physiological and pharm Domain quiz

Question 1

The drug Ritalin inhibits the reuptake of which neurotransmitter

A.
serotonin

B.
dopamine

C.
GABA

D.
acetylcholine

Answer 1

B
Ritalin (methylphenidate) blocks dopamine reuptake. Ritalin is used to treat children with ADHD.

Answer A: SSRIs block the reuptake of serotonin. Examples of SSRI medication include fluoxetine, escitalopram, and sertraline.

Answer C: Some examples of drugs that inhibit the action of GABA include securinine and metrazol, and benzodiazepines.

Answer D: In the peripheral nervous system, acetylcholine (ACh) is released into the neuromuscular junction where it causes muscles to contract. In the central nervous system, ACh is involved in REM sleep, the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle, and learning and memory.

Question 2

What term is defined as “the study of the relationship between physical stimulus magnitudes and their corresponding psychological sensations”?

A.
parapsychology

B.
psychophysics

C.
pharmacokinetics

D.
synesthesia

Answer 2

The correct answer is B.

The question describes psychophysics. Several psychophysical laws have been developed including Weber’s Law, Fechner’s Law, and Steven’s Power Law.

Answers A, C, and D: See rationale for Answer A.

Question 3

: _______ is specialized for the control of fine movements, such as moving one finger at a time.
Select one:

A.
precentral gyrus

B.
prefrontal cortex

C.
caudate nucleus
Incorrect

D.
hippocampus

Answer 3

The correct answer is A.

The precentral gyrus is called the somatomotor cortex because it controls volitional movements of the contralateral side of the body.—

Answer B: The prefrontal cortex is the brain region that has been implicated in planning complex cognitive behavior, personality expression, decision making, and moderating social behavior.

Answer C: The caudate nucleus functions not only in planning the execution of movement but also in learning, memory, reward, motivation, emotion, and romantic interaction.

Answer D: The hippocampus is a complex brain structure embedded within the temporal lobe. It has a major role in learning and memory.

Question 4

receptor blocker

Answer 4

Receptor blockers are also known as direct antagonists. It is a type of ligand or drug that avoids or dampens a biological reaction. When binding to the receptor, it does not activate it, rather, it tends to block the particular receptor.

Question 5

Question ID #14018: A drug that binds with a receptor but does not activate it is called a ________.

Question ID #14018: A drug that binds with a receptor but does not activate it is called a ________.
Select one:

A.
indirect agonist

B.
receptor blocker

C.
indirect antagonist

D.
inverse agonist

Answer 5

The correct answer is B.

Receptor blockers are also known as direct antagonists. It is a type of ligand or drug that avoids or dampens a biological reaction. When binding to the receptor, it does not activate it, rather, it tends to block the particular receptor.

Answer A: An indirect agonist is a drug that attaches to a binding site on a receptor and facilitates the action of the receptor.

Answer C: An indirect antagonist is a drug that attaches to a binding site on a receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor.

Answer D: An inverse agonist produces an effect opposite to the effect produced by a neurotransmitter or an agonist.

Question 6

Question ID #14019: Which structures are included in Papez’s circuit?
Select one:

A.
mammillary bodies, basal ganglia, and circle of wilis

B.
hippocampus, mammillary bodies, and thalamus

C.
hippocampus, cingulate gyrus, and hypothalamus

D.
putamen, cingulate gyrus, and amygdala

Answer 6

The correct answer is B.

Papez’s circuit mediates the experience and expression of emotion. It includes the hippocampus, mammillary bodies, anterior nuclei of the thalamus, and the cingulate gyrus.

Answers A, C, and D: See rationale for Answer B.

circle of wilis (stroke)
mammillary bodies (emotion and memory)

Question 7

Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder characterized by

Answer 7

tremors, muscular rigidity, akathisia, and speech difficulties.

Question 8

Huntington’s disease

Answer 8

includes symptoms of anxiety, depression, apathy, fidgeting, facial grimaces, and forgetfulness.

Question 9

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

Answer 9

includes mental confusion, abnormal eye movements, ataxia, and amnesia.

Question 10

Temporal lobe damage causes which of the following

A.
contralateral neglect

B.
apraxia

C.
receptive aphasia

D.
ataxia

Answer 10

The correct answer is C.

Damage to the temporal lobe may result in receptive aphasia (Wernicke) (difficulty understanding spoken language), difficulty learning and retaining new information, in addition to disturbances in selective attention.

Answer A: Contralateral neglect involves a deficit in attention paid to one side of the visual field, usually the side that is contralateral to the damage.

Answer B: Apraxia is the inability to perform particular purposeful actions.

Answer D: Ataxia refers to the loss of muscle control and balance.

Question 11

The _______ controls the flow of information between the spinal cord and the brain.
Select one:

A.
thalamus

B.
medulla

C.
cerebellum

D.
central nervous system

Answer 11

The medulla is a structure in the hindbrain that controls the flow of information between the spinal cord and the brain. It also regulates a number of vital functions including heartbeat, breathing, and blood pressure.

Thalamus - relay

Question 12

Which of the following disease is characterized by uncontrollable jerking movements, writhing movements, and dementia?

A.
Huntington’s disease

B.
Parkinson’s disease

C.
Alzheimer’s disease

D.
Tardive Dyskinesia

Answer 12

The correct answer is A.

Huntington’s disease is a fatal inherited disorder that causes degeneration of the caudate nucleus and putamen. The main symptoms include uncontrollable jerking movements, writhing movements, and dementia.

Answer B: Parkinson’s disease is a neurological disease characterized by tremors, rigidity of the limbs, poor balance, and difficulty in initiating movements.

Answer C: Alzheimer’s disease is a degenerative brain disorder that causes progressive memory loss, motor deficits, and eventual death.

Answer D: Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder that can occur after prolonged treatment with antipsychotic medication, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and neck.

Question 13

Sexual maturity occurs when gonadotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by which area of the brain?

Select one:

A.
hippocampus

B.
hypothalamus

C.
adrenal glands

D.
thalamus

Answer 13

The correct answer is B.

Sexual maturity occurs when the hypothalamus begins secreting a gonadotropin-releasing hormone, which stimulates the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone by the anterior pituitary gland.

Answer A: The hippocampus is part of the limbic system and plays a role in regulating motivation, emotion, learning, and memory.

Answer C: The adrenal glands are composed of the cortex and the medulla. They produce hormones that help regulate your metabolism, immune system, blood pressure, and responses to stress.

Answer D: The thalamus has extensive nerve connections to both the cerebral cortex and the midbrain. The main function of the thalamus is to relay motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex.

Question 13

Sexual maturity occurs when gonadotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by which area of the brain?

Select one:

A.
hippocampus

B.
hypothalamus

C.
adrenal glands

D.
thalamus

Answer 13

The correct answer is B.

Sexual maturity occurs when the hypothalamus begins secreting a gonadotropin-releasing hormone, which stimulates the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone by the anterior pituitary gland.

Answer A: The hippocampus is part of the limbic system and plays a role in regulating motivation, emotion, learning, and memory.

Answer C: The adrenal glands are composed of the cortex and the medulla. They produce hormones that help regulate your metabolism, immune system, blood pressure, and responses to stress.

Answer D: The thalamus has extensive nerve connections to both the cerebral cortex and the midbrain. The main function of the thalamus is to relay motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex.

Question 14

Which of the following describes a drug that opposes or inhibits the effects of a particular neurotransmitter on the postsynaptic cell?

A.
receptor blocker

B.
direct agonist

C.
agonist

D.
antagonist

Answer 14

The correct answer is D.

An antagonist is a substance that blocks the action or effect of another substance.

Answer A: A receptor blocker is a drug that binds with a receptor but does not activate it.

Answer B: A direct agonist is a drug that binds with and activates a receptor.

Answer C: An agonist is a drug that facilitates the effects of a particular neurotransmitter on the postsynaptic cell.

Question 15

Which disease is Levodopa (L-Dopa) most commonly used to treat?

Select one:

A.
Alzheimer’s disease

B.
Parkinson’s disease

C.
Huntington’s disease

D.
Tourette Syndrome

Answer 15

The correct answer is B.

L-Dopa is the most effective and commonly used to treat Parkinson’s disease due to its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.

Answer A: Cholinesterase inhibitors are used to treat cognitive symptoms in Alzheimer’s patients.

Answer C: Mediations used to control movements (e.g., tetrabenazine) are associated with Huntington’s disease.

Answer D: Medications that block dopamine are used to treat the symptoms of Tourette Syndrome.

Question 16

Which of the following is directed toward the central nervous system, conveying sensory information?

A.
dorsal root

B.
efferent axon

C.
afferent axon

D.
ventral root

Answer 16

The correct answer is C.

Afferent axons are incoming axons that bring sensory information towards the central nervous system.

Answer A: The dorsal root is the spinal root that contains incoming sensory fibers.

Answer B: Efferent axons are axons that are directed away from the central nervous system, conveying motor commands to muscles and glands.

Answer D: The ventral root is the spinal root that contains outgoing motor fibers.

Efferent (exit the brain)

Question 17

synesthesia

Answer 17

Synesthesia is a rare condition in which the stimulation of one sensory modality triggers a sensation in another sensory area. It is known as “joining senses.” The cause is unknown but it is believed to be due to biological factors.

Question 18

trichromatic theory

Answer 18

The trichromatic theory of color vision says that human eyes only perceive three colors of light: red, blue, and green. The wavelengths of these three colors can be combined to create every color on the visible light spectrum. This theory was first suggested by Thomas Young and later tested by Hermann Von Helmholtz

Question 19

retinal disparity

Question 20

opponent-process theory

Answer 20

 3 types of bipolar receptors: red-green, yellow-blue, and white-black
 Some cells are excited by red and inhibited by green
 Overall stimulation produces the colors

Question 21

Trichromatic theory

Question 22

Lesions in the right (nondominant) hemisphere of the cerebral cortex are most likely to cause which of the following:

A.
exaggerated reactions to benign events

B.
indifference or excessive cheerfulness

C.
excessive fear and anger

D.
decreased talkativeness

Answer 22

The correct answer is B.

Concerning emotions, the left hemisphere of the brain mediates positive emotions, while the right hemisphere mediates negative emotions. Lesions to the right hemisphere produce an opposite effect (e.g., indifference, emotional lability, and atypical humor).

Answer A: Exaggerated reactions to small events is associated with damage to the left hemisphere of the brain.

Answer C: Excessive fear and anger would be appropriate emotions regardless of lesions.

Answer D: Lesions in the right hemisphere often increase talkativeness.

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Question 23

Which disease is due to atrophy and reduced thiamine in the thalamus?

A.
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

B.
Graves’ disease

C.
hypoglycemia

D.
Kluver-Bucy syndrome

Answer 23

The correct answer is A.
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is due to a thiamine deficiency and is usually the result of chronic alcoholism.

Answer B: Grave’s disease (hyperthyroidism) is a result of hypersecretion of thyroxine in the thalamus.

Answer C: Hypoglycemia is caused by excess insulin production in the pancreas.

Answer D: Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a result of lesions in the amygdala and temporal lobes.

Question 24

___________ is caused by an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain.

Select one:

A.
Spina Bifida

B.
Meningitis

C.
Hydrocephalus

D.
Encephalitis

Answer 24

The correct answer is C.

Hydrocephalus is a chronic, neurological condition caused by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), resulting in pressure on the brain.

Answer A: Spina Bifida is a birth defect that occurs when the spine and spinal cord do not form properly.

Answer B: Meningitis is an inflammation (swelling) of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.

Answer D: Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain that is most commonly caused by a viral infection.

Question 25

___________ is caused by an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain.

Select one:

A.
Spina Bifida

B.
Meningitis

C.
Hydrocephalus

D.
Encephalitis

Answer 25

The correct answer is C.

Hydrocephalus is a chronic, neurological condition caused by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), resulting in pressure on the brain.

Answer A: Spina Bifida is a birth defect that occurs when the spine and spinal cord do not form properly.

Answer B: Meningitis is an inflammation (swelling) of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.

Answer D: Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain that is most commonly caused by a viral infection.

Question 26

The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is most responsible for:

A.
muscular contraction

B.
mood regulation

C.
situational responsivity

D.
an inhibitory effect

Answer 26

The correct answer is A.

Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter and plays a key role in signaling nerve and muscle coordination.

Answer B: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that modulates thinking, feeling, and acting.

Answer C: Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that helps regulate the body’s system in response to changing situational demands. It can impact mood, attention, dreaming, learning, and some autonomic functions.

Answer D: Serotonin exerts an inhibitory effect and impacts mood, hunger, arousal, sleep, aggression, and sexual activity.

Question 27

Which limbic brain structure is important for spatial and explicit memory and the consolidation of declarative memories?
A.
amygdala

B.
hypothalamus

C.
hippocampus

D.
cingulate cortex

Answer 27

The correct answer is C.
The hippocampus is a limbic system structure that is important for spatial and explicit memory and the consolidation of declarative memories.

Answer A: The amygdala is a limbic system structure but its primary role is related to emotions.

Answer B: The hypothalamus is not a part of the limbic system and its role is with hunger, thirst, sex, sleep, movement, and body temperature.

Answer D: The cingulate cortex is a limbic system structure but its primary role is with attention, emotion, and the experience of pain.

Question 28

Which limbic brain structure is important for spatial and explicit memory and the consolidation of declarative memories?
A.
amygdala

B.
hypothalamus

C.
hippocampus

D.
cingulate cortex

Answer 28

The correct answer is C.
The hippocampus is a limbic system structure that is important for spatial and explicit memory and the consolidation of declarative memories.

Answer A: The amygdala is a limbic system structure but its primary role is related to emotions.

Answer B: The hypothalamus is not a part of the limbic system and its role is with hunger, thirst, sex, sleep, movement, and body temperature.

Answer D: The cingulate cortex is a limbic system structure but its primary role is with attention, emotion, and the experience of pain.

Question 29

A process where messages within a neuron are transmitted from a neuron’s dendrites to the end of its axon is called:

hyperpolarization

B.
polarization

C.
depolarization

D.
conduction

Question 30

Soon after starting an antidepressant, a woman develops several negative side effects including dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and blurred vision. Which of the following would alleviate these symptoms?