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EPPP > Physio and Psycho > Flashcards

Physio and Psycho Flashcards

1
Q

Medulla Function

A

Mouth and throat movements, respiration, hr, bp, injury = death

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2
Q

Pons

A

connects halves of cerebellum, relays info for movement, deep sleep, respiration, REM

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3
Q

Cerebellum

A

posture, balance, voluntary movements, procedure and implicit memories
attention, language and visual

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4
Q

what does damage to the cerebellum cause

A

ataxia (symptoms of intoxication)

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5
Q

Reticular Formation

A

coordination of eye movements and pain control

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6
Q

The RAS is part of what brain region and what does it do?

A

Reticular formation; mediates consciousness/ arousal, sleep wake and alerts to sensory signals

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7
Q

what is the reward seeking part of the brain and what else does it do

A

the substantia nigra, has motor control via the basal ganglia

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8
Q

degeneration of dopamine producing cells in the substantia nigra can cause

A

parkinson like symptoms

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9
Q

studies used electrical stimulation to show the contribution of what brain part to emotions

A

hypothalamus

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10
Q

the hypothalamus produces mammilary bodies, what is their role

A

memory and SCN (bodies bio clock)

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11
Q

what does GnRh do

A

regulates functions of the testes/ ovaries

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12
Q

what is the difference between oxytocin and vasopressin in the posterior pituitary

A

oxytocin: contractions and lactation, vasopressin: water balance via kidneys

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13
Q

what mental health disorders can Oxytocin help with

A

ASD, schizophrenia, disorders that involve deficits in recognition of emotions and facial expressions

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14
Q

which brain function is responsible for transmitting all sensory info, coordination of sensory/motor functioning, language, speech and declarative memory

A

Thalamus (relay station)

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15
Q

which condition is due to thiamine deficiency and how does that effect it

A

Korsakoff is due to thiamine deficiency that damages neuron’s in thalamus and mammillary bodies.

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16
Q

What is included in the stratum and what is it a part of

A

the stratum is part of the basic ganglia and has the caudate nucleus, putamen and nucleus accumbent to receive info from the cerebral but the globes pallid us transmits info to thalamus

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17
Q

what function does the basal ganglia have

A

initiation and control of voluntary movements, procedural and habit learning, cog functioning and emotions

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18
Q

mood disorders, schizo, adhd, ocd, Huntington’s and Parkinson’s have been related to damage in which area

A

basal ganglia

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19
Q

What is the role of the amygdala

A

fear, acquisition of conditioned fear, evaluation of emotional significance of events, recognizing emotions in facial expressions

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21
Q

how is PTSD related to the amygdala

A

associated with abnormal functioning and hyperactivity in the amygdale which produces distressing memories however hyperactivity of VPC can reduce normal regulation of activity

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21
Q

What is kluver-bucy syndrome

A

bilateral legions on amygdala, hippocampus and temporal lobes in monkeys led to hyperreality, reduced fear, hyper sexuality, blindness

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22
Q

The ___ is linked to motivation, memory and emotions to pain. Damage people can experience pain but cant____

A

cingulate cortex and not be emotionally distressed by the pain

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23
Q

Which brain region transfers declarative memories from short - long term

A

Hippocampus

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24
Q

damage in what cells and what cortex lead to impairments in episodic and spatial memory that is liked to Alzheimer’s

A

hippocampus cells and the entorhinal cortex (gateway for information entering and leaving the hippocampus

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25
Q

increases in cortisol levels in the hippocampus has the ability to do what

A

impair the retrieval of declarative memories

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26
Q

Brocas area is responsible for language so brocas aphasia is:

A

slow, laboured speech of nouns and verbs, impaired repetition and anomia (inability to recall names of familiar objects. comprehension of written and spoken language is intact

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27
Q

The prefrontal cortex is made up of what three areas and what are their functions

A

Orbiofrontal cortex: emotion regulation, social behaviour, damage causes poor impulse and social control

Ventromedial prefrontal: decision making, memory, emotion, damage causes poor decision making and confabulation

dorsolateral prefrontal: executive functions, damage causes concrete thinking and impair judgment and planning, apathy

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28
Q

what is confabulation and what two areas affect it

A

filling memory gaps with false information, the thalamus and ventromedial prefrontal

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29
Q

What does it mean to be somatotypically organized

A

it means that each part of the supplementary motor cortex is controlled by a specific cortical area

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30
Q

What is in the temporal lobe

A

auditory cortex: damage causes hallucinations and deafness

Wernickes aphasia: impaired comprehension of language. speech is fluid but contains word substitutions and is devoid of meaning

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31
Q

What are the three somatosensory agnosias

A

tactile: cant recognize items by touch. asomatognosia: lack of recognition of ones body. anosognosia: denial of ones illness

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32
Q

Damage to the left parietal lobe is linked to ideational apraxia, ideomotor apraxia and ____ syndrome

A

Gerstmanns syndrome: right left disorientation, loss of writing skills (agrophia) and loss of arithmetic skills (acalculia)

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33
Q

What is cortical blindness and the forms of blindsight

A

when the primary visual cortex is damaged but eyes and nerve are intact. blindsight is when people don’t see a stimulus but have an appropriate behavioural response to it. affective blindsight is when they respond emotionally correct

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34
Q

what is the inability to recognize faces of familiar people and what causes it

A

Prosopagnosia and lesions on occipital ltemporal junction

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35
Q

The PNS transmits signals between the CNS and ___

A

body

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36
Q

Sensory info is transmitted to the CNS via ____ then to the skeletal muscles

A

SNS

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37
Q

the ANS transmits signals between the ___ and ____

A

smooth muscle organs and the CNS

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38
Q

the AND consists of the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic, which is the role of each

A

Symp: fight or flight response, pupil dilation, digestion, sexual activity
Para: rest and relaxation, return to pre emergency state

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39
Q

Sympathetic is to erection and parasympathetic is to____

A

ejaculation

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40
Q

Prior to stimulation, the inside of a neuron is ____

A

negative, sodium then makes it positive

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41
Q

Regarding neuroplasticity, homologus is

A

response to early damage, brain functions switch to corresponding area in other hemisphere

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42
Q

Regarding neuroplasticity, cross model reassignment

A

brain area responsible for processing sensory input is derived of input and function of area changes

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43
Q

Regarding neuroplasticity, map expansion

A

enlargement of functioning region as the result of practice which recruits neurons from a broader area (learning a new skill)

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44
Q

Regarding neuroplasticity, compensatory masquerade

A

no longer able to perform a task using cognitive processes mediated by damage, so it uses other processes

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45
Q

ACh causes muscles to contract what leads to muscle weakness

A

myasthenia gravis kills at neuromuscular junction

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46
Q

if ACh is low in the ethereal cortex and hippocampus it can lead to_____

A

early memory loss

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47
Q

Glutamate toxicity can lead to ______

A

strokes, seizures, huntingtons and Alzheimer’s

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48
Q

Degeneration of GABA and ACh is linked to the motor symptoms of what condition

A

huntingtons

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49
Q

What is the catecholamine hypothesis

A

states that depression is caused by low levels of norepinephrine and mania is caused by high levels of norepinephrine

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50
Q

Eating disorders have been linked to ____ levels of serotonin

A

higher than normal which causes obsessive thinking, food restriction lowers serotonin and stops symptoms

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51
Q

ASD and schizophrenia are linked to high levels of ____ in the blood

A

serotonin

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52
Q

what is the dopamine hypothesis

A

Schizophrenia is linked to high dopamine

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53
Q

The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway begins in ___ and ends is ___, which is essential in the reward circuit

A

Tegmental and ends is striatum

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54
Q

the mesocortical begins in ___ and ends in ___, and is essential for emotion, motivation and exec cog functions

A

Tegmental and ends in prefrontal

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55
Q

the tuberofundibular begins in ___ and ends in ___ and is essential for hormone regulation and prolactin release

A

Hypothalamus and ends in pituitary

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56
Q

Nigrostriatal begins in __ and ends in ___, important for purposeful movement

A

substantia and ends in dorsal

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57
Q

Agonists: mimic or increase effects of a neurotransmitter, partial agonists due what

A

elicit similar but weaker effects than the trasnmitter

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58
Q

what do antagonists do

A

black or reduce effect of transmitter

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59
Q

What is the difference between bottom up and top down processing

A

bottom up starts with incoming sensory info and continues up to the brain

top down starts with the brains preexisting knowledge to interpret incoming sensory info

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60
Q

What is the difference between rods and cones

A

cones: best in bright light and for visual acuity and colour perception

rods: important for peripheral vision and seeing in dim light

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61
Q

Explain red/green colour blindness

A

most common, genetic, or injury, caused by recessive gene on X, females must inherit gene from both parents

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62
Q

What does retinal disparity do

A

occurs because eyes see objects from different views, closer object = better disparity

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63
Q

size of objects, textures and motions are types of ___ cues

A

Monocular

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64
Q

Grapheme - colour involves letters or numbers being associated with specific colours, this is a type of what condition

A

Synesthesia

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65
Q

Explain gate control theory

A

whether pain in transmitted depends on a gate that is opened by incoming pain signals and closed by transmission of signals in large fibres and info from brain

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66
Q

Which law predicts that the JND for a stimulus is in constant proportion regardless of intensity

A

Webers law

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67
Q

there is a logarithmic relationship in Fechers law between ____ and _____

A

psychological sensation and magnitude of physical stimulus

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68
Q

In a study of which law did participants assign a number to stimuli based on the sensations they elicited and what did it prove

A

in stevens power law the participants proved a exponential relationship

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69
Q

Signal detection theory makes which assumption

A

that perception of a stimulus is the outcome of both sensory and decision making processes

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70
Q

what affects decision making in signal detection theory

A

sensitivity (distinguish between stimulus and noise) and decision criteria which is the ability to say a stimulus is present in ambiguous situations

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71
Q

what is a miss in SDT experiments

A

when the signal is present but they say it isn’t

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72
Q

what value is measured by d-prime

A

sensitivity

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73
Q

HM had what areas removed and what happened after surgery

A

hippocampus, amygdala and temporal lobe were removed and after surgery, short term and procedural memories were intact but longterm episodic memory was affected and he couldn’t transfer declarative info from short to long term

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74
Q

the hippocampus in important for consolidation of which forms of memory

A

declarative and spatial working

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75
Q

damage to the basil ganglia, cerebellum and supplementary motor cortex can lead to what difficulties in memory

A

trouble learning new skills and performing previously learned skills

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76
Q

damage to the amygdala affects memory how

A

individuals will have the same level of recall for emotional and nonemotional memories

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77
Q

the prefrontal is responsible for working memory in short term and prospective memory so lesions affect ____ more than ____

A

prospective more than time based which is remembering to do an action in time with no cue

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78
Q

damage to what area can cause anterograde and retrograde amnesia

A

thalamus and mammillary bodies

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79
Q

Kandals research with sea slugs showed that classical conditioning of reflexes can increase the release of serotonin in ____ memory

A

short term

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80
Q

in regards to Kandal, long term storage is involved in the development of _____ changing the neutron structure

A

new synapses

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81
Q

Long term potentiation occurs in neurons as a result of ____

A

rapid high frequency stimulation important in learning and memory

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82
Q

low frequency, high amplitude alpha waves are associated with what sleep stage when they are replaced with low frequency, low amplitude waves

A

stage one

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83
Q

what are sleep spindles

A

associated with stage two ofd sleep, sleep spindles are sudden bursts and fast waves and K complexes (large, slow waves)

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84
Q

what is paradoxical sleep

A

in stage five when brain is active and muscles are paralyzed (REM sleep)

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85
Q

deep sleep is characterized by slow waves in what stages

A

stage 3 and 4

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86
Q

Following 10 minutes of REM sleep, a person cycles through non rem and rem stages but what increases

A

length of REM increases and time in stage 3 and 4 decreases

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87
Q

circadian phase advance occurs in older adults and involves ____

A

going to sleep earlier

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88
Q

what theory predicts that smiling makes us feel happy and why

A

james lange theory because off the facial feedback hypothesis because exposure to an emotionally client stimulus causes a physiological reaction perceived as emotion

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89
Q

differences in emotional reactions cannot be attributed to differences in ______ because of which theory

A

differences in physiological arousal and it’s due to cannon bard theory

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90
Q

the two factor theory of emotion shows that emotion is a result of physiological arousal followed by an attribution for that arousal. In this regard miss attribution of arousal is _____

A

tendency to mislabel arousal which its cause is unknown

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91
Q

Individuals experiencing unexplained arousal will look to the environment to determine _____

A

what emotion they experienced

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92
Q

Excitation transfer theory incorporates misattribution of arousal and is an explanation of how physical arousal can do what

A

Physical arousal elicited by one event can be transferred to act intensity arousal at an unrelated event

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93
Q

What are the three assumptions of excitation transfer theory?

A

Physical arousal associated with emotions, decays slowly, following in event.

Residual arousal caused by one event, can identify arousal at an unrelated event

People have limited insight into the cause of their physical arousal

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94
Q

Cognitive appraisal theory refers to what three types of appraisal

A

Primary appraisal , secondary appraisal, and reappraisal

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95
Q

Ledoux’s two system theory shows that the subcortical system (survival system) reacts quickly and automatically to sensory info with ____

A

physiological and defensive behavioural responses

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96
Q

the cortical system is a conscious emotional system that does what

A

processes inför from the senses by using relevant cognitive processes and generates the conscious feeling of fear when it determines a stimulus warrants it

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97
Q

the cortical system includes areas of the cortex that do what

A

Process sensory information and it is involved in non-emotional conscious experiences

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98
Q

what is included in the papez circuit

A

Hippocampus, mammillary bodies, thalamus, and cingulate gyrus

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99
Q

What is the difference between the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere? In terms of emotions?

A

The left hemisphere, mediates, happiness, positive emotions, and damage can cause anxiety or depression, and the right hemisphere is for negative emotions, and sadness, and damage can cause in indifference

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100
Q

the hypothalamus regulates physical signs of emotion through communication with the ANS and the ___

A

pituitary gland

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101
Q

the general adaptation syndrome refers to the body’s response to all types of stress. what are the three stages

A

the initial alarm stage, the resistance stage and the exhaustion stage

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102
Q

what is the allostatic load model

A

the brain is the key organ of stress and determines if something is threatening. being in a allostatic state can produce wear and tear leading to allostatic overload

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103
Q

a stroke is also known as ____

A

a cerebrovascular accident and is caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain that causes a loss of neurological function

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104
Q

what are the two types of strokes and why do they happen

A

A ischaemic stroke is the most common and is caused by a blockage in the cerebral artery. If it developed in the brain, it’s a thrombotic stroke. If it developed elsewhere, it is an embolic stroke.

A hemorrhagic stroke is caused from bleeding from a rupture in the cerebral artery or in the space between brain and membrane

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105
Q

visual impairment during a stroke occurs when ____ is involved

A

the posterior cerebral

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106
Q

the middle cerebral is often involved in a stroke and causes what symptoms

A

Sensory loss, weakness, paralysis, visual field loss, light speech, and aphasia, when dominant hemispheres affected or neglect when the non-dominated hemispheres affected

107
Q

When the anterior cerebral is involved in a stroke, one might experience ____

A

impaired judgment and mutism

108
Q

What is the difference between anterograde amnesia in retrograde amnesia?

A

And her grade is caused post traumatic, and is a good predictor of recovery retrograde or falls, recent long-term memories

109
Q

when memory returns following a TBI, which returns first

A

Those from the most distant memory return first

110
Q

what is the inability to express or understand prosody (pitch, timing, loudness)

A

aprosodia

111
Q

Some studies link post traumatic seizures to what structures atrophy

A

temporal lobe and hippocampus

112
Q

What causes Huntington’s?

A

an autosomal dominant gene, offspring have 50 % chance. linked to abnormalities in basal ganglia and GABA and glutamate

113
Q

what suggests that huntington’s is a manifestation of pathological change

A

that its occurs affective, cog and then motor

114
Q

What causes Parkinson’s?

A

A loss of dopamine producing cells in the basal ganglia, and the substantia nigra, as well as excess of glutamate, which is associated with the progression of Parkinson’s

115
Q

What is associated with the non-motor symptoms in Parkinson’s?

A

A degeneration of norepinephrine in the locus

116
Q

L-dopa can help what disease and how

A

parkinson’s and by increasing dopamine

117
Q

focal onset seizures being in one localized area in the cerebral hemisphere and affect one side of the body, what are the two types of focal onset seizures

A

focal onset aware: don’t affect consciousness and focal onset impaired: causes changes in consciousness beginning with an aura

118
Q

temoral lobe seizures are caused by ____, ____, and ____

A

genetics, TBI and infections but stress is the biggest factor

119
Q

when do frontal lobe seizures occur

A

during sleep

120
Q

parietal lobe seizures are may feel like floating or that

A

a body part is enlarged or shrunk

121
Q

what are the two types of generalized onset seizures

A

motor (tonic, clonic, grand mal) and non-motor

122
Q

hypertension has higher rates in what person

A

African Americans

123
Q

what happens when the pancreas releases too much insulin

A

blood sugar decreases causing hypoglycemia

124
Q

when the pancreas releases too little insulin, blood sugar rises and causes ____

A

diabetes

125
Q

what is the risk individuals for diabetes

A

native americans, african americans and hispanic americans

126
Q

the NEBA is a EEG used for ____ by assessing ratio of ____ and ____ waves

A

ADHD in 6-17y/o and theta and beta waves

127
Q

DTI’s assess ______

A

integrity of white matter that connects with different brain regions by identifying abnormalities in rate and direction of diffusion of water molecules along axons

128
Q

what is the advantage of CT over MRI

A

quicker and less expensive and doesn’t involve staying still or earplugs

129
Q

PET and SPECT use radioactive tracers to assess ____ and ____ consumption

A

glucose and oxygen

130
Q

name the four FGA’s

A

Chlorpromazine, Haloperidol, Thiodazine and Fluphenizine

131
Q

Chlorphrazamine and thioridazine can cause what side effect

A

Anticholinergic, dry mouth and urinary retention

132
Q

Tardive dyskenesia is caused by long term use of haloperidol and fluphenizine and involves

A

withdrawal, more common in woman and seniors

133
Q

what are the SGA’s

A

Clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole

134
Q

SGA’s are less likely to cause what type of side effects

A

extrapyramidal side effects

135
Q

what are the five SSRI’s

A

fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, citalopram, paroxetine, and sertraline

136
Q

loss of SSRI treatment response is also known as _____

A

tachyphylaxis

137
Q

what are the 3 SNRI’s

A

venlafaxine, duloxetine and desvenlafaxine

138
Q

what is an advantage of NDRI’s

A

they dont cause anticholinergic reactions or sexual dysfunction and they aren’t cardio toxic

139
Q

what is the role of TCA’s

A

to inhibit reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine

140
Q

what do MAOI’s do

A

oxidase deactivate norepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine so MAOI’s increase them by pretending to be MA

141
Q

Benzos increase GABA and barbiturates ____ GABA

A

enhance

142
Q

Opioids mimic the affect of _____

A

analgesics (endorphins and enkephalins)

143
Q

how do beta blockers help anxiety

A

by inhibiting the activity of the SNS

144
Q

which anticonvulsant drug can cause liver failure

A

valproic acid

145
Q

what do psychostimulants do?

A

increase dopamine and norepinephrine in the prefrontal

146
Q

what 2nd line treatment for ADHD works for tics

A

guanfacine

147
Q

what drugs treat cocaine use

A

bupropion and topiramate

148
Q

what does THC stimulate and where

A

dopamine in ventral striatum

149
Q

what is the therapeutic index

A

used to measure a drugs safety

150
Q

what does it mean if a TI is equal to or less than 1.0

A

it has a narrow therapeutic window

151
Q

For IDD, intelligence score must be ____ SD’s below the population mean

A

2+

152
Q

the cause is known in _____% of IDD cases

A

25-50%

153
Q

prognosis for autism is better with an IQ over ____ and language skills by ____

A

70 and 5

154
Q

children with autism will react ____ to familiar things but ____ to unfamiliar

A

the same as other kids, different than other kids

155
Q

what is the rate for autism in mono twins

A

69-95%

156
Q

accelerated brain growth in autism begins at ____ and plateus at ____

A

6 months and preschool age

157
Q

low levels of serotonin in brain but high levels in ____ is linked to _____

A

blood is linked to autism

158
Q

EIBI uses applied behaviour analysis to treat _____

A

autism with the biggest impact on intelligence and language

159
Q

ADHD is 2x as common in males until adulthood and then it is what ratio

A

1.6:1

160
Q

in order, what are the most comorbid with ADHD

A

ODD, conduct disorder, anxiety and depression

161
Q

what is the heritable rate for mono and dizzy twins for ADHD

A

mono = 71% and dizzy = 41%

162
Q

dopamine overactivity and a small ______ can lead to tourettes

A

caudate nucleus

163
Q

severity for tic disorders peaks at what age

A

10-12y

164
Q

haloperidol, serotonin and clonidine are used for treatments of what disorder

A

tic disorder

165
Q

childhood onset fluency disorder requires ___ out of ____ symptoms

A

1 or more out of 7

166
Q

what percent of COFD children recover

A

65-85%

167
Q

what percent of children have specific learning disorder vs reading

A

5-15% vs 80

168
Q

how long does brief psychotic disorder typically last

A

one day to one month

169
Q

what is schizophreniform disorder

A

like schizophrenia but 2/5 symptoms for 1-6 months

170
Q

the active phase of schizophrenia has 2/5 symptoms with continuous phases (prodromal, residual) that have ____ symptoms and ____ symptoms only

A

2+ symptoms and negative symptoms only

171
Q

positive symptoms of schizo are to dopamine hyperactivity in ____ areas as negative symptoms are to hypoactivty in _____

A

hyperactivity in subcortical and hyperactivity in cortical (prefrontal)

172
Q

70-85% of people with schizophrenia also use ____

A

tobacco

173
Q

you have a better prognosis for schizo if you are a ____ or have ___ onset or ____ symptoms

A

female, acute or late onset and positive symptoms

174
Q

what drug is most affective for treatment resistant schizophrenia

A

clozapine

175
Q

how does NAVIGATE help those with schizophrenia

A

targets individuals experiencing first episode and uses resilience training which is based on CBTp

176
Q

what is schizoaffective

A

symptoms of schizo and MD or manic episode but delusions and hallucinations for 2+ weeks without mood symptoms

177
Q

what are the types of delusional disorder

A

erotomania, grandiose, jealous, persecutory (conspiracy) and somatic

178
Q

what is a hypomanic episode

A

3+ symptoms of mania for 4 days but no psychotic features

179
Q

an MD episode has 5+ symptoms for 2+ weeks with at least one symptom being ______

A

depressed mood

180
Q

what is the difference between bipolar I and II

A

bipolar I includes 1 or more manic episode and bipolar II included one or more hypomanic episodes and one or more MD episodes

181
Q

how long does one have to experience cyclothymic disorder

A

2 years in adults, 1 year in others

182
Q

what should one consider to not under or over diagnose children with ADHD in regard to bipolar

A

mania symptoms

183
Q

lithium is most common for classic bipolar and ____ is more affective for atypical bipolar

A

anticonvulsants and SGA’s

184
Q

DMDD includes 12 months of severe outbursts 3 times a week and _______

A

a irritable or angry mood

185
Q

female twins have a higher rate of heredity for what disorder

A

MDD

186
Q

Lewinsohns social reinforcement theory is based on ____ conditioning

A

operant

187
Q

what are the components of becks cognitive theory

A

depression is attributed to a negative cognitive triad about oneself, the world and the future

188
Q

latino, Mediterranean, middle eastern and asian populations report more ___ symptoms than ____ in MDD

A

more somatic than psychological symptoms

189
Q

MDD is comorbid with ____ followed by ____

A

SUD followed by anxiety

190
Q

what is the recommended treatment for adolescents with MDD

A

CBT, IPT-A and fluoxetine

191
Q

what is the recommended treatment for adults with MDD

A

CBT, IPT-A and a SSRI or SSNI

192
Q

how does ketamine help depression

A

by increasing glutamate levels

193
Q

what is the benefit for rTMS over ECT

A

rTMS doesn’t require sedation or cause memory loss

194
Q

what pop has the highest rate for suicide

A

75+ and natives, followed by whites, hispanics, blacks and asians

195
Q

what is the most effective treatment combo for separation anxiety

A

CBT with parent training

196
Q

Mowers two factor theory of specific phobia attributes phobic reactions to classical conditioning and operant conditioning, what is the difference

A

classical: previously neutral stimuli becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits conditioned response after pairing with unconditioned neutral stimulus that elicits anxiety

operant: avoidance allows one to avoid anxiety trigger and the avoidance is negatively reinforced

197
Q

in vivo exposure is _____ effective than imagination exposure

A

more effective

198
Q

what are the first line treatments for social anxiety disorder

A

CBT and SSRI or SSNI

199
Q

a panic attack has ___ of 13 symptoms

A

4 of 13

200
Q

what is involved in panic control treatment

A

interoceptive exposure and relaxation

201
Q

agoraphobia has 5 situations

A

public transportation, open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being outside home alone

202
Q

graded exposure is more commonly used but non graded has better ____

A

long term effects

203
Q

GAD is most comorbid with _____

A

MDD, social anxiety, specific phobia and PTSD

204
Q

when symptoms of GAD are severe, combining what two treatments is helpful

A

MI and CBT

205
Q

GAD is most comorbid with _____

A

MDD, social anxiety, specific phobia and PTSD

206
Q

____ has earlier onset of OCD and higher prevalence but only in childhood

A

Males

207
Q

a history of insufficient care and inhibited or emotionally withdrawn behaviour is associated with which disorder

A

reactive attachment disorder

208
Q

disinhibited social engagement disorder is categorized by inappropriate interactions _______

A

unfamiliar adults

209
Q

what are the five categories of symptoms for PTSD

A

Intrusion, avoidance, old changes, arousal, reactivity

210
Q

hyperactive amygdala and cingulate and a hypoactive ____ show PTSD

A

ventromedial

211
Q

Single session debriefing is not recommended for which disorder

A

PTSD because it could make things worse

212
Q

Telepsych is _____ as face to face for PTSD

A

as effective but alliance may not be as strong

213
Q

How long can acute stress disorder last

A

3 days - 1 month

214
Q

localizes amnesia involves not remembering info from _______

A

a certain time period

215
Q

continuous amnesia involves not remembering _____

A

new events

216
Q

what is the criteria for a conversion disorder

A

symptoms that disturb voluntary motor or sensory functioning

217
Q

what are the four stages of CBT-E for eating disorders

A

engagement and eating, reviewing progress, identifying triggers, relapse prevention

218
Q

high levels of which type of motivation predict a greater reduction of ED symptoms and less treatment dropout

A

autonomous

219
Q

which drugs are used in anorexia treatment

A

olazapine for weight gain and fluoxetine for weight maintenance

220
Q

Enuresis is a disorder involving ______

A

voiding of urine in bed and clothing twice a week for more than 3 months over the age of 5

221
Q

what are the three kinds of insomnia

A

sleep onset, sleep maintenance and late insomnia. maintenance is most common but combo is more common

222
Q

A REM latency of less than 15 minutes is associated with which disorder

A

narcolepsy

223
Q

non-REM sleep arousal disorder involves _____ and _____

A

sleep walking and terrors from incomplete awakening

224
Q

sildenafil, tadalafil and vardenafil are used as treatments for which disorder

A

erectile dysfunction

225
Q

what treatment is most recommended for female orgasmic disorder

A

directed masturbation more than CBT

226
Q

what does the Dutch Protocol for gender dysphoria recommend

A

that it only persists into adults in a small number of children so wait until 12 and then watchful waiting with support until puberty then using social transition and blocking drugs

227
Q

gender affirmative models say that children of all age ______

A

know their gender identity and can benefit from social transition

228
Q

someone who is touching nonconsentually and has acted on urges has _____

A

frontteurism

229
Q

a man with sexual attraction for a non genital body part of non living object has _____ disorder

A

fetishistic

230
Q

what percentage of children with ODD eventually have a conduct disorder

A

30%

231
Q

what are the four symptom categories of conduct disorder

A

aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, deceit or theft and serious violation of rules

232
Q

there are three subtypes of conduct disorder, childhood onset which is 1 symptom before age ____, adolescent onset which is ___ symptoms before age____, and unspecified onset

A

10, 0, 10

childhood onsets are usually more aggressive and risk diagnosis for antisocial or SUD

233
Q

cortisol is similar for adolescents with or without conduct disorder but only at what time

A

in the mornings

234
Q

poor coordination between emotional and physiological arousal is associate with which disorder

A

conduct disorder

235
Q

a maturity gap between sexual and social maturity is associated with what type of CD antisocial

A

adolescence - limited

236
Q

the Parent management training - oregon model is based on what assumption

A

that behaviours are the result of coercive interactions without positive reinforcement

237
Q

parent child interaction therapy is used for 2-7 year olds who have ____ disorder and have experienced ____

A

conduct disorder and have experienced maltreatment

238
Q

MDFT has the goal of reducing substance use in 11-21 year olds by creating change in what four areas

A

adolescents, family interactions, parents, extra familial

239
Q

which treatment is used for those at risk of losing home due to antisocial personality, SUD’s and psychiatric problems

A

MST - based on ecological theory that there is risk factors at multiple levels

240
Q

A specifier is used in alcohol major neurological disorder to determine between ____ and _____

A

non-amnestic and amnestic - confabulatory (korsakoff)

241
Q

CRAFT works with SUD by working with the ____

A

concerned significant other

242
Q

the community reinforcement approach to SUD’s uses ____ conditioning to make drug free living more rewarding

A

operant conditioning

243
Q

effects of voucher based reinforcement therapy fade but ____ can help maintain it

A

CBT

244
Q

personalized normative feedback treatment uses comparison of frequency and finds that individuals _____ the prevalence

A

overestimate

245
Q

which in order have the highest rate of Alzheimer’s

A

black americans, hispanics, white americans

246
Q

what is pseudo dementia

A

depression with prominent cognitive symptoms that respond well to treatment

247
Q

Alzheimer’s is associated with reduced ____ and extra ____

A

ACH and extra glutamate

248
Q

intercellular tangles come from an accusation of what protein

A

TAU

249
Q

alzheimer’s is shown in medial temporal followed by ____ and then ____

A

frontal/parietal and then cortex

250
Q

in regards to the big five, high ____ and low ____ is related to Alzheimers

A

high neuroticism and low conscientiousness

251
Q

the early stage of Alzheimer’s lasts 2-4 years and involves which symptoms

A

short term memory loss, anomia, personality changes, disorientation

252
Q

the middle stage of Alzheimers lasts 2-10 years and involves which symptoms

A

long term memory, irritability, delusion and sundowning

253
Q

_____ regulates glutamate in alzheimer’s treatment

A

memantine

254
Q

NCD with lewy bodies core features are fluctuating cognition with variations in attention, sleep disorders and ____

A

neuroleptic sensitivity

255
Q

what is creutzfeldt jacob disease

A

a NCD from Iron diseases with rapid progression of impairment that is sporadic (common), familial or acquired by consuming infected meat

256
Q

frontotemporal NCD has a language variant, semantic, agromantic (incorrect grammar, hesitant speech and ____

A

lopoenic : impaired retention, finding the right word

257
Q

Cluster A personality consists of what 3 disorders

A

paranoid, schizoid and schizotypal

258
Q

Cluster B consists of what 4 disorders

A

antisocial, borderline, histrionic and narcissistic

259
Q

Cluster C consists of what 3 disorders

A

avoidant, dependent and OCPD

260
Q

schizoid PD involves having _____

A

no desire for relationships

261
Q

schizotypal PD individuals will express unhappiness at lack of friends but act how

A

in ways that suggest a lack of interest

262
Q

CBT groups can help with reoffending rates in antisocial PD and contingency management provides ____ for desirable behaviours

A

reinforcement

263
Q

intercession coaching in treatment of BPD helps generalize skills to real - world situations and provides chances to do what

A

provides chances to make repairs to therapeutic relationship

EPPP (2 decks)

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