PIQ EOCT Flashcards
Don't suck at flying
1
Q
The APU and EPU supply electrical power to the ____ and ______ of the aircraft, respectively. (think opposite of the physical APU position)
A
Left and Right sides
2
Q
The transformer / rectifiers perform the function of what? (think transforming something to something else)
A
Converting AC power to DC power.
3
Q
When using the DC electrical system, the __________ configuration is the normal mode for operation.
A
Split-parallel
4
Q
Which generator buses are the normal sources of power for the battery chargers? (the san diego chargers record this season)
A
1 and 4
5
Q
Which of the following buses is always powered even if the battery switch is OFF?
A
Battery-direct buses
6
Q
Which position of the avionics bus switch (AV BUS)
enables automatic load shedding when the aircraft is
on the ground with inadequate cooling? (would you want to waste brain bites on shedding or have it happen AUTOmatically?)
A
AUTO :)
7
Q
Which component(s), during emergency/ backup system operations, converts DC power into AC power for the AC emergency bus? (think of what un-does the job of the transformer / rectifier?)
A
Static inverter
8
Q
Power for the backup emergency system is provided by the what? (assume your generators shit the bed, what still has JUICE?)
A
The damn Aircraft batteries
9
Q
Which of the following emergency/backup
system buses can be used to remove partial
power requirements from the batteries after
initial critical actions have been taken?
A
AC/DC Transfer Buses
10
Q
What should be done if the battery bus fails?
A
Land as soon as possible
11
Q
If a GEN OIL caution message appears on the WAP, the corrective action is to what? (so in theory you have a generator running with fucked up oil, what should you do?)
A
Turn the generator off
12
Q
If all generators fail, what capability becomes inoperative with a subsequent failure of one of the remaining flight control computers (either FCC 1 or 4) or IRUs (1 or 4)?
A
Yaw damping
13
Q
When performing the Electrical Fire and Smoke checklist (which seeks to identify and isolate the source of the smoke/fire), pause after doing what?
A
Pause after each step which de-powers a portion of the jet….
[you have to be able to act and observe the reaction of shutting down each portion of the moose to solve the problem]
14
Q
The engine-driven hydraulic pumps provide continuous hydraulic pressure of ______ psi.
A
4,000 psi
15
Q
The engine-driven hydraulic pumps are located
where? (bruhh where have the ENGINE DRIVEN pumps always been located since UPT?)
A
In the respective engine Accessory Gearbox
16
Q
There are _______ engine driven hydraulic pump(s) per system, located on and driven by their respective engine accessory gearbox.
A
Two
17
Q
The primary purpose of the _____ pump is to assist in landing gear retraction or cargo door/ramp closing in the event of No. 2 or 3 engine loss.
A
Transfer
18
Q
The RAT, located in the right landing gear pod, develops enough pressure to control the aircraft
for what phase of flight?
A
All engine-out emergencies
19
Q
During ground operations, you have been using
hydraulic system 1 without any engines running. The
MASTER CAUTION light comes on as well as the
HYD cue light and a LOW in the Sys 1 Aux pump
switch light. You should conclude that you have what? (the key word here is w/o engines running… which pump do we use w/o engines on the ground?
A
Failure of AUX pump 1
20
Q
Hydraulic transfer pump automatic shut off may be
caused by what?
A
Low quantity condition in system 2 or 3
21
Q
If the hydraulic system pressure increases above 4200 psi, depressurize the pumps how?
A
One at a time,
22
Q
The primary source of oxygen for the crew system is one _______ liquid oxygen converter(s).
A
25-Liter
23
Q
The oxygen cross-feed switch is used to do what?
A
Connect the crew and passenger oxygen systems
24
Q
The CREW OXY LOW warning illuminating on the WAP indicates the oxygen quantity or pressure is _______ or _______?
A
quantity remaining is less than 5 liters or
supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi.
25
T/F: When positive pressure is required, the oxygen
mask must be well fitted to the face to prevent rapid depletion of the oxygen supply? (ie: if you need oxygen, the mask should fit snug?)
True
26
During normal operation, what position will the oxygen regulator levers be in?
- SUPPLY lever:
- DILUTER lever:
- EMERGENCY lever:
SUPPLY lever: ON
DILUTER lever: 100%
EMERGENCY lever: NORMAL
27
The normal pressure for the oxygen system is what range?
285-430 psi
28
The passenger oxygen system contains one ___ liter primary converter and one_____ liter auxiliary converter.
75 primary and 75 auxilary
29
The oxygen control panel for the passenger/ auxiliary oxygen system is located at the _____ loadmaster station. (would it make sense for our 1 loadmaster to have to walk back to BFE to adjust O2 levels?)
Forward LM station
30
For aircraft with extended range tanks, what is
| the total fuel load with JP-8?
245,208.00 lbs
31
You are transferring fuel from tank 1 to tank 2. The tank 1 transfer pump is on. To complete the transfer, you would press the tank __________ switchlight.
Number 2 "FILL"
32
To move fuel from a tank to a different engine, you would press the ________ switchlight (s).
X-FEED
33
How does the INBOARD tank fuel scheduling system move fuel around? (simplest terms, what direction to what direction?)
Moves fuel from aft compartment to forward
| feed box in the inboard tanks.
34
The automatic fuel management system has gone off schedule. Which FUEL MGT light comes on to warn you of this malfunction?
"SCHD" on the WAP
35
Two caution annunciators illuminate if the fuel quantity falls below 16,000 pounds. One annunciator is located on the warning and caution annunciation panel. Where is the other located?
Total fuel indicator (pilot's side on the shroud of the totalizer)
36
If a single tank indicator is inoperative, the TOTAL FUEL LBS indicator shows what?
Still shows correct fuel regardless of that rogue tank indicator.
[Food for thought, how can you still see whats in that tank? MC fuel pages and/or adding up the 3 "good" gauges and subtracting that value from the correct total of all 4 tanks.]
37
If both channels of the fuel quantity system fail, what 2 indicators will illuminate?
MASTER CAUTION illuminates along with a
| FUEL QTY SYSTEM annunciation.
38
The OBIGGS removes oxygen from the fuel tanks and replaces it with ____ enriched air.
Nitrogen
39
Which 3 things would cause the OBIGGS to shut down automatically?
a) Throttles are advanced for takeoff
b) Airspeed is over 80 knots with the gear not
up and locked
c) Engine No. 2 or No. 3 is in reverse thrust
40
The fuel dump system dumps fuel at approximately how many pounds / minute?
6,700 pounds / minute
41
Above 20,000 feet, fuel __________ may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure.
Dump
42
If a malfunction occurs during fuel dump, fuel dump
| must be manually terminated to preclude the possibility of what?
Emptying a tank
43
If one of the fuel dump valves does NOT open when the fuel dump switch is ON, you need to open something to un-fuck the situation... what do you open?
The separation valve!
44
Which valve needs to be set to the CLOSE position when using both fuel receptacles to refuel the aircraft?
The separation valve!
45
Shut down the refueling operation immediately if the ______light comes on during refueling.
Vent box overfill
46
On the new pressurization panel, the cabin altitude gauge does something weird, what is it?
The gauge indicates negative cabin altitude when
| needle is left of zero.
47
When the crew needs to manually control the flight deck temperature, they use the __ switch.
"FLT COMPT"
48
When flying through contaminated airspace, will the air used for avionics cooling be also contaminated or totally fine?
Contaminated like your toilet after some bad mexican food.
49
What warning will the pilots receive if the avionics
| area temperature gets too high?
MASTER CAUTION light and aural AVIONICS
| OVERHEAT message
50
What does the WAP message "ENV PANEL INOP" mean?
Both channels of environmental panel have failed,
| but all controls are still operational.
51
While performing the cruise checklist you see the
MASTER WARNING light and TRIM AIR MANIFOLD on the WAP. At the same time, you hear MANIFOLD FAIL. What is your first action?
Press the TRIM AIR switchlight off.
52
You have an avionics overheat situation while still on
| the ground. If the avionics cool down requires extensive time, [and want to preserve battery life] what do you do?
Turn off the IRUs to prevent draining the batteries.
53
If avionics overheat persists after placing AVIONICS
COOL ORIDE in the OPEN position with the air conditioning pack (s) on, what do you do with respect to the avionics check valve?
Turn the avionics check valve handle toward the
| open position until the valve is completely open.
54
If avionics overheat occurs on the ground and air conditioning is NOT available, what do you do with respect to electrical power?
do not remove electrical power from the
| aircraft.
55
T/F: If one or more pressure relief valves are open, and if the differential pressure is below 7.8 psi and decreasing, descend to 25,000 feet or less.
True
56
Standby pressurization procedures are used if? (2 reasons)
both auto pressurization controllers fail
OR
loss of all generators occurs.
57
If passenger oxygen masks are deployed using the
DROP switchlight below 12,500 feet cabin altitude,
each emergency oxygen regulator SURGE MODE
lever must be positioned to _________ to provide
passenger oxygen.
"MAN ON"
58
T/F: Place radar in STBY if cabin altitude is above
| 20,000 feet to prevent equipment damage.
True
59
During the Smoke/Fumes in the Aircraft checklist procedures, if the aircraft is below ____ feet, the loadmaster must use the emergency regulator to start oxygen flowing.
12,500 feet
60
If all four over-pressure shutoff valves close while airborne, what systems will be lost?
Air conditioning and wing/engine anti ice
61
In case of a manifold failure, what will you see and hear?
a CAWS atenson sounds, ENV cue appears on
WAP, manifold fail lights illuminate, and CAWS
sounds "MANIFOLD FAIL."
62
The bleed air temperature is __________ by the ESC when the anti-ice system is turned on.
Increased
63
What does a CHECK WING A/I message on the MCD indicate?
Wing anti-ice selection differs from MCD’s TOLD DATA
64
While flying at cruise altitude, you see the MASTER
CAUTION light, an ENV cue on the WAP, BLEED TEMP 1 on the WAP, and the 1 ENG DISAG light on the environmental control panel. What has happened?
High bleed air temperature has occurred, ESC has shut down No.1 engine bleed air.
65
You are at FL 370 when the left MANIFOLD FAIL light comes on, and the ESC isolates the left manifold.
What should you do?
Accomplish the Main Manifold Failure checklist. Wowww, that's a stupid ass question...
66
T/F: When attempting to regain air after a main manifold failure, if the MANIFOLD FAIL warning recurs when opening a bleed valve, leave that valve open and operate the system normally.
False
67
As you reduce power to begin a descent, you see the
MASTER WARNING light, the ENV cue on the WAP, and a MANIFOLD FAIL light on the environmental control panel. You also hear the voice warning, MANIFOLD FAIL. What is the problem?
Main manifold failure
68
When do the radar altimeters come on? Come alive? Power up? etc
Automatically when the aircraft is electrically powered
69
The pushbutton to select the radar altimeter scale on the PFD is located where?
On the AFCS panel, right side.
70
CAT II message annunciations displayed in the scratchpad mean what?
Advise that a condition affecting the operation of the
| mission computer or COMM system exits.
71
The “*” symbol next to a line on the MCD screen means what?
The indicated function will be initiated when the
| associated line select key is pressed.
72
An arrow symbol pointing towards data on a line on the MCD screen means what?
Pushing the associated line select key will toggle
through the values or choices indicated on the label
line.
73
T/F: If the mission bus control is lost, navigation emitter control is unavailable from the NAV EMITTER CONTROL and the NAV SENSOR TACAN/ADF pages?
True
74
T/F: Permanent degraded mode will not distract from the normal cockpit flight operations.
False
75
Which is NOT an externally supported component of the radio navigation system?
IRS
76
Which of the following must be done to display beacon information in either PPI or ND formats of the
MFD?
The BCN pushbutton on the MFC must be enabled. (ie: double-tap that beacon button like a big boy)
77
Which color makes you shit your pants the heaviest, which represents the heaviest precipitation on WX radar returns?
Red
78
At a range of up to __________ nautical miles, the
sensitivity time control (STC) on the radar panel automatically controls the receiver sensitivity, enabling the weather returns to appear as large and as dense as the storms actually are.
80 NM
79
The MFD displays the test pattern for which of the following options?
Weather Radar. (you're looking for all the rainbow bullshit as well as the shift, all MFDs must show proper test patterns)
80
With the function selector switch in OPR (operate),
| which controls determine the radar's mode of operation?
The toggle switch next to the function selector
| switch and the MFC/MFD pushbuttons
81
In which radar mode is the beam switch disabled and a pencil beam automatically selected?
Weather (WX)
82
The MFDs are set to ND, ENG, chart, and PFD and
neither RDR nor BCN are selected at the MFC. The
radar’s function selector switch is set to OPR/WX.
What is the radar status?
The radar system is in an idle state.
83
Ensure all personnel are clear of the antenna radiation hazard area before placing the radar's function selector switch to what?
OPR
84
Two IRUs are located where?
On the right side floor, forward of the galley.
85
Which statement concerning the IRU battery(ies) is true?
Each IRU has its own battery which will supply 30
| minutes of operation when all other power sources fail.
86
To use the stored heading alignment mode in the inertial reference system, you must do a complete _________ alignment prior to shutting down the aircraft.
Gyrocompass
87
The BATH alignment is only available when you are beyond the latitudes ________ degrees ________ minutes north or south.
77°, 45 min
88
Pressing the SEC PLN pushbutton on the MFC displays the secondary flight plan where?
On the ND Map
89
If a NAVAID is also a waypoint on the flight plan, you can call it up on the ND map DISPLAY by doing what?
Pushing the FLT PLN button on the MFC.
90
If an airport is an origin or destination on the primary flight plan and FLT PLN is selected on the MFC, the airport is shown as what?
A magenta runway symbol on the ND MAP. (we see it every time we're about to takeoff, its those 2 small parallel lines with the runway number)
91
The course line selected with the CRS 1 for the MAP display represents what?
The course selected at the CNC for VOR 1.
92
If EXCESS appears in the upper right corner of the ND MAP format, it means what?
Too many symbols have been selected for display.
| It just may eat its own shit momentarily.
93
To change the selected radio on the VHF/UHF backup control panel, use the ____ then press ENTER.
RT select switch
94
The control panel used for backup communications
| is located where?
Upper left overhead panel
95
T/F: When the VHF/UHF backup control panel is powered on, the selected communication radio can still be tuned at the CNC.
False
| pretty sure it will say "remote" at the CNC
96
T/F: Each CCU is a backup controller for the other so that failure of one CCU has no significant effect on the IRMS.
True
97
Frequencies and channels are changed using the
| ____ line of the _____side of the CNC.
Bottom , STBY
98
T/F: The XFER switch on the CNC alternates active
| (right) and standby (left) frequency or channel and tunes the radio to the new active frequency.
True
99
T/F: Pressing the GRD (guard selector) button on the CNC immediately replaces the active frequency of the radio displayed with the emergency frequency for that radio.
True
100
T/F: The CARGO INTPH ISOL system can be activated/deactivated at either the cockpit or loadmaster panel.
True
101
T/F: When the Communication Switch Panel Backup Audio switch is in the ON position, headsets and microphones controlled by the forward loadmaster ICS panel are slaved to the pilot’s ICS panel and monitor only the Backup controlled radio.
True (too long to be wrong)
102
Regardless of what is displayed on the MCD, pressing the _________ key will display the COMM/NAV Summary page.
COMM
103
On the COMM INDEX page 1, LSK 6L QUICK ON/OFF is a rapid means of powering/depowering ALL radios.
True
104
To activate the microphones for the cargo compartment, which of the following must be selected on the COMM EMITTER page 2 at LSK 2L?
ALL
(how would we even know this answer w/o referencing the actual emitter control page?) stupid question....
105
T/F: During VHF/UHF Backup Control operations, the CCU does not control the radio and all CNC and MCD function for that radio are inhibited.
True
| sort of a repeat question from before about how the CNC panel eats shit while the backup head is in use
106
If the localizer mode is armed, and the selected
CNC course is set to within +/- _________ degrees, mode capture and track performance should be satisfactory. [ie: the moose should capture the course properly and not violate your ass]
+/- 5 degrees
107
On a circling approach, the flaps should be extended to the final setting and airspeed reduced to VAPP when?
As required based on conditions
[in the sim we've been making a level-turn off the perch and both rolling final flaps and slowing to Vapp, BUT not descending until we see at least 1 white on the PAPIs]
108
For a CAT II ILS approach in the C-17, decision height (DH) is always based on what? (ie what will you always set as the DH from the approach plate?)
DH is always based on the radar altimeter (RA setting).
[so on that CAT II IAPD, this will be that first number you see in the minimums section after "RA"] Reference KCHS ILS RWY 15 CAT II for an example
109
Which of the following is a legitimate aircraft equipment requirement for CAT II ILS operations?
Dual ILS/MLS receivers
110
T/F: You are cleared for an actual CAT II ILS. As an aircraft commander with 50 hours in command, you can fly this approach. [emphasis on the number 50]
False
(If you look in AFI 11-2C-17V3, Chapter 6, section 6.42.6.1 it states that "...The AC must have logged at least 100 hours in command since AC certification.")
111
According to this display [not pictured here but apparently the jet is drifting outside the lateral confines of the approach], on a CAT II ILS approach, you should what?
Execute a missed approach due to lateral
| deviation, if the runway is not in sight.
112
Automatic (AUTO), computed (COMP), or manual (MANUAL) MLS mode is selected on what page?
On the MCD NAV SENSORS-MLS page.
113
If operating in manual mode [for an MLS approach] and the pilot selects a course and/or glideslope different from the published procedure, what does this mean concerning the approach? [think big picture safety-wise]
The actual approach flown no longer guarantees
obstacle clearance.
[you can't build-a-bear workshop your own MLS approach....noob smh]
114
T/F: Computed MLS approaches have the following
note in the plan view of the approach plate: "COMPUTED APPROACH: FOR USE BY AIRCRAFT CAPABLE OF COMPUTING OFFSET RUNWAY CENTERLINE" ?
True
[too long to be wrong, also that's an unfair question if you don't have access to an actual MLS approach]
115
Once the MLS channel is in AUTO or COMP mode, course and glidepath information are only displayed if what?
Only if the MLS is active.
[in this case the term "active" means when you are within capture criteria or distance(s) similar to a glideslope becoming "active"]
116
The press-to-reset function of the MASTER WARNING light enables what?
Enables the fire warning system to indicate a subsequent hazardous condition.
[I think this is a broad question, conceptually, about the benefit of resetting a press-to-reset light]
117
If the MASTER CAUTION light, the LOOP cue on the WAP, and a single amber LOOP light illuminate, it could be an indication of what?
A loop malfunction OR a fire warning
[in the sim we've seen this, and when we tested the OTHER loop, it tested fine! SO we could surmise that it was a malfunction, as BOTH loops need exposure to a fire for that indication to be valid]
118
In the engine fire detection system, assuming all loops
| operative, to trigger a fire alarm, how many loops must be exposed to fire for that alarm to sound?
BOTH loops MUST be exposed to a fire
119
The MASTER CAUTION, LOOP cue, and #2 ENG LOOP A lights are on. The No. 2 ENG LOOP A is turned off and LOOP B is tested. All Loop B lights illuminate indicating LOOP B works. What does this mean?
[consider what we JUST talked about concerning requirements for a valid fire indication]
Loop A is faulty and no fire exists.
120
After the fire handle is pulled for an engine fire, the
| ENG light on the fuel panel stays on until you do what?
Turn off the fuel shutoff switch.
121
If the fire handle has been pulled and the fire goes out, the fire handle light will do what?
Go out as well
122
To select reverse thrust, move the throttles to what range?
Move the throttle levers to the reverse thrust
| range.
123
Which method of driving the pneumatic starter uses air pressure from another aircraft?
The Buddy Start :)
124
The ENGINE START switches [more like buttons] are located on the ________ panel.
Pilot's overhead panel
125
T/F: During APU start and operation, the exhaust does NOT represent a personnel hazard.
False
[this is literally one of the enumerated considerations prior to APU start; to ensure that personnel and vehicles are clear of the APU and wearing appropriate hearing protection]
126
When in the vicinity of an operating APU, you should wear what?
Ear protection.
127
T/F: All APU starts using the alert APU START button [the one right by the crew entrance door] will be fire guarded by ground personnel.
True
128
The AUTO SHT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdowns except what 2 conditions?
Fire and Overspeed.
129
You are in the cargo compartment and the APU is running. Suddenly, you hear the APU warning horn. What does the horn indicate?
APU fire
130
What [action] is used for emergency operation to allow
restart of the APU after an automatic shutdown has occurred, in order to provide bleed air pressure for
an engine start? [ie what do you need to do for a restart?]
Push the AUTO SHT DN ORIDE.
[top left overhead panel]
131
[regarding an APU start] In addition to the MASTER CAUTION light and the APU cue light, the indication you receive for above normal EGT reading is what?
The HOT light.
132
The APU OIL indication on the WAP may mean the APU oil is what?
APU oil Px is low
133
During an APU fire, the warning and caution annunciation panel will display what?
APU cue.
134
An APU fire will be indicated on which 3 panels?
APU control, aft left loadmaster, and single point
| refueling
135
If the No. 3 hydraulic system's engine driven pumps
become inoperative, but system integrity and fluid is
available, hydraulic power to retract the gear can be
provided by the No. 3 auxiliary pump and/or the XFER pump utilizing which hydraulic system pressure?
System 2
136
T/F: The C-17 has a total of 12 main gear wheels.
True
[3 sets of 2 per side]
137
Normal extension and retraction of the gear is electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated by
pressure from the ______hydraulic system.
Number 3
138
Each main gear unit has a total of _____doors?
4
139
When the gear is in transit, each gear indicator is _____ and the gear handle is __________.
Red and Red
140
T/F: To manually override the locking mechanism,
| the lock release button must be depressed WHILE raising the gear handle.
True
141
What is your action if you receive a momentary unsafe indication of the gear while on the ground?
Ignore these transient indications
[for some reason these can happen in various circumstances, so don't worry as as long as it is momentary]
142
Full rudder pedal movement permits a maximum of ______ +/-2 degrees (either side of center) of nose wheel steering.
10 Degrees +/- 2
143
Do not exceed _____degrees nose wheel angle when
gross weight exceeds 490,000 pounds, and taxi speed
exceeds 20 knots to prevent landing gear side load
damage.
20 Degrees
144
T/F: The steering bypass valve must be returned to
| normal after towing to allow steering for taxi and takeoff.
True
145
If a gear malfunction occurs while lowering the gear, recycle the gear.
False
[we've got checklists for when the gear eats ass on extension...sucking it up could cause damage to the wheel well if some rods or metal parts are sticking out]
146
T/F: For any gear malfunction, visually inspect the
| affected gear to confirm damage or proper alignment of red fluorescent band on down- lock links.
True
147
During a Freefall Extension of the main landing gear on one side, which gear is lowered first?
Forward gear
148
T/F: If you receive an unsafe gear indication, but visual inspection confirms the gear to be down and locked, the unsafe indication may be disregarded.
True
[this is the same note from every jet we've ever flown smh]
149
T/F: If making a landing with nose gear retracted, when should you come on the brakes? [so to speak]
After the nose has contacted the runway.
[think about it, if you apply brakes any time before that, the moose would lurch forward and slam the nose down like Thor's hammer]
150
When ALT BRAKE IN USE is displayed on the WAP, which hydraulic system is powering the brakes?
System 3
151
If ANTISKID INOP is displayed on the WAP, what is the crew response?
Select ANTI-SKID INOP on the NON-STD
| CONFIG page of TOLD
152
When using the alternate brake system, increase mission computer generated landing or ground roll distance by _____ percent.
25%
153
There are ____smoke detectors on the C-17.
22
154
Which switch is used to check the operation of ALL the smoke detectors and where is it located?
TEST/ARM/OFF switch on the overhead panel
155
T/F: If the smoke detectors are tested from the forward loadmaster station, the avionics smoke/overheat ground warning horn is inhibited?
True
156
When smoke is detected, the appropriate smoke detector light illuminates. What other visual indications are there?
SMOKE cue on the WAP accompanied by a MASTER CAUTION
157
The __________ checklist should always be accomplished if smoke is filling the pressurized portion of the aircraft.
Smoke/Fumes in the Aircraft checklist
[most every associated checklist directs you to accomplish this one first before proceeding with THAT checklist]
158
The warning and caution annunciation panel (WAP) does what? [big picture what does it do?]
The WAP displays visual warning, caution, and advisory
messages for various systems throughout the
aircraft.
159
Which type of message on the WAP indicates a hazardous condition that requires immediate corrective action? [think big picture, lights and colors of lights and what they mean etc]
Master Warning
160
New CAUTION messages on the WAP must be acknowledged by pressing the __________ before they can be scrolled manually from the caution annunciation zone.
MASTER CAUTION light
161
If both Warning and Caution Computers [WCCs] fail or if the WAP fails, the_______ illuminates.
WACS FAIL light
[note the difference in terminology between WACS and WCCs, the Warning and Caution System and Warning and Caution Computer]
162
After a caution message [on the WAP] has been acknowledged, the ________ disappears.
Acknowledgement identifier symbol
[this is the little word that comes up on the WAP to assist in identifying the zone of the issue]
163
The two panels at the forward loadmaster station that provide warning and caution information are the DOOR/STATUS panel and the ________ panel.
Cargo smoke detection system panel.
164
T/F: The GPWS test function is available only when
| weight is on wheels.
True
165
“Too Low Gear” will sound below 500 feet and when the flaps are < or = to 1⁄2 detent in Mode 4A and 4B.
False
166
Mode 4A “Too Low Gear” will sound below ______ feet when flaps are < or = 1⁄2 detent.
500 Feet
167
Dust particles or residue from damaged optical sensor converters (OSCs) may contain what?
Hazardous materials.
168
The missile warning system (MWS) contains _____ optical sensor converters.
4 converters
169
The missile warning system (MWS) detects a missile fired at the aircraft and provides warning signals to the pilot through the ______?
Control indicator
[pretty sure the control indicator is the little screen aft-left of the throttle quadrant that lights up when we pre-flight the system]
170
The missile warning system (MWS) is energized by
| pressing the control indicator ______ switch.
Power switch
171
For a built-in-test (BIT) of the Counter Measure Dispensing System (CMDS) to occur, the mode switch may be in any position except __________ or BYP.
Off
172
T/F: Automatic dispensing of expendable inventory
| will occur when LO is displayed on the countermeasures dispensing system (CMDS) control display unit.
False
173
Primary pitch control is accomplished under normal conditions through the movement of what flight surface?
Four elevators (two on each side).
174
The Integrated Flight Control Module (IFCMs) have three modes of operation; electronic control, mechanical control, and _________ control.
Float
175
If all four engines fail, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)-driven
| hydraulic pump powers hydraulic system __________ and its associated flight controls.
System number 4
176
The control stick uses __________ and force sensors for input to the FCCs.
Position sensors
177
Under normal conditions, elevators are controlled by what means?
Signals to the IFCMs from the flight control
| computers.
178
The ailerons and spoilers provide ____ control?
Roll
179
For the ROLL switches on the FCS actuator panel, the
| PART position adjusts what?
Adjusts a ratio changer in the mechanical mode.
180
As part of the electronic flight control system, IFCMs receive command signals for the flight control surfaces from the control stick and rudder pedal force sensors via the __________? [what processes those signals?]
Flight control computers
181
The angle of attack limiter system is operational only when ________ is operational? [think about what electronic thing needs to be operational to regulate the moose in his PITCH axis?]
Pitch EFCS
182
Which pitch EFCS mode is considered primary and active during most phases of flight other than takeoff, approach/landing, and airdrop?
Pitch rate command / attitude hold
183
Beyond 37° of bank, the pitch rate command roll submode does what?
Activates a flashing 'ALS' (attitude loss submode)
| on the PFD.
184
What does a flashing 'EOCS' annunciation on the HUD and PFD indicate? [on takeoff]
The Engine Out Compensation System has engaged
| during takeoff to aid in directional control.
185
In the pitch attitude command/attitude hold (PACAH)
| mode, what maintains the pitch attitude?
Autotrim
186
Stab trim handles allow direct mechanical backup control of the __________ if electronic control fails.
Horizontal stabilizer
187
When flying in the mechanical mode adjusting the conventional aileron displacement trim causes the
spoilers to retract and the aircraft responds by doing what?
Rolling in the opposite direction of the trim input.
188
Rudder trim is accomplished by doing what?
Turning the knob on the alternate trim
panel.
[this is the only way to implement rudder trim]
189
For rudder trim, the ALTN position of the TRIM SEL switch does what so that its actually "alternate"?
Uses a separate electrical source.
190
Hydraulic systems 1 and _________ power the flaps.
4
191
Hydraulic systems 2 and _________ power the slats.
3
192
The __________ detent on the flap/slat handle is used for takeoff.
1⁄2 flap (slats extended)
193
T/F: Flight for extended periods above 250 KCAS with the slats extended can cause damage to the wing leading edge access panels.
True
[too long to be wrong]
194
With a “FLAP IN BACKUP” WAP message indicating the flaps are under the control of the analog backup unit, what does this mean to us about extension and/or retraction?
The flaps can be retracted to any position but
| cannot be re-extended.
195
A pilot selectable mode of the spoiler control system (Direct Lift Control switch / Speed Brake slide) is what?
Speedbrake control
196
For the roll augmentation mode, the spoilers receive signals from the __________ via the SC/EFCs.
Flight control computers
197
Sliding the __________ switch forward or aft and holding it there deploys the spoilers for direct lift control.
DLC/SBK slide
198
The spoiler selector knob on the ______must be set to the ARM position to arm the automatic ground spoiler rejected takeoff mode.
AFCS control panel
199
Under the spoiler bias control modes, when is throttle augmentation active? [no idea what this means]
When the flap handle is in the 3⁄4 detent or greater
200
Attempting an EFCS RESET can cause what?
An aircraft transient.
[the actual fuck does that mean?? a transient??]
201
After performing an EFCS RESET, how do you know
| if the failure was resettable?
The flight control related WAP annunciations
| extinguish.
202
T/F: To avoid loss of elevator surface control reset
| capability, hydraulic pressure should be available before EFCS reset is attempted more than two times.
True
[too long to be wrong]
203
If a control stick becomes jammed and sufficient force is applied to the stick, what mode will that axis go into?
The affected axis will go into the "force" mode and
remain under electronic control.
[makes sense, because you are FORCING it to take your inputs]
204
What are the first several steps for a STABILIZER MOTION CAWS alert while airborne? [we're looking for a certain speed-gate and initial action]
Quickly slow to 280 KCAS to VMMA, maintain aircraft
| control, and split the STAB TRIM handles.
205
What is the first action for a PITCH AUTHORITY warning? [again, we're looking for a certain speed-gate and initial action]
Quickly reduce airspeed to below 280 KCAS and
| split the STAB TRIM handles.
206
During a pitch runaway recovery, if the pitch change
continues after releasing the STAB TRIM handles
from the split position, do what?
Depressurize hydraulic systems 1 and 4.
207
Which EFCS mode uses a snapshot of the last valid air data information to schedule control surface deflections?
FCC FROZEN GAINS mode
208
How is the FIXED GAINS mode entered?
Press the EFCS button repeatedly while in
| FROZEN GAINS mode
209
BONUS: What the actual fuck is Frozen Gains?
[hint frozen in time]
BLUF: this is a protective mode to allow flight in EFCS to continue with reduced capability... Basically, this occurs when the Flight Control Computer (FCC) receives jacked-up signals from any 3 ADC channels for the same parameter... With SAT out of range, the FCC receives 4 invalid TAS signals at or above 70KTAS, so when this happens, a SNAPSHOT of the last valid air data info is captured.
210
BONUS: What the actual fuck is FCC Fixed Gains?
BLUF: this is the protective mode that YOU can put the FCC into by repeatedly pressing the EFCS Reset button, once already in frozen gains, to place it into Fixed Gains. SO now you're getting mad gains, and the FCCs assume the moose is AT placarded speeds associated with the current flap/slat handle position for the overall purpose of elevator and aileron control.
211
Which control on the AFCS panel engages the ATS into speed select mode? [this dumbass question is asking what you press to ENGAGE the speed you've spun-in]
Speed SEL Knob
212
The thrust armed and engaged modes always appear in which corner of the HUD?
Upper left
213
Pressing the _________ pushbutton directs the ATS to move the throttles to the selected EPR LIMIT. [emphasis on the LIMIT portion of this statement]
EPR
214
T/F: Pressing the MACH/IAS momentary action pushbutton toggles the selected value shown in the speed window between THR and PCH.
False
[there is a completely separate button for that]
215
With NORM selected on the ROLL RATE switch on the AFCS control panel, the roll rate limit is _____ degrees per second.
5 degrees / second in normal
216
T/F: The LNAV pushbutton arms/dearms or engages
| the AFCS into the lateral control mode selected on the NAV switch corresponding to the PILOT ID switch.
True
[too long to be wrong!]
217
Pressing the ___________ pushbutton [on the AFCS panel] engages altitude hold mode, which maintains the current altitude.
ALT HOLD
218
Rotating the __________ to zero engages altitude hold mode. [same function as ALT HOLD]
Vertical speed command wheel
219
What does a flashing “VV-400” symbol in the pitch or
| thrust engaged FMA indicate?
Vertical speed mode has been engaged without an
altitude armed.
[sometimes when you engage al altitude, even though you absolutely pressed it in firmly, it won't "take" so the VVI flips a bitch and flashes at you until you engage it again]
220
T/F: With the autopilot or flight director engaged,
| anytime you move the vertical speed wheel more than 200 fpm, vertical speed mode will engage?
True
[basically this question seeks to address the fact that you need at least a 200fpm VVI to climb or descend]
221
Rotating the altitude SEL knob during altitude capture causes the vertical flight path mode to revert to what? [consider that you're un-doing the altitude capture by changing the alt, so you're going back to what mode?
Vertical speed
222
Selecting a zero V/S when in vertical speed mode engages ____ mode. [so you're climbing or descending to an armed altitude and then have a mid-life crisis and set that pitch wheel to 0, what mode kicks in?]
Altitude hold
223
What happens if you push the ALT HOLD pushbutton
on the AFCS panel while the pitch FMA is engaged in
'VV+1200'? [reason through this, what is the most logical answer? what will you see?]
The aircraft will level off and 'ALT HOLD' will
| engage in the pitch FMA.
224
Which vertical flight path mode reduces airframe structural loading by reducing control activity during rough weather?
Turbulence
225
T/F: The bank angle selector governs the roll rate. [can a BANK angle governor keep tabs on the ROLL rate?]
False
[there's a separate switch for that]
226
T/F: If heading hold is selected while the aircraft is
| in a bank, the AP or F/D guides the aircraft to wings level.
True
227
Pressing the split axis pushbutton after the AP is engaged allows the pilot to manually control the ________ axis?
Roll axis
228
Which mode provides pitch guidance for initial climbout?
Takeoff
229
Which mode directs a missed approach?
Go-around
230
During engine start, which part of the hydraulic system is normally on? [think about the reverse-J and the pumps / systems you normally have on before you start an engine]
Auxiliary pump
231
Which of the following could result if an engine is started with the engine-driven hydraulic pumps on?
A hung start
232
Before cold weather takeoffs [this is talking about before taking off, not engine start], warm up the engine until the oil temperature is at or above ______ degrees C.
50 degrees C
233
How many consecutive engine start attempts are allowable without a cooling period between attempts?
Two
234
If the engine start button fails to stay in during an engine start, what is your first action? [visually]
Check to see if an ignition source is
| selected.
235
If during engine start, the starter valve light doesn’t illuminate, stop the start and fix the________ before proceeding with the start.
Problem
[really?? the answer to this question is "problem", this is why we can't have nice things....]
236
Assume the starter valve will NOT close after engine
| start (light remains illuminated). Which of the following actions could result in a starter failure?
Shutting down the engine before removing the bleed
| air supply.
237
During an engine start, you select ON with the engine shutoff switch and notice a fuel flow of 450 PPH. THIRTY seconds later there is still no increase in EGT. Which of the following is true? [remember how many seconds you have for EGT to rise...]
You should have discontinued the start 10 seconds earlier.
238
If, during engine start, the engine does not accelerate to idle RPM, your first action is to do what? [remember what Bernie said about start sequences]
Stop the start
239
During an engine start, the fuel flow is 750PPH and the EGT is rapidly rising. What should be done?
Stop the start to preclude a Hot start
240
What is the correct action if low oil pressure is still indicated 2 minutes after engine start? [you're no longer in the "start sequence" phase, so stop-start doesn't apply]
Shut down the engine
241
During the Tailpipe Fire procedures, when should you pull out the engine starter switch?
30 seconds after the fire has gone out
[so initially we shut off fuel and allowed the engine to motor right?? the starter still needs to turn to blow out the fire, and you can stop it from turning 30 seconds after the fire is fully extinguished]
242
What condition would require an immediate engine shutdown? [DOV Says Please Fly Extremely Safe Today]
Engine Seizure
243
What resource within the MC can be used to determine the correct driftdown airspeed and altitude following an engine failure at cruise?
Engine-out cruise page in the mission computer.
244
The driftdown procedure is designed to safely do what, with respect to altitude?
lower the aircraft's altitude to the 2 or 3
| engine cruise ceiling.
245
During an air start when should procedures for minimizing engine wear be used?
If the engine is inoperative for more than 2 minutes
246
Complete failure of the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) causes what?
The engine to flame-out
247
Assume that an electronic engine control (EEC) failure has occurred and the affected engine is operating in the N2 mode. At what percent will the engine "lockout" during an overspeed condition?
86 percent
[you'll just have to memorize this one]
248
AA – CX w/o 1097 – The N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all displays are blank. Assume ____ has occurred.
Catastrophic engine failure
249
Assume an engine has experienced a compressor
| surge/stall. What is the first step you should accomplish?
Reduce thrust to idle on the affected engine.
250
If a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys or fails to stow in flight, what should you do?
Reduce power and airspeed to help reverser stow.
251
While performing four engine flameout procedures, if airspeed is allowed to slow below ________ KCAS or N2 RPM is allowed to decrease below 10%, a starter assisted airstart is REQUIRED.
250 KCAS
252
Which of the following should NOT be attempted if an engine has been shut down because of an engine fire or failure unless a greater emergency exists? [ie: what will you NOT do with fire, fod or frozen etc]
Airstart
253
The first step in building a flight plan on the mission computer is to enter basic flight plan information (origin, destination, etc.) on the ________ page.
ROUTE DATA
254
A DISCONTINUITY is added to the flight plan each
| time a waypoint is added unless something already exists... what is that "something"?
unless a DISCONTINUITY already exists below the place
| where it is inserted.
255
Soft waypoints such as a speed limit of 250 knots at
| 10,000 feet are entered where and how?
Entered in the appropriate location automatically by the mission computer.
256
Assume VKA is the entered waypoint. If it is not recognized by the database, it will be displayed as what?
?VKA
257
Selecting any key on the left side of the MCD next to a hard (numbered) waypoint will display the ________ page.
LAT FPLN AT
258
To make a revision to altitude or speed associated with a waypoint, you would use what button?
A right line select key on the MCD.
259
Access to the HOLD page is from the LATERAL ___________ page.
REVISION AT
260
A turn point (T-P soft waypoint) is added when a waypoint is entered from the ___________ key.
DIRECT TO key
261
BONUS: What the actual fuck, is the differnce between a Soft waypoint and a Hard (numbered) waypoint?
A SOFT waypoint is calculated by the MC vertical profile based on mission requirements, aircraft performance characteristics and flight conditions. ie: top of descent, top of climb, DZ exit point etc.
A HARD waypoint is a waypoint that is NOT adjusted when vertical profile calculations are made. In other words, we can think of it like a point over the ground to define a location, opposed to a SOFT point which defines a point in the vertical or lateral flight planning.
262
An ABEAM waypoint is a consequence of a _________ entry.
DIRECT TO
263
T/F: The spoilers will remain armed until selected off on the AFCS panel.
True
264
T/F: Taxiing with flaps/slats extended deflects the engine exhaust toward the ground possibly burning asphalt surfaces and/or causing FOD.
True
[too long to be wrong]
265
If thrust rating was set prior to engaging TOGA, it will default to __________ when the button is pushed.
MAX
266
If the RAMP elevation is unknown, the altimeter comparison check may be accomplished where?
At a known elevation point at the airport prior to takeoff.
267
Which checklist(s) do you use when an Engine Running Offload (ERO) is to be accomplished?
Operational Stop checklist
268
T/F: Explosives and munitions rigged for airdrop may be combat offloaded without HQ AMC/DO approval.
True
269
To reduce aircraft oscillation during combat offload operations on an excessively rough surface, reduce the __________ speed.
Forward taxi speed
[which makes sense if you think about it, because the slower you go, the less severe the vibration or oscillations would be]
270
To combat offload, a surface of at least ________ feet is required.
1,000 feet
271
```
The maximum speed to which the aircraft can accelerate and then stop in the ___________ is
refusal speed (VR).
```
Runway available
272
Given the following values: Refusal speed (VR) is equal to 130 kts, rotation speed (VROT) is equal to 125 kts, and maximum brake energy speed (VBMAX) is equal to 135 kts, what is go speed (VGO)? [remember the S1 equation]
Vgo = 125 kts
273
A safe takeoff may be made when the ____ is equal to or greater than _________.
Runway available; critical field length (CFL)
[ie: you have more runway at your disposal than is required in your TOLD calculations]
274
BONUS JONAS: What exactly defines CFL and RWY avail?
CFL: the total length of runway required to accelerate on all engines to Vcef, experience an engine failure and either continue to liftoff or stop in the remaining RWY.
RWY avail: The lowest of TORA, ASDA, LDA. We don't use TODA because it includes clearways.
275
T/F: If a takeoff is discontinued after GO speed, you
| may not be able to stop on the runway.
True
276
If you had two thrust reversers in the stowed position, what would be required concerning takeoff calculations?
Enter this information on the NON-STD CONFIG page so the mission computer can use it for calculations.
277
The maximum groundspeed that a tire can withstand during takeoff or landing (no corrections) is called what?
Tire-placard speed
278
T/F: In planning climbout, you must always consider the loss of an engine at the most critical point during takeoff to provide for obstacle clearance and climb capability.
True
[too long to be wrong]
279
Derated Thrust (DRT) is an acceptable power setting for takeoff when what? Otherwise MAX power must be used for T/O... [think TOLD considerations]
Critical field length (CFL) is equal to, or less than, runway available.
280
Which action is performed if an observed/reported
| severe windshear condition exists at takeoff? [by AT takeoff, the question means BEFORE you full-send it]
Delay takeoff until shear subsides.
[ain't nobody trying to knowingly fuck with windshear]
281
During a rejected takeoff, what do we care about as it pertains to asymmetrical reverse thrust?
Asymmetrical reverse thrust should be used
| with caution.
282
In the rejected takeoff procedure, what is the first action accomplished by the pilot flying (PF)? [remember the montra "throttles, brakes, throttles, brakes"]
Move throttles to REVERSE IDLE.
283
What actions should be performed if brakes overheat during a high energy rejected takeoff? [think logically]
Taxi aircraft clear of the runway, do not set parking brakes, evacuate if necessary, approach overheated brakes from front or rear only, and chock nosewheels.
284
T/F: If the N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all displays are blank, this could indicate a catastrophic engine failure. Normal fire indications may not be present due to damage from engine seizure. The Emergency Engine Shutdown checklist must be performed.
True
[far too long to be wrong]
285
Assume an engine has failed during takeoff and
| the takeoff is continued. In this situation, what will the roll bar command?
Existing heading at nosewheel lift off
286
The tactical descent airspeed schedule is what in terms of MACH and KCAS?
0.80 MACH to 320 KCAS
287
The speed at which the main gear touches the ground is the ___________ speed.
Touchdown
288
A threshold crossing height of _____ feet is used when computing landing distance. [same as the T-1]
50 Feet
289
Under the same wind conditions, landing at a higher altitude requires a __________ landing distance.
Longer
[higher PA means thinner air which means less air molecules for the skin of the moose to grab onto and slow down]
290
Which item listed below would require an INCREASE to the landing distance computation?
Tailwind
291
T/F: Landing is permitted with tailwinds greater than 10 knots or headwinds greater than 40 knots.
False
[BOTH of those are ops-limits]
292
T/F: Approach speed is the speed used on final approach with the flaps and slats extended and
gear down.
True
[worded poorly, it should say "with the aircraft configured to land" because you can still land without flaps or slats, ie: in an emergency which precludes either from extending]
293
T/F: Landing with touchdown speed greater than tire
limit speed may result in tire failure. The resulting ground stopping performance and directional control is unpredictable.
True
[too long to be wrong]
294
T/F: Elevated initial brake temperature reduces the
maximum energy absorption capacity of the brakes. Exceeding this limit could result in melted fuse plugs and the inability to stop the aircraft in the runway available.
True
[too long to be wrong]
295
After retarding the throttles for an en route descent, descend at __________ MACH until reaching __________ KCAS with the landing gear and
slats/flaps retracted.
0.74 MACH / 310 KCAS
296
Which of the following effects can be a result
of holding Direct Lift Control (DLC) for long periods in
close proximity to the ground? [think about a scenario down final where you're riding the DLC too much]
Excessive sink rates
297
Do not reverse any engine that displays an ________ message on the WAP. Severe engine stall may occur.
ENG STABILITY X
298
Which action can help prevent asymmetrical conditions during landing procedures assuming normal operations?
Using caution when applying reverse thrust
299
During an approach to assault landing, use throttles as necessary to position the FPV at –1.5 to – 2.0 degrees to establish a touchdown descent rate of approximately ___________ fpm.
360 fpm
300
What should you do when you recognize the presence
| of a windshear as either the PF or PM or LACM or RACM?
Announce “WINDSHEAR” to the crew so proper
| PF and PNF actions can be taken.
301
During windshear conditions on takeoff or landing below 200 ft AGL, do not exceed ________ pitch unless a sink rate exists.
15 Degrees
302
During a go-around, what action is performed when a positive rate of climb is established?
Retract landing gear
303
During a touch and go landing, when should the throttles be advanced for takeoff?
Not until the flaps are at 1/2
304
Touch and go landings are performed with ________ armed.
Auto Ground Spoilers (AGS)
305
For an engine-out landing, what is the normal flap setting? [what setting have ALL our engine-out sims been at per the checklist?]
3/4 Flaps
306
During landing with one engine inoperative, which engine throttles are placed in reverse IDLE? [RTFQ]
All engines
[the note you're thinking of applies to only symmetrical BEYOND reverse idle]
307
When the decision is made to do a 3-engine go-around, do what in terms of procedures?
Use normal go-around procedures.
308
If the pitch axis is in mechanical (PART MECH) mode, what must now be selected to permit FULL control authority at flap settings greater than 1⁄2?
FULL MECH
309
T/F: The vertical stabilizer may become overstressed by large or abrupt rudder pedal inputs.
True
310
For a no slat landing with flaps, what is the flap setting on final approach?
3/4 Flaps
311
If flap asymmetry is caused by mechanical jam or loss of hydraulics, what will be the status of the flaps?
The flaps will be locked in place.
312
Which action should NOT be performed during a no flap/no slat landing? [hint: without flaps/slats you have waaay less lift authority at the surface]
Flare the aircraft just before touchdown.
313
When landing with the nose gear retracted, which of the following would be an appropriate procedure to
follow/perform? [in terms of the nose gear's contact with the runway]
The nose should be lowered smoothly while elevator control is still effective.
314
Assume you are landing with the nose gear retracted.
When should the pilot place the throttles to reverse
idle?
After the nose has made contact with the
| runway.
315
When landing with the main gear retracted, nose gear
| extended, your outboard engine cowlings will likely touch the ground, what should you do before this happens?
Shut down outboard engine before the cowling
| touches the ground.
316
For an all wheels up landing, do what with the cabin PX and advise the LM to do what?
Depressurize and clear the LM to open doors during
| preparation steps.
317
During which of the following landing emergencies do you try to align the aircraft on the side of the runway with the good tires?
Flat tire (s) on main gear
[formerly known as blown main tire in the UPT world]
318
Two separate transmissions are required to alert/brief
| aircrew and passengers during an emergency because what is not possible?
Simultaneous transmissions on the interphone and
| passenger address system are not possible.
319
T/F: Crewmembers should silence any aural warning as soon as its cause has been identified and the warning acknowledged.
True
320
For which of the following engine problems would you use the Engine Fire/Emergency Engine Shutdown checklist? [remember DOV Says Please Fly Extremely Safe Today]
Uncontrollable Overspeed
321
The Fuselage Fire and Smoke checklist is designed primarily to suppress fires and eliminate smoke sources that are not of an ________ nature.
Electrical
322
A parachute or restraint harness is OPTIONAL for crewmembers opening doors/hatches in flight.
False
323
For structural damage associated with a wing, fuel dump should be avoided because of what?
Wing loading/bending.
324
Prior to cargo jettison, the crew should ensure what in regards to moose CG?
Allowable CG limits are not exceeded.
325
During cargo jettison procedures logistic locks may not release when deck angle exceeds __________ degrees.
1.5 Degrees
326
Where are the ( 2 ) crash axes located?
Crew rest area and cargo compartment
327
How many fire extinguishers are located on the
| aircraft?
9 Extinguishers
328
When CBrC1F2 decomposes, it can be hazardous. It can be recognized by its ___ odor.
Sharp acidic odor
329
Portable fire extinguishers are located in which
| areas?
2 in the cockpit
1 in the crew rest area
6 in the cargo bay
330
How close to the fire should you position the hand-held fire extinguisher?
8 Feet
331
How many emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) mounting brackets are installed on the C-17?
6
332
If the wiring to the cockpit emergency locator switch is severed or shorted during a crash, the emergency locator transmitter will
Still operate normally
333
The signal for immediate bailout is ___ ring (s).
One long
334
Under low level flight conditions, bail out at least __________ feet above the terrain.
2,000 feet
335
When bailing out, crewmembers shall make a very positive push to keep from contacting the what?
Fuselage
336
T/F: During ditching, stalling the aircraft during approach can possibly cause a wing to dig into
the sea and cartwheel the aircraft.
True
[too long to be wrong]
337
The standard signal for ditching is how many / what sequence of rings?
Six short rings and One long ring.
338
The primary ditching exit for crewmembers in the crew rest area and cockpit is the what?
Maintenance/ditching hatch.
339
How many flotation equipment deployment system (FEDS) initiators can be electrically armed?
Two
340
Where are the flotation equipment deployment system (FEDS) ditching ladders stowed?
Below each FEDS hatch
341
Do NOT activate flotation equipment deployment system (FEDS) hatches prior to the aircraft coming to rest because what may happen to the rafts?
Life rafts may be lost.
[nobody wants to blow their load early]
342
```
The transmission lines for the flotation equipment
deployment system (FEDS) are arranged so that __________ Initiator (s) can fire all four hatches.
```
One
