Physiology Final Flashcards

1
Q

Homeostasis

A

thought of as being a state of dynamic constancy

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2
Q

What does an integrated center send information to?

A

effector

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3
Q

What type of feedback is oxytocin?

A

Positive feedback - released due to cervical dilation, causes contraction that dilates the cervix more.

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4
Q

Induced fit

A

hoe an enzyme can adjust its shape to fit the shape of the substrate

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5
Q

What causes a chemical reaction rate to increase

A

increase in temperature or the decrease in activation energy

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6
Q

What happens in an enzymatic reaction after the pH is increased past the point of the enzyme pH optimum

A

the enzyme will reduce its catalytic activity

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7
Q

What does an addition of a substrate do when the enzyme is fully saturated?

A

nothing - it is already saturated

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8
Q

what happens to a potato in a hypertonic saltwater solution

A

The potato will shrivel

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9
Q

What makes up the central nervous system

A

the brain and the spinal cord

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10
Q

what do sensory neurons carry information to

A

receptors to CNS

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11
Q

what do sensory neurons use to carry info to the CNS

A

dorsal root

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12
Q

What do motor neurons carry information to

A

CNS to target organ

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13
Q

How do motor neurons carry info to the target organ

A

with ventral root

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14
Q

What are the myelin sheaths of the CNS neurons processed by

A

oligodendrocyte

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15
Q

What are the myelin sheaths of the PNS neurons processed by

A

Schwann cells

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16
Q

what is the name of the game of exposed axon on a myelin sheath

A

node of Ranvier

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17
Q

what does the blood-brain barrier result from

A

the action of astrocytes - a type of glial cell in the CNS

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18
Q

what does calcium entering the cell cause

A

depolarization

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19
Q

what does potassium leaving the cell cause

A

hyperpolarization

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20
Q

what ion channel is responsible for the repolarization of the resting membrane potential

A

the potassium leak channel - resting membrane potential is closer to potassium than sodium

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21
Q

all-or-none law

A

the reason an axon will depolarize only if the membrane potential reaches -55mV

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22
Q

What is the minimum depolarization stimuli needed to open the sodium channels called

A

threshold

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23
Q

what does a stronger stimulus make an action potential do

A

the action potential will occur more frequently

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24
Q

why cant another action potential be fired during an absolute refractory period

A

because sodium channels are inactive

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25
Q

what makes an action potential occur faster

A

a bigger diameter and a myelinated axon

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26
Q

what is the conduction of a myelinated axon called

A

saltatory conduction

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27
Q

GABA binds a chloride channel on a postsynaptic cell allowing chloride to enter the postsynaptic cell. What will this do to the postsynaptic cell?

A

it will become more negative and generate an IPSP

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28
Q

at the axon hillock neurotransmitters that are released from multiple neurons can be added together is known as?

A

spatial summation

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29
Q

what happens in a cross-extensor reflex

A

the reflex induces double reciprocal innervations on both sides of the body

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30
Q

where do the autonomic postganglionic neurons start

A

ganglia

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31
Q

where do the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons start

A

brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord

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32
Q

what does the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system use

A

norepinephrine as a postganglionic neurotransmitter

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33
Q

what are nicotinic receptors stimulated by

A

ACh

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34
Q

are nicotinic receptors inhibitory or excitatory

A

excitatory

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35
Q

what are alpha 1 adrenergic receptors mediated by

A

calcium

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36
Q

synapses en passant

A

refers to the fact that postganglionic autonomic neurons release neurotransmitters along the length of the axon

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37
Q

cooperative effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS

A

sympathetic control of the bladder’s internal sphincter while the parasympathetic contract the bladder

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38
Q

nonpolar hormones that can pass through the plasma membrane are called

A

lipophilic

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39
Q

estradiol increases the progesterone receptor formation in the uterus and thus the uterus’s response to progesterone is an example of what

A

permissive effects of hormones

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40
Q

When does upregulation occur

A

when there is an increase in the number of receptors available for binding thereby enhancing the sensitivity of subsequent signals

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41
Q

when does dow regulation occur

A

when there is a decrease in the number of receptors available for the binding due to desensitization

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42
Q

what does testosterone work through

A

steroid hormone receptors

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43
Q

what do tyrosine kinase receptors require to activate the receptor

A

autophosphorylation

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44
Q

where is oxytocin produced

A

in the hypothalamus

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45
Q

where is oxytocin secreted

A

from the posterior pituitary

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46
Q

what is the function of the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system

A

to transport releasing hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary

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47
Q

increase in cortisol from the adrenal cortex causes a decrease in CRH due to?

A

negative feedback

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48
Q

what does the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secrete

A

mineralocorticoids

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49
Q

what do your beta cells do when you are in a fasting state

A

the beta cells of the pancreas release insulin to increase blood glucose

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50
Q

know an action potential

A

depolarization, hyperpolarization, after-hyperpolarization, opening and closing of channels, membrane potentials

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51
Q

action potential arriving at the axon terminal. know the process of the neurotransmitter release

A

synaptotocin, SNARE, synaptobrevin, syntaxin, SNARE 25

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52
Q

adrenergic hormones mechanism

A

norepi/epi

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53
Q

production and mechanism of the action of thyroid hormones

A

start with iodine brought into the thyroid follicle

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54
Q

what are Leydig cells stimulated by

A

LH

55
Q

what are Sertoli cells stimulated by

A

FSH

56
Q

what does inhibin prevent in mammals

A

it prevents the release of FSH and only acts at the level of the anterior pituitary

57
Q

testes removed following testicular cancer

A

causes an increase in GnRH

58
Q

in spermiogenesis what creates an immune-privileged site within the testes

A

Sertoli cells

59
Q

in spermiogenesis what holds the digestive enzymes responsible for helping fertilize the egg

A

acrosome

60
Q

what would the lack of cGMP inhibit

A

erection

61
Q

what follicles contain a primary oocyte and increase in size with FSH

A

primary

62
Q

what is the LH surge caused by

A

estradiol increasing frequency of GnRH

63
Q

in the luteal phase, what does LH stimulating and empty follicle produce

A

corpus luteum

64
Q

when would be the best time to measure a womens peak progesterone production with blood work

A

one week after the LH surge

65
Q

during skeletal muscle contraction, what are pulled closer together and what is shorten between them

A

A bands are pulled together while I bands are shortened

66
Q

what does the movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex require

A

calcium

67
Q

what molecule binds calcium to allow cross bridges to occur

A

troponin C

68
Q

the ability of muscle cells to relax due to high frequency stimulation is called…

A

tetanus

69
Q

motor neuron with 600 muscle fibers is responsible for what

A

strength

70
Q

motor neuron with 20 muscle fibers is responsible for what

A

finer control

71
Q

muscle type IIX is responsible for fast twitch muscle

A
72
Q

what do muscle spindles respond to

A

stretch

73
Q

what do Golgi organs respond to

A

tension

74
Q

voltage gated calcium channels of the t-tubules are not directly touching/coupled to the ryanodine receptors in the SR is what muscle type

A

cardiac muscle

75
Q

muscle cell under involuntary control and uses calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase for contraction is what muscle type

A

smooth muscle

76
Q

in smooth muscle what is analogous to z discs

A

dense bodies

77
Q

what does the myocardium acting as a single unit called

A

functional syncytium

78
Q

the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of contraction is called

A

end-systolic volume

79
Q

what happened during isometric relaxation

A

the pressure of the ventricles is less than the pressure of the arteries causing the semilunar valves to close

80
Q

cardiac pacemaker channels are called HCN channels in part because they open in response to

A

hyperpolarization

81
Q

why are cardiac action potential longer lasting than the muscle action potential

A

because cardiac action potentials use slow calcium channels

82
Q

calcium release channels in the SR of the heart are open by an increase in calcium in the cytoplasm is called

A

calcium-induced calcium release

83
Q

in a cardiac action potential, what is responsible for rapid repolarization

A

delay rectifier potassium channels

84
Q

lack of T waves in an ECG indicates a failure of what

A

ventricular repolarization

85
Q

blood vessels that have three layers and are thin and complement are…

A

veins

86
Q

which plasma protein is important for creating osmotic pressure and drawing water into the capillaries

A

albumin

87
Q

what are the three mechanisms to help return blood to the heart

A

breathing, valves, skeletal muscle contractions

88
Q

know hormone changes during the menstrual cycle

A
89
Q

starting with ACh being released from the motor neuron, describe the mechanism of muscle contraction. End with a new ATP being cleaved and myosin rebinding to actin further down

A
90
Q

antigens, antibodies and Rh factors with different blood types

A
91
Q

clot formation

A
92
Q

cardiac output equation

A

SVxHR

93
Q

frank-starling law of the heart “what goes in must come out” meaning

A

when EDV increases, SV increases

94
Q

if the preload is increased, but the heart rate stays the same, what will the impact on cardiac output be?

A

cardiac output will increase

95
Q

based on poiseuile’s law, vasodilation of the blood vessels results in______ in blood flow, while and increase in pressure would result in ____ in blood flow

A

increase, increase

96
Q

if cardiac output increase and resistance in arterioles does not change, what happens to blood pressure

A

blood pressure increases

97
Q

as the radius of the alveoli decreases, the concentration of the surfactant ____ and thereby _____ the surface tension of water

A

increase, decrease

98
Q

how does surfactant reduce the surface tension of water in the lungs

A

reduced hydrogen bonding between water molecules

99
Q

air moves in the lungs because…

A

the atmospheric pressure is greater than intrapulmonary pressure

100
Q

what muscles contract during forced expiration

A

internal intercostals and abdominal muscles

101
Q

inhale as deep as possible and then blow the air out until no more exhale, what is the amount of air he expelled

A

vital capacity

102
Q

the amount of a given gas dissolved in the blood is

A

mainly determined by the partial pressure of gas

103
Q

pulmonary arterioles ____ and systemic arterioles ____ when PO2 is low

A

constrict, dilate

104
Q

which areas of the brain promote the rhythmicity of breathing

A

dorsal and ventral respiratory group of the medulla oblongata

105
Q

the most important chemical regulator of respiration is

A

CO2

106
Q

during hyperventilation, the increase in CO2 leads to a _____ in p that is sensed by chemoreceptors

A

decrease

107
Q

oxygen has an indirect effect on ventilation via

A

altering chemoreceptor sensitivity to COS

108
Q

increased affinity between oxygen and hemoglobin favors ___ and the formation of ____

A

loading , oxyhemoglobin

109
Q

the ensure tissues receive more oxygen during exercise….

A

pH will decrease resulting in the Bohr effect

110
Q

when PO2 is low, the production of 2,3-DPG is ___ promoting O2 ____

A

increased, unloading

111
Q

which of the following will promote oxygen being unloaded at the tissues

A

decreased pH, increasing temperature, increasing 2,3-DPG production

112
Q

the majority of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as _____, the major buffer of the blood

A

HCO3-

113
Q

Diarrhea causes metabolic acidosis. What can compensate for this

A

respiratory alkalosis and hyperventilation

114
Q

the movement of molecules from the blood/capillaries to tubules to modify the filtrate is called

A

secretion

115
Q

what does GFR stand for

A

glomerular filtration rate

116
Q

what is the main starling force that drives the formation of filtration

A

the hydrostatic pressure of the capillaries

117
Q

during extrinsic regulation of the kidney, the sympathetic nervous system secretes norepi causing vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles, What effect does this have on GFR

A

decreases GFR

118
Q

the ability of the kidneys to maintain a relatively constant GFR despite fluctuating blood pressure is called

A

renal autoregulation

119
Q

when there is too much ____ in the filtrate, the ____ releases ATP to decrease GFR as part of the tubuloglomerular feedback

A

NaCl, Macula densa

120
Q

in the lumen of the proximal tubule, sodium concentration is ____ the sodium concentration inside the cells that line the tubules

A

higher than

121
Q

glucose cotransport occurs via ____ with sodium on the apical side of the PCT cell and via ____ on the basal side of the PCT cell

A

cotransport, facilitated diffusion

122
Q

the osmolarity of the filtrate in the proximal tubules is ____ mOsm and increases to ____ mOsm at the bottom of the loop of henle

A

300, 1200

123
Q

which of the following is a molecule that contributes to the osmotic gradient of the interstitial fluid of the renal tubules

A

Urea

124
Q

____ Interstitial osmolarity allows urine to be concentrated

A

high medullary

125
Q

dehydration. their blood osmolarity is likely ____, their ADK levels are likely ____, and the number of aquaporins in their collecting duct is likely _____

A

increase, increase, increase

126
Q

the renal plasma clearance of a substance that is filtered and secreted is ___ the GFR

A

greater than

127
Q

_____ is a substance that can be used to measure GFR since it is filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted

A

inulin

128
Q

Starling forces

A
129
Q

decrease in blood pressure. How do baroreceptors respond

A
130
Q

unload oxygen and pick up CO2 mechanism name

A

chloride shift and reverse chloride shift

131
Q

three filtration barriers to keep proteins out of the urine

A
132
Q

countercurrent multiplier and the countercurrent exchange in a nephron

A
133
Q

the purpose of CCM and CCexchange

A