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RUSVM PID Red '16 > PID Exam 2 > Flashcards

PID Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of virus infects multiple organs or tissues?

A

Systemic virus

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2
Q

What’s the difference between national, reference, and sentinel labs?

A

National labs: handle highly infectious agents and highlight specific strains

Reference labs: Detect and confirm the detecion of a threat and ensure timely response

Sentinel labs: Direct contact with patients i.e. on the frontline

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3
Q

What are the two main viruses that affect the gastrointestinal tract by destroying the microvilli?

A

Rotavirus and parvovirus

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4
Q

The mechanism of disease development is called __________.

A

Pathogenesis

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5
Q

Which committee is responsible for maintaining a universal virus taxonomy?

A

International committee on taxonomy and viruses

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6
Q

What are the three levels of infectious disease prevention?

A
  1. Primary: avoid occurance
  2. Secondary: minimize damage
  3. Tertiary: rehabilitation
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7
Q

What are the 6 steps in viral pathogenesis?

A
  1. Entry and replication
  2. Spread/infection
  3. Virus cell interactions
  4. Injury
  5. Shedding
  6. Trophy (increase in numbers)
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8
Q

If an infection spreads beyond it primary site it is a _______ infection

A

Disseminated

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9
Q

What type of peptide can be found on all nucleated cells?

A

MHC I

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10
Q

What two structures can a virus be?

A

Polyhedral

and

helical

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11
Q

What are chemical germicides formulated to use on inanimate objects called?

A

Disinfectants

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12
Q

What kind of viruses can cause cancer?

A

Oncoviruses

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13
Q

What are the four ways we can break the chain of infection?

A
  1. Reservoir neutralization
  2. Reduce contact potential through isolation and quarantine
  3. Protection of portals of entry (i.e. PPE)
  4. Increase host resistance through chemoprophylaxis and immunization
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14
Q

What type of parasites are viruses?

A

Obligate intracellular

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15
Q

If a virus is avirulent, it is _____ to the host.

A

Not harmful

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16
Q

What is a capsid made up of?

A

Capsomeres

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17
Q

What are the 5 methods of sterilization?

A
  1. Moist heat
  2. Dry heat
  3. Chemical methods
  4. Radiation
  5. Filtration
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18
Q

When the Th1 response increases and the Th2 reponse decreases, what kind of phenotype are we dealing with?

A

Resistant phenotype

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19
Q

If a virus wanted to escape the adaptive immune system, what could it do?

What if the virus wanted to avoid it?

A

Escape:

  1. Antigen drift- Point mutation
  2. Antigen shift-

a. Reassortment of genome
b. Recombination of genome

Avoid:

  1. Block presentation to MHC I
  2. Locate to a safe spot
  3. Apotosis of lymphocytes through secretion of immunosuppressive proteins
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20
Q

What are 4 ways in which viruses can be prevented/controlled?

A

Biological control

Chemical control

Quarantine

Culling

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21
Q

What do teratogenic viruses cause?

A

Developmental defects of embryo or fetus after utero ejection

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22
Q

What is crucial to the maintenance and transmittance of a virus to continue causing infection?

A

Shedding of virus from host

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23
Q

Whats the most important way to prevent the spread of infection?

When should this be done?

A

Hand hygeine

Before/After:

Each patient

Eating/Drinking/Smoking/Bathroom

Entering/leaving room

Taking off gloves

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24
Q

What is Herd Health Management?

A

Method to optimize health, welfare, and production in animal population through analysis of data and regular objective observations of animals and environment, such that, informed timely decisions are made to adjust/improve herd management over time.

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25
Q

Endogenous antigens bind to ________ and present on cell surface, while exogenous antigens bind to _______.

A

MCH I (MHC I Restriction)

MCH II (MHC II Restriction)

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26
Q

How can viruses be detected?

Which tests can be utilized?

A

Gross Evaluation ( clinical signs, necropsy, histopathology)

Cultivation of in culture/ Innoculation in Egg

Electron microscopy

Serology ( ELISA, Fluorescent antigen and immunohistochemical staining)

PCR

Genome Sequencing

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27
Q

What is sentinel surveillance?

A

Using animals to monitor presence of vector-borne disease

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28
Q

What are the 5 ways bacteria can evade the innate immune response?

A
  1. Evade antimicrobial peptides
  2. Impairment tracheal clearance (coughing)
  3. Adhesion/penetration of epithelial barriers
  4. Evade phagocytosis
  5. Evade complement
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29
Q

What are the 5 innate immune responses to a pathogen?

A
  1. Constitutional factors
  2. Natural barriers
  3. Cytokines/ interferons
  4. Phagocytosis
  5. Complement
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30
Q

What is a latent period?

A

Period where a microbe is replicating in host, but not enough for the host to be infectious.

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31
Q

What are the 5 essential components of a surveillance system?

A
  1. Disease reporting
  2. Laboratory investigation
  3. Analysis/communication
  4. Information management
  5. Data and sample collection
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32
Q

What type of prevention relies on early diagnosis prompt treatment and control?

A

Secondary

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33
Q

Decontamination

A

Term used to describe a process or treatment to describe that renders a medical device, instrument or surface safe to handle

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34
Q

Airborne infections are considered direct or indirect?

A

Direct

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35
Q

Whats does GLEWS mean and which organizations collaberate with it?

A

Global early warning system for major animal disease including zoonoses

In collaberation with the FAO, OIE and WHO

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36
Q

The ability of a virus to cause disease in a host is called _________

A

Pathogenicity

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37
Q

What does all-in or all-out mean?

A

Between batches of animals the areas are cleaned and disinfected

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38
Q

Whats the difference between naked viruses and enveloped viruses?

A

Naked viruses have no lipid layer enclosing the protein capsid and the nucleic acid

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39
Q

What type of cells are APCs? Which peptide must present them?

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells and B cells

MHC II

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40
Q

What’s the difference between an infectious disease and an infestation?

A

Infectious disease is caused by an infestation and an infestation is an invasion but not multiplication of an organism

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41
Q

What are the three ways to treat a virus?

A

Antiviral drugs

Immune system stimulation

Administration of natural serum/ antibodies

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42
Q

What are the four determinants of the emergence of a disease?

A
  1. Pathogen: Type of agent; mutation/change
  2. Reservoir: phylogenetic distance
  3. Host: Susceptibility
  4. Transmission: reservoir size; pathogen prevalence; contact frequency
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43
Q

What class of peptide presents antigens to CD4 T helper cells?

A

MHC II

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44
Q

If a known disease suddenly appears in a new population it’s known as a(n) ________ disease

A

Emerging

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45
Q

What is the order that PPE equipment should be put on and taken off?

A

Putting on:

Gown

Mask

Eye wear

Gloves

Removing:

Gloves

Eyewear

Gown

Mask

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46
Q

What are the complications due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

Damage to blood vessel wall

Clots in blood vessels

Major organs not getting blood supply

Failing organs

Hemorrhaging

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47
Q

True or False: Infection = disease = infectivity

A

False; ill animals, which are probably infectious, act as reservoirs but some asymptomatic animals also act as reservoirs

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48
Q

What are the six steps in virus replication?

A
  1. Attachment
  2. Penetration
  3. Uncoating
  4. Synthesis of viral nucleic acid and protein
  5. Assembly and maturation
  6. Release in large numbers
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49
Q

What are the three steps in which a disease can be controlled?

A
  1. Quarantine
  2. Disinfection
  3. Culling of host
50
Q

In order to measure the lethal dose of a virulence but what percentage of animals must be killed?

A

50%

51
Q

What’s the definition of pleomorphism?

A

The ability of some viruses to alter their shape or size

52
Q

What does virulence mean?

A

Quantitaive or relative measure of the degree of the affecting virus

53
Q

Which three questions must you answer yes to when classifying a reservoir?

A
  1. Is it naturally infected with the pathogen?
  2. Can it maintain the pathogen over time?
  3. Can the source transmit the disease to a new susceptible host?
54
Q

Intensive shedding would cause an _______ infection; whereas, a nonintensive shedding would cause a _______ infection.

A

Acute; persistent

55
Q

What are some of the deadliest diseases that have caused epidemics?

Which is the only disease that has been eradicated?

A

Plague

Rinderpest

Rabies

FIP

Blue tongue

56
Q

What are the five things HHM optimizes?

A

Health Status

Quality/safety of products

Productivity

Profitability

Animal welfare

57
Q

What is the function of class I MHC peptides?

A

Presents antigen to cytotoxic CD8 T cells

58
Q

What happens to the Th1 and the Th2 response in a suscpetible phenotype?

A

Th2 response increases

Th1 response decreases

59
Q

Label the following image:

A

A. Free areas

B. Vaccination zone

C. Infected premises

D. Infected zone

E. Buffer

F. Control area (infected zone + buffer zone)

G. Surveillance zone

60
Q

What are the 6 ways viruses can damage the CNS?

A
  1. Lytic infections of neurons
  2. Neuronal necrosis
  3. Neuronalphagia
  4. Perivascular cuffing
  5. Progessive demylenation
  6. Neuronal vaculation
61
Q

How can bacteria evade phagocyte function? (3 ways)

A

Paralysis

Playing hard to get - capsule

Diversion to non-productive use - cleave C3b

62
Q

Are CD4 T cells MHC I or MHC II restricted?

A

MHC II

63
Q

What do immunodeficiency viruses do?

A

Cause immunosuppression by infecting and destroying different but specific cells of the immune system

64
Q

What are the 7 ways a bacterium can evade adaptive immunity?

A

Antigenic variation

Apoptosis and lysis of lymphocytes

Inhibit lymphocyte proliferation

Superantigens

Effects on cytokine expression

Subversion of T regulatory cells

Degredation of immunoglobulins

65
Q

What are the four characteristics that make vaccination useful?

A
  1. Its role
  2. Quality
  3. Delivery
  4. Sufficient quantity
66
Q

What do we call the time elapsed between infection and when clinical symptoms first appear?

A

Incubation period

67
Q

Herd Health Management is _______ and ________.

A

Preventative; holistic

68
Q

What leads to the control of a disease?

A

Breaking the chain of infection at any point

69
Q

What causes disease transmission?

A

Interaction of the host, agent, or environment

70
Q

What are we doing if we are inhibiting the introduction or establishment of a disease into a herd, individual, or area?

A

Preventing infectious disease

71
Q

What surface do glycoproteins appear on as spikes?

A

An envelope

72
Q

What are the three types of decontamination and what are their definitions?

A
  1. Sterilization: all or nothing
  2. Disinfection: Kills everything except bacterial spores on inanimate objects
  3. Antisepsis: destroys microorganisms on living tissue
73
Q

A disease transmitted from one organism to another via a direct or airborne route is a ________

A

Contagious disease

74
Q

True or False: Viruses cannot make energy or proteins by themselves

A

True

75
Q

A neurotopic virus can infect which type of cell?

A

Neuro cells

76
Q

What are the 4 factors related to host susceptibility to pathogen?

A

Species

Immunity

Physiological state

Fever

77
Q

If a resevoir host passes a pathogen onto it’s offspring, this is know as _________ transmission. If a resevoir host passes a pathogen onto a new host, this is called ________ transmission.

A

Vertical

Horizonal

78
Q

What are the four ‘W’s of immunization?

A
  1. Where: Population in endemic areas
  2. When: Seasonal diseases
  3. Who: Population at risk
  4. Why: por que
79
Q

What are the 5 ways bacteria can evade complement killing?

A
  1. Activate masking substances
  2. Inhibit activation to surface
  3. Cover up target of membrane attack complex (MAC)
  4. Inactivate complement chemotaxin C5a
  5. Activate surface of plasminogen to plasmin and cleave C3b
80
Q

If a disease was previously unknown and suddenly appears in a population it is called a _________ disease

A

Emerging

81
Q

Label each fill in the blank:

A

A. Major epizootics “listed” diseases

B. Other major diseases and zoonoses

C. Endemic diseases

D. Eradication

E. Control

F. Prevention

82
Q

What is the definition of viremia?

A

Presence of virus in the blood

83
Q

What are the factors that the virulence of a virus depends upon?

A

Its genetic variation

Route of entry

Affinity to host

Dose

Immunoevasion

84
Q

If a virus can replicate in multiple organs of the host its called a _______

A

Pantropic virus

85
Q

Define: Tropism

A

The specificty/affinity of a virus for a particular host tissue

86
Q

Whats the protein coat surrounding viruses called?

A

Capsid

87
Q

What type of cell serves as a critical bridge between innate and adaptive immune responses?

A

Dendritic cells

88
Q

A virus that enters the central nervous system after infecting a peripheral site is called _______

A

A neuroinvasive virus

89
Q

What are the three ways a vector can be controlled?

A
  1. Chemical
  2. Biological
  3. Source reduction
90
Q

What are three ways a reservoir can be neutralized?

A
  1. Remove infected individuals
  2. Mass therapy
  3. Environmental manipulation
91
Q

How big should the perimeter be for each of the following zones?

A. Infected zone

B. Buffer zone

C. Control area

D. Surveillance zone

A

A. 3km

B. 7km

C. 10km

D. 10km

92
Q

What are the three ways a virus can escape the adaptive immune system?

A
  1. Antigenic drift: Point mutation
  2. Antigenic shift: Reassortment
  3. Antigenic shift: Recombination
93
Q

How is cell lysis and apoptosis different?

A

Cell lysis: viral replication is complete and lysis of cells releases virions

Apoptosis: cell suicide and does not release virions

94
Q

What is a virus wrapped with?

A

Protein

95
Q

True or False: Viruses possess mitochondria, chloroplasts, golgi, and endoplasmic reticulum

A

False

96
Q

After being phagocytized,what can bacteria do to evade the phagocytes function? (5)

A

Murder it

Resist it’s lysozomal enzymes

Inhibit phagosome-lysozome fusion

Inhibit oxidative killing

Escape from phagosome into cytoplasm

97
Q

What is a fomite?

A

Object that can be contaminated and can transmit disease on a limited scale

98
Q

Humoral and cell mediated are what types of immune responses?

A

Adaptive

99
Q

Viruses that cause disease of nervous tissue are called ________ viruses

A

neurovirulent

100
Q

What does DIVA stand for?

A

Differentiating infected from vaccinated animals

101
Q

What type of MHC is only found on APCs?

A

MHC II

102
Q

What causes communicable diseases?

A

Caused by an agent capable of transmission by direct airborne indirect biological or inanimate reservoirs

103
Q

A capside + a virus nucleic acid = __________

A

Nucleocapsid

104
Q

What are the three types of vaccines?

A

Vaccines produced by recombinant DNA

Non-replicating virus vaccines

Live-attenuated virus vaccines

105
Q

What are the three reasons why studying veterinary virology is important?

A
  1. Zoonotic diseases
  2. Financial loss
  3. High rates of mortility
106
Q

What are the 11 OIE guidelines in establishing animal disease control program?

A
  1. Rationale for establishing a program
  2. Setting up goals/objectives
  3. Program planning
  4. Implementation
  5. Diagnostic capability
  6. Vaccination and other control measures
  7. Traceability
  8. Regional cooperation
  9. Social participation
  10. Role of research in support of disease control program
  11. Training and capacity building
107
Q

What is it called when pathogens cause chronic infections with minimal symptoms?

A

Balance pathogenicity

108
Q

When would we use the word control when talking about disease?

A

If an infectious disease is already present, the containment of that disease is called control.

109
Q

All the measures a farmer takes to minimize the risk of introduction and spread of disease is know as _________. Which two types are there?

A

Farm Biosecurity

External and Internal

110
Q

What are the four impacts a virus can have on a host cell?

A

Cell death

Malignant cell

Fuse cells

No apparent changes (aka chronic infection)

111
Q

If a pathogen is replicating in a host, but the host is not symptomatic yet, what period is this?

A

Incubation period

112
Q

How are viruses classified?

A

Morphology

Replication strategies

Nature of genome

113
Q

If a significant amount of the herd has been vaccinated and provides a lower chance of the unvaccinated animals becoming infected, this is called ________.

A

Herd immunity

114
Q

What is the definition of a re-emerging disease?

A

Known disease previously on the decline that is becoming more common and will continue to do so

115
Q

What are the 6 components of chain of infection?

What can we do in the chain of infection to stop disease?

A
  1. Pathogenic Microorganism
  2. Reservoir
  3. Means of Escape through sneeze/cough/feces/urine
  4. Mode of Transmission
  5. Exposure of host
  6. Susceptibility of host

Interrupt the chain of infection at any point

116
Q

Which cells are included in ADCC?

A

NK cells

macrophages

neutrophils

eosinophils

117
Q

Can asymptomatic animals act as resevoirs?

Are all sick animals resevoirs?

A

YES=carriers

NO

118
Q

What are the different subgroups of horizonal pathogen transmission?

A

Direct:

Projection

Contact

Indirect:

Vechicle

Vector

119
Q

If the chemical composition of virus nucleic acids is DNA and RNA, which types of DNA and RNA?

A

Single and double stranded

120
Q

A bacterium, virus, or other microorganism that can cause disease is called a _________.

A

Pathogen

121
Q

Initial entry of a virus into blood through subepithelial tissue/lymphatics or direct injection is called _______. When the virus starts replicating in multiple organs and then entered the blood again, _______ is occuring.

A

Primary Viremia

Secondary Viremia

RUSVM PID Red '16 (1 decks)

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