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Closed Bell Supervisor > Physiology/ Diving Medicine/ First Aid > Flashcards

Physiology/ Diving Medicine/ First Aid Flashcards

1
Q

What does ‘anterior’ mean in directional terms?

A

To the front of the body

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2
Q

What does ‘posterior’ refer to?

A

To the back of the body

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3
Q

Midline is an imaginary line down the centre of the body, what does ‘medial’ mean?

A

Towards the midline

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4
Q

What is the meaning of ‘lateral’ with regards to medical terms?

A

Away from the midline

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5
Q

What does ‘superior’ indicate?

A

Towards the top of the body

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6
Q

What does ‘inferior’ mean?

A

Towards the bottom of the body

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7
Q

What does ‘proximal’ mean?

A

Closer to

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8
Q

What does ‘distal’ refer to?

A

Further away

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9
Q

From whose point of view are directional terms in medicine and first aid given?

A

The patient’s point of view

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10
Q

What triggers the breathing reflex?

A

Raised carbonic acid level in the bloodstream

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11
Q

What is the term for inadequate oxygenation of the cells?

A

Hypoxia

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12
Q

What is the complete lack of oxygen in the cells known as?

A

Anoxia

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13
Q

How many organ systems are there in the human body?

A

Eleven

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14
Q

Which organ systems are particularly important to diving?

A

Skeletal, respiratory, circulatory, nervous

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15
Q

How many separate bones are there in the human skeleton?

A

206

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16
Q

What are the bones of the skull primarily composed of?

A

28 bones including flat bones and auditory ossicles

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17
Q

What is the function of the disks of cartilage in the spine?

A

Act as shock absorbers and prevent rubbing of vertebrae

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18
Q

Fill in the blank: The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level is known as _______.

A

Internal respiration

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs is known as _______.

A

External respiration

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20
Q

True or False: The skeletal system protects internal organs.

A

True

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21
Q

What are the top seven vertebrae known as?

A

Cervical vertebrae

This section of the spine is referred to as the c-spine and is particularly vulnerable to injury from impact and whiplash.

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22
Q

What role do long bones in the arms and legs play?

A

Act as levers operated by muscles

Muscles are joined to bones by tendons; bones are joined to bones by ligaments.

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23
Q

What condition is caused by rapid pressurization in the joints?

A

Compression arthralgia

It is probably caused by small pressure differences in the joints.

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24
Q

Where are blood cells created?

A

In the marrow of the long bones

This area has a high blood flow.

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25
Q

Thanking baby Jesus I pass

A
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26
Q

What is osteonecrosis?

A

Areas of dead bone

This condition is found in divers and compressed air workers more frequently than in the rest of the population.

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27
Q

How many principal body cavities are there in the skeleton?

A

Five

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28
Q

What does the cranial cavity house?

A

The brain

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29
Q

What purpose do the sinuses serve?

A

Lighten the heavy mass of facial bone and give resonance to the voice

They are connected by tubes to the back of the nose.

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30
Q

What happens if the tubes connecting the sinuses to the back of the nose are blocked?

A

The diver will suffer from sinus squeeze

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31
Q

Fill in the blank: The long bones are joined to muscles by _______.

A

Tendons

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32
Q

Fill in the blank: Bones are joined to bones by _______.

A

Ligaments

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33
Q

What does the thoracic cavity protect?

A

Lungs, heart, and major blood vessels

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the diaphragm.

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34
Q

What is pneumothorax?

A

Air or gas entering the thoracic cavity from a damaged lung or external injury

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35
Q

What organs are contained in the abdominal cavity?

A
  • Liver
  • Stomach
  • Gall bladder
  • Pancreas
  • Spleen
  • Small intestine
  • Most of the large intestine

The abdominal cavity is not protected by bones, making its organs vulnerable.

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36
Q

What can cause damage to the diaphragm?

A

Abdominal organs forced into the thoracic cavity

This may lead to compression of the lungs or heart.

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37
Q

What does the pelvic cavity contain?

A
  • Bladder
  • Part of the large intestine
  • Internal reproductive organs

A broken pelvis can lead to serious bleeding into the pelvic cavity.

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38
Q

What is the difference between internal and external respiration?

A

Internal respiration occurs within the body, while external respiration is concerned with gas exchange in the lungs

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39
Q

What is the function of the epiglottis?

A

Prevents food and liquids from entering the lower airway

It closes over the larynx when swallowing.

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40
Q

What is unique about the right bronchus compared to the left bronchus?

A

It is shorter and wider and continues in an almost straight line from the trachea

This causes solid objects that are inhaled to tend to lodge in the right bronchus.

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41
Q

What occurs during an asthma attack?

A

During an asthma attack, the muscles in the bronchioles contract forcefully, restricting airflow.

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42
Q

What is the surface area available for gas exchange in the alveoli of an adult male?

A

About 70 m².

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43
Q

What is the role of capillaries in the alveoli?

A

Capillaries are fine blood vessels that cover the alveoli and facilitate gas exchange.

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44
Q

What condition occurs if the membrane separating the bloodstream from gas in the lungs is ruptured?

A

Arterial gas embolism.

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45
Q

How many alveoli are there approximately in the lungs?

A

About 300 million.

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46
Q

What are the pleura?

A

The pleura are a double layer of membranes covering each lung.

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47
Q

What is pleural fluid?

A

Pleural fluid is a thin layer of fluid that acts as a lubricant between the pleural membranes.

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48
Q

What happens if the pleural membranes are filled with gas or blood?

A

It can cause pneumothorax or haemothorax, leading to partial or complete collapse of the lung.

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49
Q

What carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

A

The pulmonary artery.

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50
Q

What carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart?

A

The pulmonary vein.

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51
Q

What triggers the act of breathing?

A

Raised carbonic acid levels in the bloodstream.

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52
Q

What percentage of oxygen do we inhale from normal air?

A

Approximately 21%.

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53
Q

What percentage of oxygen is typically found in exhaled gas?

A

About 16%.

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54
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

The amount of gas moved during each breath, approximately 500 ml.

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55
Q

What is the total lung capacity of an average adult?

A

About 6000 ml.

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56
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

The maximum amount of gas that can be moved during very deep breathing, about 5000 ml.

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57
Q

Fill in the blank: The average adult male takes about _______ breaths per minute at rest.

A

12-20

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58
Q

What is the oxygen consumption during exercise?

A

1000 ml per minute or more

This indicates increased metabolic demands during physical activity.

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59
Q

What figure does IMCA D050 recommend for O2 consumption in divers during saturation?

A

500 ml per minute

This recommendation is for metabolic use and is independent of depth.

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60
Q

What is the dead space in the respiratory system during normal breathing?

A

150 ml of gas

This is the volume where no gas exchange occurs.

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61
Q

What happens during rapid shallow breathing?

A

Most gas movement takes place in the dead space

This leads to carbon dioxide accumulation in the lungs.

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62
Q

What is the primary function of arteries in the circulatory system?

A

Carry blood away from the heart

This is essential for delivering oxygen and nutrients to tissues.

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63
Q

What is the role of veins in the circulatory system?

A

Return blood to the heart

This is crucial for maintaining blood circulation.

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64
Q

Describe the pathway of blood from the heart to the tissues.

A

Heart → large arteries → smaller arterioles → capillaries

Gas exchange occurs in the capillaries.

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65
Q

What is the pathway of blood returning from the tissues to the heart?

A

Capillaries → small veins → progressively larger veins → heart

This ensures the return of deoxygenated blood to the heart.

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66
Q

What are the two main circulation circuits in the body?

A

Systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation

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67
Q

What does systemic circulation supply?

A

All body tissues except for the lungs

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68
Q

What are the main functions of blood?

A
  • Carries oxygen and nutrients to tissues
  • Transports carbon dioxide and waste products
  • Carries hormones
  • Protects against bacteria
  • Helps maintain temperature and fluid balance
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69
Q

What is haemoglobin and its role in blood?

A

A constituent of blood in red cells that carries oxygen to tissues

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70
Q

What percentage of oxygen does haemoglobin carry?

A

About 95%

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71
Q

What are leucocytes and their function?

A

White cells that protect the body against micro-organisms and remove debris

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72
Q

What is the function of platelets in blood?

A

Cause blood to clot

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73
Q

What is plasma?

A

The fluid that carries blood constituents

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74
Q

In hyperbaric treatment, what is significant about high pO2 breathing gas?

A

A significant amount of oxygen is carried dissolved in plasma

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75
Q

What happens if bubbles form in the bloodstream due to decompression illness?

A

Platelets may activate and clots may form around the bubbles

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76
Q

Where is the heart located in the body?

A

In the center of the chest, with two thirds of its mass to the left of the midline

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77
Q

How many chambers does the heart consist of?

A

Four

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78
Q

What is the function of the right heart?

A

Receives low oxygen content blood and pumps it through pulmonary circulation

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79
Q

What is the function of the left heart?

A

Receives oxygenated blood and pumps it through systemic circulation

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80
Q

What ensures the blood pumps in the right direction within the heart?

A

One-way valves

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81
Q

How is blood pressure usually measured?

A

In millimeters of mercury (mm Hg)

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82
Q

What is systolic blood pressure?

A

The pressure against artery walls when the heart is contracted

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83
Q

What is the formula for estimating systolic blood pressure for adult males?

A

100 mm Hg plus the patient’s age

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84
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

The pressure when the heart is relaxed

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85
Q

What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure?

A

Between 65 and 90 mm Hg

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86
Q

True or False: Blood pressure may fall due to blood or fluid loss.

A

True

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87
Q

What can cause a fall in blood pressure?

A

Blood or fluid loss, conditions that dilate blood vessels, heartbeat problems, other medical conditions

Conditions leading to blood pressure changes can include shock, trauma, or severe dehydration.

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88
Q

What does capillary refill indicate?

A

It gives a quick indication of blood pressure in a casualty

A refill time of more than 2 seconds may indicate potential concern.

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89
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation?

A

A chaotic rhythm of electrical impulses that stops the heart beating

CPR can sustain the casualty; a portable defibrillator may be used to restart the heart.

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90
Q

What is the normal heart rate range?

A

Below 40 beats per minute to over 80 beats per minute

During exercise, the heart rate can rise as high as 200 beats.

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91
Q

Which pulse is the most reliable in a casualty?

A

Carotid pulse

The carotid pulse is located in the neck.

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92
Q

At what systolic blood pressure level will the radial pulse not be detectable?

A

Below 80 mm Hg

Below 70 mm Hg, the femoral pulse is also undetectable.

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93
Q

What are the two main subdivisions of the nervous system?

A

Central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system

These subdivisions help in understanding the complex functions of the nervous system.

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94
Q

What does the central nervous system (CNS) consist of?

A

Brain and spinal cord

Both are encased in and protected by bone.

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95
Q

What is the function of cerebro-spinal fluid?

A

Acts as a protective cushion around the CNS

It circulates around the brain and spinal cord under the meninges.

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96
Q

What is the function of the left hemisphere of the brain?

A

Controls movement on the right side of the body

Damage to one side of the brain can cause symptoms on the opposite side.

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97
Q

What separates the outer ear from the middle ear?

A

The eardrum.

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98
Q

What happens if the Eustachian tube is blocked?

A

The diver is unable to equalise pressure in the middle ear.

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99
Q

What is housed in the cochlea?

A

The hearing sense organ.

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100
Q

What rare condition may occur in the inner ear due to decompression illness?

A

Bubble formation.

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101
Q

What is required by IMCA D014 regarding diver medics?

A

At least two team members must be diver medics.

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102
Q

Where must at least one diver medic be at all times?

A

On the surface or in the saturation chamber.

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103
Q

What is the mnemonic for the primary survey of a casualty?

A

ABCDE - Airway, Breathing, Circulation (and c-spine), Disability, Expose and Examine.

104
Q

How should blood pressure be assessed?

A

By checking other pulses or noting the capillary refill time

A BP below 80 mm Hg means the radial pulse is not detectable.

105
Q

What happens to the detectability of pulses as blood pressure decreases?

A

Below 80 mm Hg, radial pulse is not detectable; below 70 mm Hg, femoral pulse is not detectable; below 60 mm Hg, carotid pulse is not detectable

This indicates severe hypotension.

106
Q

You can do it, cut its fukken head off.

107
Q

What should be checked before every dive?

A

Bell and chamber kits and resuscitation equipment.

108
Q

When is barotrauma most likely to occur?

A

Close to the surface where the proportional changes in pressure are greater.

109
Q

What is aural barotrauma?

A

Barotrauma affecting the ears, caused by a pressure difference across the eardrum.

110
Q

What can block the Eustachian tube, leading to aural barotrauma?

111
Q

What is ‘reversed ear’ in diving?

A

Reversed ear occurs when the Eustachian tube is clear, but the outer ear is blocked by a wax plug or a tight fitting wet suit hood.

112
Q

What happens if a diver continues descent with a blocked Eustachian tube?

A

Continuing the descent can rupture the eardrum and allow water to enter the middle ear.

113
Q

What symptoms may arise from a ruptured eardrum?

A

Disorientation, nausea, and increased chances of infection.

114
Q

What causes ‘sinus squeeze’ during diving?

A

Blocked connecting tubes by mucus prevent pressure equalisation in the sinus cavities.

115
Q

What type of pain may occur in all top teeth related to diving?

A

Pain associated with sinus squeeze rather than dental barotrauma

116
Q

What are nips in the context of diving?

A

Minor, painful bruising that occurs when using a dry suit without suit inflation

117
Q

What may nips be confused with?

A

Skin DCI (Decompression Illness)

118
Q

What are the severe consequences of helmet squeeze?

A

Compression of lungs, crushed rib cage, and severe internal hemorrhaging.

119
Q

What modern safety feature prevents helmet squeeze?

A

Non-return valves fitted to helmets.

120
Q

What is a potential hazard in gas recovery systems related to helmet squeeze?

A

Failure of the exhaust valve allowing exhaled gas to escape at lower pressure.

121
Q

What can reduce the potential for injury during a blow up?

A

Stopping the ascent before the last 30 msw.

122
Q

What condition can a diver experience during a mixed gas blow up?

A

Hypoxia due to falling ambient pressure.

123
Q

What should not be done to a diver suffering from pulmonary barotrauma without medical advice?

A

He should not be decompressed

Decompression without medical guidance can lead to complications.

124
Q

Name the three common conditions associated with pulmonary barotrauma of ascent.

A
  • Interstitial emphysema
  • Pneumothorax
  • Arterial gas embolism

These conditions may occur individually or in combination.

125
Q

What is interstitial emphysema?

A

Gas travels through tissue layers into the mediastinum or beneath the skin

It may cause pain behind the breastbone and a sensation of fullness in the throat.

126
Q

What are the symptoms of interstitial emphysema?

A
  • Pain behind the breastbone
  • Sensation of fullness in the throat
  • Hoarseness of voice

Treatment usually requires hospitalization.

127
Q

What happens to the lungs during pneumothorax?

A

The escaped gas breaks the suction, allowing part or all of a lung to collapse

This can lead to uneven chest movement and increased breathing rate.

128
Q

How do gas bubbles travel in arterial gas embolism?

A

They are carried first to the heart and then to the brain

Bubbles lodge in smaller vessels, restricting circulation.

129
Q

What medical procedure can be performed to equalize pressure in a pneumothorax case?

A

Thoracocentesis

This involves inserting a hollow needle between the ribs.

130
Q

What may indicate a mild case of pneumothorax?

A

No noticeable symptoms, identifiable only by X-ray

More serious cases present with chest pain and breathing difficulties.

131
Q

What are the symptoms AGE of the diver’s condition after surfacing?

A

Paralysis, visual disturbance, loss of balance, convulsion, collapse

Symptoms are rapid in onset, usually occurring within five minutes of surfacing and the condition is often fatal.

132
Q

What is the only effective treatment for AGE?

A

Immediate pressurisation

The exact depth of pressurisation will be given in the company manual.

133
Q

What is Decompression Illness (DCI)?

A

A condition where inert gas in the diver’s breathing mixture is absorbed into tissues

The mass of gas absorbed depends on partial pressure, type of tissue, and time.

134
Q

According to Henry’s Law, what determines the amount of gas absorbed in tissues?

A

Partial pressure of the gas

The type of tissue and time also play a role in gas absorption.

135
Q

How much nitrogen is the body saturated with when breathing air at 1 bar?

A

About 1 litre of nitrogen

This increases with pressure; at 2 bar, it is about 2 litres, and at 4 bar, about 4 litres.

136
Q

What percentage of the body weight does fat make up?

A

About 15%

Nitrogen is five times more soluble in fat than in water.

137
Q

How long does it typically take for nitrogen to reach saturation in the water of the body?

A

About one hour

138
Q

How long does it take for nitrogen to dissolve in fat?

A

Several hours

139
Q

Why does fat require more nitrogen to become saturated compared to water?

A

Fat has a relatively poor blood supply

140
Q

What happens when the partial pressure of an inert gas decreases?

A

It starts to come out of solution and can form bubbles

141
Q

What can occur if inert gas comes out of solution too quickly?

A

It can form bubbles which lodge in tissues, causing symptoms

142
Q

What are two ways to reduce the partial pressure of an inert gas?

A

Overall pressure drop during ascent or a change in gas mixture at the same depth

143
Q

What risk is associated with bounce dive decompressions?

A

Risk of Decompression Illness (DCI)

144
Q

What is one way to avoid DCI during diving?

A

Correct use of decompression tables

145
Q

What factors can affect individual susceptibility to DCI?

A
  • Age
  • Fitness
  • Obesity
  • Cold
  • Fatigue
  • Local restrictions to circulation
  • Emotional stress
146
Q

What percentage of dissolved nitrogen leaves the body in the first hour after ascending from 10 msw?

147
Q

How long will it take to be completely free of excess gas after ascending from 10 msw?

148
Q

What effect does limiting the time a diver spends at a particular depth have on DCI incidence?

A

It drops the incidence of DCI

149
Q

What historical method was used to limit dive times?

A

Limiting dives to the US Navy Tables ‘O’ repetitive group

150
Q

What are the two types of DCI historically recognized?

A
  • Type 1: Pain only DCI
  • Type 2: Serious DCI
151
Q

What is the current school of thought regarding the differentiation of DCI types?

A

It does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 DCI

152
Q

Why is it usual to treat all cases of DCI as serious?

A

Some cases may be masked by pain

153
Q

What is the importance of a full neurological check in cases of DCI?

A

A full neurological check should be carried out to assess nerve and tissue damage, as prompt treatment is crucial.

154
Q

What is the success rate of DCI treatment if administered within 30 minutes?

A

90% success rate.

155
Q

How does a delay of 5 hours affect the success rate of DCI treatment?

A

Reduces the success rate to only 50%.

156
Q

What happens to the success rate of DCI treatment if the delay exceeds 12 hours?

A

The success rate is low.

157
Q

What are some reasons divers may delay reporting symptoms of DCI?

A

Inexperience, reluctance to return to the chamber, fear of missing a crew change.

158
Q

What is the primary method to check for DCI symptoms?

A

Pressurise the diver; if symptoms disappear, it is DCI.

159
Q

What causes ‘Pain Only DCI’?

A

Bubble formation in muscles or joints.

160
Q

What are the symptoms of ‘Pain Only DCI’?

A

Severe pain at the site of bubble formation.

161
Q

What is Serious DCI caused by?

A

Bubble formation in the central nervous system (CNS).

162
Q

What symptoms may indicate Serious DCI?

A

Minor symptoms like pins and needles or slight numbness.

163
Q

What must be considered when differentiating Serious DCI from arterial gas embolism?

A

Gas load, rate of ascent, potential for pulmonary barotraumas, speed of onset of symptoms.

164
Q

What typical symptoms indicate spinal DCI?

A

Numbness or tingling in extremities, pain around the waist (girdle pain), loss of bladder/bowel control, weakness in legs, paralysis.

165
Q

What can happen to a diver if bubbles lodge in the brain?

A

Symptoms can range from irritability to hallucination or paralysis.

166
Q

What symptoms are associated with vestibular DCI?

A

Loss of balance, nausea, vertigo, ringing or roaring noise in the ears.

167
Q

What factors can sometimes trigger vestibular DCI?

A

Change from helium-oxygen mixtures to air, deep excursions from saturation.

168
Q

What condition is known as ‘chokes’ in diving?

A

A serious DCI condition where the diver is unable to breathe properly due to large numbers of bubbles in the pulmonary circulation

Chokes are life-threatening and are rarely seen in modern diving, typically associated with rapid decompression.

169
Q

What is dysbaric osteonecrosis?

A

Patches of dead bone found more frequently in divers and compressed air workers due to restricted circulation during repeated decompressions

It is generally restricted to the shafts of long bones and has no disabling effect.

170
Q

What causes High Pressure Nervous Syndrome (HPNS) in divers?

A

Rapid compression to depths exceeding 100 msw (330 fsw) leading to tremors, loss of coordination, and brain-wave changes

Symptoms disappear on decompression and can be avoided with slow, planned pressurization.

171
Q

What is compression arthralgia?

A

Discomfort and pain in joints caused by rapid or deep pressurization, often associated with clicking noises

It can be avoided by following a safe pressurization schedule.

172
Q

What is gas toxicity in diving?

A

The harmful effects of gases encountered in diving, with susceptibility varying from person to person and day to day

Adhere to partial pressure limits and occupational exposure limits (OEL) as outlined in company manuals.

173
Q

What is chronic oxygen poisoning?

A

Develops after long exposure to a partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) in excess of 0.6 bar

This can occur in saturation chambers or during prolonged therapeutic decompression.

174
Q

What is the approximate time to cause 10% lung damage at a pO2 of 2.0 bar?

A

9 hours

This is based on the effects of breathing various pO2s.

175
Q

What is the approximate time to cause 20% lung damage at a pO2 of 1.0 bar?

A

Several days

The times vary significantly with different pO2 levels.

176
Q

What does UPTD stand for?

A

Unit Pulmonary Toxic Dose

UPTD is defined as the effect of breathing oxygen at a pressure of 1 bar for 1 minute.

177
Q

How does doubling the partial pressure affect the UPTD?

A

More than doubles the UPTD

UPTD calculations are typically referenced from a table.

178
Q

What are the first symptoms of chronic oxygen poisoning?

A

Mild tickling or irritation in the lungs and a slight cough

These symptoms can progress to more severe conditions.

179
Q

List some symptoms of chronic oxygen poisoning.

A
  • Extreme fatigue
  • Muscle aches
  • Headaches
  • Dizziness
  • Tingling and numbness in the fingers and toes

Chronic poisoning can be avoided by careful monitoring of pO2.

180
Q

What pO2 do saturation divers normally breathe in a saturation chamber?

A

About 0.4 bar

In water, saturation divers breathe a pO2 of about 0.7 bar.

181
Q

What can occur if the pO2 exceeds 1.6 bar?

A

Acute oxygen poisoning

This condition affects the brain directly and can lead to severe symptoms.

182
Q

What is increased susceptibility in divers during nitrox diving?

A

Increased susceptibility to higher concentrations of oxygen.

183
Q

What is anoxia?

A

A complete lack of oxygen.

184
Q

When is hypoxia generally considered to occur?

A

When the pO2 is less than 160 mb (0.16 atm).

185
Q

What is the minimum pO2 that should be maintained in the water?

A

Usually 450-600 mb.

186
Q

At what partial pressure of nitrogen (pN2) do narcotic effects begin to occur?

A

Approximately 3.2 bar

187
Q

What are the symptoms of hypercapnia?

A

Headache, sweating, increased respiration, feelings of apprehension

188
Q

What usually causes CO2 poisoning in divers?

A

Loss of control of breathing rhythm due to stress or hard physical work

189
Q

What happens to a diver’s breathing during hypercapnia?

A

Becomes rapid and shallow, leading to increased CO2 levels

190
Q

What is the maximum pCO2 limit in chambers and bells?

A

Usually 5-10 mb

191
Q

What is the primary source of carbon monoxide in diving operations?

A

Faulty compressor or poorly placed air intake

192
Q

In addition to faulty compressors, where else might carbon monoxide be encountered?

A

Habitat welding operations

193
Q

What is the effect of carbon monoxide on haemoglobin?

A

It binds strongly to haemoglobin, reducing the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.

Victims may collapse from lack of oxygen and display a cherry red complexion due to carboxy-haemoglobin.

194
Q

What is the recommended treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Resuscitate and give the casualty oxygen or an oxygen-rich mix, and hyperbaric oxygen treatment is beneficial.

Additional oxygen is carried to tissues dissolved in plasma.

195
Q

What are the symptoms of hydrogen sulphide exposure at low concentrations?

A

Irritation of the eyes, breathing difficulties, and a severe headache.

At high levels, it can cause unconsciousness and death.

196
Q

What precautions can be taken to avoid hydrogen sulphide contamination?

A

Use disposable oversuits, conduct regular checks of bell and chamber atmosphere, and flush immediately if gas is detected.

Portable detectors can be used in diving bells.

197
Q

What are potential sources of hydrocarbon contamination in diving operations?

A
  • Contaminated suits
  • Umbilicals
  • Oil spray in the breathing supply

Oil spray is commonly caused by a badly maintained air compressor.

198
Q

What symptoms may arise from hydrocarbon exposure during diving?

A

Narcosis, nausea, and possible lung infection.

Affected divers should have a full medical check.

199
Q

How can oil in the gas supply be detected?

A

By spraying the gas onto a sheet of clean white paper to reveal any oil traces.

Oil traces will be clearly visible on the paper.

200
Q

What hazards can arise from cleaning fluids in diving operations?

A

Accidents can occur if cleaning fluids like Freon are left in pipework or gas mixing tanks, potentially leading to inhalation.

Water in pipework or bail-out bottles can also cause problems.

201
Q

What must divers breathing heliox mixtures have?

A

Some form of active heating

Below 150 msw (492 fsw), they must have a heated gas supply.

202
Q

What is the normal body temperature?

A

About 37 °C

Shivering starts at about 36 °C.

203
Q

At what core temperature does shivering begin?

A

About 36 °C

Shivering is an attempt to warm peripheral tissues.

204
Q

Keep at it!

205
Q

Well done

206
Q

What symptoms should a diving supervisor look for as possible indications of hypothermia?

A

Slurred speech, irritation, difficulty in performing simple tasks

These symptoms may suggest that the diver is experiencing hypothermia.

207
Q

You are going to pass

208
Q

You are not stupid. Just a little slow

209
Q

You have a wonderful personality

210
Q

What body temperature indicates the onset of hyperthermia?

A

Exceeds 39 °C

This condition can lead to serious health issues if not addressed promptly.

211
Q

You too can be a superhero

212
Q

What is heat stroke and why is it dangerous?

A

A serious condition where the body’s temperature control fails and body temperature rises rapidly

It requires immediate cooling and medical assistance.

213
Q

What happens to water inhaled by a conscious drowning victim?

A

The epiglottis closes off the airway, allowing only small amounts of water to enter the lungs

Most water will instead enter the stomach.

214
Q

What are the combined effects that lead to a victim collapsing during drowning?

A

Hypoxia and carbon dioxide poisoning

These conditions can lead to loss of consciousness.

215
Q

What is the theoretical time frame for irreparable brain damage and death during drowning?

A

4-5 minutes

Survival times can be longer in cold water drowning scenarios.

216
Q

What should be routine for a diver suffering from unconsciousness?

A

Pressurisation in a chamber

The higher partial pressure of oxygen (pOz) will be beneficial.

217
Q

What is the IMCA D049 Code of Practice concerned with?

A

Use of high pressure jetting equipment by divers

It provides guidelines for safe operations involving high pressure water jets.

218
Q

What does DMAC 03 address?

A

Accidents with high pressure water jets

It outlines safety measures and protocols for divers.

219
Q

What is the focus of DMAC 12?

A

Safe use of electricity underwater

It provides guidelines to prevent electrocution and other electrical hazards.

220
Q

What does DMAC 06 discuss?

A

Safe diving distance from seismic surveying operations

It emphasizes the importance of maintaining safety distances to avoid accidents.

221
Q

You’re alive, what a wonderful day

222
Q

The sun is shinning, the weather is great

223
Q

What is the purpose of the DMAC 01 Aide-mémoire?

A

For recording and transmission of medical data to shore

This document helps ensure accurate medical information is conveyed from the worksite.

224
Q

What is the primary cause of decompression illness (DCI)?

A

Inadequate or too fast decompression

225
Q

What is the time required for complete nitrogen desaturation?

226
Q

How much more nitrogen does fatty tissue hold compared to lean tissue?

A

5 times more

227
Q

You might be tired but it will all be over soon

228
Q

Believe you can fly

229
Q

Hard times never last

230
Q

What type of pain is particularly noted in lumbar area for spinal DCI?

A

Girdle pain

231
Q

What are the symptoms of a spinal DCI?

A

Numbness or tingling, Weakness or paralysis, Loss of bladder and bowel control. Generally, symptoms will occur on both sides of the body below the point of bubble formation.
Note: Pain in mid-thigh may indicate spinal DCI

232
Q

What are the symptoms associated with cerebral DCI?

A

Headache and dizziness, visual disturbance, hearing difficulties, confusion, hallucination, personality changes, loss of coordination, paralysis down one side of the body, collapse.

.

233
Q

What are the symptoms associated with vestibular DCI?

A

Vertigo, nausea, hearing difficulties, nystagmus, tinnitus.

Nystagmus is characterized by horizontal flicking of the eyes.

234
Q

What is the difference in symptom onset between AGE and DCI?

A

AGE symptoms present on or soon after surfacing; DCI symptoms develop up to 12 hours after the dive.

235
Q

What should be done if a diver is involved in a ‘Blow Up’?

A

Treat for AGE.

236
Q

I can’t wait for this to be done with

237
Q

How long may a diver with pain-only DCI be fit to dive again?

A

May be fit to dive again after 24 hours.

238
Q

What is the normal body temperature?

239
Q

At what body temperature does hypothermia onset?

240
Q

What are the symptoms of hypothermia?

A

Speech impairment, fixed ideas, sluggish reactions, confusion, amnesia.

241
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperthermia?

A

Headache, dizziness, skin dry, hot and flushed, dilated pupils, sudden collapse.

242
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

A lowering of oxygen levels

Hypoxia occurs when the partial pressure of oxygen is less than 0.16 bar (160 mb) or 16% on the surface.

243
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

A
  • Cyanosis (Blueing of fingers, earlobes)
  • Increased heart rate
  • Poor coordination
  • Breathing difficulties

Most symptoms of hypoxia may pass unnoticed leading straight to collapse.

244
Q

What is anoxia?

A

A complete lack of oxygen (0 bar absolute)

Anoxia results in a total absence of oxygen supply to the body.

245
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

CO2 poisoning

Hypercapnia occurs due to an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

246
Q

What is the maximum allowable level of CO2 in a chamber?

A

Should not exceed 5,000 ppm in Chamber (0.5 SEP)

This corresponds to 0.02 bar absolute (BA).

247
Q

What causes hypercapnia?

A
  • Inadequate ventilation of mask
  • Overexertion
  • Soda lime not changed regularly

These factors lead to increased CO2 levels in the breathing environment.

248
Q

What are the symptoms of hypercapnia?

A
  • Increased respiration & pulse rate
  • Headache
  • Sweating
  • Dizziness
  • Nausea
  • Anxiety
  • Unconsciousness

Symptoms can escalate rapidly, leading to unconsciousness.

249
Q

What is the treatment for hypercapnia?

A

Stop work and flush through

Immediate measures to reduce CO2 levels in the breathing mixture.

250
Q

What is the maximum allowable level of carbon monoxide (CO) in air from a compressor?

A

CO should not exceed 5 ppm in air from a compressor or 0.02 mb absolute in DDC

EN 12021 sets these safety standards.

251
Q

What are the causes of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A
  • Impure air
  • Badly sited compressor intake
  • Oil breakdown in an overheating compressor

These conditions can lead to increased CO levels in the breathing air.

252
Q

What are the symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A
  • Cherry red complexion (unreliable)
  • Breathlessness on exertion
  • Lassitude
  • Dizziness
  • Tinnitus
  • Confusion
  • Loss of consciousness

Symptoms can vary and may not always be reliable indicators.

253
Q

What is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?

A
  • Change gas supply
  • Jump standby to assist divers’ ascent
  • Recompression, administer pure O2 by BIBS (Flushes out CO)

These steps are critical for managing CO exposure effectively.

254
Q

Fill in the blank: CO has an affinity to haemoglobin _____ times greater than O2.

A

200

This high affinity increases the risk of carbon monoxide poisoning.

255
Q

What are the exposure limits for carbon monoxide based on duration?

A
  • < 8 hrs: 2.38 ppm per 1% O2
  • > 8 hrs: 1 ppm per 1% O2
  • Emergency: 47.6 ppm per 1% O2

These limits help to assess safe exposure levels and risks.

256
Q

What is the correct flow of oxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary vein- heart cavities- carotid artery- brain

257
Q

List the diving certificates approved by IMCA?

Closed Bell Supervisor (4 decks)

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