Plaque Modification Devices Flashcards by Riyanna Day

What is the primary coating material of the crown in the Diamondback 360-degree OA system?

A) Titanium
B) Stainless steel
C) Diamond
D) Teflon

C) Diamond

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What is the range of crown sizes available for the Diamondback 360-degree OA system?

A) 0.5–1.5 mm
B) 1.25–2.00 mm
C) 2.0–3.5 mm
D) 1.0–2.5 mm

B) 1.25–2.00 mm

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What type of motion does the crown exhibit in the Diamondback 360-degree OA system?

A) Rotational only
B) Oscillatory
C) Elliptical
D) Linear

C) Elliptical

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How does the elliptical motion of the crown benefit the procedure?

A) It creates deeper cuts and allows for better plaque removal.
B) It prevents any heat dissipation.
C) It reduces blood flow during the procedure.
D) It prevents the crown from making contact with the artery wall.

A) It creates deeper cuts and allows for better plaque removal.

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What is the rotational speed range of the crown in the Diamondback 360-degree OA system?

A) 40,000–100,000 rpm
B) 80,000–200,000 rpm
C) 100,000–250,000 rpm
D) 50,000–150,000 rpm

B) 80,000–200,000 rpm

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How does the Diamondback 360-degree OA system compare to rotational atherectomy (RA)?

A) It has a higher risk of entrapment.
B) It generates larger particulate matter.
C) It allows for greater blood flow and heat dissipation.
D) It has a lower velocity range.

C) It allows for greater blood flow and heat dissipation.

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Why does the Diamondback 360-degree OA system theoretically have a lower risk of entrapment compared to RA?

A) It uses a different type of energy.
B) The elliptical motion allows for better maneuverability.
C) The crown does not make contact with the plaque.
D) The system operates at a much lower speed.

B) The elliptical motion allows for better maneuverability.

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What is one advantage of the Diamondback 360-degree OA system over RA in terms of debris production?

A) It generates larger particles.
B) It produces smaller particulate matter.
C) It prevents any debris formation.
D) It dissolves plaque completely.

B) It produces smaller particulate matter.

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How should operators confirm the presence of calcium before performing OA?

A) By using optical coherence tomography (OCT) only
B) By ensuring calcium is present on both sides of the arterial wall via fluoroscopy or IVUS
C) By performing an angiogram without additional imaging
D) By palpating the artery manually

B) By ensuring calcium is present on both sides of the arterial wall via fluoroscopy or IVUS

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What type of guidewire is used for OA instead of the RotaWire?

A) WhisperWire
B) ViperWire
C) PilotWire
D) Hi-Torque Balanced Middleweight

B) ViperWire

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How far should the operator keep the OA crown from the distal end of the ViperWire?

A) At least 10 mm
B) No restriction exists
C) Within 1 mm
D) At least 5 mm

D) At least 5 mm

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What is the main difference between the flushing solutions used in OA and RA?

A) OA uses ViperSlide, while RA uses RotaFlush
B) Both use the same flushing solution
C) RA does not require a flushing solution
D) OA uses saline, while RA uses heparinized solution

A) OA uses ViperSlide, while RA uses RotaFlush

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What happens in the OA system if the flush flow is interrupted?

A) The system automatically disables
B) The operator must manually restart the procedure
C) The system continues to operate without issue
D) The device slows down but does not stop

A) The system automatically disables

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What is the recommended motion for advancing the OA crown?

A) Rapid forward thrusts
B) A pecking motion
C) Slow continuous advancement
D) A rapid oscillatory motion

C) Slow continuous advancement

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What is a key difference between OA and RA in terms of procedural motion?

A) OA prefers a pecking motion, while RA prefers slow continuous advancement
B) OA uses slow continuous advancement, while RA uses a pecking motion
C) Both systems require the same technique
D) RA uses rapid forward thrusts while OA uses oscillatory movements

B) OA uses slow continuous advancement, while RA uses a pecking motion

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What are the potential complications of OA?

A) OA has completely different complications from RA
B) OA has no known complications
C) OA has similar complications to RA
D) OA has fewer complications due to its unique motion

C) OA has similar complications to RA

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Have any randomized controlled trials (RCTs) compared OA and RA in PCI?

A) Yes, multiple RCTs have been conducted
B) Only one RCT has been completed
C) No, there have been no RCTs comparing OA and RA
D) RCTs have compared OA and RA, but results are inconclusive

C) No, there have been no RCTs comparing OA and RA

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What type of study design was used in the meta-analysis by Khan et al. comparing OA and RA?

A) Randomized controlled trials
B) Retrospective studies
C) Prospective cohort studies
D) Case reports

B) Retrospective studies

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What did Khan et al.’s meta-analysis conclude about major adverse cardiac events (MACE) when comparing OA and RA?

A) OA had significantly fewer MACE than RA
B) RA had significantly fewer MACE than OA
C) There was no difference in overall MACE between OA and RA
D) OA had a significantly higher rate of MACE

C) There was no difference in overall MACE between OA and RA

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Which procedural factor was found to be lower in OA compared to RA?

A) Contrast volume
B) Stent deployment time
C) Fluoroscopy time
D) Lesion preparation time

C) Fluoroscopy time

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What complication had higher odds in OA compared to RA?

A) Stent thrombosis
B) Coronary dissection and perforation
C) Device entrapment
D) Myocardial infarction

B) Coronary dissection and perforation

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What is the typical guide catheter size required for both rotational atherectomy (RA) and orbital atherectomy (OA)?

A) 5-French
B) 6-French
C) 7-French
D) 8-French

B) 6-French

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Which access routes are commonly used for both RA and OA?

A) Radial or femoral
B) Brachial or femoral
C) Radial only
D) Femoral only

A) Radial or femoral

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Which atherectomy technique is preferred for severe aorto-ostial lesions?

A) Orbital atherectomy
B) Rotational atherectomy
C) Both are equally preferred
D) Neither is effective

B) Rotational atherectomy

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Why is OA contraindicated in the presence of a stent? A) The crown cannot pass through stented segments B) OA causes excessive heat buildup C) The elliptical motion increases the risk of stent deformation or damage D) OA is not strong enough to modify in-stent restenosis

C) The elliptical motion increases the risk of stent deformation or damage

Which atherectomy system has a wire that is more user-friendly and comparable to workhorse wires? A) Rotational atherectomy B) Orbital atherectomy C) Both have similarly difficult-to-use wires D) Neither system uses a dedicated wire

B) Orbital atherectomy

What feature in RA facilitates easier burr insertion and removal? A) Dynaglide mode B) Glide assist feature C) Foot pedal control D) Auto-lock system

A) Dynaglide mode

Which atherectomy technique is preferred for larger vessels due to superior debulking? A) Rotational atherectomy B) Orbital atherectomy C) Both are equally effective D) Neither technique is suitable for large vessels

B) Orbital atherectomy

Which system is better suited for navigating tortuous vessels? A) Rotational atherectomy B) Orbital atherectomy C) Both are equally suited D) Neither system is ideal for tortuous anatomy

A) Rotational atherectomy

In which direction does the cutting motion occur in OA? A) Forward only B) Backward only C) Both forward and backward D) Side-to-side

C) Both forward and backward

How has foot pedal control changed in newer RA systems (Rota-Pro)? A) It has been completely replaced by an advancer knob B) It is still required for operation C) It has been replaced by voice control D) The foot pedal is now optional

A) It has been completely replaced by an advancer knob

What is the primary purpose of both RA and OA in PCI? A) To remove all plaque completely from the artery B) To treat soft plaque lesions before stenting C) To modify heavily calcified vessels before stent deployment D) To replace the need for stents in calcified vessels

C) To modify heavily calcified vessels before stent deployment

What is the main indication for RA in coronary interventions? A) Treatment of restenotic lesions B) Plaque modification of severely calcified de novo coronary lesions C) Primary treatment for soft plaque lesions D) Sole therapy without the need for stenting

B) Plaque modification of severely calcified de novo coronary lesions

When is RA most suitable according to intravascular imaging? A) When the calcium is deeply embedded into the vessel wall B) When the calcification is mostly superficial C) When the lesion is non-calcified D) When the vessel has previously been stented

B) When the calcification is mostly superficial

How can RA be utilized in lesion preparation? A) As an upfront strategy only B) Only when other techniques fail C) Either as an upfront strategy or as a secondary approach if initial dilation fails D) Only for treating in-stent restenosis

C) Either as an upfront strategy or as a secondary approach if initial dilation fails

In what scenario is OA particularly advocated? A) When the vessel is completely occluded B) When the calcium is more deeply embedded in the vessel wall C) When intravascular imaging shows no significant calcification D) When the lesion is primarily fibrotic rather than calcified

B) When the calcium is more deeply embedded in the vessel wall

Compared to a secondary approach, what advantages does an upfront atherectomy strategy offer? A) Lower procedure time B) Reduced fluoroscopy time C) Decreased contrast volume and likelihood of stent loss D) All of the above

D) All of the above

How does the safety of RA compare to OA? A) RA is significantly safer than OA B) OA is significantly safer than RA C) Safety appears comparable between the two approaches D) Neither technique is considered safe for PCI

C) Safety appears comparable between the two approaches

1. When is RA contraindicated? A) When treating aorto-ostial lesions B) When the lesion is balloon-uncrossable C) When a guidewire cannot pass through the occlusion D) When treating heavily calcified native coronary arteries

C) When a guidewire cannot pass through the occlusion

Why is RA preferred for balloon-uncrossable lesions? A) Because it uses side ablation B) Because it allows for forward ablation C) Because it reduces procedure time significantly D) Because it eliminates the need for stenting

B) Because it allows for forward ablation

What is the primary risk associated with performing RA in degenerative saphenous vein grafts? A) Increased risk of perforation B) Ineffectiveness in modifying plaque C) Higher chance of device malfunction D) Increased risk of guidewire entrapment

A) Increased risk of perforation

Can RA be performed in previously placed stents? A) No, RA is strictly contraindicated in all stents B) Yes, RA can generally be done safely in old stents C) Yes, but only if the stent is recently placed D) No, because it increases the risk of restenosis

B) Yes, RA can generally be done safely in old stents

What risks are associated with performing RA in recently placed stents? A) Burr entrapment B) Distal embolization C) Stent distortion D) All of the above

D) All of the above

How can the risk of burr entrapment be mitigated when performing RA in recently placed stents? A) By using higher burr speeds B) By using lower burr speeds C) By avoiding RA in all cases D) By using a larger burr size

A) By using higher burr speeds

What is often required after RA in recently placed stents due to stent disruption? A) Use of a drug-eluting balloon B) Stent reimplantation C) Administration of thrombolytic therapy D) Avoidance of further stenting

B) Stent reimplantation

What is the main structural feature of a cutting balloon used in CBA? A) A single, sharp-edged burr B) Three to four stainless steel atherotomes C) A rotating diamond-coated crown D) A high-pressure inflatable balloon without blades

B) Three to four stainless steel atherotomes

How thick are the atherotomes on a cutting balloon? A) 0.01–0.05 mm B) 0.1–0.4 mm C) 0.5–1.0 mm D) 1.5–2.0 mm

B) 0.1–0.4 mm

What is a key advantage of CBA over conventional PTCA? A) It requires higher inflation pressures B) It reduces barotrauma and neointimal proliferation C) It completely removes plaque from the vessel D) It prevents restenosis better than drug-eluting stents

B) It reduces barotrauma and neointimal proliferation

What do the atherotomes do during inflation of the cutting balloon? A) They expand the vessel by fully fracturing the plaque B) They create controlled microincisions in the plaque C) They remove plaque through suction D) They dissolve the plaque using chemical agents

B) They create controlled microincisions in the plaque

Why does CBA theoretically have a lower chance of vessel dissection compared to PTCA? A) The incisions are contained within the plaque and do not extend beyond its radius B) The cutting balloon applies uniform pressure to the vessel wall C) The device uses a lower inflation volume D) The blades are designed to cut through all layers of the vessel

A) The incisions are contained within the plaque and do not extend beyond its radius

What is the name of the cutting balloon device manufactured by Boston Scientific? A) AngioSculpt B) Chocolate Balloon C) Wolverine Cutting Balloon D) Diamondback 360

C) Wolverine Cutting Balloon

How many atherotomes (microsurgical blades) does the Wolverine Cutting Balloon have? A) One or two B) Three or four C) Five or six D) Seven or eight

B) Three or four

How far do the atherotomes protrude from the surface of the Wolverine Cutting Balloon? A) 0.001 inches B) 0.003 inches C) 0.005 inches D) 0.01 inches

C) 0.005 inches

What is the primary purpose of the atherotomes in the Wolverine Cutting Balloon? A) To completely remove plaque from the vessel B) To create initiation sites for crack propagation in the plaque C) To dissolve calcified plaque using chemical agents D) To perform atherectomy by suctioning plaque debris

B) To create initiation sites for crack propagation in the plaque

What is a key requirement when inflating the Wolverine Cutting Balloon to avoid vessel injury? A) Inflation should be rapid to prevent recoil B) Inflation should be done very slowly (typically 1 atm every 5 seconds) C) Inflation should be performed with the highest possible pressure immediately D) Inflation should be done using a rotating motion

B) Inflation should be done very slowly (typically 1 atm every 5 seconds)

What are the available lengths of the Wolverine Cutting Balloon? A) 4 mm, 8 mm, and 12 mm B) 5 mm, 10 mm, and 20 mm C) 6 mm, 10 mm, and 15 mm D) 7 mm, 14 mm, and 21 mm

C) 6 mm, 10 mm, and 15 mm

How does the Wolverine Cutting Balloon compare to the AngioSculpt and Chocolate balloons? A) It has a lower crossing profile and inflates more rapidly B) It has a higher crossing profile and requires slower inflation C) It is more flexible and can navigate tortuous vessels easily D) It is used primarily for drug delivery rather than lesion modification

B) It has a higher crossing profile and requires slower inflation

Why are cutting balloons more difficult to deliver compared to conventional balloons? A) They are more flexible B) They are larger in diameter C) They are less flexible due to the presence of atherotomes D) They require higher inflation pressures

C) They are less flexible due to the presence of atherotomes

What technique can be used to facilitate the delivery of a cutting balloon? A) Using a larger initial balloon for inflation B) Predilating the lesion with a 1.5- or 2-mm conventional balloon C) Advancing the cutting balloon without a guidewire D) Rapidly inflating the balloon upon crossing the lesion

B) Predilating the lesion with a 1.5- or 2-mm conventional balloon

How should inflation of the cutting balloon be performed? A) Rapidly, to ensure immediate plaque modification B) Slowly, to allow for perpendicular deployment of atherotomes C) In a pulsing manner, to fragment the plaque D) With a foot pedal control for greater precision

B) Slowly, to allow for perpendicular deployment of atherotomes

What technique can help when encountering difficulty in crossing a lesion? A) Partially inflating the cutting balloon while advancing through the lesion B) Using a larger diameter cutting balloon from the start C) Using a foot pedal for controlled inflation D) Rotating the balloon rapidly within the lesion

A) Partially inflating the cutting balloon while advancing through the lesion

What additional support technique can be used for challenging lesions within a stent or tortuous segment? A) Using a double guide catheter B) Using a 0.014-inch buddy wire for additional support C) Increasing inflation pressure beyond the recommended levels D) Avoiding the use of guidewires

B) Using a 0.014-inch buddy wire for additional support

How can guidewire bias in tortuous vessels be minimized? A) Using a Wiggle wire B) Using a larger cutting balloon C) Removing the guidewire before inflation D) Rapidly inflating the balloon before crossing

A) Using a Wiggle wire

Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of CBA? A) Atherotome fracture or retention B) Vessel perforation C) Device "winging" upon deflation D) Complete removal of plaque without residual stenosis

D) Complete removal of plaque without residual stenosis

What measure can help mitigate complications such as vessel perforation and atherotome retention? A) Ensuring a balloon-to-vessel ratio of 1:1 B) Using the largest possible balloon size C) Inflating the balloon as quickly as possible D) Exceeding the recommended inflation pressures

A) Ensuring a balloon-to-vessel ratio of 1:1

What is the recommended technique for deflating and retrieving the cutting balloon? A) Deflating rapidly to prevent vessel trauma B) Slowly deflating before pulling negative pressure prior to retrieval C) Removing the balloon while still inflated to maximize effect D) Keeping the balloon partially inflated for easier retrieval

B) Slowly deflating before pulling negative pressure prior to retrieval

How can optimal angiographic results be achieved with CBA? A) Using rapid inflation and deflation cycles B) Performing multiple slow inflations maintained over 60 to 90 seconds C) Using the highest recommended pressure for the balloon D) Avoiding multiple inflations to reduce vessel trauma

B) Performing multiple slow inflations maintained over 60 to 90 seconds

What is a key feature of the AngioSculpt Scoring Balloon? A) It has a diamond-coated crown for plaque ablation B) It has a nitinol spiral element with three spiral struts C) It uses a noncompliant balloon with linear struts D) It uses a drug-eluting coating for plaque modification

B) It has a nitinol spiral element with three spiral struts

How does the flexibility of the AngioSculpt Scoring Balloon compare to the CBA catheter? A) It is less flexible and harder to cross lesions B) It is more flexible, providing better crossing capability C) It is equally flexible as the CBA catheter D) It is more rigid, providing greater plaque fracture capability

B) It is more flexible, providing better crossing capability

What type of balloon does the AngioSculpt Scoring Balloon use? A) Noncompliant balloon with linear struts B) Semi-compliant balloon with spiral struts C) Fully compliant balloon with rotating blades D) Non-compliant balloon with diamond coating

B) Semi-compliant balloon with spiral struts

What is the potential benefit of the AngioSculpt Scoring Balloon compared to direct stenting or conventional PTCA? A) It has a lower rate of restenosis B) It results in greater stent expansion C) It eliminates the need for stent placement D) It provides more effective plaque removal

B) It results in greater stent expansion

Are there any randomized trials evaluating the use of the AngioSculpt Scoring Balloon in coronary intervention? A) Yes, randomized trials have shown its effectiveness B) No, currently there are no randomized trials for its use in coronary intervention C) Yes, randomized trials support its use in direct stenting D) No, but there are several randomized trials for its use in peripheral interventions

B) No, currently there are no randomized trials for its use in coronary intervention

What types of lesions have devices like the CBA balloon proven useful for? A) Calcified coronary lesions only B) Bifurcation lesions, ostial lesions, and in-stent restenosis (ISR) C) Small vessel lesions D) Uncrossable lesions only

B) Bifurcation lesions, ostial lesions, and in-stent restenosis (ISR)

What is a challenge when performing routine PTCA for bifurcation lesions? A) Vessel rupture B) Plaque shift and high restenosis rates C) Difficulty in guiding the catheter D) Increased risk of stent migration

B) Plaque shift and high restenosis rates

How does the CBA balloon help reduce plaque shift and neointimal proliferation in bifurcation lesions? A) By using higher inflation pressures B) By making larger incisions to remove plaque C) By using lower inflation pressures and microincisions D) By using drug-eluting coatings on the balloon

C) By using lower inflation pressures and microincisions

What is one advantage of using the CBA balloon over PTCA for treating ostial lesions and ISR? A) Reduced balloon slippage (watermelon seeding) B) Easier to navigate through tortuous vessels C) Higher inflation pressures for faster dilation D) The ability to remove plaque completely

A) Reduced balloon slippage (watermelon seeding)

What is the effect of reduced balloon slippage (watermelon seeding) when using devices like the CBA balloon? A) Increased risk of dissection B) Lower trauma to healthy vessel tissue beyond the target lesion C) Increased vessel dilation D) Higher risk of restenosis

B) Lower trauma to healthy vessel tissue beyond the target lesion

In which type of calcification are plaque modification balloons considered more effective? A) Superficial and nodular calcifications B) Deep wall calcifications C) Mixed calcifications D) Highly stenotic lesions

B) Deep wall calcifications

Which of the following lesion types is most suitable for atherectomy rather than plaque modification balloons? A) Superficial and nodular calcifications B) Small side branch ostia C) Chronic total occlusions (CTOs) D) Relatively small, less calcified lesions

A) Superficial and nodular calcifications

What advantage do plaque modification balloons provide when preparing smaller-sized side branch ostia? A) They increase the size of the main branch vessel B) They reduce watermelon seeding and injury to the main vessel branch C) They eliminate the need for stent placement D) They promote complete plaque removal

B) They reduce watermelon seeding and injury to the main vessel branch

What is a potential challenge of using plaque modification balloons due to their larger crossing profile? A) Increased risk of dissection B) Difficulty in delivering the balloon to the target lesion C) Difficulty in crossing narrow tortuous vessels D) Decreased vessel dilation effectiveness

B) Difficulty in delivering the balloon to the target lesion

In which situation is routine use of plaque modification balloons NOT indicated? A) In vessels smaller than 2 mm in size B) In lesions of moderate calcification C) For lesions less than 20 mm long D) For smaller side branch ostia

A) In vessels smaller than 2 mm in size

Which type of lesions are generally not suitable for plaque modification balloons? A) Short, moderately calcified lesions B) Heavily calcified lesions C) Small, non-calcified lesions D) Superficial lesions without calcification

B) Heavily calcified lesions

Why is routine use of plaque modification balloons not recommended for chronic total occlusions (CTOs)? A) Their large profile makes it difficult to cross the occlusion B) They cause significant vessel rupture in CTOs C) They are not effective for the removal of fully occluded tissue D) They increase the risk of balloon slippage in CTOs

A) Their large profile makes it difficult to cross the occlusion

1. The Shockwave coronary IVL system is conceptually based on which medical technology? A) Atherectomy B) Balloon angioplasty C) Kidney stone treatment D) Electrocautery

C) Kidney stone treatment

What is the function of the lithotripsy emitters in the IVL catheter? A) Emit heat to soften plaque B) Vaporize calcium through friction C) Create an electric spark that vaporizes the balloon’s saline/contrast mixture D) Drill into calcified plaque

C) Create an electric spark that vaporizes the balloon’s saline/contrast mixture

What type of wave is generated by the Shockwave IVL system to modify vascular calcium? A) Thermal wave B) Light wave C) Acoustic pressure wave D) Electrical wave

C) Acoustic pressure wave

What is the key advantage of the acoustic pressure wave generated by IVL? A) It selectively modifies vascular calcium while sparing soft tissue B) It fragments both calcium and soft plaque equally C) It dissolves thrombus D) It permanently stiffens the vessel wall

A) It selectively modifies vascular calcium while sparing soft tissue

5. What enables the IVL catheter to be used with standard coronary interventions? A) It inflates to over 20 atm B) It can be advanced over any standard workhorse guidewire C) It does not require a guidewire D) It is steerable without fluoroscopy

B) It can be advanced over any standard workhorse guidewire

What is the recommended balloon-to-vessel sizing ratio for IVL balloon use? A) 2:1 B) 1.5:1 C) 1:1 D) 0.8:1

C) 1:1

How is the IVL balloon inflated during treatment? A) To 10 atm for 30 seconds B) To 4 atm for 10 seconds C) To 8 atm for 5 seconds D) To 2 atm for 20 seconds

B) To 4 atm for 10 seconds

What is the maximum number of shockwave pulses delivered per IVL balloon? A) 40 B) 60 C) 80 D) 100

C) 80

Which of the following is a common but benign occurrence during ultrasonic impulse generation in IVL? A) Ventricular fibrillation B) Ventricular ectopy C) Bradycardia D) Asystole

B) Ventricular ectopy

What did the Disrupt CAD I and CAD II trials show about IVL? A) High risk of vessel perforation B) Poor stent expansion C) High procedural success and low MACE rates D) Frequent embolization and no-reflow

C) High procedural success and low MACE rates

Compared to concentric calcific lesions, eccentric calcifications may require: A) No energy pulses B) Fewer pulses due to plaque thickness C) More shock pulses due to directional wave limitations D) Different catheter sizing

C) More shock pulses due to directional wave limitations

Which of the following statements is TRUE about IVL? A) It is contraindicated in all calcified lesions B) It is widely used in CTOs C) Its ideal lesion or patient profile is not yet fully known D) It cannot be used in eccentric lesions

C) Its ideal lesion or patient profile is not yet fully known

What wavelength of ultraviolet (UV) light does the ELCA system use? A) 200 nm B) 300 nm C) 400 nm D) 500 nm

B) 300 nm

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of plaque ablation by ELCA? A) Photothermal vaporization B) Photochemical dissociation C) Photoacoustic tissue ejection D) Cryogenic freezing

D) Cryogenic freezing

What is the purpose of saline infusion during ELCA ablation? A) To cool the laser B) To dilate the vessel C) To mitigate vapor bubble formation D) To deliver more energy to the lesion

C) To mitigate vapor bubble formation

What is the recommended saline infusion rate during ELCA ablation? A) 1 mL/sec B) 2–3 mL/sec C) 5 mL/sec D) 10 mL/sec

B) 2–3 mL/sec

What is a key safety recommendation when selecting laser catheter size? A) It should match the vessel diameter B) It should be larger than the vessel to maximize ablation C) It should be less than two-thirds the reference vessel diameter D) Size selection does not affect safety

C) It should be less than two-thirds the reference vessel diameter

What is the risk associated with contrast injection during laser activation? A) Vessel dilation B) Bradycardia C) Reduced efficacy D) Increased vessel wall damage (off-label use)

D) Increased vessel wall damage (off-label use)

In which of the following clinical scenarios is ELCA FDA-approved and potentially effective? A) Deep wall calcification B) Coronary artery aneurysm C) SVG lesions and ostial lesions unsuitable for RA/OA D) Chronic kidney disease

C) SVG lesions and ostial lesions unsuitable for RA/OA

Which lesion subset has shown promise for ELCA in recent clinical experience? A) Large thrombus burden B) ISR with underexpanded stents due to calcified plaque C) Native bifurcation lesions D) Tortuous non-calcified vessels

B) ISR with underexpanded stents due to calcified plaque