physiology Flashcards
- Hormones:
a) are chemical regulators that are conveyed from one organ to another
via the blood stream;
b) may be secreted by endocrine glands;
c) may be secreted by nerve cells;
d) act only on target cells;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
- For an action potential to occur:
a) the stimulus must reach or exceed threshold;
b) K+
influx must exceed Na+
efflux;
c) the cell membrane must be out of the relative refractory period;
d) the cell membrane must be in the absolutely refractory period;
e) Clinflux must exceed K+
efflux.
a) the stimulus must reach or exceed threshold;
- The concept of homeostasis:
a) refers to the unwavering control of a physiological set point;
b) refers to maintaining physiological functions in a stable
state;
c) refers only to the regulation of body temperature;
d) refers to maintaining a stable external environment;
e) refers to the ‘all-or-none’ law.
b) refers to maintaining physiological functions in a stable
state;
- During the rising phase of the action potential:
a) voltage-gated Na+ channels open;
b) voltage-gated K+ channels open;
c) voltage-gated Na+ channels close;
d) voltage-gated K+ channels close;
e) voltage-gated Clchannels open.
a) voltage-gated Na+
channels open;
- The plasma membrane:
a) is permeable to lipophilic molecules;
b) may contain proteins, which confer iron permeability;
c) may burst in hypotonic extracellular solutions;
d) can generate action potentials in excitable cells;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
- Overcooling the nerve will cause:
a) decrease of the threshold;
b) increase of the liability;
c) increase of the excitability;
d) increase of the threshold;
e) increased release of neurotransmitters.
d) increase of the threshold;
- The properties of local response:
a) ‘all-or-none’ law;
b) transmission with energy consumption;
c) transmission without energy consumption;
d) summation;
e) excitability is decreased.
d) summation;
- A less negative membrane potential means:
a) it is “more positive” than the resting potential;
b) it is closer to 0 mV;
c) the resting membrane potential is closer to the sodium equilibrium;
d) slight depolarisation;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
- The membrane of a typical resting neurone is largely impermeable to:
a) Na+
b) K+
c) Cl-
d) Ca 2+;
e) none of the above.
a) Na+
- The ion with the lowest intracellular concentration is:
a) Na+
b) HCO3
c) Ca2+;
d) Mg2+;
e) K+
c) Ca2+;
- The most common intracellular cation is:
a) calcium;
b) sodium;
c) potassium;
d) phosphorus;
e) magnesium.
c) potassium;
- What is the normal pH value of the body fluids?
a) 7.15-7.25;
b) 7.35-7.45;
c) 7.55- 7.65;
d) 7.00-7.35;
e) 6.5-7.5.
b) 7.35-7.45;
- Which of the following requires energy?
a) diffusion;
b) osmosis;
c) active transport;
d) facilitated diffusion;
e) filtration.
c) active transport;
- The local response is:
a) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a sub-
threshold stimulus and propagated along the nerve cell membrane;
b) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a super- threshold stimulus and propagated along the nerve cell membrane;
c) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a sub-
threshold stimulus and could be registered only at the site of irritation;
d) d) a potential that is generated on the postsynaptic membrane as a
result of the action of a neurotransmitter;
e) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a super-
threshold stimulus and could be registered only at the site of irritation.
c) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a sub threshold stimulus and could be registered only at the site of irritation;
- Which of the following is not found in the cell membrane?
a) cholesterol;
b) phospholipids;
c) proteins;
d) galactose;
e) nucleic acids.
d) galactose;
- The oculocardiac reflex is an example of:
a) somato-somatic reflex;
b) somato-visceral reflex;
c) viscero-somatic reflex;
d) viscero-visceral reflex;
e) integrated conditioned reflex.
b) somato-visceral reflex;
- Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter with the highest affinity to:
a) -adrenergic receptors;
b) -adrenergic receptors;
c) - and -adrenergic receptors;
d) N-cholinergic receptors;
e) M-cholinergic receptors.
a) -adrenergic receptors;
- The parasympathetic postganglionic neurons of the ANS secrete:
a) norepinephrine (98%) and epinephrine(2%);
b) acetylcholine;
c) L-DOPA;
d) norepinephrine (2%) and epinephrine (98%);
e) epinephrine (80%) and norepinephrine (20%).
b) acetylcholine;
- The critical (firing) level of depolarisation is:
a) a level of AP at which depolarisation goes into repolarization;
b) a level of AP at which repolarisation goes into depolarization;
c) a degree of depolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane, at which
further action of the neurotransmitter is abolished;
d) a degree of depolarisation of the nerve cell membrane at which its
sources of energy are completely exhausted;
e) a degree of depolarisation of the excitable membrane at which its intensity does not depend on irritant action.
e) a degree of depolarisation of the excitable membrane at which its intensity does not depend on irritant action.
- A structure that permits an excitable cell to pass an electrical or
chemical signal to another cell (neural or otherwise) with excitatory or
inhibitory effects, is called:
a) synapse;
b) juxtaglomerular apparatus;
c) intercalated disc;
d) Golgi apparatus;
e) modulator.
a) synapse;
For most of the excitable cells, the value of the resting membrane potential is:
A.-60 to - 90 m V
B.20 to 50 mV
C.60 to 90 mW
D.-100 to -120 mV
A.-60 to - 90 m V
The equilibrium potential of which of the mention ions below is the most close to the resting potential?
A. k* ions
B.Na ions
C. Ca’ 2 +ions
D. Mg 2+ ions
A. k* ions
The membranes that can generate
action potential have:
A. Voltage-gated ion channels
B. Passive (leak) ion channels
C. Ligand-gated ion channels
D. Stretch-activated ion channels
A. Voltage-gated ion channels
Choose the WRONG statement about voltage-gated Na
channels:
A.They open when the membrane depolarizes
B. When opened, they quickly switch from activated to inactivated state
C. Their transition to an inactivated state depends on the rate of membrane repolarization
D. This type of channel stays open for a longer time and there is no state of inactivation
D. This type of channel stays open for a longer time and there is no state of inactivation
- The activity of Na pump
A. Importing 3 K ions into the cell and removing 2 Na* from it
B. Importing 2 K* ions into the cell and removing 3 Na” from it
C. Importing 2 Na* ions into the cell and removing 3 K from it
D. Importing 3 Na* ions into the cell and removing 2 K from it
B. Importing 2 K* ions into the cell and removing 3 Na” from it
- The fast and rapid changes in the membrane potential are also known aS:
A. Electrotonic potential
B. Local response
C. Action potential
D. Equilibrium potential
C. Action potential
- Choose the correct statement:
A. The concentration of K* and Cl ions is higher outside the cell
B. The concentration of Na and Clis higher inside the cell
C. The concentration of K and Cl ions is higher inside the cell
D. The concentration of Na and Clis higher outside the cell
D. The concentration of Na and Clis higher outside the cell
- Using the Nernst’s equation we could calculate:
A. Equilibrium potentials
B. Action potentials
C. Resting membrane potentials
D. Electrotonic potentials
A. Equilibrium potentials
Choose the WRONG statement about voltage-gated Na* channels:
A. They open very slowly when there is membrane depolarization
B. After opening, they quickly go into an inactivated state
C. They go into a closed state through repolarization and the resting membrane potential
D This type of channels have two gates
A. They open very slowly when there is membrane depolarization
.If the membrane potential becomes more negative than the resting potential, we say that the membrane is being:
A. Polarized
B. Depolarized
C.Hyperpolarized
DRepolarized
E. superpolarized
C.Hyperpolarized
Which of the following statements is NOT true:
A. Norepinephrine and dopamine are small-molecule neurotransmitters
B. GABA and glutamate are derived from amino-acids
C. Large molecule neurotransmitters include histamine,elycine and serotonin
D. Acetylcholine is synthesized in the presynaptic terminal from acetyl coenzyme A and choline
C. Large molecule neurotransmitters include histamine,elycine and serotonin
Saltatory conduction refers to which
of the following?
A. The conduction of a local potential along a demyelinated axon.
B The conduction of a local potential along a myelinated axon.
C. The conduction of an action potential along a myelinated axon.
D The conduction of an actionpotential along a demyelinated axon
C. The conduction of an action potential along a myelinated axon.
How is acetyicholine removed
from the postsynaptic membrane?
A. Enzymatic deactivation
B. Reuptake pumps
C. Diffusion
D. Astrocyte pumps
B. Reuptake pumps
The effect of summing when successive presynaptic inputs arrive at post synaptic cell rapidly enough, is called:
A. Temporal summation
B. Spatial summation
C. Synaptic delay
D. Refractory period
A. Temporal summation
The neurotransmitter is secreted by the presynaptic terminal via:
A. Exocytosis
B. Osmosis
C. Diffusion
D. Active transport
A. Exocytosis
The change in the membrane potential of the postsynaptic membrane in a way of hyperpolarization is named:
A. Action potential
B. Excitatory postsynaptic
potential
C. Equilibrium potential
D. Inhibitory postsynaptic Potential
D. Inhibitory postsynaptic Potential
AUTONOMIC NS
1.The postganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in:
A. S2 - S4 segments of the spinal cord.
B. TI - L2 segments of the spinal cord.
C Paravertebral ganglia and prevertebral
ganglia.
D. In the brain stem.
E. In small ganglia, located near the innervated organ.
C Paravertebral ganglia and prevertebral
ganglia.
Activation of the parasympathetic system will result in:
A. Stimulation of peristalsis
B. Increased tonus of sphincters
C. Decreased gastric secretion
D. Inhibited intestinal absorption
E. Vasoconstriction in the splanchnic region and restriction of blood flow
A. Stimulation of peristalsis
Which one of these effectors is controlled ONLY by the sympathetic division?
A. Salivary glands
B. Sweat glands
C. Heart
D. Stomach
E. Pancreas
B. Sweat glands
Acetylcholine is NOT secreted by:
A. All preganglionic fibers.
B. Most sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
C. Most parasympathetic postganglionic fibres.
D. Motor neurons of the somatic nervous system.
E. Sympathetic postganglionic fibres, innervating sweat glands.
B. Most sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
The adrenergic receptors are:
A. M and N
B. Alpha and beta
C. AT1 and A T2
D. DOPA
E.AMPA and NMDA
B. Alpha and beta
Choose the WRONG statement about the autonomic nervous system :
A. Innervates visceral organs
B. Efferent pathways consist of two neurons
C. Operates via unconscious control
D. The autonomic neurons have large, highly myelinated axons
D. The autonomic neurons have large, highly myelinated axons
Which of the following hormones are produced by the pancreas? (2 р.)
A. Glucagon
B. Aldosterone
C. Progesterone
D. Somatostatin
E. Calcitonin
F. Oxytocin
A. Glucagon
D. Somatostatin
insulin stimulates glucose uptake by glut 4 in?
A. Hepatocytes
B. Adipose cells
C. Nerve cells
D. Muscle cells
E. fibroblasts
B. Adipose cells
Choose the correct statements: (3 p.)
A. Puberty begins with increased secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GRH) by the hypothalamus
B. In the follicular phase of menstrual cycle, the major hormonal secretion of the ovaries is progesterone
C. During the luteal phase of menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum develops
D. Ovulation occurs in the end of each menstrual cycle
E. The cessation of menstrual cycle in women occurs at approximately 50 years of age
A. Puberty begins with increased secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GRH) by the hypothalamus
C. During the luteal phase of menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum develops
E. The cessation of menstrual cycle in women occurs at approximately 50 years of age
Which one of the following factors does NOT stimulate insulin secretion? (1 p.)
A. Glucagon
B. Increased blood glucose concentration
C. Somatostatin
D. Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP)
E. Parasympathetic activation
C. Somatostatin
In which of the following characteristics cardiomyocytes resemble skeletal muscle cells:
a. They are innervated by the autonomic nervous system
b. Each cell has only one nucleus
c. They are striated cells
d. They are connected to one another with gap junctions
c. They are striated cells
The valve located between the left atrium and left ventricle, is named:
A. Mitral
B. Tricuspid
C. Aortic
D.Pulmonic
A. Mitral
The action potential of myocardial cells:
A. Begins with an initial, slow phase of depolarization B.
B. Is characterised by a “plateau” phase
C. Has no repolarization phase
D. Lasts an extremely short time
B. Is characterised by a “plateau” phase
Which one of the elements of the conduction system of the heart makes a connection between atria and ventricles?
a. SA node
B. AV node
C. bundle of his
D. purkinje cells
B. AV node
Choose the correct statement about the action potential of sinus node cells:
A.”Fast” sodium channels are responsible for the steep phase of depolarization
B. Potassium channels open during the steep depolarization phase
C. Characterized by a “plateau” phase
D. For its development, it is necessary that specific “pacemaker” channels open
D. For its development, it is necessary that specific “pacemaker” channels open
Which of the following elements in ECG covers the time for both atrial depolarization and the conduction of the impulse to the ventricles
A. P interval
B. PQ interval
C. QT interval
D. ST interval
B. PQ interval
What color is the electrode used for grounding of the patient during ECG Registration
A red
B yellow
C green
D black
D black
In lead III, the electrode connected to the positive pole (+) of the ECG machine is that placed on the:
A Right arm
B Right leg
C Let arm
D. Left leg
B Right leg
- On the 4” intercostal space, left sternal border, we place the electrode for the lead
A v2
B v3
C v4
D v5
C v4
The term 10mm/my in Ecu recording means.
A Speed of paper
B grounding
C Standard calibration voltage
D Length/tension relationship in the Heart
C Standard calibration voltage
ADH is released by?
A pancreas
B adrenal gland
C anterior pituitary
D posterior pituitary
E kidneys
D posterior pituitary
In the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle there is
A. Reabsorption of water
B Reabsorption of Na and Cl ions only
C. Reabsorption of Na and secretion of K and Cl ions
D. Reabsorption of Na, K and Cl’ ions
E. Reabsorption of K and secretion of Na and Cl ions
C. Reabsorption of Na and secretion of K and Cl ions
Increased aldosterone secretion will lead to:
A. increased Na excretion with urine
B. Decrease in total quantity of Na ions in ECF
C. increased Na reabsorption in the distal segments of the nephron
D. Reduced volume of ECF
E. increased secretion of K ions
C. increased Na reabsorption in the distal segments of the nephron
Which of the following are NOT parts of the juxtaglomerular
apparatus (JGA)
A. Granulated smooth muscle cells from the wall of the afferent arteriole
B. Bowman’s capsule
C. Macula densa
D. Collecting duct
E. Mesangial cells
D. Collecting duct
H1-receptors are situated on the smooth muscle cell membrane of the:
a) gastrointestinal tract;
b) urinary tract;
c) bronchi;
d) uterus;
e) blood vessels.
c) bronchi;
The adrenergic effect on the cardiac conduction system and working
myocardium is exercised by affecting:
a) M-choline receptors;
b) a1-receptors;
c) a2-receptors;
d) b1-receptors;
e) b2-receptors.
d) b1-receptors;
The parasympathetic spinal centres, regulating the reservoir functions,
are situated in the following segments:
a) C8 – Thl;
b) Thl – Th8;
c) Th10 - L2;
d) S2 - S4;
e) L2 -L4.
d) S2 - S4;
Facilitated diffusion is a mechanism:
a) associated with loss of energy;
b) for transporting substances against their concentration gradient;
c) connected with membrane polarity;
d) that works with the help of a carrier in the membrane;
e) for transporting lipid soluble substances through the membrane.
d) that works with the help of a carrier in the membrane;
A distinguishing feature of the membrane potential at rest is:
a) high permeability for K+
ions;
b) low permeability for Clions;
c) low permeability for Na and high for K+
ions;
d) the small difference between the equilibrium potentials for Na+ and K+
ions;
e) low permeability for Na+
c) low permeability for Na and high for K+
ions;
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter which has:
a) always an excitatory effect on the postsynaptic membrane;
b) always an inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic membrane;
c) excitatory or inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic membrane
depending on the type of receptors;
d) excitatory or inhibitory effect depending on the amount released.
e) no effect on the postsynaptic membrane.
c) excitatory or inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic membrane
The common expression of excitation is:
a) the action potential;
b) muscle cell contraction;
c) nerve cell conduction and excitation;
d) glandular cell secretion;
e) membrane transport.
a) the action potential;
Curare is a substance that blocks:
a) M-cholinergic receptors;
b) a-adrenergic receptors;
c) b-adrenergic receptors;
d) N-cholinergic receptors in neuromuscular synapses;
e) all types of cholinoreceptors.
d) N-cholinergic receptors in neuromuscular synapses;
An example of a ligand dependent membrane is:
a) the postsynaptic membrane;
b) the axon membrane;
c) the nodes of Ranvier;
d) the skeletal muscle T-tubule membrane;
e) the axon hillock.
a) the postsynaptic membrane;
Throughout the relative refractory period:
a) the excitability becomes equal to zero;
b) the excitability is equal to that at rest;
c) the excitability is higher than that at rest;
d) accommodation occurs;
e) the excitability is lower than that at rest.
c) the excitability is higher than that at rest;
Na/K pump is called electrogenic, because:
a) exports equal amount of Na+ and K+
b) imports equal amount of Na and K+
c) exchanges equal amount of Na+ and K+
d) the exchanged amount of Na+ and K+
is not equal.
e) none of the above.
d) the exchanged amount of Na+ and K+
is not equal.
Which is the basic inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS:
a) glutamate;
b) substance P;
c) neuropeptide 4;
d) GABA;
e) nitric oxide.
d) GABA;
The conditioned reflexes are:
a) typical of the species;
b) inborn;
c) permanent;
d) formed on the basis of unconditioned reflexes;
e) all of the above.
d) formed on the basis of unconditioned reflexes;
Which of the statements is not true:
a) at the chemical synapse transmission of excitation is one way;
b) at most of the electrical synapses transmission is two-way;
c) the velocity of transmission of excitation is higher at the chemical
synapses than at the electrical ones;
d) the velocity of transmission of excitation is greater at the electrical synapses than at the chemical ones;
e) when there is continuous excitation at a synapse, fatigue occurs.
c) the velocity of transmission of excitation is higher at the chemical
The basic factor for the ion asymmetry on both sides of the excitable
membrane is:
a) Ca++ pump and the low permeability for Na+
b) Na+ pump and the low permeability for Na+
c) Na+/K+ pump and the low permeability for Na+
d) K+ pump and the high permeability for Na+
e) iodine pump.
c) Na+/K+ pump and the low permeability for Na+
The velocity of AP propagation along the axon membrane depends on:
a) the strength of irritation;
b) the duration of irritation;
c) the cross sectional area of the axon;
d) the direction of its propagation;
e) the threshold.
c) the cross sectional area of the axon;
Saltatory conduction:
a) occurs only in myelinated fibres;
b) has a slower velocity in cold than in warm conditions;
c) is faster than non-saltatory conduction in nerve fibres with diameters around 10 μm;
d) transmits impulses with a velocity proportional to fibre diameter;
e) all of them.
e) all of them.
The result of activated 1-adrenergic receptors is:
a) relaxation of the gastrointestinal tract smooth muscles and contraction of the sphincters;
b) constriction of the vessels smooth muscle;
c) increased heart rate;
d) dilation of the vessels smooth muscle and relaxation of the uterus;
e) none of the above.
b) constriction of the vessels smooth muscle;
The result of activated 2-adrenergic receptors is:
a) relaxation of the gastrointestinal tract smooth muscles and contraction of the sphincters;
b) constriction of the vessels smooth muscle;
c) increased heart rate;
d) dilation of the vessels smooth muscle and relaxation of the uterus;
e) none of the above.
a) relaxation of the gastrointestinal tract smooth muscles and contraction of the sphincters;
Protein synthesis occurs at the:
a) mitochondria;
b) lysosomes;
c) within the nucleus;
d) ribosomes;
e) vacuoles.
d) ribosomes;
During repolarisation of the cell membrane:
a) Na+ move inside of the cell;
b) Na+ move outside of the cell;
c) K+ move inside of the cell;
d) K+ move outside of the cell;
e) Cl- move outside of the cell.
d) K+ move outside of the cell;
In a cell, movement of molecules from an area of low
concentration to an area of high concentration:
a) uses facilitated diffusion;
b) requires cellular energy;
c) is passive transport;
d) requires both cellular energy and facilitated diffusion;
e) uses its concentration gradient to move.
b) requires cellular energy;
Movement of solvent and dissolved substances across a cell membrane by hydrostatic pressure is:
a) filtration;
b) facilitated diffusion;
c) osmosis;
d) simple diffusion;
e) active transport.
a) filtration;
The substance acetylcholine is released from synaptic vesicles by the
process of:
a) phagocytosis;
b) simple diffusion;
c) passive transport;
d) exocytosis;
e) endocytosis.
d) exocytosis;
Cell membranes:
a) are formed entirely by protein molecules;
b) are impermeable to fat soluble substances;
c) in some tissues permit transport of glucose at a greater rate in the presence of insulin;
d) are not changed throughout life;
e) are permeable to water soluble substances.
c) in some tissues permit transport of glucose at a greater rate in the presence of insulin;
Proteins that are secreted by cells are generally:
a) not synthesised on ribosomes that are bound to endoplasmic
reticulum;
b) synthesised in the mitochondria;
c) packed in the Golgi apparatus;
d) across the cell membrane by endocytosis;
e) synthesised in the lysosomes.
c) packed in the Golgi apparatus;
The unique feature in mitochondria is:
a) myosin;
b) actin;
c) DNA;
d) prothrombin;
e) haemoglobin.
c) DNA;
The resting membrane potential of a cell:
a) is dependant on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater to Na+;
b) falls to zero if Na+/K+ ATP-ase in the membrane is inhibited;
c) is equal to the equilibrium potential for K+
d) is equal to the equilibrium potential of Na+
e) is equal to the equilibrium potential of Cl-
a) is dependant on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater to Na+;
Transmission across a synapse is dependent on the release of?
a) neurotransmitters;
b) synaptic vesicle;
c) neurons;
d) receptor proteins;
e) hormones.
a) neurotransmitters;
An example of co-transport is:
a) Na+-K + pump;
b) Ca++ pump;
c) Na+- H+pump;
d) Na+ glucose transport;
e) Na/Ca pump.
d) Na+ glucose transport;
Mitochondria:
a) are the chief site of lipid synthesis;
b) are the chief site of protein synthesis;
c) are the chief sites for generation of ATP;
d) are more numerous in white than in brown fat cells;
e) are absent near the membranes of actively secreting cells.
c) are the chief sites for generation of ATP;
The mammalian cell membrane:
a) is seen as an optically dense line using light microscopy;
b) consists mainly of protein;
c) is more permeable to fat- than to water-soluble particles;
d) contains enzymes DNA;
e) contains the receptors for steroid hormones.
c) is more permeable to fat- than to water-soluble particles;
The endoplasmic reticulum:
a) is a complex system of intracellular tubules;
b) has a membrane structure similar to the cell membrane;
c) is associated with ribonucleoprotein;
d) is well developed in secretory cells;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
An action potential in a nerve fibre:
a) occurs when its membrane potential is hyperpolarised to a critical level;
b) is associated with a transient increase in membrane permeability to sodium;
c) is associated with a transient decrease in membrane permeability to potassium;
d) induces local response;
e) has an amplitude which varies directly with the strength of stimulus.
b) is associated with a transient increase in membrane permeability to sodium;
The velocity of conduction of a nerve impulse can be determined by
which of the following factors?
1. temperature; 2. diameter of axon; 3. stimulus frequency; 4. myelin sheath; 5. stimulus strength:
a) 1, 3, 5 and 4;
b) 1, 2 and 3;
c) 3 and 1;
d) 3 and 2;
e) 4, 2 and 1
e) 4, 2 and 1
The junction between one neurone and the next, or between a neurone
and an effector is called:
a) a synapse;
b) a dendrite;
c) a neurotransmitter;
d) a ventricle;
e) none of the above.
a) a synapse;
Which of the following blocks acetylcholine receptor sites causing
muscle relaxation?
a) novocain;
b) curare;
c) nicotine;
d) nerve gases;
e) carbon monoxide.
b) curare;
The action potential of a nerve cell:
a) results from a large increase in membrane permeability to Na+ ions;
b) can summate with one another;
c) may vary considerably in amplitude;
d) become larger as stimulus strength increases;
e) follows from a decrease in membrane permeability for K+
ions.
a) results from a large increase in membrane permeability to Na+ ions;
At the neuromuscular junction:
a) the muscle membrane possesses muscarinic receptors;
b) the motor nerve endings secrete norepinephrine (noradrenalin);
c) curare leads to prolongation of neuromuscular transmission;
d) the motor nerve endings secrete acetylcholine;
e) none of the above.
d) the motor nerve endings secrete acetylcholine;
The nervous system is composed of:
a) neurons;
b) neurotubules;
c) neurofibrils;
d) axons;
e) dendrites.
a) neurons;
The unique property of the neuron is:
a) communication;
b) contraction;
c) secretion;
d) energy production;
e) excitation.
a) communication;
Most axons are covered by a fatty sheath called:
a) neurilema;
b) the nodes of Ranvier;
c) myelin;
d) neural adipose;
e) sarcolema.
c) myelin;
Receptors which respond in a stretch reflex are:
a) carotid baroreceptors;
b) free nerve endings;
c) Ruffini’s endings;
d) oligodendrocytes;
e) Pacinian corpuscles.
a) carotid baroreceptors;
Select the excitatory neurotransmitter:
a) GABA;
b) glycine;
c) norepinephrine;
d) all of the above;
e) none of them.
c) norepinephrine;
Laws of transmission in chemical synapses:
a) one way conduction;
b) amplitude coding in the postsynaptic membrane;
c) delayed transmission;
d) summation;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Which are the most important EEG waves during wakefulness with
opened eyes:
a) gamma (γ);
b) alpha (α);
c) beta (β);
d) delta (δ);
e) alpha (α) and delta (δ).
c) beta (β);
Excessive formation of a substance/ secretion in the body is controlled in
order to maintain homeostasis by:
a) positive feedback mechanism;
b) negative feedback mechanism;
c) osmosis;
d) haemodynamics;
e) up-regulation.
b) negative feedback mechanism;
Which one of the following is characteristic of type A nerve fibers:
a) nociception;
b) slower conduction than C fibers;
c) myelinated;
d) substance P;
e) sensory only.
c) myelinated;
The electroencephalogram (EEG) registers the activity of the:
a) reticular activating system;
b) limbic system;
c) thalamus;
d) cortex;
e) brain stem.
d) cortex;
Sensory neurons have:
a) a short dendrite and a long axon;
b) a short dendrite and a short axon;
c) a long dendrite and a short axon;
d) a long dendrite and a long axon;
e) their axons and dendrites may be either long or short.
c) a long dendrite and a short axon;
The medulla oblongata helps regulate which of the following:
a) breathing;
b) heartbeat;
c) sneezing;
d) vomiting;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
What anatomical region of a multipolar neuron has the lowest threshold
for generating an action potention?
a) soma;
b) dendrites;
c) axon hillock;
d) distal axon;
e) proximal axon.
c) axon hillock;
What do the dorsal root ganglia contain?
a) cell bodies of somatic motor neurons;
b) axon terminal of somatic motor neurons;
c) cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons;
d) axon terminal of sensory neurons;
e) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
e) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
Prevertebral sympathetic ganglia are involved with the innervation of
the:
a) abdominal organs;
b) thoracic organs;
c) head;
d) m. errector pili;
e) all of the above.
a) abdominal organs;
At the neuromuscular junctions:
a) the motor end plate is the motor nerve terminal;
b) spontaneous (miniature) potentials may be recorded in the motor nerve
terminal;
c) motor nerve terminals have vesicles containing acetylcholine;
d) there is a high concentration of curare;
e) transmission is facilitated by botulinum toxin.
c) motor nerve terminals have vesicles containing acetylcholine;
A reflex action:
a) is initiated by sensory receptors;
b) always results in endocrine secretion;
c) involves transmission across at least two central nervous synapses in
series;
d) is always inhibitory;
e) is independent of higher centres in the brain.
a) is initiated by sensory receptors;
The cerebrospinal fluid:
a) is formed in the arachnoid granulations;
b) provides the brain with most of its nutrition;
c) protects the brain from injury when the head is moved;
d) has a lower pressure than that in the cerebral venous sinuses;
e) flows around the adult brain and is around 5 litres per day.
c) protects the brain from injury when the head is moved;
An excitatory post-synaptic potential:
a) is the depolarization of a post-synaptic nerve cell membrane that occurs when a presynaptic neurone is stimulated;
b) involves reversal of polarity across the post-synaptic nerve cell membrane;
c) may be recorded from a posterior root ganglion cell;
d) is propagated at the same rate as an action potential;
e) is caused by the electrical field induced by activity in the pre-synaptic nerve terminals.
a) is the depolarization of a post-synaptic nerve cell membrane that occurs when a presynaptic neurone is stimulated;
The ascending reticular formation:
a) when stimulated tends to increase alertness;
b) transmits impulses to higher centres via a multisynaptic pathway;
c) is activated by collateral branches of sensory neurones;
d) neurones project to most parts of the cerebral cortex;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The cerebellum:
a) modifies the discharge of spinal motor neurones;
b) is essential for finely coordinated movements;
c) has an afferent input from the motor cortex;
d) has an afferent input from muscle proprioceptors;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
During deep sleep there is a fall in:
a) hand skin temperature;
b) arterial pCO2;
c) blood growth hormone/cortisol ratio;
d) metabolic rate;
e) pH.
a) hand skin temperature;
Sympathetic:
a) ganglionic transmission is mediated by acetylcholine;
b) neuromuscular transmission in the heart is mediated by acetylcholine;
c) neuromuscular transmission in hand skin arterioles is mediated by
acetylcholine;
d) neuroglandular transmission in sweat glands is mediated by noradrenaline;
e) neuromuscular transmission in the iris is mediated by
acetylcholine.
d) neuroglandular transmission in sweat glands is mediated by noradrenaline;
The blood–brain barrier:
a) slows equilibration of solutes between blood and brain tissue fluids;
b) is a more effective barrier for fat-soluble substances than water-soluble substances;
c) is a more effective barrier in infants than in adult;
d) is a more effective barrier for CO2 than for O2;
e) permits hydrogen ions to pass freely.
a) slows equilibration of solutes between blood and brain tissue fluids;
The electroencephalogram normally shows voltage waves:
a) whose amplitude is related to intelligence;
b) of lower frequency during deep sleep than during alert
wakefulness;
c) of smaller amplitude during deep sleep than during alert wakefulness;
d) of greater amplitude than those of the electrocardiogram;
e) which are bilaterally unsymmetrical.
b) of lower frequency during deep sleep than during alert
wakefulness;
Parasympathetic nerves:
a) have effects on intestinal smooth muscles opposite to sympathetic nerves;
b) have no effect on lacrimation;
c) cause vasodilatation in skeletal muscle during prolonged exercise;
d) cause sweat secretion in skin when body temperature rises;
e) have longer postganglionic than preganglionic fibres.
a) have effects on intestinal smooth muscles opposite to sympathetic nerves;
α-adrenoceptors:
a) are located on myofilaments in smooth muscle cells;
b) are distinguishable from β (beta) receptors using electron microscopy;
c) can be stimulated by both adrenaline and noradrenaline;
d) are involved in the vasodilation responses to adrenaline in skin;
e) are involved in heart rate responses to noradrenaline.
c) can be stimulated by both adrenaline and noradrenaline;
The α (alpha) rhythm of the electroencephalogram:
a) disappears when the eyes are closed;
b) is an electrical potential with an amplitude around one millivolt;
c) has a frequency of 8–12 Hz;
d) has a lower frequency than the δ (delta) rhythm;
e) indicates that the subject is sleeping.
c) has a frequency of 8–12 Hz;
The primary sensory ending of a muscle spindle is stimulated by:
a) shortening of an antagonist muscle;
b) relaxation of the muscle concerned when under load;
c) stimulation of the gamma efferent fibres;
d) striking the appropriate tendon with a tendon hammer;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
In the spinal cord:
a) pain impulse traffic may be modulated in the posterior horn;
b) autonomic motor neurones arise in the lateral horn;
c) glycin acts as inhibitory neurotransmitter;
d) post-synaptic excitation may be mediated by amino acid
derivatives acting as neurotransmitters;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
In the cerebral cortex:
a) neuronal connections are innate and immutable;
b) language and non-language skills are represented in the same hemisphere;
c) the areas concerned with emotional behaviour are concentrated in the frontal lobes;
d) the cortical area devoted to sensation in the hand is larger than that for the trunk;
e) stimulation of the motor cortex causes contractions of individual muscles on the opposite side of the body.
d) the cortical area devoted to sensation in the hand is larger than that for the trunk;
Generalized sympathetic activity is characterized by:
a) contraction of the radial muscle in the iris;
b) increased urinary excretion of catecholamines;
c) lipolysis in adipose tissue;
d) increased conduction rate in the atrio-ventricular bundle;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Acetylcholine:
a) acts on the same type of receptor on postganglionic fibres in sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia;
b) acts on the different type of receptor on target organs at cholinergic sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve terminals;
c) acts on the same type of receptor at autonomic ganglia and at somatic neuromuscular junctions;
d) acts on alpha and beta receptors;
e) in blood is hydrolyzed by the same cholinesterase as is found at neuromuscular junctions.
a) acts on the same type of receptor on postganglionic fibres in sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia;
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential:
a) may be recorded in a postganglionic sympathetic neurone;
b) may be recorded in an axon;
c) does not exceed one millivolt in amplitude;
d) moves membrane potential towards the equilibrium potential for sodium;
e) may summate in space and time with other excitatory and inhibitory potentials in the same neurone.
e) may summate in space and time with other excitatory and inhibitory potentials in the same neurone.
A volley of impulses travelling in a presynaptic neurone causes:
a) an identical volley in the postsynaptic neurone;
b) summation of action potentials;
c) an increase in the permeability of the presynaptic nerve terminals
to calcium;
d) the generation of at least one action potential in the postsynaptic
neurone;
e) endocytosis of neurotransmitter.
c) an increase in the permeability of the presynaptic nerve terminals
to calcium;
Pain receptors are:
a) similar in structure to Pacinian corpuscles;
b) stimulated by a rise in the local K+
concentration;
c) quick to adapt to a constant stimulus;
d) more easily stimulated in intact than in injured tissue;
e) stimulated in the wall of the gut by agents which damage the tissues.
b) stimulated by a rise in the local K+
concentration;
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep differs from non-REM sleep in that:
a) the EEG shows waves of higher frequency;
b) muscle tone is higher;
c) heart rate and respiration are more regular;
d) secretion of growth hormone is increased;
e) not possible.
a) the EEG shows waves of higher frequency;
The sympathetic response to stress includes:
a) increased blood pressure;
b) increased glycogen breakdown in liver and muscles;
c) increased glycogen synthesis in liver and muscles;
d) increased blood clotting;
e) a, b, and d.
e) a, b, and d.
Delta (δ) wave activity in the electroencephalogram:
a) is low in frequency and amplitude;
b) suggests that the patient is alert and concentrating;
c) suggests that the patient is with opened eyes;
d) is a feature of petit mal epilepsy;
e) is more common in children than in adults while they are awake.
e) is more common in children than in adults while they are awake.
Atropine causes:
a) paralysis of accommodation for near vision in the eye;
b) constriction of the pupil;
c) constriction of the bronchi;
d) diarrhoea;
e) bradycardia.
a) paralysis of accommodation for near vision in the eye;
Blockade of parasympathetic activity causes a reduction in:
a) sweat production;
b) resting heart rate;
c) the strength of skeletal muscle contraction;
d) salivation;
e) blood pressure.
d) salivation;
Aphasia:
a) is an impairment of language skills without motor paralysis, loss of hearing or vision;
b) does not mean unconsciousness;
c) is called motor aphasia if the patient understands what the speech sounds and symbols mean but lacks the higher motor skills needed to express them;
d) is called sensory aphasia if the patient does not understand the meaning of the words he hears, sees and uses;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Blockade of β-adrenoceptors is likely to cause:
a) disturbance in renal-angiotensin-aldosterone system;
b) worsening of the condition in patients with bronchial asthma;
c) worsening of the condition in patients in cardiac failure;
d) inability to increase heart rate during exercise in patients with
transplanted hearts;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
All of these characteristics belong to postsynaptic potentials, except
for:
a) they have constant magnitude;
b) there are no refractory periods;
c) summation is possible;
d) typically occur at the cell body of a neuron;
e) they are decremental.
a) they have constant magnitude;
Compared with the endocrine system, regulation of the body by the
nervous system provides:
a) relatively slow but long-lasting responses to stimuli;
b) swift but brief responses to stimuli;
c) swift, long-lasting responses to stimuli;
d) antagonist hormone interactions;
e) relatively slow, short-lived responses to stimuli.
b) swift but brief responses to stimuli;
Which of these characteristics is not related to the parasympathetic
division of the ANS?
a) urination;
b) defecation;
c) salivation;
d) lacrimation;
e) posturation.
e) posturation.
Which of the following has slowest conduction:
a) A (alpha) fibers;
b) A (beta) fibers;
c) A (gamma) fibers;
d) B fibres;
e) C fibres.
e) C fibres.
A man falls into deep sleep with one arm under his head. After
awakening the arm is paralyzed but tingling sensation and pain
sensation persist. This loss of motor function without the loss of sensory
function is due to:
a) A fibres are more susceptible to hypoxia that B fibers;
b) A fibres are more sensitive to pressure than C fibers;
c) C fibres are more sensitive to pressure than A fibers;
d) sensory nerves are nearer the bone and hence affected by pressure;
e) all of the above.
b) A fibres are more sensitive to pressure than C fibers;
Saltatory conduction:
a) is seen only in myelinated nerve fibres;
b) is slower that non saltatory conduction;
c) is not affected if a local anesthetic is applied to the nodes of Ranvier;
d) is seen only in sensory fibers;
e) is seen only in the cortex.
a) is seen only in myelinated nerve fibres;
Myelin sheath is produced by:
a) axoplasm;
b) mitochondria;
c) Schwann cell;
d) muscle cell;
e) endocrine cell.
c) Schwann cell;
Sleep is associated with:
a) an alpha rhythm in the electroencephalogram;
b) increased activity in the reticular activating system;
c) a beta rhythm in the EEG;
d) a high level of vagal tone to the heart and grinding movements of the teeth;
e) a rise in central body temperature.
d) a high level of vagal tone to the heart and grinding movements of the teeth;
From childhood to old age:
a) there is a steady decrease in total sleeping time per day;
b) deep (stage 4) sleep decreases as a percentage of total daily sleep;
c) body water as a percentage of body mass decreases;
d) sleep becomes less aggregated into a single sleeping period;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The method by which the brain’s electrical activity is registered from the
scalp is called:
a) electroneurography (ENG);
b) electroencephalography (EEG);
c) functional magnetic resonance (fMRI);
d) electromyography (EMG);
e) nuclear-magnetic resonance (NMR).
b) electroencephalography (EEG);
The sympathetic preganglionic neurons of the ANS secrete:
a) dopamine;
b) L-DOPA;
c) serotonin;
d) histamine;
e) acetylcholine.
e) acetylcholine.
The adrenergic effect on the bronchial smooth muscle is:
a) constriction;
b) relaxation;
c) sometimes constriction, sometimes relaxation;
d) there is not effect;
e) dose dependent: at low concentrations – constriction, at higher doses – relaxation.
e) dose dependent: at low concentrations – constriction, at higher doses – relaxation.
Reflexes are defined as somatic, visceral and mixed:
a) according to the location of the receptors;
b) according to the type of the reflex arc;
c) according to the effectors;
d) according to the location of the interneurons;
e) according to formation.
b) according to the type of the reflex arc;
The adrenal medulla is innervated by:
a) preganglionic cholinergic neurons;
b) postganglionic cholinergic neurons;
c) preganglionic adrenergic neurons;
d) postganglionic adrenergic neurons;
e) preganglionic dopaminergic neurons.
a) preganglionic cholinergic neurons;
The increased tone of the parasympathetic division leads to:
a) contraction of the pupils and bronchial smooth muscle fibers;
b) dilation of the pupils and relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle fibers;
c) contraction of the pupils and relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle
fibers;
d) dilation of the pupils and contraction of the bronchial smooth muscle
fibers;
e) none of the above.
a) contraction of the pupils and bronchial smooth muscle fibers;
Blood clotting:
a) requires Ca2+;
b) is promoted by erythrocytes;
c) defects usually shorten the bleeding time;
d) is initiated by tissue tromboplastin in the intrinsic coagulation pathway;
e) is decreased by platelets.
a) requires Ca2+;
B-lymphocytes:
a) secrete circulating antibodies;
b) carry antigen receptors on their surface;
c) secrete antigens;
d) a + b;
e) b + c.
d) a + b;
Red blood cells:
a) measure 15 mm in diameter;
b) do not contain mitochondria;
c) have a life span in circulation of 30 days;
d) are released from the bone marrow as mature cells;
e) contain nucleus.
b) do not contain mitochondria;
Which of the following helps in blood clotting?
a) vit. B1;
b) vit. B2;
c) vit. D;
d) vit. K;
e) vit. B6.
d) vit. K;
The following is true about the ABO and Rh systems:
a) a person of group O is a universal recipient;
b) a person who is group AB has anti-A and anti-B antibodies;
c) the presence of D antigen means that the subject is Rh(+);
d) Rh antibodies occur naturally;
e) the person of group A has anti-A antibodies.
c) the presence of D antigen means that the subject is Rh(+);
The function of haemoglobin is:
a) transport of oxygen;
b) destruction of bacteria;
c) prevention of anaemia;
d) utilization of energy;
e) transport of CO.
a) transport of oxygen;
Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant?
a) Ca2+;
b) heparin;
c) fibrinogen;
d) albumin;
e) gama-globulins.
b) heparin;
What are the agglutinins?
a) antibodies;
b) antigens;
c) beta-globulins;
d) amino acids;
e) lipids.
a) antibodies;
Which of the following substance influences indirectly blood clotting?
a) calcium ions;
b) vit. K;
c) vit. B6;
d) mineralocorticoids;
e) renin.
b) vit. K;
For which of the following cells phagocytosis is not typical?
a) neutrophils;
b) plasmocytes;
c) monocytes;
d) eosinophils;
e) macrophages.
b) plasmocytes;
Normal (physiological) hemolysis takes place:
a) inside the heart;
b) inside the spleen and liver;
c) inside the kidneys;
d) inside the big blood vessels;
e) inside the bone marrow.
b) inside the spleen and liver;
Which of the following are functions of the blood?
a) transport;
b) regulation;
c) protection;
d) temperature regulation;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The blood volume of an average size male is:
a) 3 to 4 liters;
b) 4 to 5 liters;
c) 5 to 6 liters;
d) 6 to 7 liters;
e) 7 to 9 liters.
c) 5 to 6 liters;
The blood volume is:
a) 10-12% of body weight;
b) 10 l;
c) 6-8% of body weight;
d) 5 l;
d) 3-5% of body weight.
c) 6-8% of body weight;
The effects on plasma volume of 500 ml blood loss are neutralized
within:
a) 1 – 2 hours;
b) 8 – 10 hours;
c) 24 hours;
d) one week;
e) one month.
c) 24 hours;
Antithrombin III affects which coagulation factor?
a) XIIa;
b) Xa;
c) IIa;
d) IXa;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Vitamin K neutralizes:
a) factor 5;
b) heparin;
c) antithrombin 3;
d) plasminogen;
e) none of the above.
e) none of the above.
Hematocrit of 0.45 means that in the sample of blood analysed:
a) 0.45% Hb is in the plasma;
b) 0.45% of total blood volume is made up of plasma;
c) 0.45% of Hb is in the RBC;
d) 0.45% of the total blood volume is made up of RBC’s and WBC’s;
e) 0.45% of blood volume is made of Tr.
d) 0.45% of the total blood volume is made up of RBC’s and WBC’s;
Platelet activation will not occur without:
a) Ca2+;
b) vessel wall damage;
c) von Willebrand factor;
d) fibrinogen;
e) serotonin.
a) Ca2+;
Which of the following statements concerning the monocyte is
incorrect:
a) more common in blood than eosinophils and basophils;
b) produced in the adult by the bone marrow and lymph nodes;
c) unlike neutrophil does not accumulate outside circulation in area of
inflammation;
d) not classified as a granulocyte;
e) 2-8% of differential blood count.
c) unlike neutrophil does not accumulate outside circulation in area of
inflammation;
Hemoglobin contains:
a) one protoporphyrin ring and four ferrous ions;
b) four protoporphyrin ring and one ferrous ion;
c) four protoporphyrin rings and four ferrous ions;
d) one protoporphyrin ring and one ferrous ion;
e) none of the above.
c) four protoporphyrin rings and four ferrous ions;
Which blood component plays the biggest role in maintaining the
osmotic pressure of blood?
a) albumin;
b) carbon dioxide;
c) white blood cells;
d) fibrinogen;
e) globulins.
a) albumin;
In a normal blood sample, which of the following cells will be the most
abundant?
a) neutrophils;
b) basophiles;
c) eosinophiles;
d) monocytes;
e) lymphocytes.
a) neutrophils;
An antigen is:
a) a chemical messenger that is released by virus infected cells;
b) a lymphocyte responsible for cell-mediated immunity;
c) something that coats the inside of lungs, causing infection;
d) a protein or other molecule that is recognized as non-self;
e) a thick yellow-white fluid.
d) a protein or other molecule that is recognized as non-self;
Where is the site of maturation for a B-cell?
a) thymus;
b) bone marrow;
c) pancreas;
d) cortex;
e) spleen.
b) bone marrow;
Nonspecific resistance is:
a) the body’s ability to ward off diseases;
b) the body’s defenses against any kind of pathogen;
c) the body’s defense against a particular pathogen;
d) the lack of resistance;
e) none of the above.
b) the body’s defenses against any kind of pathogen;
The rate of erythrocyte sedimentation is increased when:
a) the plasma albumin fraction is increased;
b) fibrinogen in the blood is decreased;
c) the plasma globulin fraction is decreased;
d) the plasma globulin fraction is increased;
e) lack of erythropoietin.
d) the plasma globulin fraction is increased;
Agglutinins are found in:
a) the erythrocyte membrane;
b) the leukocytes;
c) the plasma;
d) the platelets;
e) all of the above.
c) the plasma;
Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that
function in the maturation of T-lymphocytes:
a) lymph nodes;
b) thymus;
c) spleen;
d) pineal gland;
e) tonsils.
b) thymus;
γ-globulins are related to:
a) humoral immunity;
b) blood coagulation;
c) transport of gases by the blood;
d) erythropoiesis;
e) cellular immunity.
a) humoral immunity;
Oxyhemoglobin is a compound of:
a) hemoglobin and O2;
b) hemoglobin and CO2;
c) hemoglobin and Fe2+;
d) hemoglobin and CO;
e) hemoglobin and N.
a) hemoglobin and O2;
The amount of plasma proteins is:
a) 135 – 145 mmol∙1-1
b) 140 – 160 g∙1-1
c) 50 – 83 g∙1-1
d) 2.8 – 5.6 mmol∙1-1
e) 0.40 – 0.50 1∙1-1
c) 50 – 83 g∙1-1
The plasma of blood type AB contains:
a) anti-A agglutinins;
b) anti-B agglutinins;
c) anti-A and anti-B agglutinins;
d) no agglutinins;
e) agglutinogens A and B.
d) no agglutinins;
Osmotic hemolysis is due to:
a) water hypotonic solution entering the erythrocytes;
b) destruction of the erythrocyte membrane by chemicals;
c) fibrinolysis;
d) formation of carbaminohemoglobin;
e) transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin.
a) water hypotonic solution entering the erythrocytes;
Hypervolemia is:
a) increased blood volume;
b) decreased blood volume;
c) increased blood cholesterol;
d) increased plasma proteins;
e) increased blood pressure.
a) increased blood volume;
When AB(0) blood is transfused to a recipient of blood type 0 (anti-A,
anti-B):
a) the limit of the blood transfused is up to 300 ml;
b) the transfused amount is unlimited;
c) transfusion is forbidden;
d) transfusion of plasma is the only possibility;
e) possible only once in a lifetime.
d) transfusion of plasma is the only possibility;
Leucopenia is:
a) increased number of leukocytes;
b) increased number of platelets;
c) decreased number of leucocytes;
d) increased number of erythrocytes;
e) decreased number of platelets.
a) increased number of leukocytes;
Sodium citrate stops coagulation by:
a) blocking fibrinogen;
b) reacting with Ca2+;
c) massive fibrinolysis;
d) destruction of platelets;
e) blocking vit. K.
b) reacting with Ca2+;
The normal RBC count in men is :
а) 140 - 160∙10 9∙l-1
b) 4.5 - 6.0∙1012∙l-1
c) 4 - 11∙10 9∙l-1
d) 200 - 400∙l0 9∙l-1
e) 0.40 - 0.50∙l-1
b) 4.5 - 6.0∙1012∙l-1
Leucocytosis is:
a) increased number of leukocytes;
b) increased number of platelet;
c) decreased number of leucocytes;
d) increased number of erythrocytes;
e) increased percentage of neutrophils.
a) increased number of leukocytes;
Platelets take part in:
a) the immune defense;
b) the transport of gases in blood;
c) hemostasis;
d) rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone system;
e) all of the above.
c) hemostasis;
The hemoglobin concentration in men is :
а) 4 - 5.2∙1012∙l-1
b) 135 - 145 mmol∙l-1
c) 160 ± 20 g∙l-1
d) 2.8 - 5.6 mmol∙l-1
e) 140 - 160 g%.
c) 160 ± 20 g∙l-1
Of major significance for maintaining the blood oncotic pressure is:
a) the number of erythrocytes;
b) the plasma globulin fraction;
c) the leukocyte count;
d) the plasma albumin fraction;
e) the plasmafibrinogen.
d) the plasma albumin fraction;
The red color of blood is due to:
a) the plasma cholesterol;
b) the plasma albumin fraction;
c) Ca2+ and K+
in plasma;
d) the granules in the leucocytes;
e) the hemoglobin in the erythrocytes.
e) the hemoglobin in the erythrocytes.
The normal blood platelet count is:
a) 4 – 11∙109∙11
b) 4.4 – 5.2∙1012∙1-1
c) 60 – 90∙1012∙1-1
d) 140 – 400∙109∙1-1
e) 200 – 400∙1012∙1-1
d) 140 – 400∙109∙1-1
Fibrinolysis is:
a) formation of the white plug;
b) formation of the red plug;
c) fibrin clot destruction;
d) viscose metamorphosis of the platelets;
e) destruction of adrenal medulla.
c) fibrin clot destruction;
When blood is transfused from 0 (anti-A, anti-B) donor to AB(0) recipient:
a) the amount is up to 500 ml;
b) the amount is unlimited;
c) transfusion is impossible;
d) only plasma may be transfused;
e) only once in a lifetime.
a) the amount is up to 500 ml;
The osmotic fragility is determined by the use of:
a) hypotonic solution of NaCI;
b) hypertonic solution of NaCl;
c) HCI;
d) NaOH;
e) celloscope.
a) hypotonic solution of NaCI;
Heparin is:
a) a factor transforming prothrombin into thrombin;
b) platelet factor 8;
c) endogenic anticoagulant;
d) exogenic anticoagulant;
e) pancreatic enzyme.
c) endogenic anticoagulant;
The plasma protein fraction of major significance for coagulation is:
a) albumin;
b) globulin;
c) fibrinogen;
d) γ-globulin;
e) globulin and albumin.
c) fibrinogen;
The ESR (Westergren) reterence values are :
а) men up to 50 < 15 mm∙h-1
b) 140 - 160 g∙l-1
c) women above 50 - 5 - 10 mm∙h-1
d) men above 50 - 3 - 8 mm∙h-1
e) 0.40 - 0.50∙l-1
.
а) men up to 50 < 15 mm∙h-1
Of major significance for the erythrocyte sedimentation rate is:
a) the leukocyte count;
b) the albumin/globulin ratio;
c) total blood cholesterol;
d) the platelet count;
e) the leukocytes ratio (%).
b) the albumin/globulin ratio;
The normal leukocyte count is:
a) 200 – 400.109∙l-1
b) 3.5 – 10.5 9∙109∙l-1
c) 4.5 – 5.2∙1012∙l-1
d) 60 – 90∙109∙l-1
e) 20 – 40% of all blood cells.
b) 3.5 – 10.5 9∙109∙l-1
Fe2+ ions are necessary for:
a) the production of fibrinogen;
b) erythropoiesis;
c) the formation of leukocytes;
d) the formation of platelets;
e) the synthesis of thyreocalcitonin.
b) erythropoiesis;
The percentage of Rh(+) people is:
a) 15%;
b) 85%;
c) 50%;
d) 30%;
e) 15% of pregnant women.
b) 85%;
Hematocrit reference range in women is :
а) 140 - 160 g∙l-1
b) 2.4 - 2.6 mmol∙l-1
c) 0.55 - 1.48 mmol∙l-1
d) 0.36 - 0.47 l∙l-1
e) 4.5∙1012∙l-1
d) 0.36 - 0.47 l∙l-1
Hematocrit measures the percentage of:
a) white blood cells volume;
b) plasma volume;
c) platelets volume;
d) red blood cells volume;
e) serum proteins volume.
d) red blood cells volume;
To prevent blood loss after a tissue injury, blood vessels first:
a) form a platelet plug;
b) form a clot;
c) initiate the coagulation cascade;
d) constrict and form barriers;
e) dilate.
d) constrict and form barriers;
A foreign substance, usually a protein, that stimulates the immune
system to react by producing antibodies is called:
a) allergen;
b) antigen;
c) histamine;
d) mast cell;
e) interferon.
b) antigen;
When neutrophils and macrophages squeeze out of capillaries to fight
off infection, it is called:
a) phagocytosis;
b) hemolysis;
c) interleukin;
d) diapedesis;
e) folliculitis.
d) diapedesis;
Each of the following is a component of plasma except:
a) water;
b) proteins;
c) formed elements;
d) nutrients;
e) salts.
c) formed elements;
Extracellular fluid in adults differs from intracellular fluid in that its:
а) volume is greater;
b) tonicity is lower;
c) Na+
concentration is lower;
d) sodium:potassium molar ratio is higher;
e) pH is lower.
d) sodium:potassium molar ratio is higher;
Total body water, expressed as a percentage of body weight:
а) can be measured with an indicator dilution technique using
deuterium oxide;
b) is smaller on average in women than in men;
c) rises following injection of posterior pituitary extracts;
d) is less than 80% in young adults;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Breakdown of erythrocytes in the body:
а) occurs when they are 6–8 weeks old;
b) is named erythropoiesis;
c) yields iron, most of which is excreted in the urine;
d) yields bilirubin which is carried by plasma protein to the liver;
e) is required for the synthesis of bile salts.
d) yields bilirubin which is carried by plasma protein to the liver;
A person with group A blood
а) has anti-A antibody in the plasma;
b) may have the genotype AB;
c) may have a parent with group 0 blood;
d) may have children with group A or group 0 blood only;
c) may have a parent with group 0 blood;
The spleen destroys:
а) маcrophages;
b) healthy RBC;
c) neutrophils;
d) damaged RBC;
e) monocytes.
d) damaged RBC;
Plasma bilirubin:
а) is a steroid pigment;
b) is converted to biliverdin in the liver;
c) does not normally cross cerebral capillary walls;
d) is freely filtered in the renal glomerulus;
e) has red colour.
c) does not normally cross cerebral capillary walls;
Monocytes:
a) originate from precursor cells in lymph nodes;
b) can increase in number when their parent cells are stimulated by factors released from activated lymphocytes;
c) unlike granulocytes, do not migrate across capillary walls;
d) take part in haemostasis;
e) manufacture immunoglobulin M.
b) can increase in number when their parent cells are stimulated by factors released from activated lymphocytes;
Erythrocytes:
a) are responsible for the major part of blood viscosity;
b) contain the enzyme carbonic anhydrase;
c) metabolize glucose to produce CO2 and H2O;
d) carry O2 and CO2;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Human plasma albumin:
a) contributes more to plasma colloid osmotic pressure than
globulin;
b) can not filter freely at the glomerulus;
c) is negatively charged at the normal pH of blood;
d) carries sex hormones in blood;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Circulating red blood cells:
a) are about 1% nucleated;
b) take part in immunity;
c) are distributed evenly across the blood stream in large blood vessels;
d) deform as they pass through the capillaries;
e) travel at slower velocity in venules than in capillaries.
d) deform as they pass through the capillaries;
Neutrophil granulocytes:
a) are the most common leukocyte in normal blood;
b) contain proteolytic enzymes;
c) contain actin and myosin microfilaments;
d) are present in high concentration in pus;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Bleeding from a small cut in the skin:
a) is normally diminished by local vascular spasm;
b) ceases within about five minutes in normal people;
c) is greater from warm skin than from cold skin;
d) is reduced if the affected limb is elevated;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Blood:
a) makes up about 3 % of body weight;
b) forms a higher percentage of body weight in fat than in thin people;
c) squeezes out serum when it clots;
d) volume can be calculated by multiplying plasma volume by thehaematocrit (expressed as a percentage);
e) volume rises after diuretic is taken.
c) squeezes out serum when it clots;
Lymphocytes:
a) are motile;
b) can transform into plasma cells;
c) increase in number during infection;
d) decrease in number during immunosuppressive drug therapy;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The pH:
a) of arterial blood normally ranges from 7.2 to 7.6;
b) units express [H+] in moles/litre;
c) of blood is directly proportional to the pCO2;
d) of blood is directly proportional to [HCO3]
e) of arterial blood is lower than venous blood.
d) of blood is directly proportional to [HCO3]
Blood eosinophils:
a) have agranular cytoplasm;
b) are about a quarter of all leukocytes;
c) are relatively abundant in the mucosa of the respiratory, urinary
and alimentary tracts;
d) are 50-70% of all leukocytes;
e) increase in number in viral infections.
c) are relatively abundant in the mucosa of the respiratory, urinary
and alimentary tracts;
Lymph:
a) doesn’t contain plasma proteins;
b) vessels are involved in the absorption of amino acids from the
intestine;
c) production decreases during muscular activity;
d) does not normally contain cells;
e) flow is aided by contraction of adjacent skeletal muscles.
e) flow is aided by contraction of adjacent skeletal muscles
Blood platelets:
a) are formed in the bone marrow;
b) are normally more numerous than white cells;
c) increase in number after injury and surgery;
d) alter shape when in contact with collagen;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
An appropriate dilution indicator for measuring:
a) total body water is sucrose;
b) plasma volume is radioactive sodium;
c) extracellular fluid volume is inulin;
d) intracellular fluid volume directly is heavy water (deuterium oxide);
e) total body water is radioactive iodine.
c) extracellular fluid volume is inulin;
Excessive tissue fluid (oedema) in the legs may:
a) be associated with a raised extracellular fluid volume;
b) result from hepatic disease;
c) result from blockage of pelvic lymphatics;
d) increase local interstitial fluid pressure;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Haemolytic disease of the newborn:
a) can be prevented by injecting the mother with anti-D agglutinins just after delivery;
b) affects mainly babies of Rh-positive mothers;
c) occurs mainly in babies who lack D agglutinogen;
d) causes jaundice which clears rapidly after birth;
e) can be treated by transfusing the affected baby with Rh-positive blood.
a) can be prevented by injecting the mother with anti-D agglutinins just after delivery;
Patients with moderate to severe anaemia have a reduced:
a) cardiac output;
b) incidence of vascular bruits;
c) 2:3-diphosphoglycerate blood level;
d) arterial pO2;
e) capacity to raise oxygen consumption in exercise.
e) capacity to raise oxygen consumption in exercise.
Iron deficiency:
a) frequently follows persistent loss of blood from the body;
b) is more common in men than in women;
c) may cause anaemia by inhibiting the rate of multiplication of RBC stem
cells;
d) may cause large pale erythrocytes to appear in peripheral blood;
e) anaemia should normally be treated by injections of iron.
a) frequently follows persistent loss of blood from the body;
Severe reactions are likely after transfusion of blood group:
a) A to a group B person;
b) 0 to a group AB person;
c) 0 to a group A person;
d) A to a group AB person;
e) 0 Rh- negative to a group AB Rh-positive person.
a) A to a group B person;
The haematocrit (packed cell volume):
a) may be obtained by centrifugation of blood;
b) may be calculated by multiplying the mean cell volume by the red
cell count;
c) rises in a patient who sustains widespread burns;
d) rises following vomiting;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Red cell formation is increased:
a) in blood donors one week after a blood donation;
b) in patients with haemolytic anaemia;
c) by giving injections of erythropoietin to nephrectomized patients;
d) in patients who have a raised blood reticulocyte count;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Hematocrit reference range in men is :
а) 0.40 – 0.54 l∙l-1
b) 2.4 – 2.6 mmol∙l-1
c) 0.55 – 1.48 mmol∙l-1
d) 140 – 160 g∙l-1
а) 0.40 – 0.54 l∙l-1
Red blood cells would swell in which type of solution?
a) hypotonic;
b) isotonic;
c) hypertonic;
d) hydrophilic;
e) lipophilic.
a) hypotonic;
The number of oxygen molecules carried by one Hb molecule :
a) 1;
b) 2;
c) 4;
d) 8;
e) 6.
c) 4;
The most abundant type of protein in plasma is:
a) insulin;
b) globulin;
c) albumin;
d) glycogen;
e) fibrinogen.
c) albumin;
Majority of clotting factors are produced in:
a) liver;
b) kidney;
c) heart;
d) brain;
e) muscle.
a) liver;
Action of plasmin is:
a) to remove calcium;
b) antithrombin action;
c) to stimulate heparin;
d) to degenerate fibrin;
d) to degenerate fibrin;
Cellular immunity is due to:
a) B lymphocytes;
b) T lymphocytes;
c) neutrophils;
d) eosinophils;
e) erythrocytes.
b) T lymphocytes;
Which is the most rare blood group:
a) A (Rh+);
b) AB (Rh+);
c) AB (Rh-);
d) B (Rh-);
e) 0 (Rh+).
c) AB (Rh-);
The hemoglobin level in women is :
а) 4 - 5.2∙1012∙l-1
b) 135 - 145 mmol∙l-1
c) 140 ± 20 g∙l-1
d) 2.8 - 5.6 mmol∙l-1
e) 140 - 160 g%.
c) 140 ± 20 g∙l-1
The number of RBC in women is:
а) 140 - 160∙109∙l-1;
b) 0.40 - 0.50∙l-1.
c) 4 - 11∙109∙l-1;
d) 200 - 400∙l09∙l-1;
e) 3.9-5.3∙1012∙l-1
e) 3.9-5.3∙1012∙l-1
The ESR (Westergren) reference values are :
а) women above 50 - 5 - 10 mm∙h-1
b) 140 - 160 g∙l-1
c) women up to 50: < 22 mm∙h-1
d) men up to 50: 3 - 8 mm∙h-1
e) 0.40 - 0.50∙l-1
c) women up to 50: < 22 mm∙h-1
In the WBC differential count the monocytes are :
а) 0 tо 6%;
b) 0 tо 2%;
c) 42 tо 70%;
d) 22 tо 48%;
e) 1 tо 14%.
e) 1 tо 14%.
Carbhemoglobin is a compound of :
а) hemoglobin with carbon dioxide;
b)hemoglobin with oxygen;
c) hemogobin with carbon monoxyde;
d) hemoglobin with nitrogen;
e) hemoglobin with Fe3
а) hemoglobin with carbon dioxide;
In the WBC defferntial count the neutrophilic band cells are:
а) 0 to 6%;
b) 0 to 2%;
c) 42 to 70%;
d) 22 to 48%;
а) 0 to 6%;
In the WBC defferential count the eosinophil granulocytes are:
а) 0 tо 6%;
b) 0 tо 2%;
c) 42 tо 70%;
d) 22 tо 48%;
e) 1 tо 14%.
а) 0 tо 6%;
In the WBC defferential count the basophil granulocytes are :
а) 0 tо 6%;
b) 0 tо 2%;
c) 42 tо 70%;
d) 22 tо 48%;
e) 1 tо 14%.
b) 0 tо 2%;
In the WBC defferential count the lymphocytes are :
а) 0 tо 6%;
b) 0 tо 2%;
c) 42 tо 70%;
d) 22 tо 48%;
e) 1 tо 14%.
d) 22 tо 48%;
Вleeding time is :
а) 1 - 12 ng∙ml-1
b) 2 – 5 min;
c) 11 - 14 s;
d) 2.0 - 4.5 g∙l-1
e) 136 - 151 mmol∙l-1
b) 2 – 5 min;
The valency of iron in the hem group is :
а) 1+;
b) 2+;
c) 3+;
d) 4+;
e) 5+.
b) 2+;
Which hormone(s) reduces erythropoiesis :
а) androgens;
b) growth hormone;
c) glucocorticoids;
d) estrogens;
d) estrogens;
Erythropoiesis stimulating factors are :
а) erythropoietin;
b) vit. В12 and folic acid;
c) iron;
d) testosterone;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Аnemia is:
а) reduced hemoglobin level;
b) reduced RBC count;
c) reduced RBC count and/or hemoglobin level;
d) reduced RBC count;
e) hyperhemoglobinemia.
c) reduced RBC count and/or hemoglobin level;
The plasma of blood type A contains:
а) аglutinins α and β;
b) аglutinins α;
c) aglutinins β;
d) no аglutinins;
e) аglutinogen А.
c) aglutinins β;
The plasma of blood type В contains:
а) аglutinins α and β;
b) аglutinins α;
c) аglutinins β;
d) no aglutinins;
e) аglutinogen В.
b) аglutinins α;
lymphatic system is one of the main pathways for the absorption
of:
а) lipids;
b) carbohydrates;
c) proteins;
d) water;
e) micronutrients.
а) lipids
The plasma of blood type 0 contains:
а) аglutinins α and β;
b) аglutinins α;
c) аglutinins β;
d) no aglutinins;
а) аglutinins α and β;
Thick filaments in skeletal muscle are composed of:
a) actin;
b) myosin;
c) troponin;
d) calmodulin;
e) tropomyosin.
b) myosin;
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal muscle fibre:
a) the sarcomere shortens;
b) A-bands shorten;
c) tension increases;
d) fibres relax;
e) none of the above.
a) the sarcomere shortens;
During an isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle:
a) the I-bands shorten and the A-bands stay the same length;
b) the thick and thin filaments slide past each other;
c) sarcomere length does not change;
d) tension does not change;
e) none of the above.
c) sarcomere length does not change;
In skeletal muscle calcium facilitates contraction by binding to:
a) tropomyosin;
b) actin;
c) troponin;
d) myosin;
e) the thick filament.
c) troponin;
‘Motor unit’ refers to:
a) a single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibres it innervates;
b) a single muscle fibre plus all the motor neurons that innervate it;
c) all of the motor neurons supplying a single muscle;
d) a pair of antagonistic muscles;
e) all of the muscles that affect the movement of any given joint.
a) a single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibres it innervates;
The cross bridges in the sarcomere of skeletal muscle are made of:
a) actin;
b) myosin;
c) troponin;
d) tropomyosin;
e) myelin.
b) myosin;
With regard to knee jerk:
a) it is a monosynaptic reflex;
b) the impulse travels via type Ca afferent fibres;
c) the Golgi body is an important component;
d) the stimulus begins in the tendon;
e) it is a visceral reflex.
a) it is a monosynaptic reflex;
The most important contractile proteins are:
a) myosin;
b) troponin;
c) actin;
d) tropomyosin;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Which role do Ca2+ ions play in the muscle contraction?
a) excitation-contraction coupling;
b) prevent the contraction;
c) form cross bridges;
d) release energy for the contraction;
e) excite the myofiber.
a) excitation-contraction coupling;
Smooth muscle is not cross striated because:
a) of myosin and actin in the myofibril;
b) myofibrils are in register with each other;
c) myofibrils are not in register with each other;
d) it has gap junctions;
e) it is surrounded by a basal lamina.
c) myofibrils are not in register with each other;
During strong exercise, oxygen consumption is greatest in the:
a) brain;
b) heart;
c) skeletal muscles;
d) liver;
e) kidneys.
c) skeletal muscles;
An increase in force of a skeletal muscle contraction is initially achieved
by:
a) recruitment of nerve fibers;
b) recruitment of muscle fibers;
c) recruitment of motor units;
d) increased intracellular calcium;
e) increased lactic acid.
c) recruitment of motor units;
Intercalated discs are most likely to be observed in:
a) longitudinal section of skeletal muscle;
b) transverse section of skeletal muscle;
c) transverse section of cardiac muscle;
d) longitudinal section of cardiac muscle;
e) transverse section of smooth muscle.
d) longitudinal section of cardiac muscle;
Which area of the sarcomere consists only of myosin filaments?
a) I-bands;
b) H-zone;
c) A-bands;
d) M-line;
e) Z-disc.
b) H-zone;
Which muscle cell compound stores oxygen?
a) creatine phosphate;
b) glycogen;
c) hemoglobin;
d) myoglobin;
e) lipid droplets.
d) myoglobin;
Smooth muscle is:
a) voluntary and spindle shaped;
b) voluntary and striated;
c) involuntary and spindle shaped;
d) involuntary and striated;
e) innervated by the somatic nervous system.
c) involuntary and spindle shaped;
Skeletal muscle is:
a) voluntary and spindle shaped;
b) voluntary and striated;
c) involuntary and spindle shaped;
d) involuntary and striated;
e) innervated by ANS.
b) voluntary and striated;
Cardiac muscle is:
a) voluntary and spindle shaped;
b) voluntary and striated;
c) involuntary and spindle shaped;
d) involuntary and striated;
e) innervated by the somatic nervous system.
d) involuntary and striated;
Which type of muscle cell is multinucleated?
a) cardiac;
b) smooth;
c) skeletal;
d) cardiac and smooth;
e) none of the above.
c) skeletal;
What is an example of a smooth muscle?
a) masseter (face);
b) bladder;
c) heart;
d) pronator teres (forearm);
e) rectus abdominis (belly).
b) bladder;
The muscular system is controlled by which system?
a) the cardiovascular system;
b) the endocrine system;
c) the nervous system;
d) the respiratory system;
e) the urinary system.
c) the nervous system;
How many actin filaments surround each myosin filament?
a) two;
b) four;
c) six;
d) eight;
e) seven.
c) six;
The neutomuscular synapses are:
а) only excitatory;
b) only inhibitory;
c) neither excitatory nor inhibitory;
d) excitatory or inhibitory depending on the receptors;
e) c and d.
а) only excitatory;
Which of the following should affect the strength or force of skeletal
muscle contraction?
a) the number of muscle fibers at rest;
b) the degree of muscle stretch;
c) the series-elastic elements;
d) stronger stimuli;
e) concentration of Na+
.
b) the degree of muscle stretch;
The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores:
a) calcium ions;
b) chloride ions;
c) sodium ions;
d) potassium ions;
e) hydrogen ions.
a) calcium ions
Which of these is true of skeletal muscle:
a) spindle-shaped cells;
b) under involuntary control;
c) many peripherally located nuclei per muscle fiber;
d) forms the walls of hollow internal organs;
e) may be autorhythmic.
c) many peripherally located nuclei per muscle fiber;
Which of these is not a major property of muscle?
a) contractility;
b) elasticity;
c) excitability;
d) extensibility;
e) secretability.
e) secretability
Mysoin myofilaments are:
a) attached to the Z-disk;
b) found primarily in the I band;
c) thinner than actin myofilaments;
d) absent from the H zone;
e) attached to filaments that form the M-line.
e) attached to filaments that form the M-line.
What is each myofibril made of?
a) many muscle fibers;
b) contains sarcoplasmic reticulum;
c) many sarcomeres;
d) contains T-tubules;
e) is the same thing as a muscle fiber.
c) many sarcomeres;
The part of the sarcolemma that invaginates into the interior of skeletal muscle fibers is the:
a) T-tubule system;
b) sarcoplasmic reticulum;
c) myofibrils;
d) terminal cisternae;
e) mitochondria.
a) T-tubule system;
Which of these events occurs during the lag (latent) phase of muscle
contraction?
a) cross-bridge movement;
b) active transport of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum;
c) Ca2+ binding to troponin;
d) sarcomere shortening;
e) breakdown of ATP to ADP.
c) Ca2+ binding to troponin;
Muscle contraction which cannot move weight because it is too heavy is:
a) isometric;
b) isotonic;
c) isokinetic;
d) concentric;
e) eccentric.
a) isometric;
- Voluntary skeletal muscles in the leg are innervated by:
a) postganglionic neurons;
b) somatic motor neurons;
c) preganglionic neurons;
d) CNS fibers;
e) all the above.
b) somatic motor neurons;
A small motor unit would control which type of movement?
a) fast but brief;
b) intense and strong;
c) delicate and precise;
d) sprinting;
e) marathon running.
c) delicate and precise
Muscle fibers type I have only one of the folloving features:
a) slow onset of contraction;
b) easily fatigued;
c) many enzymes for glycolysis;
d) a slow refractory period;
e) low mitochondrial content.
a) slow onset of contraction;
Muscle fibers type IIa are:
a) slow-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable resistant;
b) fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic, relatively fatigue resistant;
c) fast-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable;
d) slow-twitch, oxidative, fatiguee resistant;
e) fast-twitch, oxidative, fatigable.
b) fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic, relatively fatigue resistant;
Muscle fibers type IIb are:
a) slow-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable resistant;
b) fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic, relatively fatigue resistant;
c) fast-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable;
d) slow-twitch, oxidative, fatigue resistant;
e) fast-twitch, oxidative, fatigable.
c) fast-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable;
Muscle fibers type I are:
a) slow-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable resistant;
b) fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic, relatively fatigue resistant;
c) fast-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable;
d) slow-twitch, oxidative, fatigue resistant;
e) fast-twitch, oxidative, fatigable.
d) slow-twitch, oxidative, fatigue resistant;
These bands of the sarcomere do not shorten during contraction:
a) A bands;
b) H, I and M bands;
c) Z discs and A bands;
d) I bands;
e) a and d.
a) A bands;
The role of transverse tubules in skeletal muscle fibers is to:
a) connect the sarcomeres to each other;
b) bind the myofibrils;
c) spread the action potential quickly;
d) connect the sarcolemma to the sarcoplasmic reticulum;
e) bind to the receptors – dihydro pyridine receptors.
c) spread the action potential quickly;
The smooth muscles are innervated by:
а) -motor neurons in the spinal cord;
b) -motor neurons;
c) pseudounipolar neurons in the spinal ganglia;
d) postganglionic neurons of the ANS;
e) preganglionic neurons of the ANS.
d) postganglionic neurons of the ANS;
The function of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle is:
a) sliding on actin to produce shortening;
b) releasing Ca++ after initiation of contraction;
c) binding to myosin during contraction;
d) covering up the actin binding sites of myosin at rest;
e) releasing Na+ after contraction.
d) covering up the actin binding sites of myosin at rest
The cell membranes in skeletal muscle:
a) are impermeable to fat-soluble substances;
b) are more permeable to sodium than to potassium ions;
c) become more permeable to glucose in the presence of insulin;
d) become less permeable to potassium in the presence of insulin;
e) are ligand dependent.
c) become more permeable to glucose in the presence of insulin;
A skeletal muscle fibre at rest:
a) presents with a membrane which is positively charged on the inside
with respect to the outside;
b) contains intracellular stores of calcium ions;
c) is normally innervated by more than one motor neurone;
d) becomes more excitable as its resting membrane potential increase in
absolute value;
e) becomes less excitable as the extracellular ionized calcium levels fall.
b) contains intracellular stores of calcium ions;
A property shared by:
a) skeletal and cardiac muscles is their striated microscopical appearance;
b) cardiac and visceral smooth muscles is their spontaneous activity
when denervated;
c) skeletal and cardiac ventricular muscles is their stable resting
membrane potential;
e) all types of muscles is that contraction strength is related to
their initial length;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
In skeletal muscle:
a) contraction occurs when its pacemaker cells depolarize
sufficiently to reach the threshold for firing;
b) calcium is taken up by the sarcotubular system when it contracts;
c) actin and myosin filaments shorten when it contracts;
q
e) contraction strength is related to the influx of K+
ions.
d) the sarcomeres shorten during contraction;
Visceral smooth muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that:
a) it contracts when stretched;
b) it is not paralyzed when its motor nerve supply is cut;
c) its cells have unstable resting membrane potentials;
d) excitation depends more on influx of extracellular calcium than
release of calcium from endoplasmic reticulum;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The action potential of skeletal muscle:
a) has a prolonged plateau phase;
b) spreads inwards to all parts of the muscle via T-tubules;
c) is longer than the action potential of cardiac muscle;
d) is not essential for muscle conduction;
e) has different amplitudes.
b) spreads inwards to all parts of the muscle via T-tubules;
Smooth muscle need help of:
a) calmodulin for contraction;
b) acetylcholine for contraction;
c) K+
for contraction;
d) monoamine oxidase for contraction;
e) secondary messenger for contraction.
a) calmodulin for contraction;
The sarcomere is:
а) the principal protein in the skeletal muscle;
b) the basic functional unit of the smooth muscle;
c) the main energy source of muscle contraction;
d) the basic functional unit of the muscle fibre;
e) the main proprioceptor.
d) the basic functional unit of the muscle fibre;
The number of muscle fibres in a motor unit determines:
а) its maximum contraction force;
b) the contraction speed;
c) whether or not the muscle contractions are ‘concentric’ or ‘eccentric’;
d) whether or not the muscle contactions are isometric or isotonic;
e) whether or not the muscle contractions are single or tetanic.
а) its maximum contraction force;
The motor units of the skeletal muscles are composed of:
а) fast- and slow-twitch muscle fibres;
b) type 1 and type 2 muscle fibres;
c) type 1 and type 2b (white) fibres;
d) uniform fibre typе;
e) three different types of muscle fibres.
d) uniform fibre typе;
The blocker of N-cholinoreceptors in the neuromuscular synapse is:
а) curare;
b) glycine;
c) GAMA;
d) аtropine;
e) strychnine.
а) curare;
The ‘master gland’ of the endocrine system is:
a) the anterior pituitary gland;
b) the posterior pituitary gland;
c) the hypothalamus;
d) the pancreas;
e) the testis.
c) the hypothalamus;
Insulin:
a) increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by muscle and adipose-tissue cells;
b) increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by most nerve cells;
c) increases the uptake of glucose by liver cells;
d) increases the uptake of glucose by enterocytes;
e) increases the uptake of glucose by tubular cells.
a) increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by muscle and adipose-tissue cells;
Glucose levels in the blood are lowered by the hormone:
a) glucagon;
b) oxytocin;
c) insulin;
d) cholecystokinin;
e) adrenalin.
c) insulin;
Hormones:
a) act as coenzymes;
b) act as enzymes;
c) influence synthesis of enzymes;
d) belong to the B-complex group;
e) transmit impulses.
c) influence synthesis of enzymes;
A hormone released from the anterior pituitary is:
a) growth hormone;
b) vasopressin;
c) oxytocin;
d) epinephrine;
e) insulin.
a) growth hormone;
A hormone released from the posterior pituitary is:
a) prolactin;
b) thyrotropic hormone;
c) vasopressin;
d) adrenocorticotropic hormone;
e) growth hormone.
c) vasopressin;
Progesterone is produced mainly by the:
a) corpus luteum;
b) hypothalamus;
c) seminiferous tubules;
d) pituitary gland;
e) oviduct.
a) corpus luteum;
Ovulation is caused by preovulatory increase of the hormone:
a) FSH;
b) progesterone;
c) oxytocin;
d) oestrogen;
e) LH.
e) LH.
In humans, fertilization usually occurs in the:
a) vagina;
b) cervix;
c) uterine cavity;
d) uterine tubes;
e) abdominal cavity.
d) uterine tubes;
Excessive secretion of aldosterone causes:
a) hyponatremia;
b) hypertension;
c) alkalosis;
d) polyuria;
e) all of the above.
b) hypertension;
The hormone responsible for setting the basal metabolic rate is:
a) melanin;
b) melatonin;
c) insulin;
d) thyroxine;
e) glucagon.
d) thyroxine;
Which is the hormone with the fastest final effect?
a) triiodothyronine;
b) thyroxin;
c) thyroglobulin;
d) TSH;
e) TSH-RH.
a) triiodothyronine;
ADH is secreted in case of:
a) hyperglycaemia;
b) hypervolemia;
c) decreased blood osmolarity;
d) muscle relaxation;
e) dehydration.
e) dehydration.
Which of the following will increase plasma potassium concentration:
a) -adrenergic receptor agonist;
b) insulin;
c) aldosterone;
d) epinephrine;
e) none of the above.
e) none of the above.
The hypothalamus inhibits the release of:
a) TSH;
b) ACTH;
c) FSH;
d) somatotrophic hormone;
e) oxytocin.
d) somatotrophic hormone;
Oxytocin causes:
a) decrease in systolic blood pressure;
b) water intoxication;
c) increase in cardiac pressure;
d) increase in systolic blood pressure;
e) all of the above.
a) decrease in systolic blood pressure;
ADH secretion is decreased by:
a) morphine;
b) nicotine;
c) nausea and vomiting;
d) hypoxia;
e) alcohol.
e) alcohol.
Secondary amenorrhoea can most commonly be caused under the following conditions EXCEPT:
a) age above 60 years;
b) stress;
c) pregnancy;
d) competitive athletes;
е) starvation.
a) age above 60 years;
Hormones of the hypothalamus secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
are:
a) GH and LH;
b) CRH and TRH;
c) ADH and oxytocin;
d) ADH and vasopressin;
e) prolactin and vasopressin.
c) ADH and oxytocin;
Neurohormones of the hypothalamus that inhibit hormone
secretion by the anterior pituitary gland are:
a) histamine, serotonin, bradikinin;
b) endorphin, enkephalin, growth hormone-releasing hormone;
c) growth hormone inhibiting hormone, prolactin-inhibiting hormone,
melanocyteinhibiting hormone;
d) vasopressin, oxytocin, ADH;
e) motilin, gastrin, growth hormone-inhibiting hormone.
c) growth hormone inhibiting hormone, prolactin-inhibiting hormone,
Hormones of the anterior pituitary gland with effect on definite glands
are:
a) ADH, oxytocin, vasopressin, prolactin;
b) ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH;
c) ACTH, cortisol, dehydroepiandrosterone;
d) FSH, LH, estrogens, progesterone;
e) TSH, T3, T4, calcitonin.
b) ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH;
In the hypothalamus is not formed;
a) oxytocin;
b) growth hormone-inhibiting hormone;
c) luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH);
d) growth hormone (GH);
e) ADH.
d) growth hormone (GH);
Everything is true for ADH except that:
a) it increases diuresis;
b) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland;
c) hyperosmolarity increases ADH secretion;
d) is a vasoconstrictor;
e) is formed in the hypothalamus.
a) it increases diuresis;
Contractility of the uterus is increased by:
a) testosterone;
b) oxytocin;
c) aldosteron;
d) progesterone;
e) prolactin.
b) oxytocin;
The growth hormone (GH):
a) exerts anabolic effect;
b) exerts catabolic effect;
c) is secreted by the posterior pituitary effect;
d) is secreted by the hypothalamus;
e) none of the above.
a) exerts anabolic effect;
Iodine containing (+) and iodine not containing (-) hormones of the
thyroid gland are:
a) triiodothyronine (+ ), thyroxine (+), TSH (-);
b) TSH (+), thyroxine (+), parathyroid hormone (-);
c) triiodothyronine (+), TSH (+), calcitonin (-);
d) triiodothironine (+), thyroxine (+), calcitonin (-);
e) none of the above.
d) triiodothironine (+), thyroxine (+), calcitonin (-);
Which of the following hormones exerts no effect on growth:
a) testosterone;
b) iodine containing hormones;
c) insulin;
d) vasopressin;
e) GH.
d) vasopressin;
The basic metabolic rate is increased by:
a) the growth hormone and insulin;
b) the iodine-containing hormones and catecholamines;
c) the mineralcorticoids and glucocorticoids;
d) the iodine-containing hormones and insulin;
e) the LH and FSH.
b) the iodine-containing hormones and catecholamines
Humoral factors regulating calcium-phosphorus metabolism are:
a) parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, insulin;
b) calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, calcitriol;
c) vitamin D, T3, T4;
d) FSH, progesterone, oxytocin;
e) none of the above.
b) calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, calcitriol;
The following hormones are secreted by the pancreas:
a) insulin, somatostatin, epinephrin, trypsinogen;
b) insulin, glucagon, gastrin, somatostatin;
c) insulin, glucagon, gastrin, lipase;
d) glucagon, glucose, trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen;
e) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, aldosterone.
b) insulin, glucagon, gastrin, somatostatin;
Insulin increases the rate of glucose entering into:
a) the skeletal muscle cells;
b) most of brain’s neurons;
c) tubular cells of kidneys;
d) small intestine’s mucous cells;
e) liver.
a) the skeletal muscle cells;
The suprarenal medula secretes:
a) aldosteron, cortisol;
b) epinephrine; norepinephrine;
c) insillin, glucagon;
d) dehydroepiandrosterone, progesterone;
e) renin, angiotensin II.
b) epinephrine; norepinephrine;
The suprarenal cortex secretes:
a) cateclolamines, androgens, iodine containing hormones;
b) glucocorticoids, aldosteron, gastrin;
c) mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids, sex hormones;
d) aldosteron, ADH, renin;
e) none of the above.
c) mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids, sex hormones;
Aldosteron:
a) increases Na+ and K+ excretion;
b) decreases Na+ and K+ excretion;
c) increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion;
d) increases Na+ excretion and K+ reabsorption;
e) none of the above.
c) increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion;
The excretion of sodium is increased by:
a) atrial natriuretic peptide;
b) aldosteron;
c) dehydroepiandrostetone;
d) renin;
e) angiotensin II.
a) atrial natriuretic peptide;
Glucocorticoids decrease the level of:
a) neutrophils and basophils;
b) eosinophils and lymphocytes;
c) monocytes and neutrophils;
d) eosinophils and thrombocytes;
e) none of the ahove.
b) eosinophils and lymphocytes
Hormones that have a hyperglycemic effect are:
a) GH, catecholacholamines;
b) triiodothyronine, thyroxine;
c) glucagon, glucocorticoids;
d) all of them;
e) none of the above.
d) all of them;
Catecholamines are:
a) hormones;
b) neurotransmitters;
c) neuromodulators;
d) all of the above;
e) none of the above.
d) all of the above;
Which are the male sex hormones and where is their main site of secretion:
a) progesteron (adrenal glands), estrogens (adrenal glands);
b) testosterone (testis), dehydroepiandrosterone (adrenal glands);
c) estrogens (placenta), testosterone (testis);
d) dehydroepiandrosterone (adrenal glands), prolactin (testis);
e) none of the above.
b) testosterone (testis), dehydroepiandrosterone (adrenal glands);
Which of the hormones are gestagens and where are they secreted:
a) progesterone (ovaries, placenta);
b) prolactin (ovaries);
c) prostaglandins (ovaries, placenta);
d) estradiol (ovaries);
e) none of the above.
a) progesterone (ovaries, placenta);
Absolutely necessary for the normal spermatogenesis is/are:
a) LH only;
b) FSH only;
c) testosterone and FSH;
d) oxytocin and testosterone;
e) androgens and LH.
d) oxytocin and testosterone;
Immediately before ovulation there is an increase of the serum level of:
a) LH;
b) oxitocin;
c) prolactin;
d) estrogens;
e) progesterone.
a) LH;
The tests for early pregnancy are based on the presence in the urine of:
a) LH;
b) FSH;
c) estradiol;
d) progesterone;
e) human horiongonadotropins (hHGs).
e) human horiongonadotropins (hHGs).
The normal duration of the menstrual period is (days):
a) 21 – 31;
b) 28;
c) 20 – 25;
d) 28 – 30;
e) none of the above.
a) 21 – 31;
During stress the level of glucose is increased because of:
a) the level of glucocorticoids is increased;
b) the level of epinephrine is increased;
c) depressed secretion of insulin;
d) all of the above;
e) none of the above.
d) all of the above;
The parathyroid glands secrete:
a) calcitonin;
b) calcium;
c) parathyroid hormone;
d) vitamin D;
e) catecholamines.
c) parathyroid hormone;
Spasm of the bronchi occurs when:
a) the level of catecholamines is increased;
b) the level of histamine is increased;
c) the level of glucocorticoids is increased;
d) the level of GH is increased;
e) the level of angiotensin II is increased.
b) the level of histamine is increased;
The reason iodine is in table salt is:
a) to prevent diabetes;
b) to prevent endemic goiter;
c) to prevent Addison’s disease;
d) to prevent Cushing syndrome;
e) to prevent osteoporosis.
b) to prevent endemic goiter
Which of the following hormones have no lipolytic effect:
a) insulin;
b) glucocorticoids;
c) testosterone;
d) cortisol;
e) growth hormone.
a) insulin;
A feeling of anxiety is caused by:
a) glucagon;
b) insulin;
c) epinephrine (adrenalin);
d) adrenocorticotropic hormone;
e) none of the above.
c) epinephrine (adrenalin);
All hormones react to a negative feedback except:
a) progesterone;
b) estrogen;
c) prolactin;
d) oxytocin;
e) none of the above.
d) oxytocin;
A high blood calcium level may be due to:
a) calcitonin;
b) parathyroid hormone;
c) glucocorticoids;
d) glucagon;
e) testosterone.
b) parathyroid hormone;
Lipid hormones derived from cholesterol are:
a) proteins;
b) amino acids;
c) polypeptides;
d) steroids;
e) eicosanoids.
d) steroids;
This type of hormone must bind to a receptor protein on the plasma
membrane of the cell:
a) water soluble and polypeptide;
b) lipid soluble;
c) steroid;
d) polypeptide and lipid soluble;
e) steroid and lipid soluble.
a) water soluble and polypeptide;
Endocrine glands release hormones in response to:
a) hormones from other endocrine glands;
b) chemical characteristics of the blood;
c) neural stimulation;
d) all of the above;
e) none of the above.
d) all of the above;
The anterior pituitary secretes:
a) oxytocin;
b) endorphins;
c) ADH;
d) TRH (thyreoliberin);
e) catecholamines.
b) endorphins;
This hormone is only produced normally in the body when a woman is
pregnant:
a) estrogen;
b) choriongonadotropic hormone;
c) progesterone;
d) FSH;
e) LH.
b) choriongonadotropic hormone;
Contractions of the uterus are stimulated by the release of:
a) oxytocin;
b) FSH;
c) LH;
d) prolactin;
e) estrogen.
a) oxytocin;
Gland which shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that
function in the maturation of T-lymphocytes:
a) lymph nodes;
b) thymus;
c) spleen;
d) GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue);
e) tonsils.
b) thymus;
Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) secretion increases:
a) when the median eminence of the hypothalamus is stimulated;
b) when cortisol blood levels fall;
c) in bursts during the night as the normal hour of wakening
approaches;
d) following severe trauma;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Melatonin
a) is produced mainly in the pineal gland;
b) is synthesized in the body from serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine);
c) blood levels are highest during the night;
d) influences the secretion rates of pituitary hormones;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Thyroid hormones, when secreted in excess, may cause an increase in
the:
a) basal metabolic rate;
b) frequency of defaecation;
c) energy expenditure required for a given workload;
d) heart rate when cardiac adrenergic and cholinergic receptors are
blocked;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Aldosterone secretion is increased by an increase in plasma of:
a) angiotensin II concentration;
b) potassium concentration;
c) renin concentration;
d) ACTH concentration;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Glucocorticoid injections lead to increases in:
a) lymph gland size;
b) fibroblastic activity;
c) anabolic activity in muscle;
d) bone resorption;
e) inflammation and immunity.
d) bone resorption;
The growth hormone:
a) promotes positive nitrogen and phosphorus balance;
b) secretion is under hypothalamic control;
c) secretion surges during sleep;
d) stimulates the liver to secrete somatomedins which regulate bone
and cartilage growth;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Parathormone:
a) acts directly on bone to increase bone resorption;
b) increases the urinary output of calcium;
c) increases phosphate excretion;
d) promotes absorption of calcium from the intestines;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin):
a) is released from nerve endings in the posterior pituitary gland;
b) tends to raise the osmolality of plasma;
c) increases the permeability of the cells to water in the loop of Henle;
d) secretion is little affected (less than 10%) by changes in plasma
osmolality;
e) decreases water reabsorbtion in kidneys.
a) is released from nerve endings in the posterior pituitary gland;
Pancreatic glucagon:
a) is produced by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans;
b) is a polypeptide;
c) output is inversely proportional to the blood glucose level;
d) increases the breakdown of liver glycogen;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The concentration of ionized calcium in plasma is:
a) the main regulator of parathormone secretion;
b) about 50 % of the total plasma calcium concentration;
c) reduced when plasma pH rises;
d) independent of the plasma albumin changes;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Cortisol:
a) is bound to an alpha globulin in the plasma;
b) injections lead to a rise in arterial pressure;
c) inhibits release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland;
d) is released with a circadian variation so that cortisol blood levels
peak in the morning;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Releasing hormones produced in the hypothalamus:
a) are secreted by cells in the median eminence;
b) pass down blood vessel to reach the pituitary gland;
c) may control the output of more than one pituitary hormone;
d) regulate the release of thyrotropin;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Adrenaline secretion from the adrenal glands increases the:
a) blood glucose level;
b) blood free fatty acid level;
c) blood flow to skeletal muscle;
d) release of renin in the kidneys;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion is increased:
a) after partial removal of the thyroid gland;
b) in infants born without a thyroid gland;
c) during cold seasons;
d) when the diet is deficient in iodine;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Insulin:
a) secretion is decreased by sympathetic nerve activity;
b) facilitates entry of glucose into skeletal muscle;
c) facilitates entry of amino acids into skeletal muscle;
d) secretion is increased by vagal nerve activity;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The pituitary gland:
a) regulates activity in all other endocrine glands;
b) output of oxytocin is regulated by hypothalamic releasing factors;
c) responds to nervous and hormonal influences from the brain;
d) secretes antidiuretic hormone when blood osmolality falls;
e) does not secrete melanotropin.
c) responds to nervous and hormonal influences from the brain;
Thyrocalcitonin:
a) is produced by the follicular cells of the thyroid gland;
b) increases basal metabolic rate;
c) reduces blood calcium in parathyroidectomized animals;
d) secretion occurs when the blood phosphate level rises;
e) stimulates osteoclast activity.
c) reduces blood calcium in parathyroidectomized animals;
Adrenaline differs from noradrenaline in that it:
a) increases the heart rate when injected intravenously;
b) is the main catecholamine secreted by the adrenal medulla;
c) is a more potent dilator of the bronchi;
d) dilates blood vessels in mucous membranes;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Growth hormone secretion:
a) increases when the blood glucose level falls;
b) has a lactogenic effect;
c) increases the size of viscera;
d) stimulates liver production of somatomedins;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Vitamin D:
a) increases the intestinal absorption of calcium;
b) is essential for normal calcification of bones in childhood;
c) requires hepatic modification for activation;
d) deficiency may result in hyperparathyroidism;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Prolactin:
a) has a similar chemical structure and physiological action to luteinizing
hormone;
b) is responsible for breast growth in puberty;
c) release is inhibited by dopamine;
d) secretion is inhibited by suckling of the breast;
e) causes ejection of milk by the breast during suckling.
c) release is inhibited by dopamine;
Thyroxine:
a) increases the resting rate of carbon dioxide production;
b) is essential for normal development of the brain;
c) is essential for normal red cell production;
d) acts more slowly than triiodothyronine (T3);
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Parathormone:
a) increases the renal clearance of phosphate;
b) mobilizes bone calcium independently of its actions on the kidney;
c) in the blood rises when the calcium level falls;
d) stimulates the final activation of vitamin D (cholecalciferol) in the
kidney;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The chemical structure of insulin:
a) contains a sterol ring;
b) is identical in all mammalian species;
c) is such that it is effective when taken by mouth;
d) has been synthesized in the laboratory;
e) none of the above.
d) has been synthesized in the laboratory;
Hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex:
a) include cholesterol;
b) are mostly bound to plasma proteins;
c) include cateholamines;
d) are excreted mainly in the bile after conjugation;
e) are essential for the maintenance of pregnancy.
b) are mostly bound to plasma proteins;
Androgen binding protein is produced by:
a) adrenals;
b) hypothalamus;
c) Sertoli cells;
d) Leydig cells;
е) ovaries.
c) Sertoli cells;
Secretin differs from cholecystokinin-pancreozymin (CCK-PZ) in that
it:
a) is formed by mucosal cells in the upper small intestine;
b) stimulates the pancreas to secrete a juice which is rich in digestive
enzymes;
c) stimulates the pancreas to secrete a watery alkaline juice;
d) has higher effect on gallbladder smooth muscle;
e) increases gastric motility.
c) stimulates the pancreas to secrete a watery alkaline juice;
Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) decreases the:
a) formation of angiotensin II;
b) plasma renin level;
c) diuresis;
d) circulating level of angiotensin I;
e) total body potassium.
a) formation of angiotensin II;
Early detection of pregnancy depends on detection of:
a) FSH;
b) progesteron;
c) LH;
d) hCG;
e) estrogen.
d) hCG;
Sudden complete loss of parathyroid function:
a) leads to skeletal muscle spasms;
b) may be fatal if treatment is not given to raise the blood level of
Ionized calcium;
c) may be treated in the short-term by slow intravenous injection of
calcium ions;
d) may be treated in the long-term by regular doses of vitamin D;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
When a patient with diabetes insipidus is treated successfully with
antidiuretic hormone the:
a) urinary flow rate should fall by about 50 per cent;
b) urinary output should be reduced to around 5 ml/minute;
c) urinary osmolality should rise to between 100 and 200 mOS/litre;
d) blood pressure should stabilize within the normal range;
e) salt intake should be carefully regulated.
d) blood pressure should stabilize within the normal range;
Hyperthyroidism is associated with a:
a) positive nitrogen balance;
b) decreased urinary excretion of calcium;
c) clinical picture consistent with excessive beta adrenoceptor stimulation;
d) decreased basal metabolic rate;
e) rise in the level of thyroxine-binding protein in plasma.
c) clinical picture consistent with excessive beta adrenoceptor stimulation;
Insulin:
a) requirements at night are similar to those during the day;
b) half-life is usually reduced in patients with diabetes mellitus;
c) is not bound to proteins in the blood;
d) requirements are increased in obesity;
e) requirements are increased by exercise.
d) requirements are increased in obesity;
An adrenal medullary tumour (phaeochromocytoma) may cause an
increase in:
a) systolic blood pressure which may be transient or constant;
b) tremor of the extended hand;
c) basal metabolic rate;
d) urinary catecholamines;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The risk of tetany is increased by:
a) hypocalcemia;
b) sudden rises in plasma magnesium;
c) removal of the anterior pituitary gland;
d) the onset of respiratory failure;
e) the onset of renal failure.
a) hypocalcemia;
Excessive glucocorticoid production (Cushing’s syndrome) causes an
increase in:
a) skin thickness;
b) bone strength;
c) blood glucose and arterial pressure;
d) immunity;
e) the rate of wound healing.
c) blood glucose and arterial pressure;
A pituitary tumour secreting excess growth hormone (GH) in an adult
may lead to:
a) myxoedema;
b) giantism;
c) reduced levels of somatomedins in blood;
d) cretinism;
e) raised blood glucose level.
e) raised blood glucose level
In diabetic ketosis there is a decreased metabolic breakdown of:
a) ketones;
b) glycogen;
c) glucose;
d) fat;
e) amino acids.
c) glucose;
An oral glucose tolerance test in a patient with:
a) diabetes mellitus shows a higher than normal fasting blood glucose
level;
b) diabetes mellitus shows glycosuria when blood glucose is three
times the normal fasting level;
c) diabetes mellitus shows a delayed return to the fasting blood
glucose level;
d) malabsorption syndrome shows a lower than normal peak level for
blood glucose;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above
Surgical removal of the pituitary gland is likely to lead to a decrease in:
a) menstrual frequency;
b) axillary hair;
c) sexual desire (libido);
d) breast size;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
In the normal menstrual cycle:
a) the proliferative phase depends on oestrogen secretion;
b) cervical mucus becomes more fluid around the time of ovulation;
d) ovulation is observed after a surge in blood luteinizing hormone level;
e) basal body temperature is higher after ovulation;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Fertilization of the human ovum normally:
a) occurs in the fallopian tubes;
b) prevents further spermatozoa from entering the ovum;
c) occurs 5–7 days before implantation;
d) leads to the secretion of human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
within two weeks;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Secretion of testosterone:
a) depresses pituitary secretion of LH;
b) causes the epiphyses of long bones to unite;
c) may lead to a positive nitrogen balance;
d) stimulates growth of body hair;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Human chorionic gonadotrophic hormone (hCG):
a) is a steroid;
b) acts directly on the uterus to maintain the endometrium;
c) is formed in the anterior pituitary;
d) rises its blood level steadily throughout pregnancy;
e) can be detected in the urine as an early sign of pregnancy.
e) can be detected in the urine as an early sign of pregnancy.
Compared with the adult, the newborn has less ability to:
a) excrete bilirubin;
b) maintain a constant body temperature;
c) manufacture antibodies;
d) dilute and concentrate urine;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Androgens are secreted in the:
a) fetus in greater quantities than in early childhood;
b) female by the ovary;
c) male by the adrenal cortex;
d) male in decreasing quantities after the age of 30;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
Cryptorchidism means:
a) descent of the testicles;
b) hypogonadism;
c) hyperfunction of the testicles;
d) undescended testicles;
е) priapism.
d) undescended testicles;
Fetal haemoglobin:
a) is the only type identifiable in fetal blood;
b) forms the bulk of total haemoglobin for the first year of life;
c) has a higher oxygen-carrying capacity than adult haemoglobin;
d) binds 2.3-DPG more avidly than does adult haemoglobin;
e) has a higher affinity than the adult form for oxygen at low pO2.
e) has a higher affinity than the adult form for oxygen at low pO2.
For normal development and fertility of spermatozoa there must be:
a) secretion of testosterone;
b) secretion of luteinizing hormone;
c) secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone;
d) a testicular temperature under 37oC;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
In the mammary glands:
a) milk formation can be depressed by hypothalamic activity;
b) maintenance of lactation depends on suckling;
c) lactation ceases if the anterior pituitary gland is destroyed;
d) milk ejection ceases if the posterior pituitary gland is destroyed;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The male postpubertal state differs from the prepubertal in that:
a) there is a greater output of l7-ketosteroids in the urine;
b) skeletal muscle is stronger per unit mass of tissue;
c) the circulating level of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is higher;
d) hypothalamic output of gonadotrophin-releasing factors is greater;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
