimums, whichever is greater.
-Visibility +-1 hour of ETA are 2 SM or 1 SM above lowest compatible approach minimums, whichever is greater.
-If there are no compatible approaches, forecast weather +-1 hour of ETA (including TEMPO) permits VFR descent from MEA to the airfield.

81
Q

What disqualifies an alternate?

A

-All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID
-The airfield does not report weather observations
-ANA (alternate not authorized) on all compatible approaches
-Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the IFR alternate minimums section
-Forecast winds +-1 hour of ETA exceed aircraft wind limits
-Denial of RVSM airspace would keep aircraft from reaching the airfield
-All approaches require GNSS or GNSS substitution (only listed in IFG)

82
Q

If a TEMPO condition at your alternate (+-1 hour of your ETA) shows weather below mins due to thunderstorms, snow showers or rain showers, can you still use that airfield as an alternate?

A

Yes. However, if the TEMPO exists because of any other condition that pushes the weather below approach minimums (fog, haze, winds, etc.) you cannot use that airfield as an alternate.

83
Q

How does fuel planning change if you are filling to an alternate?

A

-Filling with visibility only: your plan must include fuel for an approach and missed approach at your destination.
-Filling with visibility and ceiling: Your plan does not need to include fuel for a missed approach.

84
Q

Visibility and cloud clearance requirements for airspace A?

A

None.

85
Q

Visibility and cloud clearance requirements for airspace B, C and D?

A

3 SM in all.
Clear of clouds in B.
500’ below, 1000’ above and 2000’ laterally in C and D.

86
Q

Visibility and cloud clearance requirements for airspace E and G below 10,000’ MSL?

A

3 SM.
500’ below, 1000’ above and 2000’ laterally.

87
Q

Visibility and cloud clearance requirements for airspace E and G at or above 10,000’ MSL?

A

5 SM.
1000’ below, 1000’ above, 1 SM laterally

Instrument (1 decks)

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