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EAWS Test > Pickle Juice > Flashcards

Pickle Juice Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the name “BONHOMME RICHARD”

A

Named in honor of John Paul Jones famous frigate

“Richard” is derived from Franklin’s Poor Richard’s Almanac

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2
Q

The USS BONHOMME RICHARD (LHD6) is a ___ class amphibious assault ship.

A

WASP

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3
Q

When and where was the USS BONHOMME RICHARD LHD 6 Commisioned?

A

March 14 1997 at Pascagoula, Mississippi

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4
Q

What does the BHR’s ships crest look like and what does it represent?

A

SIX RED STRIPES

Represents the ships hull number as well as the six coins placed beneath the mast during mast stepping.

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5
Q

What does the WREATH OF TWO GREEN LAUREL symbolize?

A

Symbolizes honor and high achievement commemorating the two previous ships carrying the BHR name.

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6
Q

What does SIX GOLD STAR Symbolize?

A

Represents the battle stars earned by the second BHR during World War II and the Korean War

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7
Q

What does TRIDENT symbolize?

A

Emblematic of prowess and power from the sea it has wings to commemorate the second BHR

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8
Q

What does FLEUR-DE-LIS symbolize?

A

Highlights the heritage of the first ship named BHR

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9
Q

Explain the history of the first BHR

A

Was originally a merchant ship Duc De Duras

Built at Lonent France in 1876

Was a part of the French Navy

Is most famously known for her engagement of the HMS Serapis

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10
Q

The commander of Serapis called upon Jones to surrender to which he replied sir I have not yet begun to fight true or false?

A

True

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11
Q

The second BHR’s original hull number was ___ and was a _____ carrier that earned ____ battle stars from World War II, and the Vietnam War

A

CV-31

ESSEX

6

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12
Q

The four principles of ORM are what?

A

Accept risk when benefit outweigh the cost

Accept no unnecessary risk

Anticipate and manage risk by planning

Make risk decisions in the right time at the right level

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13
Q

The third step in the five step ORM process are what?

A

Make risk decisions

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14
Q

The three levels of ORM are what?

A

In-depth

Deliberate

Time critical

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15
Q

The ____ Will ensure that personnel under them comply with all safety instructions prepare and submit for publication additional safety instructions deemed necessary for command safety

A

Command safety officer

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16
Q

AIMD is an abbreviation for?

A

Aircraft intermediate maintenance department

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17
Q

THE Administration branch of AIMD is what?

A

IM-1

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18
Q

Which of the following is not a part of IM-1

A

Oil analysis

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19
Q

IM-3 Ground support equipment (GSE) Maintains the ships pool of “yellow gear” True or false

A

False

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20
Q

State the basic function of intermediate maintenance activities (IMA) afloat

A

Support Marines, squadrons etc.

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21
Q

What is the organizational level of Aviation maintenance

A

Responsible for the daily maintenance, upkeep and servicing of aircraft and their systems

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22
Q

What is the depot level of aviation maintenance?

A

Responsible for the repair, modification, and rework of aircraft and aircraft systems

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23
Q

NAMP is an abbreviation for what?

A

Naval aviation maintenance program

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24
Q

Who is normally authorized to sign aircraft logbooks?

A

Maintenance material control officer

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25
Q

FOD stands for foreign object damage true or false

A

True

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26
Q

The daily inspection is valid for a period of ___ hours permitting no maintenance was conducted to the aircraft, or the aircraft was attempted to be flown

A

72

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27
Q

A/an ____ Inspection is performed at the time a reporting custodian receives a newly reported aircraft

A

Acceptance

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28
Q

What does AD stand for?

A

Aviation machinist mate

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29
Q

What does AM stand for

A

Aviation structural mechanic

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30
Q

What does AT Stand for?

A

Aviation electronics technician

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31
Q

What does AZ Stand for?

A

Aviation maintenance administration man

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32
Q

____ Warfare is the use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces

A

Biological

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33
Q

At MOPP level four, material condition _____ is set

A

Circle William

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34
Q

What does MOPP stand for?

A

Mission oriented protective posture

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35
Q

The fire tetrahedron consists of what?

A

Heat, oxygen, fuel, chemical chain reaction

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36
Q

Class ____ Fires occur in combustible materials that produce an ash such as burning wood, cloth, or paper products

A

Alpha

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37
Q

Carbon dioxide or CO2 is the primary agent for class alpha fires true or false?

A

False

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38
Q

Water is effective on which types of fire?

A

Oil based paint and aircraft fires

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39
Q

____ Is responsible for the collection, display, Analysis and dissemination of intelligence information including the brief and debriefing of pilots prior to and after missions

A

Joint intelligence center

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40
Q

Which station is not a part of TACC?

A

Plans and support

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41
Q

The aviation of watch standers in JIC are the what?

A

TACC and ATF
DCA and AMOC
AIC and ADWC

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42
Q

State the function of the plane guard

A

Helo that flies around the ship for search and rescue during flight quarters

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43
Q

List at least five items that are in the air plan

A

Date, takeoff time, Sunset, sunrise, aircraft number, type of aircraft

44
Q

Which type of icing is the most dangerous?

A

Clear

45
Q

Weather criteria for case 2

A

Fixed wing- Ceiling greater than 1000 feet but less than 3000 feet and has a visibility of 5 miles

Helicopters- Ceiling greater than 500 feet but less than 1000 feet visibility greater than 1 mile but less than 3 miles

46
Q

Weather criteria for case 3

A

Fixed wing- Ceiling less than 1000 feet visibility less than 5 miles

Helicopters- Ceiling less than 500 feet visibility is less than 1 mile

47
Q

What is the primary air search radar used by AATCC

A

AN/SPN-43 C

48
Q

The operations officer will be responsible for controlling the plane guard efforts when they are in the sight of the ship true or false?

A

True

49
Q

What type of amphibious vessel is an LHD?

A

Amphibious assault ship (Multi-purpose)

50
Q

How many CIWS systems are on board and what are their locations?

A

2
FWD MT #21 above the bridge
FWD MT #22 Port side

51
Q

How many missiles can the RAM launcher hold?

A

21

52
Q

BHR has ____ RIM 7 sea sparrow launchers on board, each capable of holding ____ missiles, with ____ Guidance system

A

2, 8, semi active

53
Q

Is HERO Set for uploading and downloading of CIWS?

A

False

54
Q

Rolling airframe missile, primary mission is air defense true or false?

A

True

55
Q

What is the primary air search radar?

A

AN/SPS-49 A

56
Q

FPCON alpha

A

Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities and the nature and extent of the threat are unpredictable

57
Q

FPCON bravo

A

Applies when an increased

or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists

58
Q

FPCON Charlie

A

Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targets against personnel or facilities is likely

59
Q

FPCON Delta

A

Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when and intelligence has been received the terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent

60
Q

Who is responsible for all ordinance on board?

A

OHO

61
Q

Which is the G1 division responsibility?

A

Rocket builds

62
Q

G3 is responsible for magazine sprinkler maintenance? True or false

A

False

63
Q

____ Is the central nervous system in weapons department and the ship for the command and control of all weapons movement

A

G5

64
Q

How long is the qualification or certification valid for?

A

12 months

65
Q

AIM

A

Air launched, aerial intercept guided missile

66
Q

AGM

A

Air launched, surface attack guided missile

67
Q

RIM

A

Ship launched, intercept aerial guided missile

68
Q

ATM

A

Air launched, training guided missile

69
Q

A LAU 61 rocket pod can hold ____ rounds of ____ rockets

A

19, 2.75 inches

70
Q

MK 58 mod 1 marine locator marker (MLM) Burns for how long?

A

40 to 60 minutes

71
Q

Discuss the following colors in regards to ammunition

A

Yellow- High explosion
Brown- Live rocket
Blue- Inert

72
Q

Which weapons elevator is used as the emergency MEDEVAC elevator?

A

Cargo 3

73
Q

Primary magazines are located below the waterline true or false

A

True

74
Q

BHR has ____ .50cal mounts, for ____ to ____ contact

A

Four, surface to surface

75
Q

How many 25MM mounts are on board BHR

A

Three

76
Q

There are the two sections of ASD. The Supply response section (SRS) And the component control section (CCS). How many units are in each?

A

Five and four

77
Q

____ Is responsible for the verification of requisition data such as part number, Stock number, references, and other technical data

A

TRU

78
Q

Describe the basic functions of component control section (CCS)

A

Responsible for the management and accounting of all repairable 7R COG assets stored in LRCA.

79
Q

How many digits are in an NSN or national stock number?

A

13

80
Q

How many digits are in an NIIN or national item identification number

A

9

81
Q

Which of the following is not on the MSDS?

A

Cost

82
Q

What are the six categories of HM?

A 
Flammable or combustible
Aerosol
Toxic
Corrosives
Oxidizing materials
Compressed gases
83
Q

______ Are Technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemicals, and physical characteristics Health and safety hazards and precautions for safe handling and use

A

Safety data sheets (SDS)

84
Q

Any discarded material that has been contaminated by hazardous material is known as what?

A

Hazardous waste

85
Q

In administering first aid, you have three primary task what is a primary task?

A

Stop bleeding

86
Q

When administering first aid if organs are protruding immediately apply pressure on the organs to stop the bleeding true or false

A

False

87
Q

When performing CPR, you should remove victims clothing from their chest

A

True

88
Q

CPR should be continued for ____ Cycles, then reassess the victims breathing

A

Five

89
Q

After CPR, if a patient is breathing normally, lay them on their ____ To keep the airway clear

A

Side

90
Q

What does ABC stand for?

A

Airway, breathing, circulation

91
Q

Who wears yellow on the flight deck?

A

Director, LSE

92
Q

Who wears blue on the flight deck?

A

Chock crewman, plain handler

93
Q

Who wears red on the flight deck?

A

Crash and salvage

94
Q

Who wears purple on the flight deck?

A

Aviation fuel crew

95
Q

Who wears red with black stripes on the flight deck

A

Aviation ordnance

96
Q

Who wears white with red cross on the flight deck?

A

Medical

97
Q

Who wears white with a green cross on the flight deck?

A

Safety

98
Q

Which air department division is not on BHR?

A

V2

99
Q

The A/S 32A-P25 Is also known as what?

A

Mobile fire fighting vehicle

100
Q

Crash crew primary job is to what?

A

Save lives

101
Q

A CO2 bottle stowage station is identified on the flight deck by a ___ wide ____ stripe with a ____ high CO2 Stenciled on the center of the wheel stop coaming

A

12 inch, red, 3 inch

102
Q

The term flight quarters means the ship is manned and ready to conduct flight operations. All appropriate ship stations are manned. hanger deck control, flight deck control, primary crash true, fly one, fly two

Name for more stations that are also manned

A

AATCC

BDC

Fuels (V4)

Safety

Squadron

AO’s

103
Q

Aircraft being tied down in conditions between 40 to 60 knots Of wind utilize the ____ Weather condition and ____ are required

A

Moderate, 14

104
Q

During flight operations, the LSE is stationed in flight deck control true false?

A

False

105
Q

The primary purpose of having con flag stations manned when aircraft is present is to what?

A

Set off sprinklers during hanger bay fires

106
Q

What is the JP5 NATO code

A

F44

EAWS Test (1 decks)

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