Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a deficiency in GpIb called?

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

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2
Q

What is a deficiency in vWF called?

A

von Willebrand disease

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3
Q

Failure of aggregation with ristocetin assay occurs in what diseases?

A

von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome

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4
Q

What activates vWF to bind GpIb

A

Ristocetin

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5
Q

What drugs inhibit GpIIb/IIIa directly

A

Tirofiban, Eptifibatide, Abciximab (TEA)

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6
Q

What drugs inhibit ADP-induced expression of GpIIb/IIIa via P2Y12 receptor?

A

Prasugrel, Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine (PCT)

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7
Q

What drug inhibits TXA2 synthesis?

A

Aspirin

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8
Q

What are the steps of primary hemostasis?

A

Injury, exposure, adhesion, activation, aggregation

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9
Q

What anti-aggregation factor is released by endothelial cells?

A

Nitrous oxide (NO)

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10
Q

What are the anti-aggregation factors?

A

PGI2 and NO, increased blood flow, and decreased platelet aggregation

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11
Q

What are the pro-aggregation factors?

A

TXA2, decreased blood flow, increased platelet aggregation

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12
Q

What binds GpIIb/IIIa allowing linking of platelets?

A

Fibrinogen

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13
Q

What induces GpIIb/IIIa expression at platelet surface?

A

ADP binding to P2Y12 receptor

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14
Q

What helps platelets adhere to endothelium?

A

ADP

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15
Q

What mediates vasoconstriction in a damaged endothelial cell?

A

Endothelin and neural stimulation reflex

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16
Q

What is released from damaged endothelial cell that causes vasoconstriction?

A

Endothelin

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17
Q

What initiates platelet plug formation?

A

Endothelial cell injury

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18
Q

What causes a conformational change in platelets to release ADP, calcium and TXA2?

A

Binding of GpIb to vWF

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19
Q

What does vWF bind to on the platelet?

A

GpIb

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20
Q

What does vWF bind to on the endothelial cell?

A

Exposed collagen

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21
Q

What is used clinically as a thrombolytic?

A

tPA

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22
Q

What is the function of Protein C and S?

A

Cleave factors Va and VIIa

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23
Q

What is factor V Leiden?

A

Factor V resistant to protein C

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24
Q

What are the principle targets of antithrombin?

A

Factors Xa and thrombin (IIa)

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25
What does heparin enhance the activity of?
Antithrombin
26
What factors are inhibited by antithrombin?
Activated factors II, VII, IX, X, XI, XII
27
What enzyme converts factors II, VII, IX, X, proteins C and S into their active forms?
y-glutamyl carboxylase
28
What enzyme reduces vitamin K?
Epoxide reductase
29
What factor carries or protects factor VIII
vWF
30
What coagulation factors will be low in vitamin K deficiency?
Factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C and S
31
What inhibits vitamin K and its enzyme, epoxide reductase?
Warfarin
32
What is the inheritance pattern of hemophilia C?
Autosomal recessive
33
What is the inheritance pattern of hemophilia A and B?
X-linked recessive
34
What is a deficiency in factor XI called?
Hemophilia C
35
What is a deficiency in factor IX called?
Hemophilia B
36
What is a deficiency in factor VIII called?
Hemophilia A
37
What is the function of plasmin?
Degrade the fibrin mesh and destroy coagulation factors
38
What is the action of thrombolytics like alteplase, reteplase, streptokinase, and tenecteplase?
Promotes conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
39
Which coagulation factors are part of the common pathway?
Factors I, II, V, X
40
Which coagulation factors are part of the intrinsic pathway?
Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII
41
Which coagulation factors are part of the extrinsic pathway?
Factor VII
42
What inactivates bradykinin?
ACE
43
What activates bradykinin?
Kallikrein
44
What converts plasminogen to plasmin?
tPA
45
Aminocaproic acid targets what part of the coagulation pathway?
tPA (fibrinolytic system)
46
What is the target of Fondaparinux?
Factor Xa in the common pathway
47
Apixaban and rivaroxaban target which part of the coagulation pathway?
Common pathway (Xa)
48
Which anticoagulant has the greatest efficacy on factor Xa?
LMWH
49
What is the function of bradykinin in the coagulation cascade?
Increase pain, permeability and vasodilation
50
Why does the HbS molecule not migrate as far as an HbA molecule on gel electrophoresis?
The negative glutamic acid is replaced by neutral valine
51
Why does the HbC molecule migrate the least on gel electrophoresis?
The negative glutamic acid is replaced by positive lysine
52
On a gel electrophoresis, which Hb molecule migrates the least?
HbC
53
On a gel electrophoresis, which Hb molecule migrates the furthest?
HbA
54
On a gel electrophoresis, in which direction does Hb migrate?
Negative cathode to positive anode
55
What is the presentation of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn?
Mild jaundice within 24 hours of birth
56
What is the treatment for ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn?
Phototherapy or exchange transfusion
57
Who is usually susceptible to ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn?
Type A or B fetuses born to type O mothers
58
What type of immunoglobulin is anti-D seen in Rh negative mothers?
IgG
59
Rh type considered universal recipient of RBCs
Rh positive
60
What type of immunoglobulins are anti-B and anti-A?
IgM
61
Why are O blood types considered universal recipients of plasma?
They have both anti-A and anti-B
62
Blood type considered universal recipient of plasma
O
63
Why are O blood types considered universal donors of RBCs?
They do not express any A or B receptors
64
Blood type that is the universal donor of RBCs
O
65
Why are AB blood types considered universal donors of plasma?
Their plasma does not contain any anti-A or anti-B antibodies
66
Why are AB blood types considered universal recipients of RBCs?
They have receptors for both A and B blood
67
Blood type that is the universal recipient of RBCs
AB
68
Blood type that is the universal donor of plasma
AB
69
When is RhoGAM given?
3rd trimester and early postpartum period
70
Who is given RhoGAM?
Rh negative mothers with an Rh positive fetus
71
When do Rh negative mothers develop anti-D IgG antibodies?
If exposed to Rh positive blood
72
What chains make up HbA2?
2-alpha and 2-delta chains
73
Small form of adult hemoglobin present in small amounts?
HbA2
74
Chains that make up adult Hb?
2-alpha and 2-beta
75
Chains that make up fetal Hb?
2-alpha and 2-gamma chains
76
Chains that make up embryonic Hb?
2-zeta and 2-epsilon chains
77
Site of fetal erythropoiesis which occurs in 18 weeks to adult and lifelong
Bone marrow
78
Site of fetal erythropoiesis which occurs in 10-28 weeks
Spleen
79
Site of fetal erythropoiesis which occurs in 6 weeks to birth
Liver
80
Site of fetal erythropoiesis which occurs in 3-8 weeks
Yolk sac