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BUPA Physiology > Physiology Basics > Flashcards

Physiology Basics Flashcards

1
Q

What percent of body weight is water? Extracellular fluid? Plasma? Interstitial?

A

Water: 60%
Extracellular: 20%
-Plasma: 4%
-Interstitial: 16%

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2
Q

What % of the blood is blood cell volume?

A

45%

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3
Q

What molecules can cross the cell membrane? Which ones can’t?

A

Can: hydrophobic molecules, small uncharged polar molecules

Can’t: large uncharged polar molecules, ions

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4
Q

What is Fick’s law and what does it measure?

A

It’s measures flux(diffusion)

J (out—>in) = -P(deltaC)

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5
Q

What happens to permeability as the width of the membrane increases?

A

Molecules becomes less permeable

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6
Q

What is the equation for CHEMICAL potential energy?

A

DeltaU = RTln (Cin/Cout)

DeltaU = 61log (Cin/Cout) @ 37 degrees

DeltaU = 58log (Cin/Cout) @ 20 degrees

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7
Q

What is the equation for ELECTRICAL potential energy?

A

ZFdeltaV

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8
Q

What is the equation for Gibb’s free energy (electrochemical potential)? What does it mean?

A

DeltaU = 61 log (Cin/Cout) + zFdeltaV

+ means work is done
- means no work is done

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9
Q

What are the two types of passive transport?

A

Diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

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10
Q

What are primary active transporters?

A

Systems linked directly to the cell’s metabolic energy

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11
Q

What are ABC transporters?

A

ATP-binding cassette transporter

May or may not actually use energy of ATP to transport molecules but needs ATP to be bound

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12
Q

What is secondary active transport?

A

Uses the gradient of an ion to drive the transport instead of ATP energy (Ex. Na-Glucose transporter)

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13
Q

What is the equation for the equilibrium potential of a single ion across a membrane?

A

Eion = 61/z log ([IONout/IONin])

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14
Q

What is the equation for the conductance of an ion?

A

I(ion) = g(ion)(Vm-Eion)

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15
Q

What does ouabain block and what are its affects?

A

Na/K ATPase - distrusts cell membrane potential

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16
Q

What does the pufferfish poison TTX affect?

A

It blocks Na+ voltage-gated channels in cells

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17
Q

What channels does TEA block?

A

K+ voltage-gated channels

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18
Q

What are gap junctions made out of?

A

Connexins

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19
Q

A temporal lag in relaying the message from one cell to the next via a synapse

A

Synaptic delay

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20
Q

Why is calcium ideally suited to be a second messenger within synaptic clefts?

A

It’s intracellular concentration is extremely low under resting conditions

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21
Q

Which SNARE protein is responsible for the tethering the vesicles to cytoskeleton structures to maintain a readily available reserve pool of neurotransmitters?

A

Synapsin

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22
Q

Which SNARE proteins mediate the docking of a vesicle to the specific release site (active zone)?

A

Synaptobrevin
Syntaxin
SNAP-25

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23
Q

Which SNARE protein senses the elevation of calcium and triggers the formation of the fusion pore to release intra-vesicular contents?

A

Synaptotagmin

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24
Q

How does botulinum toxin lead to paralysis?

A

It inhibits neurotransmitter release by causing proteolysis of synaptobrevin, syntaxin, and SNAP-25

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25
Q

Na/K ATPase inhibitor

A

Ouabain

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26
Q

A toxin that blocks voltage-gated sodium channels

A

Tetrodoxin

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27
Q

A toxin that blocks voltage-gated potassium channels

A

TEA

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28
Q

The result of hundreds of vesicles in a neuron fusing

A

EPP

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29
Q

The results of only one vehicle in a neuron fusing

A

MEPP

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30
Q

Describe the orientation of the activation and inactivation gates of the VGNaC at each step of the action potential.

A

Prior AP - A closed, I open

Depolarization - both open

Repolarization- A open, I closed

Undershoot - both closed

Return to baseline - A closed, I opens

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31
Q

Receptor molecule that is itself also an ionic channel

A

Ionotropic receptor

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32
Q

When the receptor is a separate entity from the ionic channels whose activity it controls; needs a “second messenger”

A

Metabotropic

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33
Q

How do IPSPs inhibit an action potential?

A

The STABILIZE the membrane at or near resting potential via increased permeability to Cl- —> antagonizes excitatory responses

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34
Q

Rapid burst of EPSPs in one neuron leading to an action potential

A

Temporal summation

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35
Q

Concurrent activation of two or more excitatory synapses converging on the same neuron to trigger an action potential

A

Spatial summation

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36
Q

How does increasing diameter of the axon affect the AP?

A

Less resistance

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37
Q

Receptors that bind ACh

A

Cholinergic

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38
Q

Receptors that bind EPI and NE

A

Adrenergic

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39
Q

What two receptors does ACh bind? Where are they found in the body?

A

Nicotinic - skeletal muscle and ANS ganglions

Muscarinic - smooth and cardiac muscle, glands

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40
Q

What are the two types of nicotinic receptors and where are they found?

A

N1 - skeletal muscle

N2 - autonomic nervous system ganglions

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41
Q

What inhibits N1 receptors?

A

Curare

42
Q

What inhibits N2 receptors?

A

Hexamethonium

43
Q

What inhibits muscarinic receptors?

A

Atropine

44
Q

What receptors does NE bind to?

A

Alpha

Beta

45
Q

What are the two types of alpha receptors and what are their functions?

A

A1 - constriction of blood vessel smooth muscle

A2 - regulatory; inhibits release of NE

46
Q

What are the two types of beta receptors and what are their functions?

A

B1 - increases heart rate and force of contraction

B2 - relaxes GI tract and some vascular smooth muscle

47
Q

What are the functions of the beta-2 and alpha-1 receptors in blood vessels?

A

Alpha 1 - constricts

Beta 2 - dilates

48
Q

When lens cannot bring objects at close distance into focus; farsighted

A

Hyperopia

49
Q

When lens cannot bring objects at far distance into focus; nearsighted

A

Myopia

50
Q

When lens loses elasticity with age and ability to focus on close objects declines

A

Presbyopia

51
Q

Photoreceptors that are extremely sensitive to light; respond to single photon; night vision

A

Rods

52
Q

Photoreceptors that can discriminate between colors; respond maximally to light at a specific wavelength; day vision

A

Cones

53
Q

Cones are highly concentrated where? What are they responsible for?

A

Fovea

High visual acuity

54
Q

How does rhodopsin work and what is the cascade that follows it?

A

Photon absorption —> 11-cis retinal isomerizes to 11-trans retinal —> this detaches from opsin (“bleached”) —> GTP —> cGMP —>opens cGMP-gated channel —> influx of Na+ —> depolarization

55
Q

What causes light adaptation?

A

A calcium feedback mechanism that leads to reduced light sensitivity

56
Q

Cells that respond maximally to a bright dot in the center of their receptive field surrounded b an area of darkness

A

ON-center cells

57
Q

Cells that respond maximally to a dark spot surrounded by an area of brightness

A

OFF-center cells

58
Q

What cells are responsible for the lateral inhibition that allows for ON-center and OFF-center cells to function?

A

Horizontal cells

59
Q

What happens if the optic chiasm is damaged?

A

Loss of peripheral vision

60
Q

What happens if the left optic tract is damaged?

A

Loss of right visual field

61
Q

What happens if the left optic nerve is damaged?

A

Loss of vision from left eye (left peripheral and right center)

62
Q

What are the two different type of layers in the LGN and what kind of information do they provide?

A

Magnocellular (inner two layers) - high temporal resolution/rapidly changing or moving stimuli
Parvocellular (outer 4 layers) - high spatial resolution and color

63
Q

What are the two types of cells in the visual cortex and what type of information do they respond to?

A

Simple - respond to bars/edges are particular orientations

Complex - respond to complex patterns or objects moving in a particular direction

64
Q

How does the ear detect pitch?

A

High-pitched sounds will stimulate the baseball membrane near the oval window while low pitched sounds will stimulate the membrane near the apex

65
Q

Influx of what ions depolarizers the hair cells of the ear?

A

K+ and Ca+2 ions

66
Q

Involved in amplification and tuning of the movement of the basilar membrane

A

Outer hair cells

67
Q

How is loudness measured in the ear?

A

By the rate of APs generated by the inner hair cells

68
Q

What are the 3 bones in the middle ear?

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

69
Q

What do the semilunarcanals of the vestibular system measure?

A

Angular accelerations and angular velocity of the head (orientation, rotation, and posture)

70
Q

What do the utricle and saccule respond to?

A

Saccule - horizontal positioning

Utricle - vertical positioning

71
Q

Where is the Ruffini ending located, what does it detect, and what kind of receptor is it?

A
  • Cutaneous tissue
  • Sustained pressure and temp
  • Slow adapting
72
Q

Where is the Pacinian corpuscle located, what does it detect, and what kind of receptor is it?

A
  • Subcutaneous layer
  • Pressure and vibration
  • Rapid adapting
73
Q

Where is the Merkel’s disk located, what does it detect, and what kind of receptor is it?

A
  • Epidermis
  • pressure, position, and deep static touch
  • Slow adapting
74
Q

Where is the Meissner’s corpuscle located, what does it detect, and what kind of receptor is it?

A
  • Epidermis
  • Touch and vibrations
  • Rapid adapting
75
Q

What do pain receptors do instead of adapting?

A

They sensitize —> leads to hyperalgesia

76
Q

What are the two types of A pain fibers? What do they measure? What is a unique characteristic of them?

A
  • fast, stinging pain
  • myelinated
  • A-delta (fastest)
  • A-beta
77
Q

What do the C pain fibers measure? What is a unique characteristic of them?

A
  • slow burning pain

- unmyelinated and outnumber A fibers

78
Q

What does the DCML tract measure? Where does is cross over? How many/what neurons are involved? Where does is terminate?

A
  • sensory (fine touch, vibration, proprioception)
  • medulla
  • 3 neurons, A-alpha/A-delta
  • somatosensory cortex
79
Q

What does the spinothalamic tract measure? Where does is cross over? How many neurons are involved? Where does is terminate?

A
  • pain + temp
  • crosses at the level of entry in the spinal cord
  • 2 neurons (A-delta and C neurons)
  • somatosensory cortex
80
Q

What are the three main differences between the neospinalthalamic and paleospinalthalamic pain pathways?

A

Neospinalthalamic - A-delta fibers; synapse in Laminae I and V; fast/stinging pain

Paleospinalthalamic - C fiber; synapse in Laminae V/VI-VIII; slow/burning

81
Q

What are the collateral pathways of the pain pathways? Where do they project?

A

Spinomesencephalic - collateral of the neospinothalamic; projects to PAG/NRM in midbrain

Spinoreticular - collateral of the paleospinothalamic; projects to the thalamus through reticular formation

82
Q

How do opiates (poppy seeds) and opioids (synthetic) disrupt the pain pathway?

A
  • block cAMP formation
  • block Ca+2 influx
  • increase K+ efflux
83
Q

What are come characteristics of red muscle?

A
  • small alpha motor neuron
  • high mitochondrial ATPase
  • low glycogen
  • high resistance to fatigue
  • large blood supply
  • tonic nerve activity

SMALL, SLOW TWITCH —> POSTURE

84
Q

What are some characteristics of white muscle?

A
  • large alpha motor neuron
  • low mitochondrial ATPase
  • high glycogen
  • low resistance to fatigue
  • small blood supply
  • physic nerve activity

LARGE FAST TWITCH —> FIGHT/FLIGHT

85
Q

Arranged in PARALLEL with muscle fibers —> measure muscle length; INTRAFUSAL

A

Muscle spindle

86
Q

Embedded in series with the muscle fibers —> measure muscle tension; EXTRAFUSAL

A

Golgi tendon organs

87
Q

Describe the homunculus on the cerebellum and the spinal cord.

A

Cerebellum - extremities are medial; face and trunk are lateral

88
Q

Describe muscle spindle fibers and their mechanism of action.

A

Nuclear bag fibers/nuclear chain fibers sense stretch —> Ia afferent fibers send sensory info to spine/brain (stretch reflex) while gamma fibers send motor info to muscle spindle to maintain stretch

89
Q

Keeps stretch receptors in tune and allows Ia afferent fibers to supports alpha motor neuron discharge

A

Compensatory loading

90
Q

Describe Golgi tendon organs and their mechanism of action.

A

Stretch by an eternal load —> activated Ib afferent fibers —> reflex to counteract muscle action

91
Q

Explain the nociceptive reflex.

A

Noxious stimuli —> relaxation of extensors and contraction of flexors of AFFECTED limb —> relaxation of flexors and contraction of extensors on OPPOSITE limb

92
Q

What occurs during Brown-Sequard Syndrome (hemisection of the spinal cord)?

A
  • below lesion: loss of motor control on ipsilateral side (corticospinal)
  • below lesion: loss of pain/temp sensation on contralateral side (spinothalamic)
  • below lesion: loss of fine touch/vibration sensation on ipsilateral side (DCML)
93
Q

What is the cortico-bulbar tract and what does it control?

A

Motor neurons that project from primary motor cortex to brain stem —> controls muscles of face, tongue, and eyes

94
Q

What is the difference between the lateral and anterior/medial corticospinal tracts?

A

Lateral - controls extremities and distal muscles

Anterior - controls axial muscles that maintain posture

95
Q

The basal ganglia are associated with which two major types of action?

A

Reward and habitual actions

96
Q

What is the role of dopamine in the direct and indirect pathways of the basal ganglia?

A

OVERALL GOAL = stimulate moment

It stimulates the direct pathway (D1) and inhibits the indirect pathway (D2) via striatum

97
Q

What occurs during Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dopamine neurons degenerate so decrease in opamine —> inhibition of voluntary movements

98
Q

Controls coordination and accuracy of voluntary movements

A

Cerebellum

99
Q

What is Lambert Eaton Myasthenia Syndrome?

A

Antibodies against the voltage-gated calcium ion channels

100
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

Antibodies target ACh receptor (only N1 in muscle though! — no effect on autonomic system)

101
Q

Breaks down acetylcholine

A

MAO

BUPA Physiology (3 decks)

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