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KC-135 Study > Pilot MQF - Feb 2021 > Flashcards

Pilot MQF - Feb 2021 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Pilots shall not exchange seats during flight if only two pilots are aboard the airplane.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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2
Q
  1. Verbal coordination between applicable crewmembers will be required when:

A. Control of the airplane is transferred between pilot and copilot or when an autopilot mode or axis is engaged or disengaged
B. Repositioning fuel panel valves and switches or when an electrical power source is
changed
C. A crewmember leaves position or leaves interphone or goes on or off oxygen
D. Any of the above

A

D. Any of the above

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3
Q
  1. Normal left and right hydraulic system pressure range is to psi.

A. 1000; 3000
B. 2400; 3050
C. 1500; 2800
D. 1971; 2469

A

B. 2400; 3050

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4
Q
  1. Maximum EGT during engine start is °C.

A. 870
B. 905
C. 725
D. 930

A

C. 725

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5
Q
  1. EGT between ________ is limited to 5 minutes duration.
    EGT between________ – Retard the throttle to bring EGT within limits. Operation is allowed until the next landing. If EGT exceeds _______– shut engine down using the ENGINE FIRE/FAILURE DURING FLIGHT checklist.

A. 725°C - 870°C; 871°C - 905°C; 906°C
B. 870°C - 905°C; 906°C - 930°C; 930°C
C. 725°C - 870°C; 906°C - 930°C; 930°C
D. The green arc

A

B. 870°C - 905°C; 906°C - 930°C; 930°C

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6
Q
  1. Normal oil pressure limits are psi. Oil pressure fluctuations of not more than psi total are allowable, as long as fluctuations remain within normal limits.

A. 5 – 100; 5
B. 11 – 92; 10
C. 20 – 85; 15
D. 30 – 60; 20

A

B. 11 – 92; 10

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7
Q
  1. Moderate to severe airplane buffeting can occur with simultaneous use of speed brakes and flaps. This buffeting can result in damage or loss of airplane surfaces.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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8
Q
  1. Because of possible damage due to sonic airflow at certain angles of attack, do not extend flaps above ___ feet pressure altitude.
    A. 20,000
    B. 15,000
    C. 10,000
    D. 5,000
A

A. 20,000

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9
Q
  1. The takeoff and emergency procedures portion will be reviewed either just prior to_________.

A. Stepping to Aircraft
B. Engine Start
C. Takeoff
D. B or C

A

D. B or C

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10
Q
  1. Based on , the aircraft commander may elect single pilot preflight operations where one pilot proceeds to the aircraft with the boom operator to perform the exterior safety check and begin the interior preflight checks, while the other pilot accomplishes additional duties (obtaining weather brief, etc.).

A. Operational Need
B. Mission Requirements
C. Personal Preference
D. A or B

A

D. A or B

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11
Q
  1. All crewmembers will inform the pilot when checking off and/or on interphone and will be on interphone during:

A. All ground operations (including engine starts) except when accomplishing crew duties that preclude use of interphone
B. Formation flying, rendezvous and air refueling
C. Flight under weather conditions and all takeoffs and landings
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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12
Q
  1. Because of the magnitude of interrelated aerodynamic effects, flying two airplanes in close vertical proximity is __________.

A. Routine
B. Safe
C. Not safe
D. Not recommended

A

C. Not safe

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13
Q
  1. Speed brakes are NOT used during approach and landing flare.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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14
Q
  1. All snow and ice accumulations of any significant degree must be removed from the airplane surfaces prior to takeoff.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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15
Q
  1. If the _________ is not down and in the detent, ensure that the _________ is installed. Notify the aircraft commander and maintenance personnel immediately. No further preflight actions will be accomplished until maintenance personnel correct the situation and confirm that the aircraft is in preflight configuration.

A. Flap Handle; Override Crank
B. Crew Entry Chute Grill; Crew Entry Ladder
C. Landing Gear Lever; nose gear ground downlock and release handle
D. Speed Brake Lever; Flight Control Snubbers

A

C. Landing Gear Lever; nose gear ground downlock and release handle

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16
Q
  1. The pilot will ensure that no personnel are standing near __________ when pressurizing the left hydraulic system. Sudden closing of these doors could cause serious injury to personnel who may be in the path of the doors.

A. Cargo Door
B. Wheel Well Doors
C. Main Entry Door
D. APU Exhaust Doors

A

B. Wheel Well Doors

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17
Q
  1. The copilot ANN DIM switch on the Copilot Overhead Light Panel must be out of the DIM (full ccw) position for the _________ to operate. Ensure that the copilot ANN DIM switch is out of the DIM (full ccw) position prior to closing the crew entry/cargo door. Once the crew entry/cargo doors are closed the DIM switch can be adjusted as required.

A. Co-Pilot’s Annunciator Panel
B. Side Panel Lighting
C. Engine Fire Lights
D. FDR

A

D. FDR

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18
Q
  1. Possible causes of a _________ are engaging the pilot’s interphone (on the yoke or the tiller), pressing the pilot’s FD ANN TEST button, a cold hydraulic system, the low- flow capability of the auxiliary hydraulic pump, and/or the use of other hydraulically- actuated systems during the EFAS test; in this case, the EFAS self-test is _________ indicating a system failure.
    A. Failed EFAS test; correctly
    B. Failed EFAS test; incorrectly
    C. Failed SYD test; not applicable and
    D. Failed SYD test; correctly
A

B. Failed EFAS test; incorrectly

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19
Q
  1. Speed Brake Warning horn sounds when lever is pulled back more than _______ degrees out of the full forward position.

A. 5
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4

A

C. 2

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20
Q
  1. Proper adjustment of the _______ is especially critical for takeoff, approach, and landing where full deflection of control surfaces may be required for safe operation of the airplane. To prevent inadvertent movement of the seat, ensure that the ________ is in the down and latched position.

A. Seat Belts and Shoulder Harnesses; seat vertical adjustment lever
B. Seat and Rudder Pedals; seat vertical adjustment lever
C. Seat and Rudder Pedals; seat horizontal adjustment lever
D. Seat Belts and Shoulder Harnesses; seat horizontal adjustment lever

A

C. Seat and Rudder Pedals; seat horizontal adjustment lever

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21
Q
  1. If an APU with an operable generator is not available, and external power is not used, the start can be made on battery power only. During this procedure, all engine ________ gages are inoperative until a generator is on the line and 28V AC power is available.

A. Oil Pressure and Fuel Flow
B. N1 and N2
C. Oil Low Pressure Lights and EGT
D. Instrument

A

A. Oil Pressure and Fuel Flow

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22
Q
  1. Copilot checks for initial fuel flow peak of _______ pph (before ignition) and approximately
    _______ pph after ignition. If fuel flow exceeds
    _______ pph before lightoff, a hot start can occur.

A. 100; 1000; 100
B. 300-680; 900; 680
C. 725; 870; 930
D. Within the Green Arc

A

B. 300-680; 900; 680

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23
Q
  1. For temperatures ________, failure to set the engine start switch to IGNITION may result in engine flameout when the throttles are retarded during taxi operations.

A. Colder than normal
B. At and below 10°C (50°F)
C. At and below 4°C (40°F)
D. At and below 0°C (32°F)

A

D. At and below 0°C (32°F)

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24
Q
  1. Items 18. thru 29. of the Starting Engines and Before Taxi checklist may be accomplished while waiting for the ground crew report.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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25
Q
  1. Minimum taxiway width is _______ feet.

A. 147
B. 74
C. 75
D. 100

A

B. 74

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26
Q
  1. Do not taxi or tow an aircraft within __ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction. Do not taxi aircraft closer than __ feet to any obstruction.

A. 10, 25
B. 25, 10
C. 10, 10
D. 25, 25

A

B. 25, 10

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27
Q
  1. Do not operate aircraft within 25 horizontal feet of any obstruction without ______.

A. Wing walkers
B. Observing airfield markings
C. Tower instructions
D. “Follow me” vehicle

A

A. Wing walkers

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28
Q
  1. Available crewmembers should assist in clearing during:

A. Taxi operations
B. Receiver AAR
C. Any time the aircraft is below 10,000 feet AGL
D. All of the Above

A

D. All of the Above

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29
Q
  1. When operating in non-standard formation, flight leaders:

A. Are required to advise ARTCC on intial contact of separation being used
B. Ensure wingman echo separation on check in calls with ARTCC
C. Should indicate non-std formation in remarks section of the flight plan
D. A and C

A

D. A and C

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30
Q
  1. Marshallers are required to use ______ during night or low visibility conditions.

A. Whistle
B. Wands
C. Illuminated Wands
D. Fluoresent Wands

A

C. Illuminated Wands

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31
Q
  1. Air Force pilots may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance). PIC is the final authority whether to takeoff, land or continue a touch-and-go when a merging aircraft has received a LAHSO clearance.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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32
Q
  1. When must aircraft anti-collision lights be displayed?

A. At the pilot’s discretion
B. From sunset to sunrise
C. From just prior to engine start until after engine shutdown
D. At all times when electrical power is available to operate anti-collision lights

A

C. From just prior to engine start until after engine shutdown

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33
Q
  1. You are approaching another aircraft on the ground head-on. What should you do?

A. Keep moving in the direction intended. You have the right-of-way and the other aircraft will move
B. Alter course to the left to remain well clear, or stop
C. Alter course to the right to remain well clear, or stop
D. Execute a 180 degree turn and return to parking

A

C. Alter course to the right to remain well clear, or stop

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34
Q
  1. An AC or IP will make all heavyweight landings greater than _______ and landings during emergencies, unless conditions prevent compliance.

A. 200,000 pounds
B. 235,000 pounds
C. 220,000 pounds
D. None of the above

A

B. 235,000 pounds

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35
Q
  1. In those situations where runway/taxi conditions or performance considerations are such that safety could be compromised,

A. A static takeoff should be made
B. A rolling or static/rolling takeoff should be made
C. Extreme care should be given to calculating takeoff data
D. B and C

A

A. A static takeoff should be made

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36
Q
  1. For a takeoff, approach or landing with fuel in any main tank below pounds, open all tank to engine manifold valves. Open the line valve for all takeoffs when gross weight is greater than pounds. Ensure line valve is closed for all takeoffs when gross weight is at or below pounds.

A. Full; 322,500; 5,900
B. 5,000; 180,000; 8,800
C. 10,500; 200,000; 200,000
D. 10,500; 180,000; 235,000

A

C. 10,500; 200,000; 200,000

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37
Q
  1. Exercise caution during throttle application to prevent asymmetrical thrust. Engine thrust should be stabilized at a minimum of ______ prior to advancing throttles to the takeoff thrust setting.

A. 20% N1
B. 40% N1
C. 50% N1
D. Ground Idle

A

B. 40% N1

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38
Q
  1. Uncommanded stabilizer trim input is a safety-of-flight issue. Terminate the mission (and in flight, land as soon as practicable) any time uncommanded stabilizer trim input is encountered.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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39
Q
  1. If any engine does not reach the charted N1 setting , the engine is not providing the required rated thrust, and the takeoff shall be aborted.

A. Upon initial takeoff power setting
B. Prior to 90 knots
C. Before S1
D. Between 40 and 80 knots

A

D. Between 40 and 80 knots

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40
Q
  1. Illumination of the amber EGT caution light near or after S1 indicates that EGT may be approaching the takeoff limit. This indication is for crew awareness and does not indicate an engine operating limit has been exceeded. Continue normal operation and monitor EGT to prevent exceeding the takeoff EGT limit.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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41
Q
  1. When ______ throttle is advanced near OPEN, the warning horn sounds if the speed brake lever is more than 2 degrees out of the full forward position, if the flap lever is at or near the 0, 40, or 50 degree detent, or the leading edge flaps are not fully extended.

A. No. 1
B. No. 2
C. No. 3
D. No. 4

A

C. No. 3

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42
Q
  1. Sudden reversal of rudder direction at high rudder deflections, due to improper rudder application or abrupt release, can result in _______.

A. Failure of the rudder PCU
B. Failure of the rudder pressure controller
C. Over-G of the aircraft
D. Overstressing the vertical fin

A

D. Overstressing the vertical fin

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43
Q
  1. If stabilizer trim has moved from setting selected during the TAXI checklist, _______.

A. Abort the mission
B. Reset to original setting
C. Call maintenance
D. Immediately place the stabilizer trim switch to the CUT-OFF position and manually trim throughout departure

A

A. Abort the mission

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44
Q
  1. When experiencing a loss shear on takeoff, anticipate a loss in indicated airspeed and altitude. This situation is potentially dangerous if the airplane is close to the ground. If this loss is expected to be __ knots or more, the takeoff shall be delayed, if possible, until more favorable conditions exist.

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

A

B. 15

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45
Q
  1. When the airplane is definitely airborne and a positive rate of climb is established (vertical velocity pointer above zero), retract the landing gear.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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46
Q
  1. Follow Dash One procedures until reaching ______________, obstacle clearance height, or the altitude associated with a departure procedure required climb, whichever is higher.

A. [BLK 40] 800 feet above the runway
B. [BLK 45] 2000 feet above the runway
C. Level off altitude
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

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47
Q
  1. Leave ignition on if engine anti-ice is on. If anti-ice is not required, turn starter switches off ______.

A. once climb thrust is established
B. upon reaching 2000 feet
C. Both A and B
D. 5 minutes after established at cruise altitude

A

D. 5 minutes after established at cruise altitude

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48
Q
  1. Do not climb at a speed more than the recommended three engine climbout speed.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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49
Q
  1. Maneuvering at speeds below three engine climbout speed plus knots is not recommended. A bank angle of 30 degrees at climbout speed with flaps down could reduce climb capability by as much as fpm.

A. 10, 200
B. 25, 300
C. 35, 300
D. 50, 400

A

D. 50, 400

50
Q
  1. [Without TCTO 1823] If airplane is to remain in closed traffic after takeoff, thrust will be adjusted to climb out at the same speed to be used on the downwind leg, and a rate of climb of approximately feet per minute.

A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2500

A

B. 1000

51
Q
  1. If an engine failure occurs during climbout, continue to follow the command bars. With inoperative command bars, if an engine failure occurs during or immediately after take- off, ____________ ; if an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climbout speed, do not reduce airspeed but continue to climb at the speed attained at the point of engine failure.

A. Increase thrust to accelerate to enroute climb speed
B. Climb at Vco + 10
C. Climb at recommended three-engine climbout speed
D. Land immediately

A

C. Climb at recommended three-engine climbout speed

52
Q
  1. Flap retraction in a turn is not recommended. Retracting flaps from 20 degrees to 0 reduces available lateral (outboard ailerons) control and increases initial buffet speed considerably and rapidly as the trailing edge and leading edge flaps retract.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

53
Q
  1. After setting climb thrust, no further throttle adjustment should be necessary during climb if the power management control (PMC) system is NOT operating.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

54
Q
  1. A departure alternate is required if weather is below landing minimums for the lowest suitable approach (at departure aerodrome). To qualify as a departure alternate, the airfield must be:

A. Within 30 minutes flying time, the existing weather is equal to or better than the published approach minimums and forecast to remain so until 1 hour after takeoff
B. Within one hour flying time, better than published mins for the lowest suitable approach (to include a circling approach) until end AAR time
C. Within two hours flying time, the existing weather is at least 500-1 above the lowest compatible published approach minimums, but not less than 600-2 (precision) or 800-2 (non-precision) and forecast to remain so for 1 hour after ETA at the alternate
D. A or C

A

D. A or C

55
Q
  1. Manual damping of dutch roll is to be accomplished only with ________.
    A. Manual trim
    B. Rudder
    C. Lateral (aileron) control
    D. Elevator
A

C. Lateral (aileron) control

56
Q
  1. For an unplanned thunderstorm penetration, use the lower of 280 KIAS or cruise Mach
    (0. 77 to 0.80) and do NOT change the ________.

A. Autopilot configuration
B. Stabilizer Trim setting
C. Route of flight
D. Steering solutions

A

B. Stabilizer Trim setting

57
Q
  1. No HF transmissions are to be made from a tanker or receiver when a receiver is in contact or about to make contact and all HF equipment must be switched to STANDBY/MONITOR where possible.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

58
Q
  1. For all _________ AARs, do not transmit on the HF radio when the receiver is within ½ NM; this includes datalink.

A. USAF
B. USN
C. USAF & USN
D. foreign aircraft

A

D. foreign aircraft

59
Q
  1. Pilots must use extreme care in those cases when the speed brakes are required for deceleration. Ascertain that the receiver prior to speed brake actuation.

A. will be established on track
B. is in the astern position
C. is in the contact position
D. will not overrun the tanker

A

D. will not overrun the tanker

60
Q
  1. For airplanes equipped with standard speed booms, if airspeed must be increased above
    KIAS/.85 Mach, the pilot will notify the boom operator to stow the boom.
    A. 325
    B. 330
    C. 335
    D. 340
A

C. 335

61
Q
  1. During any air refueling which requires the indicated airspeed to be less than 220 KIAS, for dry contacts to preclude fuel siphoning from the forward body tank, causing unexpected CG changes.

A. place the A/R manifold to engine manifold valve to CLOSE
B. minimize the number of requests
C. keep the center wing to forward body tank valve switches closed
D. keep the A/R line valve closed

A

D. keep the A/R line valve closed

62
Q
  1. When the receiver is in or near the contact position, the pilot __________ at the first indication of autopilot malfunction, including an inadvertent autopilot disconnect, if accompanied by out-of-trim control forces.

A. will switch the autopilot attitude source from VG to INU-2
B. should initiate a breakaway
C. should start a gentle climb
D. will initiate a breakaway

A

D. will initiate a breakaway

63
Q
  1. Air refueling for the receiver that required a controlled tension disconnect will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

64
Q
  1. Unless dictated otherwise by ATP-3.3.4.2 (Chapter 2, Section I, Warning) or by mission requirements, tankers will establish the applicable contact air refueling airspeed before the receiver reaches _________. If the tanker is off airspeed by more than ______ knots, the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.

A. 1NM, 5
B. 1NM, 10
C. Astern, 5
D. Astern, 10

A

A. 1NM, 5

65
Q
  1. Following an inadvertent brute force disconnect, air refueling ________.

A. may be continued if the tanker and receiver air refueling systems function normally
B. should be terminated
C. will be terminated
D. will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity

A

D. will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity

66
Q
  1. The position approximately 50 ft behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilizes with zero rate of closure before being cleared to the contact position is called:

A. Astern
B. Pre-Contact (USAF receivers)
C. Stabilized
D. Either A or B

A

D. Either A or B

67
Q
  1. Tanker responsibilities during a Rendezvous Delta is (are) to:

A. Be at the base AAR altitude
B. Enter the refueling holding orbit from any direction
C. Attempt to arrive at least 10 min before the ARCT and, normally, establish a left-hand holding pattern using the ARCP as an anchor point
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

68
Q
  1. When planning to conduct a Rendezvous G, a common track length equivalent to __ minutes flying time should be planned to allow for tanker descent to RV FL/altitude/height, visual acquisition and timing corrections.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

C. 15

69
Q
  1. Tankers will only refuel those aircraft listed in ATP-3.3.4.2 and the US SRD or specifically authorized by MAJCOM/A3V, Air Tasking Order, Operational Order (OPORD), Exercise Order, or on approved flying schedule. Receiver aircraft not previously certified for refueling operations (includes foreign variants of US-produced aircraft) must be certified for technical and operational compatibility in accordance with ATP-3.3.4.2 prior to refueling (N/A AFMC).

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

70
Q
  1. Unless otherwise directed, an altimeter setting of _______ is to be used for AAR operations at or above transition altitude, or when over water and operating in accordance with ICAO procedures. Regardless of whether or not the aircraft are operating on standard pressure settings, tanker crews _______ to include the altimeter setting in the RV Initial Call.

A. QFE, are required
B. 29.92, are required
C. 29.92, are not required
D. QNH, are not required

A

B. 29.92, are required

71
Q
  1. Tanker pilots should ensure the boom operator notifies receiver pilots when any axis of the autopilot is not used. If a tanker pilot or receiver pilot is required to fly autopilot-off for qualification training, the pilot flying the opposing aircraft will be qualified.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

72
Q
  1. The tanker will note the receiver’s distance when _______ through the turn back to the ARCP. This is the best time to determine if an overrun condition exists and the best time for visual sighting. Except for overtaking point parallel rendezvous, the distance to the receiver should be approximately 1/3 of the turn range when ____through the turn.

A. 1/3rd , halfway
B. Halfway, 1/3
C. Halfway, halfway
D. Beginning, beginning

A

C. Halfway, halfway

73
Q
  1. Tanker aircrew will advise ATC of tanker and receiver end aerial refueling altitude requests at least five (5) minutes prior to AREX.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

74
Q
  1. After experiencing two-way communications failure while conducting aerial refueling, tanker aircraft will discontinue AAR and continue flight by doing what?
    A. Squawk code 7600 for at least two (2) minutes prior to exiting track or anchor
    B. If altitude instructions beyond the exit point have not been received, exit the track or anchor at the highest altitude in the clearance for the refueling portion of the flight
    C. Proceed in accordance with “Procedures for Two-Way Radio Failure IFR-VFR” set forth in the DoD Flight Information Handbook
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

75
Q
  1. Normally, tanker orbit patterns are located within a rectangle, 60 NM long, 25 NM wide with left turns. While established in and awaiting their receivers, tanker aircraft:

A. Are automatically cleared down to the IP, if needed for rendezvous
B. Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired
C. Can change direction of turn, if they wish
D. Must notify ATC if shortening leg lengths

A

B. Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired

76
Q
  1. Closely monitor airplane CG during reverse air refueling, as the aft CG limit can be quickly exceeded when operating at ________ gross weights.

A. Light
B. Heavy
C. Medium
D. Maximum

A

A. Light

77
Q
  1. Routing and altitudes(s) of aircraft established on an approved ALTRV must not be changed except in the interest of safety of flight or as outlined in Chapter 3 of JO 7610.4.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

78
Q
  1. To avoid datalink initialization failure, the flight crew ensures that the flight-specific information entered into the aircraft system is the same as the corresponding details filed ________.

A. On the Form F
B. In the Aircrew Briefing Guide
C. By the Copilot
D. In the flight plan

A

D. In the flight plan

79
Q
  1. The flight crew should monitor the forward estimate for oceanic entry, and if this changes by ______ minutes or more, unless providing position reports via ADS-C, pass a revised estimate to ATC.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5

A

C. 3

80
Q
  1. For oceanic crossings, aircrew will use _______.

A. The in-flight guide
B. Only the MAJCOM Stan/Eval MDS-specific checklist posted on the Aircrew Pubs Sharepoint. If an MDS-specific checklist is not posted, aircrew may use the Sample Oceanic Checklist, published via NAT OPS Bulletin
C. Locally generated oceanic checklists
D. AP1B

A

B. Only the MAJCOM Stan/Eval MDS-specific checklist posted on the Aircrew Pubs Sharepoint. If an MDS-specific checklist is not posted, aircrew may use the Sample Oceanic Checklist, published via NAT OPS Bulletin

81
Q
  1. If operating on an ALTRV and mission is to be delayed beyond the AVANA time, rescheduling the ALTRV:

A. Will normally be in 24-hour increments after the original schedule
B. Is at the discretion of the mission commander
C. Can be in less than the time specified above, subject to CARF discretion and after approval from the affected ARTCC/CERAP/HCF
D. A or C

A

D. A or C

82
Q
  1. [Oceanic Plotting Chart] While flying the oceanic route, crews will maintain situational awareness to include positional awareness and accurate fuel readings. In order to assist with this, crews will:

A. When under radar contact and at intervals of approximately once every hour, aircrews will annotate waypoint crossing time, flight level, and fuel remaining in the appropriate areas of the CFP for the given waypoint
B. Approximately 10 minutes after passing each oceanic waypoint, or every 500 miles, whichever is shorter, record and plot the aircraft full Latitude/Longitude position, Flight Level/Altitude and UTC time on the chart, and ensure compliance with courses and ETA tolerances
C. If a revised clearance is received, aircrew will record and plot the new course on the chart
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

83
Q
  1. [CPDLC] The lead aircraft will initiate a logon at the correct time. Once in formation, only the lead aircraft will make position reports.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

84
Q
  1. If a logon request has been initiated with incorrect aircraft identification and aircraft registration, the logon process will fail. The flight crew will need to ____.

A. Call Command Post to verify aircraft registration
B. Transmit AFN logon, then re-transmit with correct identification
C. Omit AFN logon from checklist
D. Correct the information and reinitiate the logon request

A

D. Correct the information and reinitiate the logon request

85
Q
  1. Approximately minutes after exiting CPDLC and/or ADS-C service areas, the flight crew should ensure there are no active CPDLC or ADS-C connections.

A. 15
B. 30
C. 40
D. 45

A

A. 15

86
Q
  1. Experience has shown that many of the track-keeping errors in the NAT HLA occur as a result of crews programming the navigation system(s) with incorrect waypoint data. These are referred to as Waypoint Insertion Errors. They frequently originate from:

A. Failure to observe the principles of checking waypoints to be inserted in the navigation systems, against the cleared route
B. Failure to load waypoint information correctly
C. Failure to cross-check on-board navigation systems
D. Any combination of the above

A

D. Any combination of the above

87
Q
  1. Steep idle thrust approaches, or all approach angles and rates of descent requiring large changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare, will be avoided.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

88
Q
  1. For approach purposes, the KC-135R is considered a Category airplane. In those cases where the speed for a circling approach exceeds 166 knots, Category minima will be applied.

A. C, D
B. D, E
C. D, D
D. C, C

A

B. D, E

89
Q
  1. A speed brake lever position of less than degrees is not recommended, due to a tendency to over-control at these settings.

A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50

A

C. 40

90
Q
  1. For all FMS approaches, at 2 NM prior to the final approach fix ensure system is in the _______
    mode (as indicated by the blinking
    ________CDU annunciation), or discontinue the approach.

A. Terminal, <>
B. Enroute, <>
C. Approach, <>
D. Message, <>

A

C. Approach, <>

91
Q
  1. If multiple instrument approach patterns are flown in the clean configuration, maintain a minimum of KIAS until crossing the initial approach fix or turning base leg if receiving radar vectors.

A. VREF
B. VREF + 25
C. VREF + 50
D. VREF +70

A

D. VREF +70

92
Q
  1. Unless fuel consumption is a factor, hold at for all gross weights up to 170,000 pounds. At gross weights above 170,000 pounds, use as holding speed.

A. 220 KIAS, best endurance plus 10 knots
B. 200 KIAS, 220 KIAS
C. VREF +50, VREF +25
D. 220 KIAS, best range plus 10 knots

A

A. 220 KIAS, best endurance plus 10 knots

93
Q
  1. Occupants of the pilot and copilot seats may remove the shoulder harness during cruise flight, but shall fasten them prior to _________.

A. Air refueling rendezvous
B. Descent for landing
C. A and B
D. None of the above

A

C. A and B

94
Q
  1. [Descent] As a minimum, the pilot flying the approach will brief the crew on the transition level, planned descent rate, DH/MDA/VDP, missed approach procedures and assign crew responsibilities for backing up the pilot flying the airplane _________.

A. During the full stop landing
B. If windshear is encountered along the final approach course
C. While accomplishing a touch and go landing
D. If an unplanned go-around occurs

A

D. If an unplanned go-around occurs

95
Q
  1. From 500’ AGL to the runway, the PF will execute a go-around/missed approach when which of the following parameters are exceeded.

A. Airspeed: +10/-5 knots from target
B. Bank Angle: +/- 15 degrees
C. Rate of Descent: +/- 300 FPM from target
D. Any of the above

A

D. Any of the above

96
Q
  1. During the descent checklist, an accurate check of the electric and hydraulic systems consists of the pilot checking switches and pressure in the left, right, reserve brake and powered rudder systems while the copilot checks electrical power system indicators and hydraulic quantities.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

97
Q
  1. When landing with less than full flaps, avoid excessive flare with resultant floating in an attempt for a smooth landing. Make a normal flare and touchdown at ________.

A. Threshold speed minus 10 knots
B. Threshold speed minus 5 knots
C. VAPP for the applicable flap setting
D. VREF

A

A. Threshold speed minus 10 knots

98
Q
  1. Application of _______ brakes during landing ground roll may override the ______ antiskid brake system and lock the airplane brakes resulting in possible blown tires or reverted rubber hydroplaning.

A. Pilot, Co-Pilot
B. Pilot, Pilot
C. Co-Pilot, Pilot
D. Co-Pilot, Co-Pilot

A

C. Co-Pilot, Pilot

99
Q
  1. Engine acceleration from ground idle to touch and go target thrust may require up to 20 seconds. Attempting a go-around after the engines have decelerated to ground idle results in an extended ground run. Consider aborting the takeoff if the engines go to ground idle.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

100
Q
  1. Touchdown with a crab angle and with wings level may result in a rapid rising of the
    _______wing and may cause the ______ engine nacelles to drag on the runway.

A. Upwind, Upwind
B. Downwind, Downwind
C. Downwind, Upwind
D. Upwind, Downwind

A

D. Upwind, Downwind

101
Q
  1. Do not allow the bank angle at touchdown (4 to 6 degrees pitch attitude) to exceed degrees due to possibility of dragging an outboard engine nacelle.

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9

A

C. 8

102
Q
  1. During landing ground roll, do not allow airplane to bank beyond ________ degrees due to possibility of dragging an engine nacelle.

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9

A

A. 4

103
Q
  1. Prior to initiating turns, visually check for other traffic. The first turn should not be initiated until _______.

A. Reaching minimum traffic pattern (maneuver) speed
B. A safe altitude
C. Passing the end of the runway
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

104
Q
  1. Remove crab _________, maintaining a slight wing low attitude into the wind, as necessary to counteract drift.

A. Over the threshold
B. Prior to touchdown
C. When pulling power
D. Prior to the threshold

A

B. Prior to touchdown

105
Q
  1. N1 settings, pattern, approach, and reference speeds will be recomputed when:

(1) Gross weight changes >/= pounds
(2) Temperature changes >/= (5F)
(3) Pressure altitude changes >/= feet
(4) Airplane configuration changes
(5) Changes in wind conditions require an adjustment to the charted speeds

A. 5,000; 5C; 500 feet
B. 10,000; 3C; 250 feet
C. 10,000; 3C; 500 feet
D. 5,000; 2C; 500 feet

A

C. 10,000; 3C; 500 feet

106
Q
  1. [Go-Around] The minimum airspeed for retracting flaps to ___ degrees is flaps 50° VTH speed.

A. 50
B. 40
C. 30
D. 20

A

C. 30

107
Q
  1. ____ Due to the lack of surge protection features, reverse refueling is prohibited.

A. [ARR E]
B. [ARR B]
C. [ARR C]
D. [ARR G]

A

A. [ARR E]

108
Q
  1. Except in an emergency, do not engage or disengage the ________ while in the contact position, as an unscheduled attitude change can occur about the vertical/longitudinal axes.

A. EFAS
B. Stabilizer trim brake
C. Series yaw damper
D. Antiskid

A

C. Series yaw damper

109
Q
  1. When transferring fuel, only A/R pump(s) shall be operated at a time. This precludes the possibility of over-pressurizing a fuel tank if a fuel level control valve fails in the open position.

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

A

D. 1

110
Q
  1. Monitor the fuel quantity gauges to avoid exceeding airplane limits. Maintain symmetrical fuel quantities in the wing tanks to prevent lateral unbalance.

A. CG
B. Structural
C. Maneuvering
D. Fuel Tank

A

A. CG

111
Q
  1. [Manual Boom Latching] The receiver pilot must initiate all disconnects before__________.

A. fatigue sets in
B. over pressurizing the ARR manifold
C. exceeding any of the limits
D. called by the boom operator

A

C. exceeding any of the limits

112
Q
  1. The ______ valve will be CLOSED before operation of the air refueling pumps because fuel pressure surges could cause rupture of the _____ manifold in the cockpit area.

A. tank to engine manifold; tank to engine manifold
B. single point refueling; single point refueling
C. main ARR/IFR; ARR
D. tank to engine manifold; main IFR

A

C. main ARR/IFR; ARR

113
Q
  1. A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished only _________.

A. by a qualified instructor boom
B. as a last resort, after all other normal and emergency methods of disconnect have failed
C. when agreed upon by both the receiver and tanker
D. on [ARR E] configured jets

A

B. as a last resort, after all other normal and emergency methods of disconnect have failed

114
Q
  1. The receiver pilot must use caution not to overrun the tanker. If overrunning does occur, under no conditions should a turn, either right or left, be made until ________.

A. a breakaway has been completed
B. speed brakes are deployed
C. the tanker is visual
D. throttles are advanced

A

A. a breakaway has been completed

115
Q
  1. Approaching boom limits at relatively high velocity can cause ________ due to binding action of the boom nozzle.

A. operating limits to be exceeded prior to disconnect
B. negative contact indication
C. structural damage as a result of an inability to disconnect
D. a pressure disconnect

A

C. structural damage as a result of an inability to disconnect

116
Q
  1. The receiver will stabilize in the astern position with a _____ rate of closure. If the receiver fails to attain a stabilized position, or it becomes apparent that a closure overrun will occur, a breakaway will be initiated. Failure to initiate a breakaway under closure overrun conditions can result in a mid-air collision.

A. slight
B. zero
C. negative
D. slow

A

B. zero

117
Q
  1. If the receiver director lights fail to illuminate when contact is established, the ______ will inform the _______ if refueling operations are to be continued. If refueling is continued, verbal corrections from the boom operator may be requested.

A. receiver copilot; tanker copilot
B. receiver pilot; tanker pilot
C. receiver pilot; boom operator
D. boom operator; receiver pilot

A

C. receiver pilot; boom operator

118
Q
  1. The boom operator is unable to release the boom toggles during manual boom latching.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

119
Q
  1. One of the greatest potential hazards during air refueling is ________. On becoming fatigued, or if for any reason large oscillations develop which require increasing amounts of control displacement, break contact and _______ the airplane in the astern position for a few minutes.

A. Explosive vapors, ventilate
B. Fatigue, let the other pilot fly
C. flameout of engines, look around
D. rupture of the ARR manifold in the cockpit area

A

B. Fatigue, let the other pilot fly

120
Q
  1. Attempts to effect a contact during loss of any air refueling lighting that results in less than desired illumination will be at the discretion of the ________.

A. receiver pilot
B. tanker pilot
C. boom operator
D. instructor pilot

A

C. boom operator

121
Q
  1. If the receiver is more than ____ in trail with the tanker, airspeed may be increased to _____
    KIAS for closure. The normal speed schedule will be resumed at 3 NM in trail.

A. 3NM; 350
B. 3NM; 330
C. 4NM; 350
D. 4NM; 330

A

D. 4NM; 330

KC-135 Study (6 decks)

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