Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aviation > Pilot Interview > Flashcards

Pilot Interview Flashcards

1
Q

MORA

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ILS

A

Instrument Landing System, precision approach radio aid that gives slope and track guidance. Normal glide path 3 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ILS, protection range.

A

LOC: 10 degrees of either side of centerline up to 25nm and 35 degrees up to 17nm.
GS: Normally set at an angle of 3 degrees. Outer marker (OM) is there to check your height and to see you are not on a false glide slope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

EAT

A

Expected Approach Time. The time you are expected to be overhead the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) in order to commence the approach procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

OCT

A

Onward Clearance Time. ATC expects you to leave an en-route fix in order to position for the initial approach fix. Normally within 10 min of your EAT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CAVOK

A
  • Visibility greater than 10km
  • No cloud below 5000ft or MSA, whichever is greater
  • No Cb or development
  • NOSIG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

METAR

A

Meteorological Aeronautical Report. Actual report. METAR is a coded weather bulletin of the observed weather at a specific location/ aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

TAF

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
Issued for a 9-hour period and updated every 3 hours.
It can also issued for up to 24-hours and update every 6 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

BECMG

A

Used to indicate a gradual change in some of the forecast elements.
In TAF it is followed by a time group and does not exceed 4 hours.
In METAR it is a Trend and forecast for only 2 hours, thus no need to be followed by a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TEMPO

A

Temporary variation in the general forecasted weather lasting less than 1 hour or recurring, last less than half the trend or TAF period it is included within.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Jet A and Jet A1 freezing level?

A

Jet A = -40degrees

Jet A1 = -47degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is it magnetic and true in wind?

A

If you read it, it’s true. If you hear it, it’s magnetic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What causes Tuck Under?

A

A rearward movement of the center of pressure and a Decrease in the downwash angle over the tail. Also forward section of swept wing going into compressibility area first thus more lift from the tips.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Definition of Vs, Vmf and Vmo?

A

Vs- Stall speed
Vmf- Max flap speed
Vmo- Maximum operating speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is V1 wet lower than V1 dry?

A

The wet runway would reduce the braking coefficient, thus increasing the stopping distance. Therefore, we need to lower V1 to ensure that we can stop by the end of the runway.

17
Q

What is a Dutch Roll?

A

It is the combination of yawing and rolling motions. When the aircraft yaws, it will develop into a roll. Yaw itself is not too significant, but the roll is much more noticeable and unstable. Associated with swept-wing jet aircraft.

18
Q

Difference DA & MDH?

A

DA, decision altitude, is an altitude on a precision approach where the pilot must make his decision to land or go-around. It is related to mean sea level.
MDH, minimum decision height, non-precision approach and is related to airfield elevation. It is the minimum height above the airfield elevation that one can descend on a non-precision approach without having the required visual reference for landing.

19
Q

What prevents Dutch roll?

A

Yaw dampers prevent Dutch roll on swept-wing aircraft.

20
Q

What is communication failure transponder code?

A

7600

21
Q

What is the timing for a procedure turn approach?

A

1 minute 15 sec

22
Q

What effect will weight have on the descent when flying at a constant speed?

A

A heavier aircraft descending at a constant airspeed will have a lower rate of descent, and therefore require a further distance to descend than a lighter aircraft at the same constant airspeed. It all relates to momentum.

23
Q

Describe what happens on final approach when headwind change to a tailwind?

A

As the indicated airspeed decrease with an increase in tailwind component, the aircraft pitches nose down to maintain the indicated airspeed, causing a higher rate of descent. The pilot must counteract this with in pitch attitude, and applying thrust to restore a normal rate of descent on the approach.

24
Q

Aquaplaning speeds?

A

T/O=9 x square root of the tire pressure

LNG= 7.6 x square root of the tire pressure

25
Q

What are 3 Types of aquaplaning/hydroplaning?

A
  1. Dynamic: Tire lifted off and completely supported by the standing water.
  2. Viscous: Surface is damp and provides a very thin film of fluid which cannot be penetrated by the tire. Can occur at much lower speeds than dynamic.
  3. Reverted rubber: Tire becomes tacky. Requires a long skid, reverted rubber and wet surface. Heat from the friction boils the water and causes reversion. Forms a seal which delays water separation.
26
Q

Meaning and purpose of an Approach ban?

A
  • An approach ban means that a pilot is not allowed to commence or continue an approach past a certain point if the weather conditions deteriorate below the minima for the approach.
  • The purpose of an approach ban is to prevent pilots from attempting approach where a successful landing is highly unlikely, thus improving safety as well as efficiency.
  • May not continue past the OM if reported RVR is below limits. May continue if past the OM. If no OM available must decide before 1000ft or before interception of the GS.
  • May continue if aircraft is on training flight.
27
Q

Vmcg

A

-Minimum control speed on the ground. CAS during the take-off run at which it is possible to maintain control of the airplane using the primary aerodynamic controls following an engine with the remaining engine still at take-off thrust.

28
Q

Vmca

A

Lowest speed at which directional control can be maintained in flight under following conditions:

  • Sudden failure of critical engine.
  • Take-off thrust on the remaining engine.
  • Flaps in take-off position
  • Landing gear up
  • Bank angle not more than 5degrees towards the operating engine.
  • During recovery heading change may not be more than 20 degrees.
29
Q

Balanced field

A

Take-off distance is equal to the acceleration stop distance.

30
Q

FADEC

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control.
Automatically determines engines parameters and can control engine power for all flight phases. Control engine funtions, i.e., start procedures, engine monitoring, fuel flow and ignition system.

31
Q

EICAS

A
  • Electronic Indicating Caution Alerting System.
  • An engine-indicating and crew-alerting system (EICAS) is an integrated system used in modern aircraft to provide aircraft flight crew with instrumentation and crew annunciations for aircraft engines and other systems. On EICAS equipped aircraft the “recommended remedial action” is called a checklist.
  • EICAS typically includes instrumentation of various engine parameters, including for example speed of rotation, temperature values, fuel flow and quantity, oil pressure etc. Other aircraft systems typically monitored by EICAS are for example hydraulic, pneumatic, electrical, deicing, environmental and control surface systems. EICAS has high connectivity & provides data acquisition and routing.
32
Q

ACARS

A

Aircraft Communication Addressing and Reporting System is a digital datalink system for transmission of short messages between aircraft and ground stations via airband radio or satellite.

33
Q

Advantage of swept wing?

A
  • Increase critical Mach no.
  • Reduce drag in transonic range.
  • Places wing within Mach wave of aircraft.
34
Q

What is assumed temperature?

A

Achieves take-off thrust less than the full rated take-off thrust. Uses assumed temperature that is higher than actual temperature. Assumed temperature can be used if your aircraft’s RTOW tables allow it.

35
Q

What is the difference between wet and damp runway?

A

Damp- The surface shows a change of colour due to moisture.

Wet- The surface is soaked but there is not standing water.

36
Q

What is Optimum Altitude?

A
  • Optimum altitude gives the best fuel mileage for a given trip length, Lift and gross weight
  • Provide 1.5G maneuver margin
  • The optimum cruise altitude is that at which a given thrust setting results in the corresponding maximum range speed.
  • The optimum altitude is not constant and changes over the period of a long flight as atmospheric conditions and the weight of the aircraft change.

Aviation (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions