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C-17 PIQ End of Course > PIQ EOCT > Flashcards

PIQ EOCT Flashcards

Don't suck at flying

1
Q

The APU and EPU supply electrical power to the ____ and ______ of the aircraft, respectively. (think opposite of the physical APU position)

A

Left and Right sides

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2
Q

The transformer / rectifiers perform the function of what? (think transforming something to something else)

A

Converting AC power to DC power.

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3
Q

When using the DC electrical system, the __________ configuration is the normal mode for operation.

A

Split-parallel

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4
Q

Which generator buses are the normal sources of power for the battery chargers? (the san diego chargers record this season)

A

1 and 4

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5
Q

Which of the following buses is always powered even if the battery switch is OFF?

A

Battery-direct buses

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6
Q

Which position of the avionics bus switch (AV BUS)
enables automatic load shedding when the aircraft is
on the ground with inadequate cooling? (would you want to waste brain bites on shedding or have it happen AUTOmatically?)

A

AUTO :)

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7
Q 
Which component(s), during emergency/
backup system operations, converts DC power
into AC power for the AC emergency bus?  (think of what un-does the job of the transformer / rectifier?)
A

Static inverter

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8
Q

Power for the backup emergency system is provided by the what? (assume your generators shit the bed, what still has JUICE?)

A

The damn Aircraft batteries

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9
Q

Which of the following emergency/backup
system buses can be used to remove partial
power requirements from the batteries after
initial critical actions have been taken?

A

AC/DC Transfer Buses

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10
Q

What should be done if the battery bus fails?

A

Land as soon as possible

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11
Q

If a GEN OIL caution message appears on the WAP, the corrective action is to what? (so in theory you have a generator running with fucked up oil, what should you do?)

A

Turn the generator off

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12
Q

If all generators fail, what capability becomes inoperative with a subsequent failure of one of the remaining flight control computers (either FCC 1 or 4) or IRUs (1 or 4)?

A

Yaw damping

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13
Q

When performing the Electrical Fire and Smoke checklist (which seeks to identify and isolate the source of the smoke/fire), pause after doing what?

A

Pause after each step which de-powers a portion of the jet….

[you have to be able to act and observe the reaction of shutting down each portion of the moose to solve the problem]

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14
Q

The engine-driven hydraulic pumps provide continuous hydraulic pressure of ______ psi.

A

4,000 psi

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15
Q

The engine-driven hydraulic pumps are located

where? (bruhh where have the ENGINE DRIVEN pumps always been located since UPT?)

A

In the respective engine Accessory Gearbox

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16
Q

There are _______ engine driven hydraulic pump(s) per system, located on and driven by their respective engine accessory gearbox.

A

Two

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17
Q

The primary purpose of the _____ pump is to assist in landing gear retraction or cargo door/ramp closing in the event of No. 2 or 3 engine loss.

A

Transfer

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18
Q

The RAT, located in the right landing gear pod, develops enough pressure to control the aircraft
for what phase of flight?

A

All engine-out emergencies

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19
Q

During ground operations, you have been using
hydraulic system 1 without any engines running. The
MASTER CAUTION light comes on as well as the
HYD cue light and a LOW in the Sys 1 Aux pump
switch light. You should conclude that you have what? (the key word here is w/o engines running… which pump do we use w/o engines on the ground?

A

Failure of AUX pump 1

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20
Q

Hydraulic transfer pump automatic shut off may be

caused by what?

A

Low quantity condition in system 2 or 3

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21
Q

If the hydraulic system pressure increases above 4200 psi, depressurize the pumps how?

A

One at a time,

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22
Q

The primary source of oxygen for the crew system is one _______ liquid oxygen converter(s).

A

25-Liter

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23
Q

The oxygen cross-feed switch is used to do what?

A

Connect the crew and passenger oxygen systems

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24
Q

The CREW OXY LOW warning illuminating on the WAP indicates the oxygen quantity or pressure is _______ or _______?

A

quantity remaining is less than 5 liters or

supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi.

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25
Q

T/F: When positive pressure is required, the oxygen
mask must be well fitted to the face to prevent rapid depletion of the oxygen supply? (ie: if you need oxygen, the mask should fit snug?)

A

True

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26
Q

During normal operation, what position will the oxygen regulator levers be in?

  • SUPPLY lever:
  • DILUTER lever:
  • EMERGENCY lever:
A

SUPPLY lever: ON
DILUTER lever: 100%
EMERGENCY lever: NORMAL

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27
Q

The normal pressure for the oxygen system is what range?

A

285-430 psi

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28
Q

The passenger oxygen system contains one ___ liter primary converter and one_____ liter auxiliary converter.

A

75 primary and 75 auxilary

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29
Q

The oxygen control panel for the passenger/ auxiliary oxygen system is located at the _____ loadmaster station. (would it make sense for our 1 loadmaster to have to walk back to BFE to adjust O2 levels?)

A

Forward LM station

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30
Q

For aircraft with extended range tanks, what is

the total fuel load with JP-8?

A

245,208.00 lbs

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31
Q

You are transferring fuel from tank 1 to tank 2. The tank 1 transfer pump is on. To complete the transfer, you would press the tank __________ switchlight.

A

Number 2 “FILL”

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32
Q

To move fuel from a tank to a different engine, you would press the ________ switchlight (s).

A

X-FEED

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33
Q

How does the INBOARD tank fuel scheduling system move fuel around? (simplest terms, what direction to what direction?)

A

Moves fuel from aft compartment to forward

feed box in the inboard tanks.

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34
Q

The automatic fuel management system has gone off schedule. Which FUEL MGT light comes on to warn you of this malfunction?

A

“SCHD” on the WAP

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35
Q

Two caution annunciators illuminate if the fuel quantity falls below 16,000 pounds. One annunciator is located on the warning and caution annunciation panel. Where is the other located?

A

Total fuel indicator (pilot’s side on the shroud of the totalizer)

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36
Q

If a single tank indicator is inoperative, the TOTAL FUEL LBS indicator shows what?

A

Still shows correct fuel regardless of that rogue tank indicator.

[Food for thought, how can you still see whats in that tank? MC fuel pages and/or adding up the 3 “good” gauges and subtracting that value from the correct total of all 4 tanks.]

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37
Q

If both channels of the fuel quantity system fail, what 2 indicators will illuminate?

A

MASTER CAUTION illuminates along with a

FUEL QTY SYSTEM annunciation.

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38
Q

The OBIGGS removes oxygen from the fuel tanks and replaces it with ____ enriched air.

A

Nitrogen

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39
Q

Which 3 things would cause the OBIGGS to shut down automatically?

A

a) Throttles are advanced for takeoff
b) Airspeed is over 80 knots with the gear not
up and locked
c) Engine No. 2 or No. 3 is in reverse thrust

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40
Q

The fuel dump system dumps fuel at approximately how many pounds / minute?

A

6,700 pounds / minute

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41
Q

Above 20,000 feet, fuel __________ may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure.

A

Dump

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42
Q

If a malfunction occurs during fuel dump, fuel dump

must be manually terminated to preclude the possibility of what?

A

Emptying a tank

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43
Q

If one of the fuel dump valves does NOT open when the fuel dump switch is ON, you need to open something to un-fuck the situation… what do you open?

A

The separation valve!

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44
Q

Which valve needs to be set to the CLOSE position when using both fuel receptacles to refuel the aircraft?

A

The separation valve!

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45
Q

Shut down the refueling operation immediately if the ______light comes on during refueling.

A

Vent box overfill

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46
Q

On the new pressurization panel, the cabin altitude gauge does something weird, what is it?

A

The gauge indicates negative cabin altitude when

needle is left of zero.

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47
Q

When the crew needs to manually control the flight deck temperature, they use the __ switch.

A

“FLT COMPT”

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48
Q

When flying through contaminated airspace, will the air used for avionics cooling be also contaminated or totally fine?

A

Contaminated like your toilet after some bad mexican food.

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49
Q

What warning will the pilots receive if the avionics

area temperature gets too high?

A

MASTER CAUTION light and aural AVIONICS

OVERHEAT message

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50
Q

What does the WAP message “ENV PANEL INOP” mean?

A

Both channels of environmental panel have failed,

but all controls are still operational.

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51
Q

While performing the cruise checklist you see the
MASTER WARNING light and TRIM AIR MANIFOLD on the WAP. At the same time, you hear MANIFOLD FAIL. What is your first action?

A

Press the TRIM AIR switchlight off.

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52
Q

You have an avionics overheat situation while still on

the ground. If the avionics cool down requires extensive time, [and want to preserve battery life] what do you do?

A

Turn off the IRUs to prevent draining the batteries.

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53
Q

If avionics overheat persists after placing AVIONICS
COOL ORIDE in the OPEN position with the air conditioning pack (s) on, what do you do with respect to the avionics check valve?

A

Turn the avionics check valve handle toward the

open position until the valve is completely open.

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54
Q

If avionics overheat occurs on the ground and air conditioning is NOT available, what do you do with respect to electrical power?

A

do not remove electrical power from the

aircraft.

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55
Q

T/F: If one or more pressure relief valves are open, and if the differential pressure is below 7.8 psi and decreasing, descend to 25,000 feet or less.

A

True

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56
Q

Standby pressurization procedures are used if? (2 reasons)

A

both auto pressurization controllers fail
OR
loss of all generators occurs.

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57
Q

If passenger oxygen masks are deployed using the
DROP switchlight below 12,500 feet cabin altitude,
each emergency oxygen regulator SURGE MODE
lever must be positioned to _________ to provide
passenger oxygen.

A

“MAN ON”

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58
Q

T/F: Place radar in STBY if cabin altitude is above

20,000 feet to prevent equipment damage.

A

True

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59
Q

During the Smoke/Fumes in the Aircraft checklist procedures, if the aircraft is below ____ feet, the loadmaster must use the emergency regulator to start oxygen flowing.

A

12,500 feet

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60
Q

If all four over-pressure shutoff valves close while airborne, what systems will be lost?

A

Air conditioning and wing/engine anti ice

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61
Q

In case of a manifold failure, what will you see and hear?

A

a CAWS atenson sounds, ENV cue appears on
WAP, manifold fail lights illuminate, and CAWS
sounds “MANIFOLD FAIL.”

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62
Q

The bleed air temperature is __________ by the ESC when the anti-ice system is turned on.

A

Increased

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63
Q

What does a CHECK WING A/I message on the MCD indicate?

A

Wing anti-ice selection differs from MCD’s TOLD DATA

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64
Q

While flying at cruise altitude, you see the MASTER
CAUTION light, an ENV cue on the WAP, BLEED TEMP 1 on the WAP, and the 1 ENG DISAG light on the environmental control panel. What has happened?

A

High bleed air temperature has occurred, ESC has shut down No.1 engine bleed air.

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65
Q

You are at FL 370 when the left MANIFOLD FAIL light comes on, and the ESC isolates the left manifold.
What should you do?

A

Accomplish the Main Manifold Failure checklist. Wowww, that’s a stupid ass question…

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66
Q

T/F: When attempting to regain air after a main manifold failure, if the MANIFOLD FAIL warning recurs when opening a bleed valve, leave that valve open and operate the system normally.

A

False

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67
Q

As you reduce power to begin a descent, you see the
MASTER WARNING light, the ENV cue on the WAP, and a MANIFOLD FAIL light on the environmental control panel. You also hear the voice warning, MANIFOLD FAIL. What is the problem?

A

Main manifold failure

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68
Q

When do the radar altimeters come on? Come alive? Power up? etc

A

Automatically when the aircraft is electrically powered

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69
Q

The pushbutton to select the radar altimeter scale on the PFD is located where?

A

On the AFCS panel, right side.

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70
Q

CAT II message annunciations displayed in the scratchpad mean what?

A

Advise that a condition affecting the operation of the

mission computer or COMM system exits.

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71
Q

The “*” symbol next to a line on the MCD screen means what?

A

The indicated function will be initiated when the

associated line select key is pressed.

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72
Q

An arrow symbol pointing towards data on a line on the MCD screen means what?

A

Pushing the associated line select key will toggle
through the values or choices indicated on the label
line.

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73
Q

T/F: If the mission bus control is lost, navigation emitter control is unavailable from the NAV EMITTER CONTROL and the NAV SENSOR TACAN/ADF pages?

A

True

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74
Q

T/F: Permanent degraded mode will not distract from the normal cockpit flight operations.

A

False

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75
Q

Which is NOT an externally supported component of the radio navigation system?

A

IRS

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76
Q

Which of the following must be done to display beacon information in either PPI or ND formats of the
MFD?

A

The BCN pushbutton on the MFC must be enabled. (ie: double-tap that beacon button like a big boy)

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77
Q

Which color makes you shit your pants the heaviest, which represents the heaviest precipitation on WX radar returns?

A

Red

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78
Q

At a range of up to __________ nautical miles, the
sensitivity time control (STC) on the radar panel automatically controls the receiver sensitivity, enabling the weather returns to appear as large and as dense as the storms actually are.

A

80 NM

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79
Q

The MFD displays the test pattern for which of the following options?

A

Weather Radar. (you’re looking for all the rainbow bullshit as well as the shift, all MFDs must show proper test patterns)

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80
Q

With the function selector switch in OPR (operate),

which controls determine the radar’s mode of operation?

A

The toggle switch next to the function selector

switch and the MFC/MFD pushbuttons

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81
Q

In which radar mode is the beam switch disabled and a pencil beam automatically selected?

A

Weather (WX)

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82
Q

The MFDs are set to ND, ENG, chart, and PFD and
neither RDR nor BCN are selected at the MFC. The
radar’s function selector switch is set to OPR/WX.
What is the radar status?

A

The radar system is in an idle state.

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83
Q

Ensure all personnel are clear of the antenna radiation hazard area before placing the radar’s function selector switch to what?

A

OPR

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84
Q

Two IRUs are located where?

A

On the right side floor, forward of the galley.

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85
Q

Which statement concerning the IRU battery(ies) is true?

A

Each IRU has its own battery which will supply 30

minutes of operation when all other power sources fail.

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86
Q

To use the stored heading alignment mode in the inertial reference system, you must do a complete _________ alignment prior to shutting down the aircraft.

A

Gyrocompass

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87
Q

The BATH alignment is only available when you are beyond the latitudes ________ degrees ________ minutes north or south.

A

77°, 45 min

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88
Q

Pressing the SEC PLN pushbutton on the MFC displays the secondary flight plan where?

A

On the ND Map

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89
Q

If a NAVAID is also a waypoint on the flight plan, you can call it up on the ND map DISPLAY by doing what?

A

Pushing the FLT PLN button on the MFC.

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90
Q

If an airport is an origin or destination on the primary flight plan and FLT PLN is selected on the MFC, the airport is shown as what?

A

A magenta runway symbol on the ND MAP. (we see it every time we’re about to takeoff, its those 2 small parallel lines with the runway number)

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91
Q

The course line selected with the CRS 1 for the MAP display represents what?

A

The course selected at the CNC for VOR 1.

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92
Q

If EXCESS appears in the upper right corner of the ND MAP format, it means what?

A

Too many symbols have been selected for display.

It just may eat its own shit momentarily.

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93
Q

To change the selected radio on the VHF/UHF backup control panel, use the ____ then press ENTER.

A

RT select switch

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94
Q

The control panel used for backup communications

is located where?

A

Upper left overhead panel

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95
Q

T/F: When the VHF/UHF backup control panel is powered on, the selected communication radio can still be tuned at the CNC.

A

False

pretty sure it will say “remote” at the CNC

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96
Q

T/F: Each CCU is a backup controller for the other so that failure of one CCU has no significant effect on the IRMS.

A

True

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97
Q

Frequencies and channels are changed using the

____ line of the _____side of the CNC.

A

Bottom , STBY

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98
Q

T/F: The XFER switch on the CNC alternates active

(right) and standby (left) frequency or channel and tunes the radio to the new active frequency.

A

True

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99
Q

T/F: Pressing the GRD (guard selector) button on the CNC immediately replaces the active frequency of the radio displayed with the emergency frequency for that radio.

A

True

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100
Q

T/F: The CARGO INTPH ISOL system can be activated/deactivated at either the cockpit or loadmaster panel.

A

True

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101
Q

T/F: When the Communication Switch Panel Backup Audio switch is in the ON position, headsets and microphones controlled by the forward loadmaster ICS panel are slaved to the pilot’s ICS panel and monitor only the Backup controlled radio.

A

True (too long to be wrong)

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102
Q

Regardless of what is displayed on the MCD, pressing the _________ key will display the COMM/NAV Summary page.

A

COMM

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103
Q

On the COMM INDEX page 1, LSK 6L QUICK ON/OFF is a rapid means of powering/depowering ALL radios.

A

True

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104
Q

To activate the microphones for the cargo compartment, which of the following must be selected on the COMM EMITTER page 2 at LSK 2L?

A

ALL

(how would we even know this answer w/o referencing the actual emitter control page?) stupid question….

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105
Q

T/F: During VHF/UHF Backup Control operations, the CCU does not control the radio and all CNC and MCD function for that radio are inhibited.

A

True

sort of a repeat question from before about how the CNC panel eats shit while the backup head is in use

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106
Q

If the localizer mode is armed, and the selected
CNC course is set to within +/- _________ degrees, mode capture and track performance should be satisfactory. [ie: the moose should capture the course properly and not violate your ass]

A

+/- 5 degrees

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107
Q

On a circling approach, the flaps should be extended to the final setting and airspeed reduced to VAPP when?

A

As required based on conditions

[in the sim we’ve been making a level-turn off the perch and both rolling final flaps and slowing to Vapp, BUT not descending until we see at least 1 white on the PAPIs]

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108
Q

For a CAT II ILS approach in the C-17, decision height (DH) is always based on what? (ie what will you always set as the DH from the approach plate?)

A

DH is always based on the radar altimeter (RA setting).

[so on that CAT II IAPD, this will be that first number you see in the minimums section after “RA”] Reference KCHS ILS RWY 15 CAT II for an example

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109
Q

Which of the following is a legitimate aircraft equipment requirement for CAT II ILS operations?

A

Dual ILS/MLS receivers

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110
Q

T/F: You are cleared for an actual CAT II ILS. As an aircraft commander with 50 hours in command, you can fly this approach. [emphasis on the number 50]

A

False

(If you look in AFI 11-2C-17V3, Chapter 6, section 6.42.6.1 it states that “…The AC must have logged at least 100 hours in command since AC certification.”)

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111
Q

According to this display [not pictured here but apparently the jet is drifting outside the lateral confines of the approach], on a CAT II ILS approach, you should what?

A

Execute a missed approach due to lateral

deviation, if the runway is not in sight.

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112
Q

Automatic (AUTO), computed (COMP), or manual (MANUAL) MLS mode is selected on what page?

A

On the MCD NAV SENSORS-MLS page.

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113
Q

If operating in manual mode [for an MLS approach] and the pilot selects a course and/or glideslope different from the published procedure, what does this mean concerning the approach? [think big picture safety-wise]

A

The actual approach flown no longer guarantees
obstacle clearance.

[you can’t build-a-bear workshop your own MLS approach….noob smh]

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114
Q

T/F: Computed MLS approaches have the following
note in the plan view of the approach plate: “COMPUTED APPROACH: FOR USE BY AIRCRAFT CAPABLE OF COMPUTING OFFSET RUNWAY CENTERLINE” ?

A

True

[too long to be wrong, also that’s an unfair question if you don’t have access to an actual MLS approach]

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115
Q

Once the MLS channel is in AUTO or COMP mode, course and glidepath information are only displayed if what?

A

Only if the MLS is active.

[in this case the term “active” means when you are within capture criteria or distance(s) similar to a glideslope becoming “active”]

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116
Q

The press-to-reset function of the MASTER WARNING light enables what?

A

Enables the fire warning system to indicate a subsequent hazardous condition.

[I think this is a broad question, conceptually, about the benefit of resetting a press-to-reset light]

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117
Q

If the MASTER CAUTION light, the LOOP cue on the WAP, and a single amber LOOP light illuminate, it could be an indication of what?

A

A loop malfunction OR a fire warning

[in the sim we’ve seen this, and when we tested the OTHER loop, it tested fine! SO we could surmise that it was a malfunction, as BOTH loops need exposure to a fire for that indication to be valid]

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118
Q

In the engine fire detection system, assuming all loops

operative, to trigger a fire alarm, how many loops must be exposed to fire for that alarm to sound?

A

BOTH loops MUST be exposed to a fire

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119
Q

The MASTER CAUTION, LOOP cue, and #2 ENG LOOP A lights are on. The No. 2 ENG LOOP A is turned off and LOOP B is tested. All Loop B lights illuminate indicating LOOP B works. What does this mean?
[consider what we JUST talked about concerning requirements for a valid fire indication]

A

Loop A is faulty and no fire exists.

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120
Q

After the fire handle is pulled for an engine fire, the

ENG light on the fuel panel stays on until you do what?

A

Turn off the fuel shutoff switch.

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121
Q

If the fire handle has been pulled and the fire goes out, the fire handle light will do what?

A

Go out as well

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122
Q

To select reverse thrust, move the throttles to what range?

A

Move the throttle levers to the reverse thrust

range.

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123
Q

Which method of driving the pneumatic starter uses air pressure from another aircraft?

A

The Buddy Start :)

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124
Q

The ENGINE START switches [more like buttons] are located on the ________ panel.

A

Pilot’s overhead panel

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125
Q

T/F: During APU start and operation, the exhaust does NOT represent a personnel hazard.

A

False

[this is literally one of the enumerated considerations prior to APU start; to ensure that personnel and vehicles are clear of the APU and wearing appropriate hearing protection]

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126
Q

When in the vicinity of an operating APU, you should wear what?

A

Ear protection.

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127
Q

T/F: All APU starts using the alert APU START button [the one right by the crew entrance door] will be fire guarded by ground personnel.

A

True

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128
Q

The AUTO SHT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdowns except what 2 conditions?

A

Fire and Overspeed.

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129
Q

You are in the cargo compartment and the APU is running. Suddenly, you hear the APU warning horn. What does the horn indicate?

A

APU fire

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130
Q

What [action] is used for emergency operation to allow
restart of the APU after an automatic shutdown has occurred, in order to provide bleed air pressure for
an engine start? [ie what do you need to do for a restart?]

A

Push the AUTO SHT DN ORIDE.

[top left overhead panel]

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131
Q

[regarding an APU start] In addition to the MASTER CAUTION light and the APU cue light, the indication you receive for above normal EGT reading is what?

A

The HOT light.

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132
Q

The APU OIL indication on the WAP may mean the APU oil is what?

A

APU oil Px is low

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133
Q

During an APU fire, the warning and caution annunciation panel will display what?

A

APU cue.

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134
Q

An APU fire will be indicated on which 3 panels?

A

APU control, aft left loadmaster, and single point

refueling

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135
Q

If the No. 3 hydraulic system’s engine driven pumps
become inoperative, but system integrity and fluid is
available, hydraulic power to retract the gear can be
provided by the No. 3 auxiliary pump and/or the XFER pump utilizing which hydraulic system pressure?

A

System 2

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136
Q

T/F: The C-17 has a total of 12 main gear wheels.

A

True

[3 sets of 2 per side]

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137
Q

Normal extension and retraction of the gear is electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated by
pressure from the ______hydraulic system.

A

Number 3

138
Q

Each main gear unit has a total of _____doors?

A

4

139
Q

When the gear is in transit, each gear indicator is _____ and the gear handle is __________.

A

Red and Red

140
Q

T/F: To manually override the locking mechanism,

the lock release button must be depressed WHILE raising the gear handle.

A

True

141
Q

What is your action if you receive a momentary unsafe indication of the gear while on the ground?

A

Ignore these transient indications

[for some reason these can happen in various circumstances, so don’t worry as as long as it is momentary]

142
Q

Full rudder pedal movement permits a maximum of ______ +/-2 degrees (either side of center) of nose wheel steering.

A

10 Degrees +/- 2

143
Q

Do not exceed _____degrees nose wheel angle when
gross weight exceeds 490,000 pounds, and taxi speed
exceeds 20 knots to prevent landing gear side load
damage.

A

20 Degrees

144
Q

T/F: The steering bypass valve must be returned to

normal after towing to allow steering for taxi and takeoff.

A

True

145
Q

If a gear malfunction occurs while lowering the gear, recycle the gear.

A

False

[we’ve got checklists for when the gear eats ass on extension…sucking it up could cause damage to the wheel well if some rods or metal parts are sticking out]

146
Q

T/F: For any gear malfunction, visually inspect the

affected gear to confirm damage or proper alignment of red fluorescent band on down- lock links.

A

True

147
Q

During a Freefall Extension of the main landing gear on one side, which gear is lowered first?

A

Forward gear

148
Q

T/F: If you receive an unsafe gear indication, but visual inspection confirms the gear to be down and locked, the unsafe indication may be disregarded.

A

True

[this is the same note from every jet we’ve ever flown smh]

149
Q

T/F: If making a landing with nose gear retracted, when should you come on the brakes? [so to speak]

A

After the nose has contacted the runway.

[think about it, if you apply brakes any time before that, the moose would lurch forward and slam the nose down like Thor’s hammer]

150
Q

When ALT BRAKE IN USE is displayed on the WAP, which hydraulic system is powering the brakes?

A

System 3

151
Q

If ANTISKID INOP is displayed on the WAP, what is the crew response?

A

Select ANTI-SKID INOP on the NON-STD

CONFIG page of TOLD

152
Q

When using the alternate brake system, increase mission computer generated landing or ground roll distance by _____ percent.

A

25%

153
Q

There are ____smoke detectors on the C-17.

A

22

154
Q

Which switch is used to check the operation of ALL the smoke detectors and where is it located?

A

TEST/ARM/OFF switch on the overhead panel

155
Q

T/F: If the smoke detectors are tested from the forward loadmaster station, the avionics smoke/overheat ground warning horn is inhibited?

A

True

156
Q

When smoke is detected, the appropriate smoke detector light illuminates. What other visual indications are there?

A

SMOKE cue on the WAP accompanied by a MASTER CAUTION

157
Q

The __________ checklist should always be accomplished if smoke is filling the pressurized portion of the aircraft.

A

Smoke/Fumes in the Aircraft checklist

[most every associated checklist directs you to accomplish this one first before proceeding with THAT checklist]

158
Q

The warning and caution annunciation panel (WAP) does what? [big picture what does it do?]

A

The WAP displays visual warning, caution, and advisory
messages for various systems throughout the
aircraft.

159
Q

Which type of message on the WAP indicates a hazardous condition that requires immediate corrective action? [think big picture, lights and colors of lights and what they mean etc]

A

Master Warning

160
Q

New CAUTION messages on the WAP must be acknowledged by pressing the __________ before they can be scrolled manually from the caution annunciation zone.

A

MASTER CAUTION light

161
Q

If both Warning and Caution Computers [WCCs] fail or if the WAP fails, the_______ illuminates.

A

WACS FAIL light

[note the difference in terminology between WACS and WCCs, the Warning and Caution System and Warning and Caution Computer]

162
Q

After a caution message [on the WAP] has been acknowledged, the ________ disappears.

A

Acknowledgement identifier symbol

[this is the little word that comes up on the WAP to assist in identifying the zone of the issue]

163
Q

The two panels at the forward loadmaster station that provide warning and caution information are the DOOR/STATUS panel and the ________ panel.

A

Cargo smoke detection system panel.

164
Q

T/F: The GPWS test function is available only when

weight is on wheels.

A

True

165
Q

“Too Low Gear” will sound below 500 feet and when the flaps are < or = to 1⁄2 detent in Mode 4A and 4B.

A

False

166
Q

Mode 4A “Too Low Gear” will sound below ______ feet when flaps are < or = 1⁄2 detent.

A

500 Feet

167
Q

Dust particles or residue from damaged optical sensor converters (OSCs) may contain what?

A

Hazardous materials.

168
Q

The missile warning system (MWS) contains _____ optical sensor converters.

A

4 converters

169
Q

The missile warning system (MWS) detects a missile fired at the aircraft and provides warning signals to the pilot through the ______?

A

Control indicator

[pretty sure the control indicator is the little screen aft-left of the throttle quadrant that lights up when we pre-flight the system]

170
Q

The missile warning system (MWS) is energized by

pressing the control indicator ______ switch.

A

Power switch

171
Q

For a built-in-test (BIT) of the Counter Measure Dispensing System (CMDS) to occur, the mode switch may be in any position except __________ or BYP.

A

Off

172
Q

T/F: Automatic dispensing of expendable inventory

will occur when LO is displayed on the countermeasures dispensing system (CMDS) control display unit.

A

False

173
Q

Primary pitch control is accomplished under normal conditions through the movement of what flight surface?

A

Four elevators (two on each side).

174
Q

The Integrated Flight Control Module (IFCMs) have three modes of operation; electronic control, mechanical control, and _________ control.

A

Float

175
Q

If all four engines fail, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)-driven

hydraulic pump powers hydraulic system __________ and its associated flight controls.

A

System number 4

176
Q

The control stick uses __________ and force sensors for input to the FCCs.

A

Position sensors

177
Q

Under normal conditions, elevators are controlled by what means?

A

Signals to the IFCMs from the flight control

computers.

178
Q

The ailerons and spoilers provide ____ control?

A

Roll

179
Q

For the ROLL switches on the FCS actuator panel, the

PART position adjusts what?

A

Adjusts a ratio changer in the mechanical mode.

180
Q

As part of the electronic flight control system, IFCMs receive command signals for the flight control surfaces from the control stick and rudder pedal force sensors via the __________? [what processes those signals?]

A

Flight control computers

181
Q

The angle of attack limiter system is operational only when ________ is operational? [think about what electronic thing needs to be operational to regulate the moose in his PITCH axis?]

A

Pitch EFCS

182
Q

Which pitch EFCS mode is considered primary and active during most phases of flight other than takeoff, approach/landing, and airdrop?

A

Pitch rate command / attitude hold

183
Q

Beyond 37° of bank, the pitch rate command roll submode does what?

A

Activates a flashing ‘ALS’ (attitude loss submode)

on the PFD.

184
Q

What does a flashing ‘EOCS’ annunciation on the HUD and PFD indicate? [on takeoff]

A

The Engine Out Compensation System has engaged

during takeoff to aid in directional control.

185
Q

In the pitch attitude command/attitude hold (PACAH)

mode, what maintains the pitch attitude?

A

Autotrim

186
Q

Stab trim handles allow direct mechanical backup control of the __________ if electronic control fails.

A

Horizontal stabilizer

187
Q

When flying in the mechanical mode adjusting the conventional aileron displacement trim causes the
spoilers to retract and the aircraft responds by doing what?

A

Rolling in the opposite direction of the trim input.

188
Q

Rudder trim is accomplished by doing what?

A

Turning the knob on the alternate trim
panel.

[this is the only way to implement rudder trim]

189
Q

For rudder trim, the ALTN position of the TRIM SEL switch does what so that its actually “alternate”?

A

Uses a separate electrical source.

190
Q

Hydraulic systems 1 and _________ power the flaps.

A

4

191
Q

Hydraulic systems 2 and _________ power the slats.

A

3

192
Q

The __________ detent on the flap/slat handle is used for takeoff.

A

1⁄2 flap (slats extended)

193
Q

T/F: Flight for extended periods above 250 KCAS with the slats extended can cause damage to the wing leading edge access panels.

A

True

[too long to be wrong]

194
Q

With a “FLAP IN BACKUP” WAP message indicating the flaps are under the control of the analog backup unit, what does this mean to us about extension and/or retraction?

A

The flaps can be retracted to any position but

cannot be re-extended.

195
Q

A pilot selectable mode of the spoiler control system (Direct Lift Control switch / Speed Brake slide) is what?

A

Speedbrake control

196
Q

For the roll augmentation mode, the spoilers receive signals from the __________ via the SC/EFCs.

A

Flight control computers

197
Q

Sliding the __________ switch forward or aft and holding it there deploys the spoilers for direct lift control.

A

DLC/SBK slide

198
Q

The spoiler selector knob on the ______must be set to the ARM position to arm the automatic ground spoiler rejected takeoff mode.

A

AFCS control panel

199
Q

Under the spoiler bias control modes, when is throttle augmentation active? [no idea what this means]

A

When the flap handle is in the 3⁄4 detent or greater

200
Q

Attempting an EFCS RESET can cause what?

A

An aircraft transient.

[the actual fuck does that mean?? a transient??]

201
Q

After performing an EFCS RESET, how do you know

if the failure was resettable?

A

The flight control related WAP annunciations

extinguish.

202
Q

T/F: To avoid loss of elevator surface control reset

capability, hydraulic pressure should be available before EFCS reset is attempted more than two times.

A

True

[too long to be wrong]

203
Q

If a control stick becomes jammed and sufficient force is applied to the stick, what mode will that axis go into?

A

The affected axis will go into the “force” mode and
remain under electronic control.

[makes sense, because you are FORCING it to take your inputs]

204
Q

What are the first several steps for a STABILIZER MOTION CAWS alert while airborne? [we’re looking for a certain speed-gate and initial action]

A

Quickly slow to 280 KCAS to VMMA, maintain aircraft

control, and split the STAB TRIM handles.

205
Q

What is the first action for a PITCH AUTHORITY warning? [again, we’re looking for a certain speed-gate and initial action]

A

Quickly reduce airspeed to below 280 KCAS and

split the STAB TRIM handles.

206
Q

During a pitch runaway recovery, if the pitch change
continues after releasing the STAB TRIM handles
from the split position, do what?

A

Depressurize hydraulic systems 1 and 4.

207
Q

Which EFCS mode uses a snapshot of the last valid air data information to schedule control surface deflections?

A

FCC FROZEN GAINS mode

208
Q

How is the FIXED GAINS mode entered?

A

Press the EFCS button repeatedly while in

FROZEN GAINS mode

209
Q

BONUS: What the actual fuck is Frozen Gains?

[hint frozen in time]

A

BLUF: this is a protective mode to allow flight in EFCS to continue with reduced capability… Basically, this occurs when the Flight Control Computer (FCC) receives jacked-up signals from any 3 ADC channels for the same parameter… With SAT out of range, the FCC receives 4 invalid TAS signals at or above 70KTAS, so when this happens, a SNAPSHOT of the last valid air data info is captured.

210
Q

BONUS: What the actual fuck is FCC Fixed Gains?

A

BLUF: this is the protective mode that YOU can put the FCC into by repeatedly pressing the EFCS Reset button, once already in frozen gains, to place it into Fixed Gains. SO now you’re getting mad gains, and the FCCs assume the moose is AT placarded speeds associated with the current flap/slat handle position for the overall purpose of elevator and aileron control.

211
Q

Which control on the AFCS panel engages the ATS into speed select mode? [this dumbass question is asking what you press to ENGAGE the speed you’ve spun-in]

A

Speed SEL Knob

212
Q

The thrust armed and engaged modes always appear in which corner of the HUD?

A

Upper left

213
Q

Pressing the _________ pushbutton directs the ATS to move the throttles to the selected EPR LIMIT. [emphasis on the LIMIT portion of this statement]

A

EPR

214
Q

T/F: Pressing the MACH/IAS momentary action pushbutton toggles the selected value shown in the speed window between THR and PCH.

A

False

[there is a completely separate button for that]

215
Q

With NORM selected on the ROLL RATE switch on the AFCS control panel, the roll rate limit is _____ degrees per second.

A

5 degrees / second in normal

216
Q

T/F: The LNAV pushbutton arms/dearms or engages

the AFCS into the lateral control mode selected on the NAV switch corresponding to the PILOT ID switch.

A

True

[too long to be wrong!]

217
Q

Pressing the ___________ pushbutton [on the AFCS panel] engages altitude hold mode, which maintains the current altitude.

A

ALT HOLD

218
Q

Rotating the __________ to zero engages altitude hold mode. [same function as ALT HOLD]

A

Vertical speed command wheel

219
Q

What does a flashing “VV-400” symbol in the pitch or

thrust engaged FMA indicate?

A

Vertical speed mode has been engaged without an
altitude armed.

[sometimes when you engage al altitude, even though you absolutely pressed it in firmly, it won’t “take” so the VVI flips a bitch and flashes at you until you engage it again]

220
Q

T/F: With the autopilot or flight director engaged,

anytime you move the vertical speed wheel more than 200 fpm, vertical speed mode will engage?

A

True

[basically this question seeks to address the fact that you need at least a 200fpm VVI to climb or descend]

221
Q

Rotating the altitude SEL knob during altitude capture causes the vertical flight path mode to revert to what? [consider that you’re un-doing the altitude capture by changing the alt, so you’re going back to what mode?

A

Vertical speed

222
Q

Selecting a zero V/S when in vertical speed mode engages ____ mode. [so you’re climbing or descending to an armed altitude and then have a mid-life crisis and set that pitch wheel to 0, what mode kicks in?]

A

Altitude hold

223
Q

What happens if you push the ALT HOLD pushbutton
on the AFCS panel while the pitch FMA is engaged in
‘VV+1200’? [reason through this, what is the most logical answer? what will you see?]

A

The aircraft will level off and ‘ALT HOLD’ will

engage in the pitch FMA.

224
Q

Which vertical flight path mode reduces airframe structural loading by reducing control activity during rough weather?

A

Turbulence

225
Q

T/F: The bank angle selector governs the roll rate. [can a BANK angle governor keep tabs on the ROLL rate?]

A

False

[there’s a separate switch for that]

226
Q

T/F: If heading hold is selected while the aircraft is

in a bank, the AP or F/D guides the aircraft to wings level.

A

True

227
Q

Pressing the split axis pushbutton after the AP is engaged allows the pilot to manually control the ________ axis?

A

Roll axis

228
Q

Which mode provides pitch guidance for initial climbout?

A

Takeoff

229
Q

Which mode directs a missed approach?

A

Go-around

230
Q

During engine start, which part of the hydraulic system is normally on? [think about the reverse-J and the pumps / systems you normally have on before you start an engine]

A

Auxiliary pump

231
Q

Which of the following could result if an engine is started with the engine-driven hydraulic pumps on?

A

A hung start

232
Q

Before cold weather takeoffs [this is talking about before taking off, not engine start], warm up the engine until the oil temperature is at or above ______ degrees C.

A

50 degrees C

233
Q

How many consecutive engine start attempts are allowable without a cooling period between attempts?

A

Two

234
Q

If the engine start button fails to stay in during an engine start, what is your first action? [visually]

A

Check to see if an ignition source is

selected.

235
Q

If during engine start, the starter valve light doesn’t illuminate, stop the start and fix the________ before proceeding with the start.

A

Problem

[really?? the answer to this question is “problem”, this is why we can’t have nice things….]

236
Q

Assume the starter valve will NOT close after engine

start (light remains illuminated). Which of the following actions could result in a starter failure?

A

Shutting down the engine before removing the bleed

air supply.

237
Q

During an engine start, you select ON with the engine shutoff switch and notice a fuel flow of 450 PPH. THIRTY seconds later there is still no increase in EGT. Which of the following is true? [remember how many seconds you have for EGT to rise…]

A

You should have discontinued the start 10 seconds earlier.

238
Q

If, during engine start, the engine does not accelerate to idle RPM, your first action is to do what? [remember what Bernie said about start sequences]

A

Stop the start

239
Q

During an engine start, the fuel flow is 750PPH and the EGT is rapidly rising. What should be done?

A

Stop the start to preclude a Hot start

240
Q

What is the correct action if low oil pressure is still indicated 2 minutes after engine start? [you’re no longer in the “start sequence” phase, so stop-start doesn’t apply]

A

Shut down the engine

241
Q

During the Tailpipe Fire procedures, when should you pull out the engine starter switch?

A

30 seconds after the fire has gone out

[so initially we shut off fuel and allowed the engine to motor right?? the starter still needs to turn to blow out the fire, and you can stop it from turning 30 seconds after the fire is fully extinguished]

242
Q

What condition would require an immediate engine shutdown? [DOV Says Please Fly Extremely Safe Today]

A

Engine Seizure

243
Q

What resource within the MC can be used to determine the correct driftdown airspeed and altitude following an engine failure at cruise?

A

Engine-out cruise page in the mission computer.

244
Q

The driftdown procedure is designed to safely do what, with respect to altitude?

A

lower the aircraft’s altitude to the 2 or 3

engine cruise ceiling.

245
Q

During an air start when should procedures for minimizing engine wear be used?

A

If the engine is inoperative for more than 2 minutes

246
Q

Complete failure of the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) causes what?

A

The engine to flame-out

247
Q

Assume that an electronic engine control (EEC) failure has occurred and the affected engine is operating in the N2 mode. At what percent will the engine “lockout” during an overspeed condition?

A

86 percent

[you’ll just have to memorize this one]

248
Q

AA – CX w/o 1097 – The N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all displays are blank. Assume ____ has occurred.

A

Catastrophic engine failure

249
Q

Assume an engine has experienced a compressor

surge/stall. What is the first step you should accomplish?

A

Reduce thrust to idle on the affected engine.

250
Q

If a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys or fails to stow in flight, what should you do?

A

Reduce power and airspeed to help reverser stow.

251
Q

While performing four engine flameout procedures, if airspeed is allowed to slow below ________ KCAS or N2 RPM is allowed to decrease below 10%, a starter assisted airstart is REQUIRED.

A

250 KCAS

252
Q

Which of the following should NOT be attempted if an engine has been shut down because of an engine fire or failure unless a greater emergency exists? [ie: what will you NOT do with fire, fod or frozen etc]

A

Airstart

253
Q

The first step in building a flight plan on the mission computer is to enter basic flight plan information (origin, destination, etc.) on the ________ page.

A

ROUTE DATA

254
Q

A DISCONTINUITY is added to the flight plan each

time a waypoint is added unless something already exists… what is that “something”?

A

unless a DISCONTINUITY already exists below the place

where it is inserted.

255
Q

Soft waypoints such as a speed limit of 250 knots at

10,000 feet are entered where and how?

A

Entered in the appropriate location automatically by the mission computer.

256
Q

Assume VKA is the entered waypoint. If it is not recognized by the database, it will be displayed as what?

A

?VKA

257
Q

Selecting any key on the left side of the MCD next to a hard (numbered) waypoint will display the ________ page.

A

LAT FPLN AT

258
Q

To make a revision to altitude or speed associated with a waypoint, you would use what button?

A

A right line select key on the MCD.

259
Q

Access to the HOLD page is from the LATERAL ___________ page.

A

REVISION AT

260
Q

A turn point (T-P soft waypoint) is added when a waypoint is entered from the ___________ key.

A

DIRECT TO key

261
Q

BONUS: What the actual fuck, is the differnce between a Soft waypoint and a Hard (numbered) waypoint?

A

A SOFT waypoint is calculated by the MC vertical profile based on mission requirements, aircraft performance characteristics and flight conditions. ie: top of descent, top of climb, DZ exit point etc.

A HARD waypoint is a waypoint that is NOT adjusted when vertical profile calculations are made. In other words, we can think of it like a point over the ground to define a location, opposed to a SOFT point which defines a point in the vertical or lateral flight planning.

262
Q

An ABEAM waypoint is a consequence of a _________ entry.

A

DIRECT TO

263
Q

T/F: The spoilers will remain armed until selected off on the AFCS panel.

A

True

264
Q

T/F: Taxiing with flaps/slats extended deflects the engine exhaust toward the ground possibly burning asphalt surfaces and/or causing FOD.

A

True

[too long to be wrong]

265
Q

If thrust rating was set prior to engaging TOGA, it will default to __________ when the button is pushed.

A

MAX

266
Q

If the RAMP elevation is unknown, the altimeter comparison check may be accomplished where?

A

At a known elevation point at the airport prior to takeoff.

267
Q

Which checklist(s) do you use when an Engine Running Offload (ERO) is to be accomplished?

A

Operational Stop checklist

268
Q

T/F: Explosives and munitions rigged for airdrop may be combat offloaded without HQ AMC/DO approval.

A

True

269
Q

To reduce aircraft oscillation during combat offload operations on an excessively rough surface, reduce the __________ speed.

A

Forward taxi speed

[which makes sense if you think about it, because the slower you go, the less severe the vibration or oscillations would be]

270
Q

To combat offload, a surface of at least ________ feet is required.

A

1,000 feet

271
Q 
The maximum speed to which the aircraft can accelerate and then stop in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is
refusal speed (VR).
A

Runway available

272
Q

Given the following values: Refusal speed (VR) is equal to 130 kts, rotation speed (VROT) is equal to 125 kts, and maximum brake energy speed (VBMAX) is equal to 135 kts, what is go speed (VGO)? [remember the S1 equation]

A

Vgo = 125 kts

273
Q

A safe takeoff may be made when the ____ is equal to or greater than _________.

A

Runway available; critical field length (CFL)

[ie: you have more runway at your disposal than is required in your TOLD calculations]

274
Q

BONUS JONAS: What exactly defines CFL and RWY avail?

A

CFL: the total length of runway required to accelerate on all engines to Vcef, experience an engine failure and either continue to liftoff or stop in the remaining RWY.

RWY avail: The lowest of TORA, ASDA, LDA. We don’t use TODA because it includes clearways.

275
Q

T/F: If a takeoff is discontinued after GO speed, you

may not be able to stop on the runway.

A

True

276
Q

If you had two thrust reversers in the stowed position, what would be required concerning takeoff calculations?

A

Enter this information on the NON-STD CONFIG page so the mission computer can use it for calculations.

277
Q

The maximum groundspeed that a tire can withstand during takeoff or landing (no corrections) is called what?

A

Tire-placard speed

278
Q

T/F: In planning climbout, you must always consider the loss of an engine at the most critical point during takeoff to provide for obstacle clearance and climb capability.

A

True

[too long to be wrong]

279
Q

Derated Thrust (DRT) is an acceptable power setting for takeoff when what? Otherwise MAX power must be used for T/O… [think TOLD considerations]

A

Critical field length (CFL) is equal to, or less than, runway available.

280
Q

Which action is performed if an observed/reported

severe windshear condition exists at takeoff? [by AT takeoff, the question means BEFORE you full-send it]

A

Delay takeoff until shear subsides.

[ain’t nobody trying to knowingly fuck with windshear]

281
Q

During a rejected takeoff, what do we care about as it pertains to asymmetrical reverse thrust?

A

Asymmetrical reverse thrust should be used

with caution.

282
Q

In the rejected takeoff procedure, what is the first action accomplished by the pilot flying (PF)? [remember the montra “throttles, brakes, throttles, brakes”]

A

Move throttles to REVERSE IDLE.

283
Q

What actions should be performed if brakes overheat during a high energy rejected takeoff? [think logically]

A

Taxi aircraft clear of the runway, do not set parking brakes, evacuate if necessary, approach overheated brakes from front or rear only, and chock nosewheels.

284
Q

T/F: If the N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all displays are blank, this could indicate a catastrophic engine failure. Normal fire indications may not be present due to damage from engine seizure. The Emergency Engine Shutdown checklist must be performed.

A

True

[far too long to be wrong]

285
Q

Assume an engine has failed during takeoff and

the takeoff is continued. In this situation, what will the roll bar command?

A

Existing heading at nosewheel lift off

286
Q

The tactical descent airspeed schedule is what in terms of MACH and KCAS?

A

0.80 MACH to 320 KCAS

287
Q

The speed at which the main gear touches the ground is the ___________ speed.

A

Touchdown

288
Q

A threshold crossing height of _____ feet is used when computing landing distance. [same as the T-1]

A

50 Feet

289
Q

Under the same wind conditions, landing at a higher altitude requires a __________ landing distance.

A

Longer

[higher PA means thinner air which means less air molecules for the skin of the moose to grab onto and slow down]

290
Q

Which item listed below would require an INCREASE to the landing distance computation?

A

Tailwind

291
Q

T/F: Landing is permitted with tailwinds greater than 10 knots or headwinds greater than 40 knots.

A

False

[BOTH of those are ops-limits]

292
Q

T/F: Approach speed is the speed used on final approach with the flaps and slats extended and
gear down.

A

True

[worded poorly, it should say “with the aircraft configured to land” because you can still land without flaps or slats, ie: in an emergency which precludes either from extending]

293
Q

T/F: Landing with touchdown speed greater than tire
limit speed may result in tire failure. The resulting ground stopping performance and directional control is unpredictable.

A

True

[too long to be wrong]

294
Q

T/F: Elevated initial brake temperature reduces the
maximum energy absorption capacity of the brakes. Exceeding this limit could result in melted fuse plugs and the inability to stop the aircraft in the runway available.

A

True

[too long to be wrong]

295
Q

After retarding the throttles for an en route descent, descend at __________ MACH until reaching __________ KCAS with the landing gear and
slats/flaps retracted.

A

0.74 MACH / 310 KCAS

296
Q

Which of the following effects can be a result
of holding Direct Lift Control (DLC) for long periods in
close proximity to the ground? [think about a scenario down final where you’re riding the DLC too much]

A

Excessive sink rates

297
Q

Do not reverse any engine that displays an ________ message on the WAP. Severe engine stall may occur.

A

ENG STABILITY X

298
Q

Which action can help prevent asymmetrical conditions during landing procedures assuming normal operations?

A

Using caution when applying reverse thrust

299
Q

During an approach to assault landing, use throttles as necessary to position the FPV at –1.5 to – 2.0 degrees to establish a touchdown descent rate of approximately ___________ fpm.

A

360 fpm

300
Q

What should you do when you recognize the presence

of a windshear as either the PF or PM or LACM or RACM?

A

Announce “WINDSHEAR” to the crew so proper

PF and PNF actions can be taken.

301
Q

During windshear conditions on takeoff or landing below 200 ft AGL, do not exceed ________ pitch unless a sink rate exists.

A

15 Degrees

302
Q

During a go-around, what action is performed when a positive rate of climb is established?

A

Retract landing gear

303
Q

During a touch and go landing, when should the throttles be advanced for takeoff?

A

Not until the flaps are at 1/2

304
Q

Touch and go landings are performed with ________ armed.

A

Auto Ground Spoilers (AGS)

305
Q

For an engine-out landing, what is the normal flap setting? [what setting have ALL our engine-out sims been at per the checklist?]

A

3/4 Flaps

306
Q

During landing with one engine inoperative, which engine throttles are placed in reverse IDLE? [RTFQ]

A

All engines

[the note you’re thinking of applies to only symmetrical BEYOND reverse idle]

307
Q

When the decision is made to do a 3-engine go-around, do what in terms of procedures?

A

Use normal go-around procedures.

308
Q

If the pitch axis is in mechanical (PART MECH) mode, what must now be selected to permit FULL control authority at flap settings greater than 1⁄2?

A

FULL MECH

309
Q

T/F: The vertical stabilizer may become overstressed by large or abrupt rudder pedal inputs.

A

True

310
Q

For a no slat landing with flaps, what is the flap setting on final approach?

A

3/4 Flaps

311
Q

If flap asymmetry is caused by mechanical jam or loss of hydraulics, what will be the status of the flaps?

A

The flaps will be locked in place.

312
Q

Which action should NOT be performed during a no flap/no slat landing? [hint: without flaps/slats you have waaay less lift authority at the surface]

A

Flare the aircraft just before touchdown.

313
Q

When landing with the nose gear retracted, which of the following would be an appropriate procedure to
follow/perform? [in terms of the nose gear’s contact with the runway]

A

The nose should be lowered smoothly while elevator control is still effective.

314
Q

Assume you are landing with the nose gear retracted.
When should the pilot place the throttles to reverse
idle?

A

After the nose has made contact with the

runway.

315
Q

When landing with the main gear retracted, nose gear

extended, your outboard engine cowlings will likely touch the ground, what should you do before this happens?

A

Shut down outboard engine before the cowling

touches the ground.

316
Q

For an all wheels up landing, do what with the cabin PX and advise the LM to do what?

A

Depressurize and clear the LM to open doors during

preparation steps.

317
Q

During which of the following landing emergencies do you try to align the aircraft on the side of the runway with the good tires?

A

Flat tire (s) on main gear

[formerly known as blown main tire in the UPT world]

318
Q

Two separate transmissions are required to alert/brief

aircrew and passengers during an emergency because what is not possible?

A

Simultaneous transmissions on the interphone and

passenger address system are not possible.

319
Q

T/F: Crewmembers should silence any aural warning as soon as its cause has been identified and the warning acknowledged.

A

True

320
Q

For which of the following engine problems would you use the Engine Fire/Emergency Engine Shutdown checklist? [remember DOV Says Please Fly Extremely Safe Today]

A

Uncontrollable Overspeed

321
Q

The Fuselage Fire and Smoke checklist is designed primarily to suppress fires and eliminate smoke sources that are not of an ________ nature.

A

Electrical

322
Q

A parachute or restraint harness is OPTIONAL for crewmembers opening doors/hatches in flight.

A

False

323
Q

For structural damage associated with a wing, fuel dump should be avoided because of what?

A

Wing loading/bending.

324
Q

Prior to cargo jettison, the crew should ensure what in regards to moose CG?

A

Allowable CG limits are not exceeded.

325
Q

During cargo jettison procedures logistic locks may not release when deck angle exceeds __________ degrees.

A

1.5 Degrees

326
Q

Where are the ( 2 ) crash axes located?

A

Crew rest area and cargo compartment

327
Q

How many fire extinguishers are located on the

aircraft?

A

9 Extinguishers

328
Q

When CBrC1F2 decomposes, it can be hazardous. It can be recognized by its ___ odor.

A

Sharp acidic odor

329
Q

Portable fire extinguishers are located in which

areas?

A

2 in the cockpit
1 in the crew rest area
6 in the cargo bay

330
Q

How close to the fire should you position the hand-held fire extinguisher?

A

8 Feet

331
Q

How many emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) mounting brackets are installed on the C-17?

A

6

332
Q

If the wiring to the cockpit emergency locator switch is severed or shorted during a crash, the emergency locator transmitter will

A

Still operate normally

333
Q

The signal for immediate bailout is ___ ring (s).

A

One long

334
Q

Under low level flight conditions, bail out at least __________ feet above the terrain.

A

2,000 feet

335
Q

When bailing out, crewmembers shall make a very positive push to keep from contacting the what?

A

Fuselage

336
Q

T/F: During ditching, stalling the aircraft during approach can possibly cause a wing to dig into
the sea and cartwheel the aircraft.

A

True

[too long to be wrong]

337
Q

The standard signal for ditching is how many / what sequence of rings?

A

Six short rings and One long ring.

338
Q

The primary ditching exit for crewmembers in the crew rest area and cockpit is the what?

A

Maintenance/ditching hatch.

339
Q

How many flotation equipment deployment system (FEDS) initiators can be electrically armed?

A

Two

340
Q

Where are the flotation equipment deployment system (FEDS) ditching ladders stowed?

A

Below each FEDS hatch

341
Q

Do NOT activate flotation equipment deployment system (FEDS) hatches prior to the aircraft coming to rest because what may happen to the rafts?

A

Life rafts may be lost.

[nobody wants to blow their load early]

342
Q 
The transmission lines for the flotation equipment
deployment system (FEDS) are arranged so that \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Initiator (s) can fire all four hatches.
A

One

C-17 PIQ End of Course (1 decks)

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