PHYSIO 3 Flashcards

1
Q

A 34 year old man presents with a peptic ulcer. Which of the following is responsible for the release of gastric acid?

	Chief cells
	Parietal cells
	Brunners Glands
	G Cells
	None of the above
A

Parietal cells

Parietal cells are responsible for the release of gastric acid. Brunners glands are found in the duodenum.

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2
Q

Which of the following does not lead to relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter?

	Metoclopramide
	Botulinum toxin type A
	Nicotine
	Alcohol
	Theophylline
A

Metoclopramide

Metoclopramide acts directly on the smooth muscle of the LOS to cause it to contract.
Theophylline is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (mimics action of prostaglandin E1) which causes relaxation of the LOS.

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3
Q

Which of the following is not released from the islets of Langerhans?

	Pancreatic polypeptide
	Glucagon
	Secretin
	Somatostatin
	Insulin
A

Secretin

Secretin is released from mucosal cells in the duodenum and jejunum.

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4
Q

Which of the following is not classically seen in coning resulting from raised intra cranial pressure?

	Coma
	Hypotension
	Unreactive mid sized pupils
	Cheyne Stokes style respiratory efforts
	Bradycardia
A

Hypotension

Cushings triad
Widening of the pulse pressure
Respiratory changes
Bradycardia

Due to raised ICP systemic hypertension is usually seen. Compression of the respiratory centre will typically result in Cheyne Stokes style respiration.

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5
Q

Control of ventilation. Which statement is false?

Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the bifurcation of the carotid arteries and arch of the aorta
Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in O2
The respiratory centres control the rate and depth of respiration
Involuntary control of respiration is from the medulla and pons
Irritant receptors cause bronchospasm
A

Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in O2

  • Central chemoreceptors: Respond to increased H+ in BRAIN INTERSTITIAL FLUID to increase ventilation.
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6
Q

A 54 year old lady has her serum calcium measured. Assuming her renal function is normal, what proportion of calcium filtered at the glomerulus will be reabsorbed by the renal tubules?

	5%
	15%
	25%
	50%
	95%
A

95%

Most filtered calcium is reabsorbed (95%) a rare disorder of familial hypocalcemic calciurea may affect this proportion.

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7
Q

Which of the following does not cause hyperkalaemia?

	Haemolysis
	Burns
	Familial periodic paralysis
	Type 4 renal tubular acidosis
	Severe malnutrition
A

Severe malnutrition
‘Machine’ - Causes of Increased Serum K+

M - Medications - ACE inhibitors, NSAIDS
A - Acidosis - Metabolic and respiratory
C - Cellular destruction - Burns, traumatic injury
H - Hypoaldosteronism, haemolysis
I - Intake - Excessive
N - Nephrons, renal failure
E - Excretion - Impaired

Familial periodic paralysis has subtypes associated with hyper and hypokalaemia.

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true of glucagon?

Glucagon is produced in response to hyperglycaemia
Released by beta cells
Inhibits gluconeogenesis
Produced in response to an increase of amino acids
Composed of 2 alpha polypeptide chains linked by hydrogen bonds
A

Produced in response to an increase of amino acids

Glucagon is a protein comprised of a single polypeptide chain.
Produced by alpha cells of pancreatic islets of Langerhans in response to hypoglycaemia and amino acids.
It increases plasma glucose and ketones

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9
Q

A 52 year old man develops septic shock following a Hartmans procedure for perforated diverticular disease. He is started on an adrenaline infusion. Which of the following is least likely to occur?

	Peripheral vasoconstriction
	Coronary artery vasospasm
	Gluconeogenesis
	Lipolysis
	Tachycardia
A

Coronary artery vasospasm

It’s cardiac effects are mediated via β 1 receptors. The coronary arteries which have β 2 receptors are unaffected.

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10
Q

Intra cranial pressure is governed by the principles of the Monroe-Kellie doctrine. To which of the following does this concept not apply?

	A 2 month old child
	A 2 year old child
	A 5 year old child
	A 10 year old child
	An adult
A

A 2 month old child

The Monroe-Kelly Doctrine assumes that the cranial cavity is a rigid box. In children with non fused fontanells this is not the case.

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11
Q

Which of the following is not caused by cortisol in the stress response?

	Anti-inflammatory effects
	Hypoglycaemia
	Skeletal muscle protein breakdown
	Stimulation of lipolysis
	Mineralocorticoid effects
A

Hypoglycaemia

An ‘anti insulin’ effect occurs leading to hyperglycaemia.

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12
Q

Which of the following features does not put a patient at risk of refeeding syndrome?

	BMI < 16 kg/m2
	Alcohol abuse
	Thyrotoxicosis
	Chemotherapy
	Diuretics
A

Thyrotoxicosis

Diuretics increase the risk of re-feeding syndrome through a process of increasing the risk of depletion of key electrolytes.

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13
Q

Which of the following statements relating to the regulation of renal blood flow is untrue?

In a healthy 70Kg male, the glomerular filtration rate will be the same at a systolic blood pressure of 120mmHg as a systolic blood pressure of 95 mmHg
Over 90% of the blood supply to the kidney is distributed to the cortex
The kidney receives approximately 25% of the total cardiac output at rest
A decrease in renal perfusion pressure will cause the juxtaglomerular cells to secrete renin
Systolic blood pressures of less than 65mmHg will cause the mesangial cells to secrete aldosterone
A

Systolic blood pressures of less than 65mmHg will cause the mesangial cells to secrete aldosterone

Mesangial cells are contractile cells that are located in the tubule and have no direct endocrine function.

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14
Q

A 39 year old lady undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy as a daycase. The operation is more difficult than anticipated and the surgeon places a drain to the liver bed. In recovery 1.5 litres of blood is seen to enter the drain. Which of the following substances is the first to be released in this situation?

	Angiotensinogen
	Renin
	Angiotensin I
	Angiotensin II
	Aldosterone
A

Renin

The decrease in blood pressure will be sensed by the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney. This will cause renin secretion.

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15
Q

Which of the following drugs causes hyperkalaemia?

	Heparin
	Ciprofloxacin
	Salbutamol
	Levothyroxine
	Codeine phosphate
A

Heparin

Both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia. This is thought to be caused by inhibition of aldosterone secretion. Salbutamol is a recognised treatment for hyperkalaemia.

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16
Q

A 25-year-old man who has been morbidly obese for the past five years is reviewed in the surgical bariatric clinic. In this patient, release of which of the following hormones would increase appetite?

	Leptin
	Thyroxine
	Adiponectin
	Ghrelin
	Serotonin
A

Ghrelin

Obesity hormones
leptin decreases appetite
ghrelin increases appetite

Whilst thyroxine can increase appetite it does not fit with the clinical picture being described.

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17
Q

Which of the following is not linked to excess glucocorticoids?

	Osteonecrosis
	Osteoporosis
	Hypokalaemia
	Hyponatraemia
	Growth retardation in children
A

Hyponatraemia

Steroids are associated with retention of sodium and water.

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18
Q

A 54-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Admissions Unit with abdominal pain. Blood tests taken on admission show the following:

Magnesium 0.40 mmol/l (normal value 0.7-1.0 mmol/l)

Which one of the following factors is most likely to be responsible for this result?

	Excessive resuscitation with intravenous saline
	Digoxin therapy
	Diarrhoea
	Hypothermia
	Rhabdomyolysis
A

Diarrhoea

Cause of low magnesium
Diuretics
Total parenteral nutrition
Diarrhoea
Alcohol
Hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia
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19
Q

A 43 year old man has a nasogastric tube inserted. The nurse takes a small aspirate of the fluid from the stomach and tests the pH of the aspirate. What is the normal intragastric pH?

	0.5
	2
	4
	5
	6
A

2

The intragastric pH is usually 2. Administration of proton pump inhibitors can result in almost complete abolition of acidity

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20
Q

A 33 year old female is admitted for varicose vein surgery. She is fit and well. After the procedure she is persistently bleeding. She is known to have menorrhagia. Investigations show a prolonged bleeding time and increased APTT. She has a normal PT and platelet count. What is the most likely cause?

	Anti phospholipid syndrome
	Haemophilia
	Factor V Leiden deficiency
	von Willebrands disease
	Protein C and S deficiency
A

von Willebrands disease

Bleeding post operatively, epistaxis and menorrhagia may indicate a diagnosis of vWD. Haemoarthroses are rare. The bleeding time is usually normal in haemophilia (X-linked) and vitamin K deficiency.

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21
Q

Which of the following is the equivalent of cardiac preload?

	End diastolic volume
	Stroke volume
	Systemic vascular resistance
	Mean arterial pressure
	Peak systolic arterial pressure
A

End diastolic volume

Preload is the same as end diastolic volume. When it is increased slightly there is an associated increase in cardiac output (Frank Starling principle). When it is markedly increased e.g. over 250ml then cardiac output falls.

22
Q

A 48 year old man undergoes a right hemicolectomy for a large caecal polyp. In the immediate post operative period which of the physiological processes described below is least likely to occur?

	Glycogenolysis
	Increased production of acute phase proteins
	Increased cortisol production
	Bronchoconstriction
	Release of nitric oxide by vessels
A

Bronchoconstriction

Response to surgery

Blood diverted from skin and visceral organs; bronchodilatation, reduced intestinal motility, increased glucagon and glycogenolysis, insulin reduced
Cytokines increase the release of acute phase proteins
Nitric oxide produces vasodilatation
Increases ACTH and cortisol production:

23
Q

A 73 year old female is referred to the surgical clinic with an iron deficiency anaemia. As part of the diagnostic work up the doctor requests a serum ferritin level. Which of the conditions listed is most likely to lead to a falsely elevated result?

Locally perforated sigmoid colonic adenocarcinoma
Colonic angiodysplasia
Dieulafoy lesion of the stomach
Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder
Endometrial adenocarcinoma
A

Locally perforated sigmoid colonic adenocarcinoma

A locally perforated colonic tumour will typically cause an intense inflammatory response and if peritonitis is not present clinically then at the very least a localised abscess. This inflammatory process is the most likely (from the list) to falsely raise the serum ferritin level

24
Q

Which of the following is least likely to cause a prolonged prothrombin time?

	Cholestatic jaundice
	Disseminated intravascular coagulation
	Prolonged antibiotic treatment
	Liver disease
	Acquired factor 12 deficiency
A

Acquired factor 12 deficiency

Vitamin K deficiency results from cholestatic jaundice and prolonged antibiotic therapy. Acquired factor 12 deficiency causes prolonged APTT.

25
Q

What is the main component of colloid in the thyroid gland?

	T3
	Thyroglobulin
	T4
	Thyroxin binding globulin
	TSH
A

Thyroglobulin

It is a high molecular weight protein that acts as a storage form of thyroid hormones.

26
Q

Which statement about peristalsis is true?

Longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food bolus through the oesophagus
Secondary peristalsis occurs when there is no food bolus in the oesophagus
Food transfer from the oesophagus to the stomach is 4 seconds
Circular smooth muscle is not involved in peristalsis
Peristalsis only occurs in the oesophagus
A

Longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food bolus through the oesophagus

27
Q

A 24 year old man is injured in a road traffic accident. He becomes oliguric and his renal function deteriorates. Which of the options below would favor acute tubular necrosis over pre renal uraemia?

	No response to intravenous fluids
	Urinary sodium < 20mmol/L
	Bland coloured urinary sediment
	Increased urine specific gravity
	None of the above
A

No response to intravenous fluids

In acute tubular necrosis there is no response to intravenous fluids because the damage occurs from within the renal system rather than as a result of volume depletion.

28
Q

Which of the following is not an effect of cholecystokinin?

It causes gallbladder contraction
It increases the rate of gastric emptying
It relaxes the sphincter of oddi
It stimulates pancreatic acinar cells
It has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells
A

It increases the rate of gastric emptying

It decreases the rate of gastric emptying.

29
Q

Which part of the jugular venous waveform is associated with the closure of the tricuspid valve?

	a wave
	c wave
	x descent
	y descent
	v wave
A

c wave

The c wave of the jugular venous waveform is associated with the closure of the tricuspid valve.
JVP: C wave - closure of the tricuspid valve

30
Q

Which one of the following serum proteins is most likely to increase in a patient with severe sepsis?

	Transferrin
	Transthyretin
	Ferritin
	Albumin
	Cortisol binding protein
A

Ferritin

Ferritin can be markedly increased during acute illness. The other parameters tend to decrease during an acute phase response

31
Q

A 23 year old man has a routine ECG performed. Which part of the tracing obtained represents atrial repolarisation?

	P wave
	T wave
	Q-T Interval
	P-R interval
	None of the above
A

None of the above

The process of atrial repolarisation is generally not visible on the ECG strip. It occurs during the QRS complex.

32
Q

A 72-year-old woman is admitted to the acute surgical unit with profuse vomiting. Admission bloods show the following:

Na+	131 mmol/l
K+	2.2 mmol/l
Urea	3.1 mmol/l
Creatinine	56 micro mol/l
Glucose	4.3 mmol/l

Which one of the following ECG features is most likely to be seen?

	Short PR interval
	Short QT interval
	Flattened P waves
	J waves
	U waves
A

U waves

Hypokalaemia - U waves on ECG

J waves are seen in hypothermia whilst delta waves are associated with Wolff Parkinson White syndrome.

33
Q

The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left in:

	With decreased 2,3-DPG in transfused red cells
	Respiratory acidosis
	Sudden move to high altitude
	Pyrexia
	Haemolytic anaemia
A

With decreased 2,3-DPG in transfused red cells

The curve is shifted to the left when there is a decreased oxygen requirement by the tissue. This includes:
1. Hypothermia
2. Alkalosis
3. Reduced levels of DPG:
DPG is found in erythrocytes and is reduced in non exercising muscles, i.e. when there is reduced glycolysis.
4. Polycythaemia

34
Q
A patient has an arterial blood gas sample which provides the following result:
pH	7.20
pO2	7.5
Bicarbonate	22
pCO2	8.1
Chloride	10meq
What is the most likely cause?
	Type II respiratory failure
	Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
	Metabolic alkalosis
	Type I respiratory failure
	Respiratory alkalosis
A

Type II respiratory failure

This is a sign of acute type 2 respiratory failure (non compensated). This is the result of carbon dioxide retention.

35
Q

A homeless 42 year old male had an emergency inguinal hernia repair 24 hours previously. He has a BMI of 15. He has been put on a feeding regime of 35 kcal/kg/day with no additional medications. The nursing staff contact you as he has become confused and unsteady. On examination the patient is disorientated to place, has diplopia and nystagmus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Cerebellar stroke
	Acute dystonic reaction
	Cerebrovascular accident
	Parkinsonism
	Wernickes encephalopathy
A

Wernickes encephalopathy

This patient has received a carbohydrate rich diet without any thiamine or vitamin B co strong replacement. This has led to Wernickes encephalopathy, which classically presents with confusion, ataxia and ophthalmoplegia

36
Q
A 77 year old man presents to pre operative clinic for a total knee replacement. He is on furosemide for hypertension. He is known to have multiple myeloma. He is found to have the following test results:
Na	120
Serum osmolality	280 (normal)
Urine osmolality	normal
Urine Na	normal
What is the most likely cause?
	Pseudohyponatraemia
	Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)
	Hypotonic hypovolaemic hyponatraemia
	Psychogenic polydipsia
	Hypertonic hypovolaemic hyponatraemia
A

Pseudohyponatraemia

Hyperlipidaemia and multiple myeloma are known to cause a pseudohyponatraemia.

37
Q

A 22 year old lady receives intravenous morphine for acute abdominal pain. Which of the following best accounts for its analgesic properties?

Binding to δ opioid receptors in the brainstem
Binding to δ opioid receptors at peripheral nerve sites
Binding to β opioid receptors within the CNS
Binding to α opioid receptors within the CNS
Binding to µ opioid receptors within the CNS
A

Binding to µ opioid receptors within the CNS

4 Types of opioid receptor:
δ (located in CNS)- Accounts for analgesic and antidepressant effects
k (mainly CNS)- analgesic and dissociative effects
µ (central and peripheral) - causes analgesia, miosis, decreased gut motility
Nociceptin receptor (CNS)- Affect of appetite and tolerance to µ agonists.

38
Q

Which one of the following reduces the secretion of renin?

	Erect posture
	Adrenaline
	Hyponatraemia
	Hypotension
	Beta-blockers
A

Beta-blockers

Factors reducing renin secretion
Drugs: beta-blockers, NSAIDs

39
Q

Which of the following stimulates prolactin release or action?

	Leutinising hormone
	Dopamine
	Thyrotropin releasing hormone
	Oestrogen
	Follicle stimulating hormone
A

Thyrotropin releasing hormone

TRH stimulates prolactin release. Dopamine suppresses the release of prolactin

40
Q

A 55 year old man undergoes a laparotomy and repair of incisional hernia. Which of the following hormones is least likely to be released in increased quantities following the procedure?

	Insulin
	ACTH
	Glucocorticoids
	Aldosterone
	Growth hormone
A

Insulin

Insulin and thyroxine are often have reduced levels of secretion in the post operative period. This, coupled with increased glucocorticoid release may cause difficulty in management of diabetes in individuals with insulin resistance.

41
Q

Which of the following is not a major function of the spleen in adults?

	Iron reutilisation
	Storage of platelets
	Storage of monocytes
	Haematopoeisis in haematological disorders
	Storage red blood cells
A

Storage red blood cells

The reservoir function of the spleen is less marked in humans than other animals (e.g. pigs) and in normal individuals it can sequester between 5 and 10% of the red cell mass

42
Q

Which one of the following is associated with increased lung compliance?

	Kyphosis
	Pulmonary oedema
	Emphysema
	Pulmonary fibrosis
	Pneumonectomy
A

Emphysema

Causes of increased compliance
age
emphysema - this is due to loss alveolar walls and associated elastic tissue

43
Q

Which of the following areas is predominantly concerned with thermoregulation?

	Hypothalamus
	Anterior pituitary
	Cerebellum
	Brain stem
	Temporal lobe
A

Hypothalamus

The hypothalamus is primarily concerned with thermoregulation. It may relay to the cerebral cortex to induce behavioural adaptation to facilitate the thermoregulatory process.

44
Q

Which of the following substances related to thyroid function has its secretion inhibited by increased plasma T3 and T4?

	T3
	T4
	Thyroglobulin
	Thyroxin binding globulin
	Thyroid stimulating hormone
A

Thyroid stimulating hormone

TSH release is inhibited by negative feedback.

45
Q

A 55 year old male is diagnosed with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. He reports that his stool sticks to the commode and will not flush away. Loss of which of the following enzymes is most likely to be responsible for this problem?

	Lipase
	Amylase
	Trypsin
	Elastase
	None of the above
A

Lipase

Loss of lipase is one of the key features in the development of steatorrhoea which typically consists of pale and offensive stools that are difficult to flush away.

46
Q

Which of the following drugs does not interfere with the laboratory analysis of serum cortisol levels?

	Dexamethasone
	Prednisolone
	Hydrocortisone IV
	Hydrocortisone PO
	Hydrocortisone IM
A

Dexamethasone

Dexamethasone can be given as glucorticoid replacement during testing for addisons or adrenal insufficiency as it does not interfere with cortisol levels. For example, if you have a patient with polymyalgia rheumatica and they are on long term prednisolone, you can replace the prednisolone with dexamethasone to undertake a short synacthen test.

47
Q

An elderly lady who presented with weight loss and malabsorption was found to have amyloid of the small bowel. On presentation she was found to have osteomalacia and was hypocalcaemic. Over the past seven days she has received total parenteral nutrition with adequate calcium replacement. Despite this she remained hypocalcaemic. Deficiency of which of the following electrolytes is most likely to account for this process?

	Magnesium
	Potassium
	Sodium
	Phosphate
	None of the above
A

Magnesium

Patients with malabsorption may develop magnesium deficiency, although her TPN feeds may have contained magnesium it may not have been sufficient to correct her losses. Sodium, phosphate and potassium would not have this effect on serum calcium.

48
Q

A 19 year old man is attacked outside a club and beaten with a baseball bat. He sustains a blow to the right side of his head. He is brought to the emergency department and a policy of observation is adopted. His glasgow coma score deteriorates and he becomes comatose. Which of the following haemodynamic parameters is most likely to be present?

	Hypertension and bradycardia
	Hypotension and tachycardia
	Hypotension and bradycardia
	Hypertension and tachycardia
	Normotension and bradycardia
A

Hypertension and bradycardia

Hypertension and bradycardia are seen prior to coning. The brain autoregulates its blood supply by controlling systemic blood pressure.

49
Q

Which of the following drugs does not cause pseudohaematuria?

	Rifampicin
	Quinine
	Noradrenaline
	Levodopa
	Phenytoin
A

Noradrenaline

Rifampicin, phenytoin, levodopa, methyldopa, and quinine all cause pseudohaematuria.

50
Q

A 74-year-old woman with thyroid cancer is admitted due to shortness of breath. What is the best investigation to assess for possible compression of the upper airways?

	Arterial blood gases
	Forced vital capacity
	Transfer factor
	Peak expiratory flow rate
	Flow volume loop
A

Flow volume loop

Flow volume loop is the investigation of choice for upper airway compression.