Physiology (Exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

Identify the (4) functional zones of the adrenal glands and the principal hormones secreted from each zone

A

(3) layers of adrenal cortex from outer to inner:
- Glomerulosa = aldosterone (salt)
- Fasiculata = cortisol (sugar)
- Reticularis = androgens (sex)

Adrenal medulla = Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

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2
Q

What (2) adrenal hormone biosynthetic pathways does 21-hydroxylase participate in?

A

Cortisol and Aldosterone synthesis. Becomes important when there is a deficiency.

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3
Q

What is DHEA-sulfate and how is it found in circulation?

A

DHEA-sulfate is a precursor to major sex hormones and 98% of it is bound to albumin in circulation.

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4
Q

(3) stimulating factors for release of CRH (cortisol-releasing hormone). Which is the primary?

A

Hypoglycemia (*primary);
Stress;
Diurnal rhythm (high cortisol in morning and low at night)

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5
Q

Negative feedback suppression of cortisol

A

elevated levels of cortisol inhibit both hypothalamic release of CRH and anterior pituitary release of ACTH

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6
Q

What is POMC and what is its clinical significance?

A

POMC = proopiomelanocortin. It is a precursor to the ACTH released by the anterior pituitary. It will be broken down into ACTH, an opiod, and a melanocyte stimulating factor.
Thus, high ACTH levels are associated w/ hyperpigmentation b/c of the concurrent melanocyte stimulation

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7
Q

(3) metabolic actions cortisol stimulates the liver to do

A

1) release glucose into the blood
2) use amino acids and fatty acids (from broken down protein in muscle and TAGs in fat) in Gluconeogenesis
3) store glucose as glycogen. Why?? B/c when cortisol is released, also have glucagon and epi that are all acting to break down glycogen. Thus, cortisol provides a substrate for them.

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8
Q

effects of low v. high doses of cortisol

A
low doses = permissive effect for NE and epi. Needed for the stress response
high doses (pharmacological effects) = immunosuppression and anti-inflammatory
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9
Q

What is the anti-insulin effect of cortisol?

A

opposes glucose uptake by muscle and adipose tissue. Result is they break down their own protein and fat respectively to be used in gluconeogenesis

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10
Q

What effect can excess cortisol have in muscle?

A

can lead to muscle atrophy and weakness (through its anti-insulin effect)

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11
Q

How can high pharmacological doses of cortisol suppress the adrenocortical axis?

A

through negative feedback, high cortisol levels will turn off ACTH release. A decrease in ACTH can lead to decreased release of ALDOSTERONE b/c it indirectly affects maintenance of the adrenal gland

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12
Q

Addison’s Disease

A

insufficiency of the entire adrenal gland. Life-threatening b/c of lack of cortisol and aldosterone. Leads to hypotension (b/c no aldosterone) and poor muscle tone (b/c no cortisol)

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13
Q

(3) causes for Cushing’s Syndrome

A

a GROUP of sx related to high cortisol, may be due to:

  • Cushing’s Disease = excess pituitary ACTH
  • adrenal tumor
  • ectopic ACTH
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14
Q

Adrenogenital syndrome, most common one and its sx

A

an enzyme deficiency w/ excess androgen production. Most common = 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Have low cortisol and high ACTH.
Sx = masculinization in developing female and precocity (unusually advanced) in developing male

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15
Q

How does 21-hydroxylase deficiency cause excess weak androgens?

A

With this deficiency, you don’t produce cortisol or cortisol is very low. Through negative feedback, this stimulates continuously high levels of ACTH, which will stimulate excess production of weak adrogens.

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16
Q

What is PNMT and why does it need cortisol?

A

PNMT is the enzyme that takes Norepinephrine and converts it to Epinpehrine. PNMT is activated by the cortisol draining from the adrenal cortex into the medulla. Thus, normal cortisol levels are needed to produce normal amounts of Epi!

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17
Q

Norepinephrine v. Epinephrine

A

Epi is made from NE using enzyme PNMT and cortisol in adrenal medulla.
However, NE is produced everywhere! The main source of NE in the blood is from its use as a SNS neurotransmitter

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18
Q

Chromaffin cells

A

Cells that synthesize catecholamines (80% Epi and 20% NE) in the adrenal medulla.

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19
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

an unregulated NE producing tumor in the adrenal gland. Sx: hypertension (due to vasoconstriction), headache, perspiration, palpitations and anxiety

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20
Q

What is the MAIN effect of release of epinephrine?

A

to increase plasma glucose levels (by mobilizing glycogen from the muscle and liver). Epi also has fight or flight physiological responses

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21
Q

Catecholamines mechanism of action

A

since catecholamines can not diffuse through cell membranes, they act on membrane receptors (alpha and beta) to accomplish their action

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22
Q

(4) hormones stimulated by low glucose that work against insulin

A
Growth hormone
Glucagon
Cortisol
Epinephrine
*remember that cortisol is needed to stimulate PNMT to synthesize Epi
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23
Q

Origin cells of Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) v. Calcitonin secretion. Function of both.

A

PTH = chief cells of the parathyroid glands
Calcitonin = parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland
FREE circulating Ca in blood is regulated mainly by PTH and to a lesser extent by Calcitonin

24
Q

Similarity and difference of PTH and Calcitonin

A

Both PTH and Calcitonin affect bone remodeling, but only PTH - along w/ Vitamin D - act in the intestines and kidneys to control Ca and phosphate [ ] in the blood

25
Q

mechanism for PTH regulation

A

Low plasma Ca stimulates PTH release from the parathyroid chief cells. When Ca binds to a membrane Ca receptor on parathyroid chief cells, it inhibits PTH release. So, low plasma Ca = less Ca binding to receptor = more PTH release

26
Q

List the target organs for PTH and its effects on each

A

Bone and kidneys (kidneys then act on intestine)

  • bone: increases bone breakdown (“resorption”) to increase release of Ca into plasma
  • kidneys = (3): 1) activate Vitamin D (active Vit D increases Ca resorption in G.I. tract), 2) save more Ca, and 3) excrete more phosphate in the urine
27
Q

(3) major cell types in bone and their function in bone remodeling

A
  • Osteoclasts: break down bone, or “bone resorption,” where bone matrix is dissolved and BOTH Ca and phosphate are released into ECF. More for long-term Ca deficiencies
  • Osteoblasts: build up bone. After bone resorption, osteoblasts will begin to deposit new bone
  • Osteocytes: are trapped osteoblasts that are inactive. Have canaliculi that allow for fast, short-term movement of Ca in and out of bone.
28
Q

(2) pools of Ca associated with bone and how they are stimulated. What is Vitamin D needed for?

A

1) Labile pool of Ca+ is associated with osteocytes. PTH can directly stimualte osteocytes to release this for short term
2) Ca in bone matrix. Indirect stimulation by PTH = PTH stimulates osteoBlasts to secrete a paracrine factor that stimualtes osteoClasts to break down bone (b/c osteoClasts lack a PTH receptor). This is for long term Ca deficiencies.
* In ALL of the actions of PTH in bone, Vitamin D is a required cofactor

29
Q

Describe conversion of inactive to active Vitamin D.

A

Inactive Vit D = 24, 25-di(OH) Vit D. It circulates bound to a carrier protein that gets taken up in the kidney proximal tubule. There the enzyme 1-alpha-hydroxylase converts it to the active form = 1,25-hydroxy Vit D.
After activation, it goes back into circulation and then binds to Vit D receptors in the distal tubule to initiate transcription of Ca transporters.

30
Q

Which (2) molecules stimulate 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity and which (2) inhibit it?

A

PTH and Calcitonin activate 1-alpha-hydroxylase to make more active Vit D form (1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D). Too high levels of Vitamin D (via negative feedback) or too high phosphate levels will inhibit the enzyme, keeping it in inactive 24, 25 Vit D form.

31
Q

How is vitamin D synthesized in the body?

A
  • Body makes vit D precursor = 7 dehydrocholesterol. Then, exposure to UV light converts it into Vitamin D3.
  • Vit D3 is then modified in the liver into the intermediate 25-hydroxy-Vit D. Then 2 options from this state:

1) in absence of PTH, the 24 hydroxylase enzyme kicks in to convert to inactive form = 24, 25-diOH VitD; or
2) in presence of PTH, 1-alpha-hydroxylase is stimulated in KIDNEY to active form = 1,25-diOH VitD.

32
Q

What is the net effect of Vitamin D? What are its (3) targets in body?

A
  • Net effect = increase BOTH Ca+ and PO4-. Even though the increased phosphate opposes PTH action, PTH will win out and combined effect = increased Ca and decreased phosphate.
  • VitD (3) targets:
    1) Gut: increases BOTH Ca and PO4 absorption
    2) Kidney: increased Ca reabsorption
    3) Bone: facilitates action of PTH
33
Q

What is the cellular mechanism of action of Vitamin D (i.e. what specifically does it change w/in the cell?)

A

VitD acts through an INTRAcellular receptor called VDR (VitD Receptor) to induce synthesis of a calcium binding protein, called Calbindin-D.

34
Q

What are the consequences of VitD deficiency in adults v. children?

A

VitD deficiency leads to hypocalcemia. Low Ca makes PTH demineralize more bone, leading to weakened bone. In adults, presents as Osteomalacia, which means soft bones. In children, presents as Rickets Type I or II:

  • Type I due to 1-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency. Will have decreased 1,25-diOH VitD levels
  • Type II due to 1,25-diOH VitD RESISTANCE in target tissues. Here, 1,25-diOH Vit levels are increased
35
Q

Describe Calcitonin’s site of origin, target in body, its net effect, and regulation of its secretion.

A
  • Calcitonin is produced by parafollicular C cells in the thyroid. It acts to decrease BOTH serum Ca and phosphate by inhibiting bone osteoclasts. Thus, its primary target = bone.
  • Its regulation is stimulated by high Ca in plasma.
36
Q

Osteomalacia v. Osteoporosis

A

Osteomalacia means soft bones. Can be caused by VitD deficiency, which leads to a balance of bone remodeling processes. However, the bone that is reformed is not as hard (mineralized) as it should be

Osteoporosis is more common and is due to bone being broken down faster than it is re-formed.

37
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism and one way to dx it as pathological.

A

impairment in the parathyroid, such as malignancy, leading to increased PTH, which causes increased Ca and decreased phosphate. Normally, those would negative feedback inhibit PTH, but b/c of issue w/ parathyroid it doesn’t happen.
Dx: pay attention to urinary Ca excretion! High Ca levels will exceed kidney’s Tm of reabsorption, getting high Ca levels in both plasma and urine. Non-pathological increased PTH would ONLY increase plasma Ca and have no effect on urinary Ca.

38
Q

What is the function of sertoli cells in spermatogenesis? Which hormone controls Sertoli cells? Name the (2) proteins that sertoli cells secrete and the function of each. What important enzyme is in sertoli cells?

A

Sertoli cells provide proper environment for maturation of sperm. Have tight-jxns that form blood-testis barrier. In response to FSH, Sertolis secrete:
1) Androgen-binding proteininto seminiferous tubule lumen, which helps keep high levels of testosterone in tubular fluid; and
2) Inhibin, which inhibits further FSH release from the pituitary
While Sertolis don’t make any androgens, they do have Aromatase, which converts androgens into estrogens

39
Q

Function of Leydig cells and its controlling hormone. What are the (2) pathways for the hormone that Leydig cells produce?

A

LH from the anterior pituitary stimulates Leydig cells, aka interstitial cells, to SYNTHESIZE and SECRETE testosterone, which goes (2) places:

  • into seminiferous tubule lumen to help spermatogenesis
  • into circulation, which feedback inhibits further release of GnRH (hypothalamus) and LH (anterior pituitary)
40
Q

What (2) negative effects can testosterone injections have?

A

1) through negative feedback turn off LH production, which turns off the endogenous testosterone production by Leydig cells. This wil:
2) decrease spermatogenesis b/c, even though you are taking external testosterone, it can’t get through blood-testis barrier

41
Q

Name (4) direct effects of testosterone

A
  • spermatogenesis
  • negative feedback control of LH
  • pubertal growth spurt = closure of epiphyses
  • skin: increased sebaceous gland secretion = acne
42
Q

What does “indirect” effects of testosterone mean? Name (4).

A

In sex accessory tissues, such as the prostate, seminal vesicles, and epididymis, testosterone must first be converted to DHT (dihydrotestosterone), the more potent form, before it is effective.

(4) effects:
- differentiation of male/female reproductive tract
- maturation of external genitalia/internal tract at puberty
- secondary sex characteristics at puberty (e.g. hair growth on face and voice change)

43
Q

Role of granulosa and theca cells and their controlling hormones

A
  • Theca cells (analogous to leydigs) respond to LH to produce Estrogen and other ovarian hormones (progesterones and androgens), which DIFFUSE into granulosa cells
  • Granulosa cells (analogous to sertolis) respond to FSH for development of ovum/follicle. Later, as corpus lutem, they start responding to LH and take on endocrine fxn
44
Q

Significance of aromatase in granulosa cells. How do LH and FSH affect this process?

A

theca cells under influence of LH make androgens, which diffuse to the granulosa cells. Aromatase, which is stimulated by FSH, is in the granulosa cells and converts the androgens to estradiol, which is necessary for maturation of the ovum.

45
Q

In female reproductive pathway, how are FSH and LH release suppressed?

A
  • Estradiol (mainly made by aromatase in the granulosa cells), feedback inhibits BOTH FSH and LH (ant pit), as well as GnRH (hypothalamus)
  • Inhibin from granulosa cells enter the blood stream and feedback inhibits specifically FSH
46
Q

What (2) hormones does the corpus luteum produce? What do these feedback inhibit?

A

Corpus lutem produces estrogens and progesterone, which both act at hypothalamus to reduce GnRH, which in turns suppresses FSH and LH.

47
Q

Name (5) target tissues for estrogen and effects on each

A
  • uterine tube: increased motility for ovum/sperm
  • uterus: increased uterine contractions
  • cervical glands: decreased viscosity of cervical mucus
  • mammary glands: duct development
  • follicle development = REQUIRED
48
Q

Large increase in which hormone leads to ovulation? Reason for large increase?

A

Surge in LH around day 14 is responsible for ovulation. Usually the increase in estrogen, also happening during this time, would inhibit LH. However, there is a switch to positive feedback for a short window around ovulation, which instead leads to a LH surge. Same reason for simultaneous increase in FSH (b/c estrogen switches to positive feedback GnRH from hypothalamus).

49
Q

Increasing estrogen occurs during what part of the menstrual cycle? What happens to FSH during this time?

A

day 1-14 for development of the follicle. As follicle grows, get release of inhibin, which feedback decreases FSH (that’s reason for decline of FSH around day 7).

50
Q

Which ovarian hormones are increasing from day 15-28 of menstrual cycle? What happens if there is no pregnancy? Function of hCG in this?

A

estrogen + progesterone, produced by the corpus lutem. both act to maintain endometrium for implantation. These high levels of estrogen + prog eventually feedback inhibit LH, so that corpus luteum can no longer be maintained. As corpus luteum regresses, the estrogen and progesterone levels decline, which means endometrium can no longer be maintained. At this point, w/out hCG, which is a LH-like hormone produced by an implanted fertilized egg, the corpus luteum dies and get menstruation.

51
Q

What is hCG? When is the period of its secretion?

A

hCG = human chorionic gonadotropic hormone. It’s a LH-like hormone secreted by the fertilized egg in order to stimulate continuing function (“rescue”) of the corpus luteum, so the implanted embryo can continue to develop.
hCG secretion starts 7 days after fertilization and high levels persist for ~6 weeks.

52
Q

What is hCS? When is the period of its secretion and what is its function?

A

hCS = human Chorionic Somatomammotropin, which is secreted by the placenta. Secretion begins around same time as hCG (~day 7) and at 6 weeks gestation takes over as one of the hormones maintaining pregnancy.

53
Q

Name the (4) hormones secreted from the placenta. Which is a marker for maternal placenta viability?

A
  • hCS
  • pregnenolone
  • estrogens
  • progesterone = marker! Problem w/ progesterone levels usually points to placental issue
54
Q

Why are estriol levels used as an index of fetal viability (v. placental/maternal issue)? How are these levels measured?

A

b/c precursors for estrogens are produced by the fetus:
-DHEA = precursor for estrone is produced by fetal adrenal gland; and
-16-alpha-OH DHEA = precursor for estriol, which is produced by fetal liver. *Estriol is the primary estrogen of the last two trimesters.
Maternal EXCRETION of estriol is used as the index of fetal viability

55
Q

Which hormones are responsible for mammary gland development during pregnancy? For lactation? What causes regression of these features later?

A

During pregnancy, elevated estrogen + progesterone cause the mammary duct system to enlarge to produce milk.
But Prolactin is needed to cause secretion of milk from within the alveoli of the ducts. Prolactin release from ant pituitary is stimulated by suckling.
Without suckling, get regression of these mammary structures that had developed in order to produce milk.