physiology Flashcards

1
Q

what order does DNA replication occur from? what are the two strands called? what is the joining enzyme called?

A

5’ to 3’. lagging and leading. DNA polymerase.

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2
Q

How are okazaki fragments formed?

A

DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in the 5’ - 3’ direction on both sides so the leading strand is formed in a single strand whereas the lagging strand forms fragments because DNA polymerase forms smaller fragments which lair have to be joined by DNA ligase.

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3
Q

what does helicase do? what does topoisomerase do? what does ligase do? what does primase do? what does nuclease do?

A

unzips DNA. relieves stress of supercoiling. joins okazaki fragments. catalyses formation of a primer. a primer is necessary for DNA replication as it acts as a starting point for DNA synthesis. DNA polymerase can only add to an existing piece of DNA. chops DNA when not needed.

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4
Q

what are steroids? what are the two types?

A

drugs that mimic natural hormones. anabolic = regulate manufacture of testosterone. corticosteriods = produces in adrenal gland.

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5
Q

what is mitosis? describe the phases of mitosis

A

production of two genetically identical cells. PROPHASE = chromatin condenses into chromosomes and centrosomes move to the opposite poles of the cell. PROMETAPHASE = nuclear membrane starts to break down and chromatids attach to the microtubules invading the nuclear space. METAPHASE = nuclear membrane breaks down completely and chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate. ANAPHASE = sister chromatids split apart at the centromere and move to the opposite poles of the cell. TELOPHASE = nuclear membrane forms around each set of chromatids and the chromosomes turn to chromatin again. cytogenesis starts (separation into two separate cells)

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6
Q

describe the phases of the cell cycle. how long does each phase take?

A

M = mitosis (1 hour). G1 = growth phase 1, production of organelles (6-12 hours). S = DNA replication from 2n to 4n (6-8 hours). G2 = second growth phase (3-4 hours). production of organelles and protein synthesis.

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7
Q

describe the first meiotic division.

A

replication occurs before so the cell is 2n (46 chromosomes). in metaphase 1, homologous chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate. crossing over occurs which produces recombinant DNA. microtubules attach to each chromosome and pull them to opposite poles of the cell. the rest occurs as the same as mitosis. the two daughter cells are 2n (23 chromosomes)

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8
Q

describe the second meiotic division.

A

replication does not occur before the second division. therefore is begins as 2n (23 chromosomes). the chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate and sister chromatids are pulled apart. this cell division forms 23 chromosomes = n.

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9
Q

what is the difference between male and female meiosis?

A

male = produces 4 same sized gametes, division begins at puberty. female = produces one dominant ova and 3 polar bodies, ova has all cytoplasm. meiotic process begins in utero but pauses until ovulation.

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10
Q

what is an oogonia?

A

after 30 mitotic divisions.

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11
Q

what is nondisjunction? what is an example?

A

failure of chromosomes to separate correctly. e.g. downs syndrome = 3 x 21

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12
Q

what is gonadal mosaicism?

A

more than one set of genes being present in one individual due to a mutation of a germ cell in the ovaries or testes. if mutated cell is fertilised > child could have genetic condition even if it isn’t in either parents own DNA.

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13
Q

describe the process of DNA replication.

A

CDNA uncoils by topoisomerase enzyme. DNA unzips by helices enzyme. Primer attaches and DNA polymerase forms DNA. two new strands of DNA are semi-conservative they each contain a template strand and one new strand.

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14
Q

what are the two parts of DNA?

A

genes which code for the production of proteins. and extragenic DNA that codes for the production of tRNA, rRNA etc.

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15
Q

what are the parts of a gene?

A

promoter, exons and introns. During transcription the entire gene is coded for in mRNA. introns are cut out by splicing and exons are joined together to form a coding strand of mRNA.

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16
Q

what is the underlying mechanism for genetic disorders concerning crossing over?

A

DNa lining up incorrectly and the wrong genes crossing over. an individual can end up with two of one gene and none of another.

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17
Q

describe the terms: genotype, phenotype, autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked dominant/recessive, kareotype, autosomal, imprinting genes, dizygous and monozygous.

A

genotype = genetic constitution of an individual. phenotype = physical characteristic expressed. autosomeal dominant = only need one fault allele of a numbered chromosome to have the condition. autosomal recessive = need two of the fault allele to express the condition. X-linked dominant/recessive = need one faulty X to be affected, need two faulty Xs to be affected or only one if a boy, kareotype = entire set of 46 chromosomes, autosomal = numbered chromosome, imprinting genes = 1 allele can be switched off, dizygous = nonidentical twins and monozygous = identical twins.

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18
Q

give examples of these: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked dominant/recessive.

A

huntingtons, cystic fibrosis, rickets, haemophilia.

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19
Q

give the life spans of the following cells: nerves, skeletal, bones and tendons, RBCs, WBCs, platelets, colon cells, skin cells.

A

life time, almost all your life, years, 120 days, 6 hours, 7-10 days, 4 days, 2-3 weeks.

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20
Q

give the functions of the nucleus, mitochondria, golgi bodies, RER, SER, lysosomes, peroxisomes, and vesicles.

A

nucleus = houses most of the genetic material of the cell. controls gene expression, production of proteins, what enters and leaves the cell, houses nucleolus’ that make rRNA. RER = protein translation and synthesis. SER = synethsis of lipids. Golgi body = packaging pro tines. first level receives protein, second level phosphorylates/adds sugars, third level releases in a vesicle. lysosomes = hydrolytic enzymes for breakdown. peroxisomes = enzymes that will oxidise long chain fatty acids so can damage cell membranes. vesicles = carry molecules around cell and store.

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21
Q

what are the 3 types of cellular filament?

A

microfilaments - actin (5), microtubules - tubulin(25), intermediate(10),

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22
Q

give examples of macromolecules.

A

haemoglobin, collagen, glycogen, DNA, rhodospin - eye pigment.

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23
Q

what are the two types of bond for protein and sugars? where are they found?

A

peptide, glycosidic - joins and OH with an NH2 or OH - found in DNA.

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24
Q

what is the difference between an aldehyde and a ketone.

A

aldehydes - c=o on end. ketone - c=o on middle C.

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25
Q

What form of sugar can we absorb and digest?

A

D form.

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26
Q

what is a glycosaminoglycan? what is a proteoglycan?

A

long unbranched chain of a repeating disaccharide unit. protein attached to a glycosaminoglycan.

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27
Q

what are the main components of phospholipid bilayers?

A

channel proteins, spingolipids, phospholipids, glycoproteins, cholesterol.

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28
Q

what are saturated and unsaturated fatty acids? what are they at room temp?

A

saturated = no double bonds, fats. unsaturated = double bonds, oils.

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29
Q

what are purines and pyramidines?

A

purines = double ring, Adenine and Guarnine. pyramidines = Thymine and Cytosine.

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30
Q

what form of amino acid do we use? what determines their charge? what are polar amino acids? what are non-polar amino acids?

A

L form. the side chain, can determine polarity. ones that move when put in an electric field. side chain doesn’t contribute to charge.

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31
Q

describe the 4 levels of protein structure.

A

primary = chain of amino acids. secondary = beta pelted sheets or alpha helices, with H bonds. tertiary = disulphide bridges present, hydrophobic/phillic parts, ionic bonds. quaternary = more than one protein chain.

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32
Q

describe the 4 forces/bonds.

A

WdV = weak, arise from fluctuating electrical charges. Hydrogen = dipoles, stronger that WdV. Hydrophobic = non-polar, pack tightly in centre. disulphide = S-S strong.

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33
Q

what is a coenzyme?

A

organic structure that helps an enzyme function. e.q. collapse.

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34
Q

what is the innate immune system?

A

immune system which is the first line of defence and doesn’t change throughout your life, you are born with it and it does not alter. doesn’t contribute to long term immunity.

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35
Q

what is the adaptive immune system?

A

your body creating an immunological memory after it encounters a pathogen, in order to stimulate an enhanced immunological response in subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.

36
Q

what are IgM and IgG

A

IgM are the first antibody that your body produces during a new infection. IgG are the most abundant type of antibody present in all body fluids that protects against bacterial and viral infections.

37
Q

what is the different between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

DNA in one single plasmid, DNA in separate chromosomes.

38
Q

how many DNA base pairs are between and around each histone? what is a nucleosome? what is a histone?

A

80, 280. functional unit of one histone and the DNA wrapped around it. helps DNA function.

39
Q

what are the substrates of DNA?

A

deoxyribonucleotides = nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar and phosphate.

40
Q

what are the types of DNA mutation? what are non-sense and mis-sense?

A

duplication. out of frame - deletion/addition of one/two bases. in frame - deletion/addition of 3 bases, so only alters one amino acid. non-sense = mutation that produces a premature stop codon. mis-sense = substitution of base that may or may not be pathological. splice-site mutation = f the splice site is altered it cannot be recognised and the intron cannot be cut out of the mRNA.

41
Q

what are loss/gain of mutations?

A

one allele effected so not enough protein being produced, one allele over producing so protein accumulates.

42
Q

what are dominant negative mutations?

A

when a protein produced by a fault allele interferes with the protein produced by the normal allele, which means no function. One dimer affects the other.

43
Q

what are the 5 testing methods?

A

carrier - testing when someone is having children, predictive - runs in family, diagnostic - expressing symptoms, pre-natal - test embryo vis placenta or fluid, IVF - foetal cells tested.

44
Q

what is trisomy, monosomy and polyploidy? what is reciprocal translocation?

A

trisomy = downs/edwards. monsomy = only 1 chromosome. polyploidy = duplication of every chromosome. when chromosomes pair up incorrectly, can balance out but can be unbalanced depending on gamete produced.

45
Q

what is an unbalanced rearrangement?

A

loss of the tip of a chromosome.

46
Q

what is a microarray?

A

a set of DNA sequences representing the entire set of genes of an organism, arranged in a grid pattern for use in genetic testing.

47
Q

what is basal metabolic rate?

A

the amount of energy required to sustain all bodily functions at rest.

48
Q

what factors increase BMR?

A

increased BMI, hyperthyroidism, low ambient temperature, fever/chronic disease, exercise, caffeine, pregnancy.

49
Q

what happens when insulin is absent?

A

your glycogen stores undergo glycogenolysis in order to release glucose stores for respiration.

50
Q

what is malnutrition?

A

deficiency, excess or imbalance of energy.

51
Q

where in the cell does glycolysis, kerb’s and oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

cytoplasm, mitochondrial matrix and inner mitochondrial membrane.

52
Q

what is citrate used for other that being in the krebs cycle?

A

fatty acid synthesis. this is why we gain weight, too much energy.

53
Q

what are reactive oxygen species and how do they relate to ‘respiratory burst’?

A

they are important molecules in cell signalling and homeostasis. they are a reactive molecule with O in it. in excess they can cause damage to cell membranes etc. Respiratory burst is the release of lots of ROSs usually by cells of the immune system to break down fungi/bacteria etc.

54
Q

what is the fenton reaction?

A

Fe2+ + H2O2&raquo_space;> Fe 3+ + .OH + -OH

55
Q

what is the haver-weiss reaction?

A

H2O2 + .-O2 (H+)»> -OH + .OH + O2

56
Q

what are examples of anti-oxidants?

A

Vit E and carotenoids prevent per oxidation of cell membranes.

57
Q

are peptide hormones soluble?

A

yes they are hydrophilic.

58
Q

what will be abnormal in the blood if a patient has hypo/hyperthyroidism. what is secondary hypothyroidism?

A

hypo - high TSH, low t4 and t3. hyper - low TSH, high t4 and t3. problem is with anterior pituitary not thyroid.

59
Q

what is the transcriptome?

A

set of all RNA molecules. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA.

60
Q

where do you usually find cuboidal/squamous/columnar epithelium?

A

columnar - absorbtion sites or sites where things need moving via steriocilia. cuboidal - drainage areas e.g. ducts. squamous - thin layer needed e.g. type 1 pneumocytes.

61
Q

what is the different between cilia and microvilli?

A

cilia - movement, microvilli - increased SA for absorption.

62
Q

what is ATP made of ?

A

ribose, adenine, and triphosphate

63
Q

Why is PFK the rate limiting step of glycolysis?

A

glucagon acts on this enzyme to reduce the production of fructose 1,6- bisphosphate

64
Q

how are ketone bodies produced?

A

oxidation of fatty acids. ketogenesis.

65
Q

explain the process of beta oxidation.

A

fatty acid gets CoA added on to carboxyl end. requires ATP&raquo_space;> AMP + 2Pi. undergoes a number of reactions including water being added. 4 H+ released, two for coenzyme FAD and two for NAD+. These then go on to contribute their H+s to the oxidative phosphorylation transport chain. Acetyl CoA breaks off fatty acid chain taking 2 Cs with it. cycle repeats until FA has no Cs left. Acetyl CoA goes to krebs cycle.

66
Q

describe the structure of cartilage.

A

chondrocytes trapped in ECM. chondroblasts at the periphery. ECM mainly consists of type 2 collagen and proteoglycans. surrounded by capsule of perichondrium.

67
Q

what is mesenchyme?

A

loosely aggregated connective tissue cells in a matrix that can differentiate into any type of connective tissue/vasculature/lymphatics.

68
Q

what is serum?

A

plasma from which clotting factors have been removed.

69
Q

what is the major protein in RBCs that maintains the concave shape?

A

Spectrin

70
Q

what are the divisions of leukocytes? what are their functions?

A

granulocytes - neutrophils = first line defence, multinucleate, phagoctic properties, 3 types of granules (lysosomes, inflammation mediators, protein inserters), eosinophils = high in parasitic infections, neutralise histamine, pink staining granules, 2-3 nuclei, 5% of 1% basophils = produce histamine, not multi-lobar, stain blue 1% of 1%. nongranulocytes - lymphocytes = little cytoplasm, T or B, 20-50% of 1%. monocytes = immature, mostly differentiate into macrophages.

71
Q

why do you not see the nucleus of nerve cells?

A

motor = grey matter of spinal cord. sensory = dorsal root ganglion. sympathetic = grey matter of cord and sympathetic ganglia. parasympathetic = brain and local ganglia.

72
Q

what are buffers?

A

either weak acids or weak bases.

73
Q

what si the fertilised egg called on day 4? day 7? what does the inner cell mass differentiate into? what process occurs next?

A

a morula. a blastocyst. epiblast and hypoblast. gastrulation - formation of endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm.

74
Q

In a 70kg man, how much is fluid? how much is intracellular? how much is plasma, and how much is interstitial?

A

42 kg. 28kg. 3kg. 11kg.

75
Q

what is the main intracellular electrolyte? extracellular?

A

K+. Na+ and Cl- and HCO3-

76
Q

what are the types of oedema?

A

inflammatory - gaps between endothelium are too large. hypoalbuminaemic - not enough albumin to keep water in. venous - venous pressure too high so water leakage. lymphatic - lymph vessels blocked so cannot drain fluid.

77
Q

stop codon. start codon.

A

UAG. AUG.

78
Q

what is consandituity?

A

incest.

79
Q

what is penetrance?

A

the likelihood that you will show the disease that you have the genotype for.

80
Q

what is expressitivity?

A

degree to which you express a disease.

81
Q

what is anticipation?

A

the phenomenon of when you will

82
Q

definition of base

A

limits the change in pH.

83
Q

main buffering systems

A

proteins, HCO3, Haemoglobin.

84
Q

what is bioenergetics?

A

energy produced by the making and breaking of bonds.

85
Q

uses of ATP?

A

mechanical, transport across membranes.

86
Q

what is serum?

A

plasma without the clotting factors.

87
Q

preparation of mRNA?

A

introns spliced out. guanine cap. poly-A tail.