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Piedmont > Piedmont > Flashcards

Piedmont Flashcards

0
Q

What is the max indicated airspeed a reciprocating engine powered airplane can operate within class B?

A

250 knots

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1
Q

Define V2

A

Takeoff safety speed

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2
Q

A pilot approaching to land a turbine powered airplane on a runway with VASI….

A

Maintain an attitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

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3
Q

Assuming that all ILS components are operating & the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon

A

Arrival at the DH on the glide slope

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4
Q

What action should be taken when a pilot is “cleared for the approach”, while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?

A

Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published segment

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5
Q

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies “No Pt” the pilot should

A

Not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC

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6
Q

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach?

A

Last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of an approach with altitudes

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7
Q

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?

A

At the DH the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or when visual reference is lost

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8
Q

After experiencing two way radio communication failure enroute, when can you descend for an instrument approach?

A

Upon arrival at the initial approach fix (but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC)

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9
Q

When can you descend for an instrument approach, when holding at the initial approach fix, after losing two way radio communication?

A

Flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

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10
Q

Under what conditions (may an air carrier) continue an instrument approach to the DH after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?

A

When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach

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11
Q

What are some characteristics of AFT CG?

A

Lower stall speed, high cruise speed, less stable

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12
Q

Blue radial line on airspeed indicator (light twin) indicates…

A

Max single engine rate of climb

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13
Q

What effect does altitude have on Vmc (unsupercooled engines)

A

Decreases with altitude

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14
Q

Definition of viscous hydro planing is where?

A

A film of moisture covers the painted or rubber coated portion of the runway

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15
Q

What is the advantage of the 3 bar VASI?

A

Normal glide angle for high or low cockpit

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16
Q

What type information is disseminated by NOTAM?

A

Status of navigation aids, ILS, radar service available

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17
Q

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance provide when “cleared as filed”

A

Destination airport, enroute altitude SID

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18
Q

When is a “void time” specified in the clearance?

A

Uncontrolled airport

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19
Q

What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit, with no further clearance?

A

Start speed reduction to holding speed to prepare for holding

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20
Q

What report should the pilot make at the clearance limit?

A

Time & altitude, and arriving or leaving flight level

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21
Q

What does minimum fuel mean to ATC?

A

Emergency could occur if undue delay

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22
Q

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?

A

Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound, and missed approach

23
Q

While being radar vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to the published Altitude?

A

Only when approach (ATC) says “cleared for the approach”

24
Q

What should you do when visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach

A

Climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course

25
Q

Which rule of thumb is used to estimate the 3 degree glide path rate of descent?

A

5 times ground speed in knots

26
Q

When is the course deviation CDI full scale deflection?

A

When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full scale left or right

27
Q

When cleared to execute a published side step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

A

Runway environment is in sight as soon as possible

28
Q

When do you commence this maneuver when cleared to execute a published side step maneuver for a specific approach & landing on a parallel runway?

A

As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight

29
Q

SDF versus ILS localizer

A

SDF 6 degrees or 12 wide vs ILS 3 to 6 degrees

30
Q

How does the LDA differ from ILS localizer?

A

LDA offset from runway +3 vs ILS aligned with runway

31
Q

What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave ?

A

Rotor cloud

32
Q

Which type of clouds are very strong turbulence?

A

Standing lenticular

33
Q

Characteristics of a ground based inversion?

A

Poor visibility

34
Q

Temperature inversion characteristic

A

A stable layer of air

35
Q

If a pilot forgets to set the altimeter on a descent from 29.92 at FL270 to 30.57 & field elevation is 650: it will indicate _____ on landing?

A

Sea level

36
Q

Where is max hazard zone caused by windshear associated with a Thunderstorm?

A

On all sides & directly under the cell

37
Q

What is the feature of supercooled water?

A

The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object

38
Q

Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that

A

There is a warmer layer above

39
Q

What type of service is expected from enroute flight advisory service?

A

Weather advisories, intended route of flight & altitude

40
Q

METAR KMAF 1317562 02020KT 12SM BKN 025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44

A

Rain ended 16 minutes before the hour

41
Q

The prevailing visibility in the METAR is….

A

Less than 1/4 statute mile

42
Q

Isobars on the surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure

A

Reduced to sea level

43
Q

A severe thunderstorm surface winds are

A

50 knots or greater & 3/4 inch hail in diameter

44
Q

Windshear characteristic is

A

A wind shift or wind speed gradient at any level (altitude)

45
Q

Windshear cockpit indications, when a headwind shears to a calm wind?

A

Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, altitude decreases

46
Q

Which condition would initially cause the indicated airspeed & pitch to increase & sink rate to decrease?

A

Sudden increase in headwind component

47
Q

What initial cockpit indications occur when constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?

A

Altitude, pitch, & indicated airspeed increase

48
Q

Which flight controls of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?

A

Heavy, slow, gear & flaps up

49
Q

What effect would a light crosswind have on wingtip vortices by a large jet that just took off?

A

Upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than downwind vortex

50
Q

What effect does alcohol consumption have on the body?

A

Alcohol has an adverse effect as altitude increases

51
Q

What type aircraft?

A

44 deHavilland DHC-8 turbo prop aircraft

52
Q

Founded by

A

Richard Henson in 1931

53
Q

Headquarters

A

Salisbury, Maryland

54
Q

Employees

A

450 pilots
210 mechanics
240 flight attendants

55
Q

Management: president/CEO, flight operations, customer relations, maintenance/ engineering

A

Stephen farrow, Michael scrobola, Eric Morgan, William Arndt

56
Q

Routes & locations

A 
Bangor, Maine
Rochester, ny
Akron, oh
Ric, Orf, Newport News, Charlottesville, Roanoke Virginia
Chattanooga & Knoxville tn
Huntsville Alabama
Tallahassee fl
Harrisburg & Allentown, pa

Piedmont (1 decks)

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