Pilot MQF

Question 1

4. The aural alert and the MASTER WARNING and MASTER CAUTION lights for some ACAWS alerts are inhibited for takeoff between to knots or to feet AGL. However, the caution or advisory message is listed on the ACAWS display and the associated aural alert is presented as soon as the inhibit phase is over. Aural alerts remain active during touch and go landings unless airspeed decreases to less than or equal to KIAS on the runway with power levers below FLT IDLE.

a. 60, 130, 10, 500, 60
b. 70, 140, 0, 400, 60
c. 80, 150, 0, 300, 70
d. 70, 140, 10, 400, 70

Answer 1

B

Ref: 1C-130J-1 [1-B-40]

Question 2

1. A WARNING is an:

a. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize.
b. Operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
c. Operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
d. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency.

Answer 2

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[XVI]

Question 3

2. A CAUTION is an:

a. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize.
b. Operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
c. Operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
d. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency.

Answer 3

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[XVI]

Question 4

3. A NOTE is an:

a. Operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize.
b. Operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
c. Operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
d. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency

Answer 4

Ans: A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[XVI]

Question 5

5. Maximum airspeed if encountering severe turbulence is:

a. 200 KIAS
b. 187 KIAS
c. 181 KIAS
d. 170 KIAS

Answer 5

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[7-15]

Question 6

6. Maximum landing gear and landing light extended speeds are:

a. 168 KIAS, 250 KIAS
b. 165 KIAS, 165 KIAS
c. 250 KIAS, 250 KIAS
d. 168 KIAS, 180 KIAS

Answer 6

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-13]

Question 7

7. What is the maximum airspeed for 50% flaps?

a. 140 KIAS
b. 183 KIAS
c. 165 KIAS
d. 168 KIAS

Answer 7

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-13]

Question 8

8. Maximum airspeed with inoperative windshield anti-ice protection below 10,000 ft MSL is:

a. 250 KIAS
b. 168 KIAS
c. 220 KIAS
d. 187 KIAS

Answer 8

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-13]

Question 9

9. Turning with the brakes locked on the inside of the turn is prohibited. While turning the airplane, avoid hard or abrupt brake application or braking to a stop, since damage to the landing gear and/or supporting structure may result. If any of the above occurs:

a. Record it in the appropriate maintenance forms.
b. Taxi the airplane 6 ft forward to align the gear.
c. Turn and brake the aircraft in the opposite direction.
d. All of the above should be performed.

Answer 9

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2A-57]

Question 10

10. The maximum tire ground speed (knots) for the nose wheel is :
    a. 174
    b. 155
    c. 145
    d. 139

Answer 10

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-27]

Question 11

11. Which of the following must be operational prior to entering RVSM airspace?

a. One autopilot, including altitude hold
b. IFF, including Mode C
c. Both HUDs
d. Both A and B are correct

Answer 11

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2A-76]

Question 12

12. Static propeller feathering is limited to cycles. A cycle is counted each time the aux feather pump is used to drive the propeller from feather to reverse and back to feather.
    Feathering is limited to ______ commands. A feather command is counted each time the FIRE handle is pulled or the PROPELLER CONTROL switch is placed to FEATHER.

a. 4, 6
b. 4, 4
c. 4, 2
d. 2, 4

Answer 12

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-31]

Question 13

13. If aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees and the crosswind component is greater than 15 knots but less than 35 knots:

a. 2,000 HP max until airplane speed is greater than 15 knots.
b. 2,000 HP max until airplane speed is greater than 35 knots.
c. 2500 HP max until the airplane speed is >35 kts.
d. Takeoff is not permitted.

Answer 13

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-32]

Question 14

14. The APU start light should extinguish .

a. When the APU has lit off.
b. When EGT is at 300 degrees C.
c. At 100% RPM
d. At approximately 50% RPM

Answer 14

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-32]

Question 15

15. What is the APU starter duty cycle?

a. 1 minute on and 1 minute off
b. 1 minute on and 4 minutes off
c. 4 minutes on and 4 minutes off
d. 2 minutes on and 2 minutes off

Answer 15

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-33]

Question 16

16. What are the limits for fuel unbalance between wings (excluding AUX tank fuel)?

a. 1,000 lbs
b. 1,500 lbs
c. 500 lbs
d. 2,500 lbs

Answer 16

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-17]

Question 17

17. What are the limits for fuel unbalance between a symmetrical pair of tanks (main or external)?

a. 1,000 lbs
b. 500 lbs
c. 1,500 lbs
d. 2,500 lbs

Answer 17

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-17]

Question 18

18. APU maximum continuous EGT is degrees C.
    a. 650
    b. 680
    c. 710
    d. 852

Answer 18

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-33]

Question 19

19. APU bleed air can be used during flight.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 19

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-32]

Question 20

20. The APU must be on speed and warmed up a minimum of before applying a bleed air load.

a. 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 2 minutes
d. 4 minutes

Answer 20

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-33]

Question 21

21. If APU EGT exceeds degrees C for longer than seconds, the APU OVERTEMP (C) ACAWS alerts the crew to reduce APU loading.

a. 710, 3
b. 680, 3
c. 807, 5
d. 750, 3

Answer 21

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-33]

Question 22

22. Do not operate with the autopilot engaged:

a. During ILS coupled approaches below 200 feet (CAT 1), 100 feet (CAT 2) AGL or when flying over the localizer transmitter
b. At or below 500ft AGL/AWL except for approaches and operational necessity
c. In RVSM airspace unless the autopilot is able to maintain altitude within +/- 65 feet of ATC assigned flight level at all times during normal cruise (steady, level flight in non-turbulent conditions).
d. All the above

Answer 22

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-4]

Question 23

23. What color denotes an extreme range on engine instrument indications?

a. Cyan
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. White Inverse Video

Answer 23

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-41]

Question 24

24. What color(s) on engine instrument indicators indicates the Normal Operating Range

a. Cyan
b. Green or White
c. Yellow
d. Red

Answer 24

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-41&42]

Question 25

25. During ground operations, limit horsepower to when oil temperature is less than 0 degrees C and to when engine oil temperature is less than 45 degrees C.

a. HOTEL mode, LSGI
b. LSGI, Takeoff Power
c. Idle, 1000 HP
d. 1,000 HP, Takeoff Power

Answer 25

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-29, note 7]

Question 26

26. The engine starter duty cycle is:

a. 60 seconds on, 60 seconds off, 60 seconds on, 5 minutes off, 60 seconds on, then a 30 minute cooling time is required
b. 70 seconds on, 60 seconds off, for 5 cycles, then a 20 minute cooling time is required
c. 1 minute on, then a 10 minute cooling time is required
d. The AE2100D3 engine has no starter duty cycle

Answer 26

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-28]

Question 27

27. The minimum batteries voltage allowed for takeoff is VDC. Replace battery if voltage is less than
    VDC.

a. 22,22
b. 24,22
c. 22,24
d. 24,24

Answer 27

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2A-25]

Question 28

28. Operating the aircraft in severe icing conditions or in freezing rain/drizzle is not recommended and should be avoided.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 28

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[7-9]

Question 29

29. For a circling approach, maintain approach speed until established on final approach.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 29

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[7-3]

Question 30

30. During engine start, a single white box is displayed around all nine parameters for the engine being started. A white timer is displayed below the HP dial to indicate how long the starter engagement has been activated. The box and timer are removed at the completion of the start cycle (normally at ___ ).

a. 50% NG
b. 65% NP
c. 65% NG
d. 72% NG

Answer 30

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-G-25]

Question 31

31. Normal hydraulic operating pressure should be indicated _.

a. 30 seconds after START switch is placed to START
b. By the time NP is on speed
c. Within 30 seconds after NP is on speed
d. Within 60 seconds after NP is on speed

Answer 31

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-47]

Question 32

32. The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and take-off when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temperature of degrees C or less

a. 0
b. 5
c. 8
d. 10

Answer 32

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [7-10]

Question 33

33. Entry and exit to the airplane using the left and right paratroop doors is prohibited during ground operations while the engines are operating in ___________.

a. low speed ground idle and flaps extended
b. normal ground idle and flaps up
c. HOTEL mode and flaps are extended
d. LSGI and flaps up

Answer 33

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-49]

Question 34

34. Descents below 5000’ with the wing and empennage ice protection systems operating require a minimum power setting on 2 engines of horsepower per engine.
    a. 500
    b. 750
    c. 1,000
    d. 2,500

Answer 34

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[7-12]

Question 35

35. The wing/empennage ice protection system should not be operated in mode except during approach and landing.

a. De-Ice
b. Anti-Ice
c. Auto
d. Manual

Answer 35

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-L-19]

Question 36

36. Before shutdown, the engines are normally shifted to LSGI and operated for before shutdown to more gradually cool engine components and prolong engine life.

a. 15 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 2 minutes

Answer 36

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-108]

Question 37

37. The engines can be safely shutdown from normal ground idle, if required.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 37

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-108]

Question 38

38. Engine shutdowns on the ground are divided into two categories. For all ACAWS WARNINGS (red master warning light and tone), pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. For all other engine shutdowns on the ground, including normal shut downs and shut downs for ACAWS CAUTIONS and ADVISORIES, place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 38

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-46]

Question 39

39. For approaches when icing conditions have been encountered within 6 minutes of landing, increase approach and threshold speeds with 100% flaps by knots, approach and threshold speeds with 50% flaps by knots and approach and threshold speeds with 0% flaps by knots.

a. 6, 10, 20
b. 6, 10, 15
c. 6, 12, 15
d. 10, 15, 20

Answer 39

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[7-12]

Question 40

40. Fuel tank quantity indicators are reliable even in conditions other than level flight.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 40

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-R-12]

Question 41

41. When performing cross-ship manifold priming, ensure FUEL PRESS indicator reads PSI when the No 1 MAIN transfer switch is placed to FROM and the X SHIP switch is opened. Check FUEL PRESS indicator decreases approximately PSI when the No 4 MAIN transfer switch is placed to TO.

a. 28 to 40, 10
b. 15 to 24, 15
c. 28 to 40, 20
d. 8.5 to 28, 30

Answer 41

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-R-13]

Question 42

42. What temperature would you use cold weather procedures?

a. Wind chill below 10 degrees F/-12 degrees C
b. 15 degrees F/-10 degrees C and below
c. 40 degrees F/4 degrees C and below
d. 32 degrees F/0 degrees C and below

Answer 42

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[7-16]

Question 43

43. The recommended fuel management for approach and full stop landings is:

a. Tank-to-engine operation
b. Crossfeed operation
c. Either A or B

Answer 43

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-R-13]

Question 44

44. During the power up checklist, if battery voltage is between and VDC, recharge or replace the battery and rerun the battery test.

a. 20, 22
b. 20, 24
c. 22, 24
d. 24, 28

Answer 44

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-25]

Question 45

45. The APU may be operating during application of de-icing fluid.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 45

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[7-18]

Question 46

46. Low fuel state operations are defined as those operations that result in the airplane landing at destination with less than lbs of fuel.

a. 4,000
b. 6,000
c. 7,000
d. 10,000

Answer 46

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[3-225]

Question 47

47. When the airplane will land with less than pounds of fuel, inform ATC that a FUEL EMERGENCY exists.

a. 7,000
b. 6,000
c. 3,000
d. 2,000

Answer 47

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[3-226]

Question 48

48. The APU may shut down without an associated ACAWS message. If this occurs:

a. 1 restart may be attempted.
b. No more than 2 restarts may be attempted.
c. Restart only if using an external power cart.
d. Maintenance action is required prior to APU restart.

Answer 48

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-26]

Question 49

49. If engine oil temperature before start is ≤ 0 degrees C, operate the engine in HOTEL mode until engine oil temperature is above degrees C and rising.

a. 0
b. 15
c. 45
d. 60

Answer 49

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-48]

Question 50

50. What is the minimum amount of fuel in the No. 2 main tank that will normally allow the APU to start and run without setting the No. 2 engine start switch to RUN?

a. 900 lbs
b. 2,000 lbs
c. 1,000 lbs
d. 2,250 lbs

Answer 50

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-104]

Question 51

51. It is permitted to select AUTONAV when only one of the CNI-MUs show the correct present position.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 51

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-30]

Question 52

52. Above what temperature would you use Hot Weather procedures?

a. 95 degrees F/35 degrees C
b. 100 degrees F/38 degrees C
c. 85 degrees F/29 degrees C
d. 90 degrees F/322 degrees C

Answer 52

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[7-27]

Question 53

53. (Airplane s modified by TCTO 1C-130-2098, Carbon Brakes) Fusible plug release is likely after the second consecutive (i.e.: within 15 minutes between individual stops) full anti-skid braking operation (aborted takeoff, engine out/flaps up landing, etc.) above ________________pounds. Fusible plug release is unlikely to occur with a single aborted takeoff at gross weights up to ________________ pounds.

a. 155,000; 164,000
b. 130, 000; 175,000
c. 175,000; 130,000
d. 130,000; 155,000

Answer 53

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-Q-18, 2-A-94]

Question 54

54. If hot brakes are suspected, the area on both sides of the wheel will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least ft. If conditions require personnel to be close to any overheated wheel, approach should be from .

a. 150, the sides
b. 100, fore or aft
c. 200, the sides
d. 300, fore or aft

Answer 54

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-Q-19, 2-A-95, 3-163]

Question 55

55. Peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly from approximately minutes and in the wheel and tire assembly from approximately minutes after a maximum braking operation.

a. 10 to 15, 20 to 30
b. 5 to 10, 20 to 30
c. 1 to 5, 20 to 30
d. 10 to 15, 30 to 40

Answer 55

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-Q-20]

Question 56

56. When comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known check point, the maximum allowable error is +/- ft for the pilot, copilot and standby altimeters.

a. 50
b. 40
c. 75
d. 10

Answer 56

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-45, 2-A-43]

Question 57

57. Do not illuminate the landing lights for more than seconds on the ground, unless sufficient air flow exists for cooling from engine operation or taxi.
    a. 10
    b. 20
    c. 30
    d. 60

Answer 57

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-S-18, 2-A-64, 2-A-108]

Question 58

58. Turn off the NESA HEAT switch (affected windows) if :

a. Electrical arcing is observed in any of the panels.
b. The panels are excessively hot to the touch.
c. Any of the panels containing thermistors are not heating.
d. All the above.

Answer 58

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[3-243]

Question 59

59. Do not commence an engine start if MGT is above degrees C. Motor the engine, if necessary.
    a. 100
    b. 175
    c. 200
    d. 250

Answer 59

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-46]

Question 60

60. Before attempting a ground engine restart, wait seconds after NG reaches zero (0) to enable a successful test of the NG independent over-speed protection circuit.
    a. 10
    b. 20
    c. 30
    d. 60

Answer 60

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-46]

Question 61

61. During a ground engine start, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, motor the engine for at least .

a. 1 minute
b. 30 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 10 seconds

Answer 61

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-46]

Question 62

62. During a normal ground engine start, if the FADEC has automatically aborted the start:

a. Pull the FIRE handle
b. Attempt an immediate restart.
c. Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.
d. Both B and C are correct.

Answer 62

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-46]

Question 63

63. Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining an engine start is PSI. A momentary drop below this is acceptable when the starter valve opens.
    a. 15
    b. 22
    c. 30
    d. 35

Answer 63

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-46]

Question 64

64. Which of the following is not an ACAWS condition requiring the FIRE handle to be pulled and the ENGINE START switch to be placed to STOP during an engine start.

a. ENG FIRE 1 (2, 3, 4) warning
b. ENG 1 (2, 3, 4) MGT HI warning
c. START VLV 1 (2, 3, 4) OPEN warning
d. ENG 1 (2, 3, 4) FLAMEOUT caution

Answer 64

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-47]

Question 65

65. During ground starts, the FADEC automatically shuts down the engine start sequence for:

a. ENG 1 (2,3, or 4) FLAMEOUT caution
b. No indications of oil pressure within 15 secs of NG rotation
c. ENG 1 (2,3, or 4) STAGNATED START advisory
d. Both A and C are correct

Answer 65

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-47]

Question 66

66. Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if no NG is present seconds after placing the ENGINE START switch to START.
    a. 2
    b. 5
    c. 10
    d. 15

Answer 66

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-48]

Question 67

67. The ENGINE START switch must be placed to STOP if no indication of engine oil pressure is indicated by ENG 1(2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 67

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-48]

Question 68

68. The fire handle must be pulled if no indication of propeller gearbox oil pressure is indicated by GBOX 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 68

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-48]

Question 69

69. During ground engine starts, pull the fire handle and place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if MGT rapidly approaches or exceeds _.

a. 850 degrees C
b. 977 degrees C
c. 807 degrees C
d. 700 degrees C

Answer 69

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-47]

Question 70

70. If torching (visible fire in the tailpipe for more than a few seconds), sparks in the exhaust or excessive smoke occurs during engine start:

a. Pull the FIRE handle.
b. The FADEC automatically aborts the start.
c. Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP
d. Accomplish A then C.

Answer 70

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-48]

Question 71

71. If OAT is above degrees F and the wing/empennage and vertical tail boot ice protection test must be repeated, wait at least minutes to prevent overheating the vertical tail.

a. 70, 10
b. 95, 5
c. 70, 5
d. 45, 10

Answer 71

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-62]

Question 72

72. CAUTION: A _______ minute cool down period is required between stick pusher activations to prevent damage to the stick pusher actuator.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 2
d. 1

Answer 72

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-51]

Question 73

73. The last autopilot engaged determines the flight director source.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 73

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-C-3]

Question 74

74. The propeller overspeed governor test may be attempted with oil temperature greater than or equal to
    degrees C. If the test fails, retest when oil temperature is greater than or equal to degrees C.

a. 0, 45
b. 45, 60
c. 60, 45
d. 80, 60

Answer 74

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-63]

Question 75

75. The propeller overspeed governor test may fail up to consecutive time(s) before maintenance action is required.
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 5

Answer 75

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-63]

Question 76

76. Turning the ________ switches on with 3 or more power levers at FLT IDLE or greater can result in the stick pusher automatically turning off.

a. Engine anti-ice
b. NESA
c. Landing light
d. Pitot heat

Answer 76

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-64]

Question 77

77. The maximum crosswind component for takeoff is at weights above 105,000 lbs. At lower weights the limit varies linearly down to 23 knots at 80,000 lbs.
    a. 27
    b. 35
    c. 40
    d. 50

Answer 77

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-69]

Question 78

78. If predicted climb out flight path is not required, raise the flaps passing FUSS, Vobs + 25 but not less than ______ KIAS.
    a. 120
    b. 130
    c. 135
    d. 150

Answer 78

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-73]

Question 79

79. Maximum recommended airspeed (Vh) must not be exceeded in greater than turbulence or structural damage may occur.

a. Light
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. This speed can never be exceeded without risking structural damage.

Answer 79

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-75]

Question 80

80. NOTE: Wing/empennage anti-icing mode should be turned on in sufficient time prior to landing to ensure the vertical stabilizer is completely anti-iced. This may take as long as ______. Failure to do so will cause the X-WIND LIMITED ACAWS message to be displayed when the landing gear are lowered, and the sideslip warning system will limit crosswind landing capability if icing is detected.

a. 6 minutes
b. 12 minutes
c. 2.5 minutes
d. 10 minutes

Answer 80

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-87]

Question 81

81. The normal flap setting for landing is %

a. 0
b. 50
c. 100

Answer 81

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-92]

Question 82

82. At the first indication of directional control difficulties during 4 engine reverse thrust, immediately return all power levers to the position until the affected engine can be identified.

a. Flight idle
b. Ground idle
c. Maximum continuous
d. Takeoff

Answer 82

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-93]

Question 83

83. If one BETA indication does not illuminate after the power levers are brought to ground idle and no other associated ACAWS occurs, there is a remote possibility that directional control difficulties will occur as airspeed slows. If necessary for directional control:

a. The engine fire handle should be pulled on the engine without the BETA indication.
b. The engine without BETA should be ignored.
c. All throttles should be placed in flight idle then back to ground idle.
d. Do not place any of the power levers into reverse.

Answer 83

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-93]

Question 84

84. Do not move the power levers below FLT IDLE above KTAS. Moving the power levers below FLT IDLE above this speed can lead to all engine-driven generators tripping off-line due to an over-frequency condition caused by excessively high propeller RPM transients. Anti-skid protection will be lost resulting in increased landing distance.

a. 135
b. 139
c. 155
d. 145

Answer 84

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-97]

Question 85

85. During a crosswind landing if continuous BANK ANGLE or SIDE SLIP alerts occur or LEFT or RIGHT RUDDER alert occurs, crosswinds may be too high to land safely.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 85

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-98]

Question 86

86. To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over degrees during landings.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

Answer 86

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-98]

Question 87

87. For a WINDSHEAR alert during takeoff or approach, or GCAS PULL UP alert:

a. Set TAKEOFF power and level the wings.
b. Press the “go-around” button on the yoke and follow the flight director commands.
c. Pitch immediately to 15 degrees nose up, then adjust pitch to maintain approximately 10 knots above the stall warning caret.
d. Both A and C should be performed.

Answer 87

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-103]

Question 88

88. To prevent an abnormal shutdown of the EGI, delay turning off AC power for approximately
    seconds or until ECB 499 indicates open.
    a. 5
    b. 10
    c. 35
    d. 60

Answer 88

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-A-110]

Question 89

89. You plan to airstart a shutdown engine. The FIRE handle is IN, the propeller is stopped, and NG is <7%. According to the airstart scenario table, you must complete the airstart within ___________.

a. 6 hours
b. 20 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 3 minutes

Answer 89

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-31]

Question 90

90. A stopped propeller is defined as rotation _________%NP or _________ RPS (visual)

a. ≤3%, 1/2 RPS
b. ≥3%, 2 RPS
c. >7%, 1/2 RPS
d. <7%, 2 RPS

Answer 90

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[5-31]

Question 91

91. During takeoff, if engine failure occurs after reaching refusal speed set .

a. 2-5 degrees of bank into the inoperative engine
b. 2-5 degrees of bank into the operating engines
c. 2-5 degrees of rudder trim into the inoperative engine
d. 7-10 degrees of bank into the operating engines

Answer 91

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[3-167]

Question 92

92. On a two-engine inoperative go-around, do not raise the FLAPS lever above because low boost will be set and there may be insufficient rudder control available for full two engine power.

a. 15%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 20%

Answer 92

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[3-176]

Question 93

93. If both tires of the right main landing gear are flat:

a. Land on the left side of the runway
b. Land on the right side of the runway
c. Keep the nose gear off the runway as long as possible
d. Both A and C are correct

Answer 93

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[3-214]

Question 94

94. During manual flap extension, is there protection against asymmetrical flaps operation?

a. Yes
b. No

Answer 94

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[3-235]

Question 95

95. When either the CREW DOOR OPEN or RAMP OPEN PRESSURIZED ACAWS message is displayed, the pilot or copilot will immediately notify what?

a. Crew and passengers to fasten seat belts
b. Crew to select 100% Oxygen
c. The loadmaster to investigate the door
d. The crew to descend to below 10,000 feet

Answer 95

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[3-13, 3-20]

Question 96

96. During an airstart, the FADEC will not allow the starter to engage or the start sequence to begin unless NG is
    _%

a. Less than 29
b. Greater than 15
c. Less than 15
d. Greater than 29

Answer 96

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-C-15]

Question 97

97. During the airstart procedure, allow up to after NG stabilizes for the onset of propeller (NP) rotation.

a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 2 minutes

Answer 97

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[2-C-16]

Question 98

98. Select the correct statement concerning AC Bus power sources:

a. If the APU generator is on line, the APU will power the essential and main AC buses regardless of the ON/OFF condition of the other generators.
b. If the APU is the only generator on line, it will only power the essential AC bus.
c. If only engine driven generators #1, #2, and #4 are on line, #1 will power the LH AC bus, #2 will power the essential AC bus, and #4 will power the main and RH AC buses.
d. If only engine driven generators #1, and #2 are on line, #1 will power the LH and essential buses, and #2 will power the main and RH buses.

Answer 98

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-F-4]

Question 99

99. A main tank boost pump is turned on by:

a. Placing the appropriate throttle to the GROUND IDLE position.
b. Rotating the appropriate ENGINE START switch to the RUN position.
c. Rotate the appropriate TRANSFER switch to the FROM position.
d. None of the above

Answer 99

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-R-11]

Question 100

100. Fuel transfer pumps are turned on by placing the transfer switch to:

a. FROM
b. TO
c. RUN
d. AUTO

Answer 100

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-R-8]

Question 101

101. What is the primary measure of engine power?

a. MGT
b. HP
c. NP
d. NG

Answer 101

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-B-32]

Question 102

102. Below 15,500 feet with the other engines running normally, when the FADEC detects autofeather criteria for an inboard engine it will:

a. Autofeather the engine immediately
b. Autofeather after a two-second delay
c. Windmill the engine at 100% NP to ensure good electrics and hydraulics
d. Do nothing but supply an ACAWS message

Answer 102

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-G-17]

Question 103

103. Above 15,500 feet, if the FADEC detects autofeather criteria it will:

a. Autofeather an outboard propeller without delay
b. Windmill an inboard propeller at 100% RPM
c. Windmill any propeller if another engine is already shut down
d. Both A and B

Answer 103

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-G-17]

Question 104

104. If the oil cooler flaps switches fail, how can you operate the system?

a. FADEC’s will automatically run the system
b. Oil cooler ECB’s will remain open and can be closed through the ECBU
c. With switches left in AUTO, there is no reason to touch the panel
d. Through the CNI-MU oil cooler flaps soft panel

Answer 104

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-G-22]

Question 105

105. How many smoke detectors are there on the airplane and where are they?

a. 4 smoke detectors are located in the cargo compartment
b. 5, 4 in the cargo compartment and 1 under the flight deck
c. 4, 1 on the flight deck, one under the deck, and 2 in the cargo compartment
d. 4, 3 in the cargo compartment and 1 in the underdeck avionics compartment

Answer 105

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-J-3]

Question 106

106. The engine FIRE handle when pulled:

a. Closes the firewall fuel shutoff valve.
b. Signals the FADECs to feather the propeller and shutdown the engine.
c. Opens the oil cooler.
d. Both A and B are correct.

Answer 106

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-J-7]

Question 107

107. Manifold bleed air pressure can be read on the:

a. Pressurization Control Panel
b. CNI-MU Bleed Air Soft panel
c. Bleed Air Control Panel
d. System Status Page

Answer 107

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-K-16]

Question 108

108. Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the fuel tank.

a. Number 1 main
b. Number 2 main
c. Number 3 main
d. Number 4 main

Answer 108

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-H-3]

Question 109

109. When the APU fire handle is pulled the following occurs:

a. APU door closes as RPM decreases to approximately18% RPM
b. Control power to the APU start circuit is interrupted
c. Fire extinguisher system directional flow valve is positioned
d. All of the above

Answer 109

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-H-7]

Question 110

110. The Booster hydraulic system supplies hydraulic power to:

a. A portion of the Emergency brake system.
b. A portion of the flight control boost system
c. A portion of the Flap system
d. Both A and B are correct

Answer 110

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-N-3]

Question 111

111. Identify the system powered by the Utility hydraulic system:

a. Nose landing gear emergency extension.
b. Flaps
c. Emergency brakes
d. Ramp and door

Answer 111

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-N-3]

Question 112

112. Identify the system powered by the AUX hydraulic system:

a. Flight controls
b. Nosewheel steering
c. Emergency brakes
d. Both B and C are correct

Answer 112

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-N-4]

Question 113

113. Each engine driven hydraulic pump has an internal flow compensator to vary output volume with system demand, and to control pressure to maintain approximately PSI.

a. 2,900
b. 3,000
c. 3,300
d. 2,500

Answer 113

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-N-3]

Question 114

114. When the flaps are extended more than approximately percent and the landing gear is not down and locked, the landing gear warning audio will sound. It cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flaps are repositioned to less than percent.

a. 60, 50
b. 70, 70
c. 80, 70
d. 80, 80

Answer 114

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-P-13]

Question 115

115. Which of the following conditions automatically shut off both the air conditioning units?

a. During engine start, an ENGINE START switch is placed to START
b. During the wing/empennage and vertical tail boot ice protection test
c. Both A and B are correct
d. The bleed air manifold pressure drops below 40 PSI

Answer 115

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-L-3, 2-A-61]

Question 116

116. How is the underfloor heat turned on?

a. Automatically by the BA/ECS.
b. By the cargo compartment air conditioning system.
c. By placing the underfloor switch to the HEAT/FAN position.
d. By the avionics cooling system.

Answer 116

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-L-4]

Question 117

117. In automatic mode, the aircraft should not begin to pressurize until:

a. Climbing above 3,000 ft AGL
b. Reaching 60 KIAS
c. Reaching 70 KIAS
d. The power levers are advanced above flight idle

Answer 117

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-L-14]

Question 118

118. Which of the following Ice Protection systems are not triggered by the ice detectors?

a. Pitot heat
b. Wing/Empennage
c. Propellers
d. Engines

Answer 118

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-M-3 thru 1-M-12]

Question 119

119. In the anti-icing mode, the zone control valves operate the same as the deice mode except the vertical tail zone control valves remain open continuously.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 119

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-M-4]

Question 120

120. What method of ice protection is used on the propellers?

a. Bleed air
b. Electric heat
c. Alcohol
d. Pneumatic boots

Answer 120

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-M-9]

Question 121

121. The oxygen system uses diluter-demand automatic pressure regulators and operates at an indicated pressure of ___________in a static system under a no-flow condition. Under a continuous breathing condition the pressure should indicate_________.

a. 270-340 PSI, 270-455 PSI
b. 270-455 PSI, 270-340 PSI
c. 320-430 PSI, 200-300 PSI
d. Pressure does not matter as long as the LOX quantity indicates above 5 liters.

Answer 121

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-S-3]

Question 122

122. On a C-130J model the oxygen system uses oxygen and the manual shutoff valve is located on the side of the cargo compartment forward bulkhead.

a. Liquid, Left
b. Liquid, Right
c. Gaseous, Left
d. Solid, Right

Answer 122

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-S-3]

Question 123

123. The C-130J has portable oxygen bottles.
     a. 2
     b. 3
     c. 4
     d. 5

Answer 123

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-S-6]

Question 124

124. The pilot is manually flying the aircraft level at 10,000 ft MSL. The HUD and PFD altitude reference displays read 5,000 ft. Select the correct statement below.

a. As a pilot descends through 5,000 ft going to 4,000 ft, they receive an audio message ‘Thousand to Go’
b. If the pilot presses the ALT SEL knob, the reference barometric altitude on the PFDs and HUDs will synchronize to the current 10,000 ft altitude
c. The HUD and PFD will show a flashing ‘CHECK ALTITUDE’ message because the aircraft altitude has deviated more than 200 ft from the reference altitude

Answer 124

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-C-7]

Question 125

125. The altimeter setting reads “29.98 in HG” on the pilot’s PFD. The pilot is advised by Approach Control that the altimeter setting is 1013 MB. Select the correct statement below.

a. The pilot can press the BARO SET knob on the Ref Set panel and the altimeter setting will reset to 1013 MB, or they can dial the setting to 1013 MB
b. The pilot directs the copilot to set 1013 MB in the altimeter setting. The pilot verifies this by looking at the pilot’s HUD and PFD and observing the altimeter setting changing to 1013
c. The pilot uses the AMU PFD page to select millibars. Next they press the BARO SET knob to set the altimeter to 1013 MB, or they can rotate the BARO SET knob to achieve the correct setting.
d. The pilot uses the CNI-MU to select the ‘MB’ setting. Next, they press the BARO SET knob to set 1013 MB

Answer 125

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-C-8]

Question 126

126. The pilot presses the A/T ON (Autothrottle) switch. Select the correct statement:

a. Autothrottles will not engage unless the IAS is set to ± 10 knots of the aircraft’s current indicated airspeed
b. Autothrottles will engage and the IAS will be automatically set to the aircraft’s current indicated airspeed
c. Autothrottles will engage and smoothly advance or retard the throttles to capture the IAS set in the REF SET panel
d. The only way to disengage autothrottles is to press the go-around button on either control wheel

Answer 126

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-C-111]

Question 127

127. What will happen if both mission computers fail?

a. ATCS will still function
b. BIU back-up mode
c. Both A and B are correct
d. The get home control will not function

Answer 127

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-B-5, 3-35]

Question 128

128. If one Mission Computer (MC) is lost, what is the reduction in capability?

a. None
b. Pilot or copilots side buses are lost, depending on whether it is MC 1 or MC 2
c. BIU backup is initiated
d. All systems are lost

Answer 128

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-B-5]

Question 129

129. Select the correct statement.

a. A new ACAWS message appears in inverse video for ten seconds.
b. ACAWS audio is broadcast over the cargo compartment ICS
c. An ACAWS warning message can be stored
d. If a Caution and Warning are activated simultaneously, both aural alerts are sounded simultaneously.

Answer 129

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-B-8]

Question 130

130. What are the alert levels for ACAWS?

a. Notes, Cautions and Warnings
b. Good, Bad, and Ugly
c. Lights, Voice, Alarm Bells, and Audible Tones
d. Special Alerts, Warnings, Cautions, and Advisories

Answer 130

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-B-8, 1-B-9]

Question 131

131. What radios may be operated from the Get Home Control panel?

a. UHF 1, VHF 1 and HF 1
b. UHF 2, VHF 2 and HF 2
c. UHF 1 and VHF 1
d. UHF 2 and VHF 2

Answer 131

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-D-5]

Question 132

132. Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the CAT 2 sub-mode of the HUD:

a. Both ILS are tuned to the same frequency
b. Localizer is selected as CDI source for both HUDs
c. HUD control panels CAT 2 button is pressed
d. All the above are correct

Answer 132

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-B-60-61]

Question 133

133. GCAS alerts are given higher priority than TCAS alerts. TCAS changes to TA ONLY mode automatically during an active GCAS alert.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 133

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-50]

Question 134

134. TCAS is designed never to issue resolution advisories that would put the airplane outside the performance envelope.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 134

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-50]

Question 135

135. Which statements regarding TCAS are correct?

a. TCAS expects a 3 second crew reaction time to an RA
b. The limits of TCAS detection are 40 NM off the nose, 15 NM off the sides, and 12 NM on the tail
c. TCAS changes to TA ONLY mode automatically when the cargo door/ramp are open
d. B and C are correct

Answer 135

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-47, 1-E-50, 2-B-7]

Question 136

136. TCAS resolution advisories are displayed _.

a. As an orange diamond on the PFD
b. As a “fly to” box on the HUD with corner tics
c. Using a tape type VVI in color with the fly-to area in green on the PFD
d. Both B and C are correct

Answer 136

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-47]

Question 137

137. The target symbol for a traffic advisory (TA) is a .

a. Red-filled square
b. Red-filled circle
c. Yellow-filled circle
d. White filled diamond

Answer 137

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-48]

Question 138

138. In the weather mode of the radar, turbulence information is not available:

a. For range scales less than 40 NM
b. For range scales greater than 80 NM
c. For range scales greater than 20 NM
d. Turbulence information is always available regardless of range scale

Answer 138

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-8]

Question 139

139. Excessive precipitation, the most severe rate, is depicted as on the color weather radar.

a. Red
b. Magenta
c. Black
d. Blue

Answer 139

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-9]

Question 140

140. Turbulence is depicted as in the weather radar mode.

a. Yellow
b. Red
c. White
d. Cyan

Answer 140

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-9]

Question 141

141. Windshear hazard is processed and displayed for up to NM of range coverage.
     a. 3
     b. 5
     c. 10
     d. 20

Answer 141

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-13]

Question 142

142. Select the correct statement concerning the common cursor.

a. Provides capability to locate a particular position on the full channel NAV-radar display
b. Provides capability to locate a particular position on the digital map display.
c. Provides capability to locate a particular position on the HUD
d. Provides capability to do all the above simultaneously.

Answer 142

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-20]

Question 143

143. The common cursor modes available via the cursor control panel include all the following except:

a. Manual
b. Aircraft
c. Ground
d. Computer

Answer 143

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-20]

Question 144

144. Pulling the computer cursor switch to its first detent and releasing causes the cursor mode to change to:

a. Quick cursor
b. Computer cursor
c. Ground cursor
d. Manual cursor

Answer 144

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1[1-E-20]

Question 145

145. When the Wing and Empennage Ice Protection switch is placed in the AUTO or ON position and ice is detected, the system will turn on once the pilot’s airspeed is greater than KIAS.

a. 60
b. 70
c. 50
d. 65

Answer 145

A
Ref: 1C-130-J-1 [1-M-3]

Question 146

146. Which fuels are recommended or acceptable fuels for use in the HC-130J?

a. JP-8
b. JP-5
c. TS-1
d. All of the above

Answer 146

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-35]

Question 147

147. Placement of the flaps lever at or greater than the position will activate diverter valves to bypass the pressure reducers, thereby permitting hydraulic fluid at approximately psi to reach the booster assembly. This doubles the available actuating pressure and reduces the pilot effort required to achieve desirable surface travel with asymmetrical power at low airspeeds.

a. 20, 3000
b. 15, 2050
c. 15, 3000
d. 20, 2050

Answer 147

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [1-P-12]

Question 148

148. In the event of a total AC electrical failure, the will supply a minimum of minutes of power to the standby instruments.

a. avionics battery, 10
b. utility battery, 30
c. utility battery, 9
d. avionics battery, 30

Answer 148

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [1-S-12]

Question 149

149. The Gearbox Mounted Accessory Drive (GMAD) is mounted on the rear of the Propeller Gearbox (PGB). Which of the following does the GMAD not supply the pads and drives for:

a. Hydraulic Pump
b. AC Generator
c. Air Turbine Starter
d. Propeller Control Unit (PCU)

Answer 149

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [1-G-5]

Question 150

150. The Power Unit Accessory Drive (PUAD) is mounted on the bottom of the forward end of the compressor air inlet housing. The PUAD supplies mounting flanges for:

a. Fuel Pump and Metering Unit (FPMU)
b. Propeller High-Pressure oil pump
c. Permanent Magnetic Alternator (PMA) Stator
d. PGB Oil Pumps
e. Both A and C
f. Both B and D

Answer 150

E
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [1-G-5]

Question 151

151. The pneumatic systems are served by the bleed air system include:

a. Engine anti-ice, engine starters, and oil cooler augmentation
b. Wing and empennage ice protection and deicing boot
c. Cabin Air conditioning and pressurization systems
d. All of the above

Answer 151

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [1-K-3]

Question 152

152. If suspected or actual inflight damage, fuel imbalance, or differential airspeed occurs that may cause aircraft control problems will require a prior to landing.

a. Controllability Check
b. Flight Control Check
c. Rapid Descent
d. Emergency Descent

Answer 152

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [3-260]

Question 153

153. List the 4 general steps to handling aircraft emergencies: (Fill in the Blank)

Answer 153

a. Stabilize the aircraft.
b. Analyze the situation.
c. Take coordinated corrective action.
d. Manage/monitor the resulting situation.

Ref: 1C-130J-1 [3-7]

Question 154

154. Below AGL/AWL, bank angle shall not exceed of altitude or degrees, whichever is less.

a. 500 ft, 10%, 30
b. 1000 ft, 10%, 35
c. 1000 ft, 15%, 30
d. 500 ft, 15%, 35

Answer 154

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-4]

Question 155

155. Both pilots will occupy the pilot seats during all operations below AWL/AGL.

a. 500ft
b. 1500 ft
c. 1000 ft
d. 800 ft

Answer 155

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-4]

Question 156

156. All maneuvering turns should be conducted above AGL/AWL.

a. 200 ft
b. 400 ft
c. 500 ft
d. 300 ft

Answer 156

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-4]

Question 157

157. Minimum altitude for normal four engine operations is AWL; may be used for identification passes during day VMC conditions (no slower than approach speed).

a. 200 ft, 100ft
b. 500 ft, 200 ft
c. 300 ft, 100 ft
d. 200 ft, 150 ft

Answer 157

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-4]

Question 158

158. If either HUD is not available, the minimum altitude AWL/AGL is limited to ft.

a. 500
b. 1000
c. 200
d. 150

Answer 158

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-4]

Question 159

159. When making operational descents, the rate of descent shall not exceed FPM during the last ft prior to MDA. If good visual contact with the surface is not made at the minimum descent altitude, the descent shall be aborted and an immediate climb initiated.

a. 1000, 500
b. 500, 1000
c. 500, 500
d. 1000,1000

Answer 159

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-4]

Question 160

160. A climb to at least ft should be made prior to commencing any turns.

a. 400
b. 500
c. 200
d. 300

Answer 160

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-4]

Question 161

161. If is inoperative or considered unreliable, the MDA shall be increased to allow adequate clearance from surface objects (vessels, icebergs, offshore structures, islands, etc).

a. RAD ALT
b. HUD
c. Radar
d. Digimap

Answer 161

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-4]

Question 162

162. In the event that both radar altimeters are inoperative, the following minimums apply:

a. Night Unaided/IMC – 1000 ft AWL/AGL
b. Day VMC/NVG – 300 ft AWL/AGL
c. Day VMC/NVG – 500 ft AWL/AGL
d. Night Unaided/IMC – 500 ft AWL/AGL
e. Both A and B
f. Both A and C

Answer 162

E
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-4]

Question 163

163. Maximum normal gross weight is lbs. Maximum alternate gross weight is lbs and requires Commanding Officer waiver.

a. 155,000 ; 164,000
b. 155,000 ; 175,000
c. 164,000 ; 175,000
d. 150,000 ; 164,000

Answer 163

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-15]

Question 164

164. Maximum gross weight to allow a 540 FPM landing sink rate is . Above that weight, the maximum landing sink rate is FPM.

a. 130,000; 200
b. 130,000; 300
c. 140,000; 200
d. 150,000; 300

Answer 164

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-16]

Question 165

165. For rates of sink from 300 to 540 FPM, fuel limits are as follows: (Fill in the blank)

a. Tanks 1 and 4: ?
b. Main tanks total: ?
c. Auxiliary tanks: ?
d. External tanks (if installed): ?

Answer 165

a. Tanks 1 and 4: 6600 lb each
b. Main tanks total: 25,000 lb
c. Auxiliary tanks: No restrictions
d. External tanks (if installed): Less than or equal to 500 lb each

Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-16]

Question 166

166. To be within primary Fuel Management, Tanks 1 and 4 shall contain to lb more fuel per tank than tanks 2 and 3 except when usable fuel is less than lbs.

a. 1000, 1500, 6000
b. 500, 1500, 4000
c. 500, 1000, 6000
d. 500, 1000, 4000

Answer 166

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-17]

Question 167

167. To be within Primary Fuel management, main tanks are full, except fuel used for taxi, takeoff and climb; but not less than lb in tanks 1 and 4 and not less than lb in tanks 2 and 3, when the external and/or auxiliary tanks contain usable fuel.

a. 7812; 6560
b. 7560; 6812
c. 8755; 8060
d. 7760; 6125

Answer 167

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-17]

Question 168

168. The fuel unbalance limits between the left and right wings are:

a. 1000
b. 500
c. 1500
d. 2000

Answer 168

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-17]

Question 169

169. The nose gear deflection limits for 60 degrees is_________: (Fill in the blank)

a. 20 kts
b. 5 kts
c. 10 kts
d. 15 kts

Answer 169

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-28]

Question 170

170. The maximum ground speed for the main landing gear is kts.

a. 139
b. 180
c. 160
d. 174

Answer 170

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-27]

Question 171

171. To avoid fuel freezing, fuel temperature should not be lower than above the fuel freeze point defined in the Fuel Availability Chart. The fuel temperature should be considered to be equal to the TAT.

a. 6 deg F, TAT
b. 3.3 deg C, TAT
c. 6 deg F, SAT
d. 3.3 deg, SAT
e. Both A and B
f. Both C and D

Answer 171

E
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-35]

Question 172

172. The maximum airspeed for flaps 70% is:

a. 145
b. 165
c. 155
d. 150

Answer 172

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-13]

Question 173

173. The maximum airspeed for flaps 100% is:

a. 145
b. 155
c. 150
d. 140

Answer 173

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-13]

Question 174

174. The maximum speed to have the ramp open (cargo door open or closed) is:

a. 150
b. 250
c. 200
d. 181

Answer 174

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-13]

Question 175

175. The maximum speed for the paratroop air deflector doors is:

a. 200
b. 181
c. 145
d. 150

Answer 175

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-13]

Question 176

176. The maximum speed for the paratroop door open and locked is:

a. 200
b. 150
c. 250
d. 145

Answer 176

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-13]

Question 177

177. The maximum speed for the paratroop doors opening or closing or opening but not locked is:

a. 150
b. 200
c. 250
d. 145

Answer 177

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-13]

Question 178

178. The landing gear limits for extension and retraction is .

a. Less than or equal to 19 secs
b. Less than or equal to 20 secs
c. Less than or equal to 15 secs
d. Less than or equal to 25 secs

Answer 178

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [5-40]

Question 179

179. On Coast Guard missionized aircraft, ICS will not function without AC power.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 179

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1 [1-D-3, 2-A-26, 3-292]

Question 180

180. Normal bleed includes all but:

a. Pressurization
b. Wing and empennage ice protection
c. Air conditioning packs
d. Cargo compartment underfloor heating.

Answer 180

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[2-1]

Question 181

181. Closing the nacelle shutoff valves will not provide bleed off torque schedules. For bleed off engine performance:

a. Turn both air conditioners off
b. Set the UNDERFLOOR switch to FAN
c. Set the WING/EMP ice protection switch to OFF
d. Do all of the above

Answer 181

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-7]

Question 182

182. In preparation for takeoff, the tower reports the wind with a 6 knot gust increment. You should add:

a. 6 knots to rotation speed.
b. The headwind component of the gust to rotation and takeoff speeds.
c. 3 knots to rotation and takeoff speeds.
d. 50% of the headwind component of the gust to rotation and takeoff speeds.

Answer 182

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-9]

Question 183

183. Increase the rotation speed due to crosswind only when evaluating maximum effort takeoff procedures.

a. True
b. False

Answer 183

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-10]

Question 184

184. A WET runway condition corresponds to a RCR of _.
     a. 23
     b. 15
     c. 12
     d. 10

Answer 184

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-8]

Question 185

185. An ICY runway condition corresponds to a RCR of _.
     a. 23
     b. 12
     c. 5
     d. 2

Answer 185

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-8]

Question 186

186. Apply _% of headwind component to brake limits and takeoff and landing distances and
     % of headwind component for climb out flight path calculations.

a. 0 / 0
b. 50 / 0
c. 100 / 50
d. 150 / 50

Answer 186

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-9 ]

Question 187

187. Apply % of tailwind component to brake limits, takeoff and landing distances, and climb out flight path obstacle distances.

a. 0
b. 50
c. 100
d. 150

Answer 187

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-9 ]

Question 188

188. Always increase rotation speed, obstacle clearance speed, approach speed, threshold speed, and touchdown speed by the full gust increment not to exceed 10 knots.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 188

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-9]

Question 189

189. For a safe takeoff, the runway available must be than the critical field length.

a. Equal to
b. Greater than
c. Less than
d. A or B

Answer 189

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-11]

Question 190

190. is based on runway available and is defined as the maximum speed to which the airplane can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two-engines (symmetrical power) in reverse, one engine in ground idle, one propeller feathered, and maximum anti-skid braking.

a. Critical engine failure speed
b. Ground minimum control speed
c. Brake energy limit speed
d. Refusal Speed

Answer 190

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-12]

Question 191

191. The Automatic Thrust Control System (ATCS) decreases which of the following:

a. Two-Engine Inoperative Air Minimum Control Speed (VMCA2)
b. One-Engine-Inoperative Air Minimum Control Speed (VMCA)
c. Ground Minimum Control Speed (VMCG)
d. B & C

Answer 191

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-16/17/19]

Question 192

192. Ground Minimum Control Speed is based on the following conditions and restrictions except:

a. Nosewheel steering
b. ATCS operating
c. Minimum takeoff weight
d. Maximum lateral deviation from initial runway track of 30 feet

Answer 192

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-16]

Question 193

193. Adjusted maximum effort rotation speed is scheduled to ensure that liftoff speed is greater than:

a. One-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed
b. Three engine minimum liftoff speed
c. Two-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed
d. Both A and B

Answer 193

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-15]

Question 194

194. All the following conditions determine one-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed except:

a. No. 1 engine failed with the propeller auto-feathered.
b. Maximum rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs of rudder pedal force or maximum rudder control surface deflection.
c. Minimum takeoff weight.
d. A bank angle greater or equal to 5 degrees towards the failed engine.

Answer 194

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-17]

Question 195

195. Ground minimum control speed is not considered for both the maximum effort and adjusted maximum effort speed schedules.

a. True
b. False

Answer 195

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-15]

Question 196

196. For normal operations, planning a takeoff and climb-out over an obstacle should be done on the basis of
     performance.

a. 2-engine
b. 3-engine
c. 4-engine

Answer 196

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[3-26 ]

Question 197

197. Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is fpm.
     a. 100
     b. 200
     c. 300
     d. 500

Answer 197

C
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[5-6]

Question 198

198. Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is fpm.
     a. 100
     b. 200
     c. 300
     d. 500

Answer 198

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[5-6]

Question 199

199. Basic assumptions for the landing distance charts include a 1-second allowance for distance traveled during transition from touchdown to taxi attitude and maximum anti-skid braking and power selection achieved upon reaching taxi attitude.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 199

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1-1[9-4]

Question 200

200. Even short term deviations outside of +/- feet of the active flight plan entered cruise altitude will cause misleading time navigation indications. Either returning the airplane to within programmed flight path parameters or changing the entered cruise altitude to reflect actual flight conditions will restore accurate time navigation predictions.

a. 1,000
b. 3,500
c. 1,150
d. 2,150

Answer 200

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-4[1-40]

Question 201

201. There is a limit of waypoint spaces allotted for the flight plan and the alternate flight plan including the primary and alternate destinations.
     a. 45
     b. 60
     c. 70
     d. 85

Answer 201

B
Ref: 1C-130J-1-4[1-25]

Question 202

202. Which of the following occurs when the MSTR AV ON function on the POWER UP page is initially selected?

a. VHF and UHF radios are turned on.
b. HF radios are turned on.
c. INS alignment is initiated.
d. All the above.

Answer 202

A
Ref: 1C-130J-1-4[2-2]

Question 203

203. A VNAV profile on the LEGS page using an altitude suffix of “C” defines:

a. Fixed Start of Climb (SOC)
b. Fixed Bottom of Descent (BOD)
c. Fixed Top of Descent (TOD)
d. A or B

Answer 203

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-4[1-38]

Question 204

204. The FROM/TO page allows for entry of two reference points and a selected groundspeed, and computes the bearing, distance, and time between the two points. To find bearing distance from your present position to the ECG VORTAC, enter .

a. ECG/PPOS
b. /ECG
c. PPOS/ECG
d. B or C

Answer 204

D
Ref: 1C-130J-1-4[3H-13]

Question 205

205. The critical engine for VMCA is the #__________ engine.
     The critical engines for VMCA2 is the #_______, & #______engines.

a. 1, 1 & 4
b. 4, 1 & 4
c. 3, 1 & 3
d. 1, 1 & 2

Answer 205

D
Ref. 1C-130J-1[6-3, 6-4]

Question 206

206. Brake creep during normal takeoffs may be accounted for by reducing runway available in the TOLD
     INIT 1/2 page by _______ feet or by minimizing the distance used to position the aircraft on the
     runway. If the brakes are released within _____ seconds of setting power to TAKEOFF, the difference
     will be less than ____ feet.

a. 10, 5, 10
b. 20, 10, 20
c. 40, 10, 40
d. 50, 15, 50

Answer 206

C
Ref. 1C-130J-1[2-A-72]

Question 207

207. The CNI-MU can provide highly accurate estimate of time remaining and fuel required, but requires
     several inputs to calculate. They are:

a. Cruise IAS
b. Altitude
c. Wind (if known)
d. Fuel Burn
e. All of the above

Answer 207

E
Ref. 1C-130J-1[2-B-3]

Question 208

208. With brakes fully applied and engine at maximum power, forward movement (brake creep) at ___ feet
     per second (_____ knots) or less is acceptable. (Airplanes modified by TCTO 1C-130-2098, Carbon Brakes)

a. 2, 1.1
b. 4, 2.4
c. 5, 3.0
d. 10, 5.9

Answer 208

B
Ref. 1C-130J-1[2-A-71]

Question 209

209. (6.0 Aircraft) The new Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM) allows C130J aircraft to to utilize new Area Navigation (RNAV) capabilities. Select the operations below that utilizing AAIM allows the aircraft to fly;

a. RNAV approaches
b. RNAV Departure Procedures (DP and SID)
c. RNAV-2 (Q and T routes)
d. Answer B & C
e. All of the above

Answer 209

D
Ref. 1C-130J-1[1-E-6]

Question 210

210. (6.0 Aircraft) Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM) allows a C130J aircraft to fly RNAV approaches

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 210

B
Ref. 1C-130J-1[1-E-6]

Question 211

211. Utilizing a RNAV SID/DP or STAR using Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM) You may manually input data into the CNI-MU if the waypoints are not listed in the database.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer 211

B
Ref. 1C-130J-1[1-E-7]

Question 212

212. Propeller stopped is defined as rotation __________ NP or _______________ RPS (visual).

Answer 212

≤ 3%, ≤1/2
Ref. 1C-130J-1[5-31]

Question 213

213. When is it acceptable to risk the damage to or sacrifice of the aircraft and crew?

a. Saving human life
b. Preventing or relieving pain and suffering
c. Saving property
d. National defense

Answer 213

D
Ref: 3710.1I [1-5]

Question 214

214. When no suitable alternatives exist and the mission has a reasonable chance of success, the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft is acceptable, even though such damage or abuse may render the aircraft unrecoverable. Probable loss of the aircrew is not an acceptable risk. This is an example of warranted risk for:

a. Saving human life
b. Preventing or relieving pain and suffering
c. Saving property
d. Law enforcement

Answer 214

A
Ref: 3710.1I [1-6]

Question 215

215. When a mission is likely to prevent pain or relieve intense pain or suffering, or it may result in the possibility of saving human life, it warrants the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft if recovering the aircraft can be reasonably expected.

a. True
b. False

Answer 215

A
Ref: 3710.1I [1-6]

Question 216

216. If a mission is likely to save property of the United States or its citizens, it warrants the risk of damage to the aircraft no matter the value of the property or if the aircraft cannot be recovered.

a. True
b. False

Answer 216

B
Ref: 3710.1I [1-6]

Question 217

217. The possibility of recovering evidence and interdicting or apprehending alleged violators of federal law does not warrant probable damage to or abuse of the aircraft. This guidance applies to flight activities performed during missions such as: Drug and Migrant Interdiction, routine PWCS, routine Defense Readiness, Marine Environmental Protection, Living Marine Resources, and other Law Enforcement missions.

a. True
b. False

Answer 217

A
Ref: 3710.1I [1-6]

Question 218

218. Logistics or other missions having little or no urgency can be prosecuted if they expose the aircraft to hazards greater than those encountered during the course of routine training missions. This guidance applies to flight activities performed during missions such as: Marine Safety, Ice Operations, ATON, and Waterways Management missions.

a. True
b. False

Answer 218

B
Ref: 3710.1I [1-6]

Question 219

219. If a precautionary landing is made away from home station for observed or suspected aircraft malfunctions or damage, the PIC shall ensure that a proper inspection of the aircraft is conducted by competent maintenance personnel and the results reported to the home station’s engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer. If the reported malfunction is determined to be minor and not a threat to the safety of the crew or aircraft who, except in the most unusual of circumstances, should clear the aircraft for further flight?

a. Operations Officer
b. Engineering Officer
c. Commanding Officer
d. Executive Officer

Answer 219

C
Ref: 3710.1I [2-8]

Question 220

220. During preflight planning, at a minimum, the PIC shall be familiar with:

a. Applicable performance data at all intended and alternate airfields
b. Weather for the route of flight NOTAMS
c. Special use airspace
d. All of the above

Answer 220

D
Ref: 3710.1I [3-1]

Question 221

221. The PIC of any fixed-wing aircraft shall ensure the aircraft meets or exceeds the published climb gradient with for the departure method being used.

a. All engines operative
b. One engine inoperative
c. Two engines inoperative

Answer 221

B
Ref: 3710.1I [3-1]

Question 222

222. Commanding Officer approval is required for departures using visual obstacle avoidance (see-and-avoid) in lieu of meeting the required climb gradient.

a. True
b. False

Answer 222

A
Ref: 3710.1I [3-1]

Question 223

223. When no climb gradient is published, the aircraft must be able to climb at feet per nautical mile or greater with one engine inoperative.

a. 152
b. 200
c. 250
d. 150

Answer 223

A
Ref: 3710.1I [3-1]

Question 224

224. Acceptable sources of weather data include government-sanctioned aviation weather services and dedicated aviation weather subscription services. Before an IFR flight, obtain and record a comprehensive weather briefing. This weather briefing does not need to include all items contained in a “Standard Briefing” as defined in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).

a. True
b. False

Answer 224

B
Ref: 3710.1I [3-1]

Question 225

225. Fuel reserve shall be at least that required for minutes of flight after reaching the alternate (for fixed-wing aircraft). In any case, fuel carried on departure will be at least percent more than that required to reach the alternate airfield via destination.

a. 30, 5
b. 30,10
c. 10, 45
d. 45,10

Answer 225

D
Ref: 3710.1I [3-1]

Question 226

226. The PIC of a Coast Guard aircraft shall file a written or computerized domestic, military or ICAO flight plan prior to each flight, except when:

a. Departing on an urgent SAR, National Defense, LAW enforcement or Homeland Security mission
b. Local VFR flight
c. When required for operational security
d. All of the above

Answer 226

D
Ref: 3710.1I [3-2]

Question 227

227. For VFR flights scheduled to return to the flight’s point of origin, complete the Local “Mission Route” section of the Pre-Mission and Service Record within ALMIS Electronic Asset Logbook (EAL). A paper Pre-Mission and Service Record may not be substituted if required due to EAL malfunctions.

a. True
b. False

Answer 227

B
Ref: 3710.1I [3-3]

Question 228

228. Flights of Coast Guard aircraft shall be conducted in accordance with IFR, whenever practical. When operating under VFR, use radar advisory services when convenience allows.

a. True
b. False

Answer 228

B
Ref: 3710.1I [3-3]

Question 229

229. A commanding Officer may authorize a CP in lieu of the FP on a calculated risk basis for maintenance flights.

a. True
b. False

Answer 229

A
Ref: 3710.1I [3-4]

Question 230

230. All flights shall comply with weather requirements of this section based on the actual weather at the point of departure, the forecast weather en route, and the forecast at both the destination and alternate for the period beginning before until after the estimated time of arrival (ETA) at each point.

a. 30 min, 1 hr
b. 1 hr, 1 hr
c. 30 min, 30 min
d. 1 hr, 30 min

Answer 230

B
Ref: 3710.1I [3-16]

Question 231

231. The following standard takeoff minimums apply in the absence of published nonstandard minimums for the departure airport:
     Meteorological visibility of statute mile for non-operational missions
     Meteorological visibility of statute mile for operational missions
     When urgency of the mission dictates, the Commanding Officer of the parent unit may authorize a takeoff below these minimums. This authority delegated to deployed Aircraft Commanders.

a. One quarter, one half, may be
b. One half, one quarter, may be
c. One quarter, one half, shall be
d. One half, one quarter, shall be

Answer 231

B
Ref: 3710.1I [3-16]

Question 232

232. When departure airport weather is takeoff minimums but approach minimums, a departure alternate is required. For four-engine aircraft the departure alternate must be not more than hour(s) from the departure airport at cruising speed computed for no wind conditions. IFR departures which require a departure alternate are not authorized for training flights or flights with a FP in command.

a. Above, below, 2, 3 engine
b. Below, above, 1, 3 engine
c. Above, below, 1, 4 engine
d. Below, above, 2, 4 engine

Answer 232

A
Ref: 3710.1I [3-17]

Question 233

233. No clearance shall be authorized for destinations at which there is no Terminal Aerodrome Forecast available, or the forecast weather will be below compatible approach minimums (ceiling and visibility) upon arrival unless an alternate airport is available at which forecast weather conditions are equal to or better than the following:

Ceiling is at least feet above the airport elevation or at least ____ feet above the lowest compatible approach minimum, whichever is higher.
Visibility is at least statute miles

a. 3000, 400, 3
b. 1500, 200, 3
c. 2000, 400, 3
d. 2000, 200, 2

Answer 233

C
Ref: 3710.1I [3-17]

Question 234

234. An alternate destination is required on all instrument flights plans except when the forecast weather at the first intended landing (for each point of intended landing on a stopover flight plan) meets the following conditions for a period before to after the ETA:

Ceiling is at least feet above the airport elevation, or 400 feet above the lowest compatible approach minimum, whichever is higher.
Visibility is at least statute mile

a. 30 min, 1 hr, 2000, 200, 3
b. 1 hr, 1 hr, 2000, 400, 2
c. 30 min, 30 min, 1500, 200, 3
d. 1 hr, 1 hr, 2000, 400, 3

Answer 234

D
Ref: 3710.1I [3-17/18]

Question 235

235. If the destination is an island or other remote location where an alternate is unavailable, the of the unit to which the aircraft is attached will determine the amount of holding time that must be planned in lieu of an alternate; in no case shall this be less than .

a. Operations Officer, 1 hr
b. Commanding Officer, 1 hr
c. Operations Officer, 30 mins
d. Commanding Officer, 30 mins

Answer 235

B
Ref: 3710.1I [3-18]

Question 236

236. Flight into turbulence shall be conducted in accordance with the . All flights shall thunderstorms. Fixed-wing flights shall avoid areas of know (reported or verified) turbulence and turbulence.

a. Aircraft flight manual, avoid, severe, extreme
b. AIM/FAR, stay clear of, extreme, severe
c. Aircraft flight manual, avoid, moderate, severe
d. Aim/FAR, avoid, extreme, severe

Answer 236

A
Ref: 3710.1I [3-18/19]

Question 237

237. Weather at the destination alternate must be forecast to be at or above the specified weather from before to _ after ETA at the destination alternate. For fixed-wing aircraft, weather must be equal to or greater than published non-standard alternate minimums. If none are specified, the ceiling must be at least feet and visibility statute miles for airports served by a compatible non-precision approach, and ceiling at least feet and visibility statute miles for airports served by a compatible precision approach; but weather at the alternate shall not be lower than the lowest compatible circling minimums as specified in current flight information publications.

a. 30 mins, 30 mins, 800, 2, 600, 2
b. 1 hr, 1 hr, 800, 2, 600, 2
c. 30 mins, 30 mins, 800, 3, 600, 3
d. 1 hr, 1 hr, 800, 3, 600, 3

Answer 237

B
Ref: 3710.1I [3-18]

Question 238

238. Resorts and beaches shall be avoided by fixed-wing aircraft by at least when at an absolute altitude of less than . This limitation is waived when these areas are over flown for the conduct of an operational mission, in normal en route flights on airways, or in compliance with an approved traffic or approach pattern.

a. ½ mile, 2000 ft
b. 2 miles, 1500 ft
c. 2 miles, 2000 ft
d. 1 mile, 2000 ft

Answer 238

D
Ref: 3710.1I [4-13]