Physics 500 Flashcards
A sound wave is:
a) transverse
b) electromagnetic
c) mechanical, longitudinal
d) transverse, longitudinal
c) mechanical, longitudinal
A compression area of a sound wave is:
a) high pressure, low density
b) low pressure, low density
c) high pressure, high density
d) low pressure, high density
c) high pressure, high density
A rarefaction area of a sound wave is:
a) high pressure, low density
b) low pressure, low density
c) high pressure, high density
d) low pressure, high density
b) low pressure, low density
Which of the following is considered an acoustic variable?
a) power
b) intensity
c) amplitude
d) pressure
d) pressure
Which of the following is a unit for pressure
a) lbs/in
b) N/m squared
c) kg/cm cubed
d) inches squared
b) N/m squared
Which of the following is a correct unit for density?
a) lb/in
b) mm Hg
c) centigrade
d) lbs/cm cubed
d) lbs/cm cubed
Which of the following waves propagate in a medium?
a) heat
b) light
c) x-ray
d) sound
d) sound
The range for ultrasound is:
a) less than 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
c) greater than 20 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
c) greater than 20 kHz
(BLANK) is the number of wave cycles per second.
a) Frequency
b) Period
c) Wavelength
d) Amplitude
a) Frequency
One kilohertz is equal to:
a) one cycle per second
b) 100 cycles per second
c) 1,000 cycles per second
d) 10,000 cyclers per second
c) 1,000 cycles per second
One Megahertz is equal to:
a) one cycle per second
b) one hundred cycles per second
c) one thousand cycles per second
d) one million cycles per second
d) one million cycles per second
The useful frequency range for clinical imaging ultrasound is:
a) 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
c) 1 Hz to 10 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
Frequency is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
Frequency affects all of the following except:
a) wavelength
b) resolution
c) penetration
d) impedance
d) impedance
The time per cycle is:
a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) sound speed
b) period
The period for a 5 MHz probe is:
a) 0.2 cycles per second
b) 0.2
c) 0.2 µsec
d) 0.2 msec
c) 0.2 µsec
If frequency increases, period:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) unchanged
b) decreases
Period is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
Period multiplied by the number of cycles in a pulse equals:
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) pulse duration
d) sound velocity
c) pulse duration
The distance between cyclical peaks is:
a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) sound speed
c) wavelength
The symbol for wavelength:
a) delta
b) mu
c) lambda
d) Hertz
c) lambda
The wavelength of a 5 MHz probe in soft tissue is:
a) 5.0 mm
b) 0.3 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 1.54 mm
b) 0.3 mm
As frequency increases, wavelength (assume same medium):
a) increases
b) decreases
c) not affected
d) varies
b) decreases
Wavelength is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
c) source and medium
As wavelength decreases:
a) resolution improves
b) frequency decreases
c) depth of penetration increases
d) attenuation decreases
a) resolution improves
The rate at which a sound vibration propagates through a medium is called all of the following except:
a) sound speed
b) propagation speed
c) speed of sound
d) velocity
d) velocity
The units for propagation speed include all of the following except:
a) km/sec
b) mph
c) msec
d) mm/sec
c) msec
The average speed of sound in soft tissue is:
a) 1.54 m/sec
b) 1540 m/sec
c) 1.54 cm/sec
d) 154,000 m/sec
b) 1540 m/sec
Arrange the following in increasing order of sound speed in a medium:
fat, bone, muscle, air, soft tissue
air, fat, soft tissue, muscle, bone
The propagation speed of sound of the ceramic lead zirconate titanate (PZT) is approximately:
a) 1.54 mm/sec
b) 330 m/sec
c) 4000 m/sec
d) 2680 m/sec
c) 4000 m/sec
Sound speed is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
b) medium
The peak variation minus the mean variation is:
a) frequency
b) period
c) amplitude
d) intensity
c) amplitude
All of the following are possible units for amplitude except:
a) degrees
b) decibles
c) Pascal
d) watts
d) watts
The maximum variation of an acoustic variable is 60. The mean value is 45. The minimum value is 30. The amplitude is:
a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) 15
d) 15
Amplitude is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
Which of the following ultrasound machine control will affect amplitude?
a) receiver gain
b) threshold
c) time gain compensation
d) output power
d) output power
As sound propagates through a medium, amplitude:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) is unaffected
d) varies
b) decreases
The total energy transferred is:
a) frequency
b) amplitude
c) power
d) intensity
c) power
Power is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
The amplitude of a wave is 4. Power is:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
d) 16
Power may be affected by which gain control?
a) transmit
b) receive
c) time
d) overall
a) transmit
The rate of energy transferred into a particular area is:
a) amplitude
b) power
c) intensity
d) attenuation
c) intensity
The units for intensity are:
a) Hertz
b) watts
c) mm Hg
d) watts per centimeter squared
d) watts per centimeter squared
The highest measured intensity is:
a) spatial peak, temporal peak
b) spatial average, temporal peak
c) spatial peak, temporal average
d) spatial average, temporal average
a) spatial peak, temporal peak
The lowest measured intensity is:
a) spatial peak, temporal peak
b) spatial average, temporal peak
c) spatial peak, temporal average
d) spatial average, temporal average
d) spatial average, temporal average
According to the AIUM, there has been no proven biological effects for unfocused ultrasound below:
a) 1 mW/cm squared SPTP
b) 100 mW/cm squared SPTA
c) 1 W/cm squared SPTA
d) 1000 mW/cm squared SATA
b) 100 mW/cm squared SPTA
According to the AIUM, there has been no proven biological effects for focused ultrasound below:
a) 1 mW/cm squared SPTP
b) 100 mW/cm squared SPTA
c) 1 W/cm squared SPTA
d) 1000 mW/cm squared SATA
c) 1 W/cm squared SPTA
Intensity is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
Which of the following gain controls affect intensity?
a) overall
b) time
c) transmit
d) receiver
c) transmit
Assuming the same area, what effect will an increase in power have on intensity?
a) increase
b) decrease
c) no change
d) varied
a) increase
What effect will an increase in area have on intensity if power remain unchanged?
a) increase
b) decrease
c) no change
d) varied
b) decrease
For continuous wave ultrasound, which of the following intensities are equal?
a) SPPA, SPTA
b) SPPA, SATA
c) SATP, SPPA
d) SPTA, SATA
a) SPPA, SPTA
The factor that describes the spatial intensity distribution across a sound beam is the:
a) duty factor
b) SP/SA factor
c) quality factor
d) bandwidth
b) SP/SA factor
The minimum value for the beam uniformity ratio is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 100
d) 1,000
b) 1
Ultrasound transducer A has a SP/SA factor of 40. Ultrasound transducer B has a SP/SA factor of 20. Which transducer has the brighter center?
a) Transducer A
b) Transducer B
c) Neither
d) Cannot be determined
a) Transducer A
An increase in intensity is determined to be 30 decibels. The intensity is increased by:
a) 1x30 or 30
b) 10x10x10 or 1000
c) 10x10 or 100
d) 10x10x10x10 or 10,000
b) 10x10x10 or 1000
For soft tissue, a 75% loss in intensity can be expressed in decibels as:
a) -0 dB
b) -3 dB
c) -6 dB
d) -9 dB
c) -6 dB
The number 1540 may be expressed in scientific notation as:
a) 1540 x 10‘
b) 1.540 x 10‘
c) 15.40 x 10‘
d) 154.0 x 10‘
b) 1.540 x 10‘
The number 0.1492 may be written in scientific notation as;
a) 1492 x 10‘
b) 1.492 x 10(to the -1 power)
c) 14.92 x 10‘
d) 149.2 x 10(to the -1 power)
b) 1.492 x 10(to the -1 power)
Arrange the following in proper increasing order:
Giga, Mega, Kilo, Hector, Deca
Deca, Hector, Kilo, Mega, Giga
Arrange in decreasing order:
Milli, Centi, Deci, Micro, Nano
Decid, Centi, Milli, Micro, Nano
Arrange the following units of length in increasing order:
Kilometer, Meter, Centimeter, Micrometer, Nanometer
Micrometer, Millimeter, Centimeter, Meter, Kilometer
Which unit would be best to use to express aortic valve area?
a) centimeters squared
b) centimeters
c) cubic meters
d) microseconds
a) centimeters squared
All of the following are correct ways to express the average propagation speed of sound in soft tissue except:
a) 1.54 mm/µsec
b) 1540 m/sec
c) 15,400 cm/sec
d) 1.54 km/sec
c) 15,400 cm/sec
The acoustic characteristic of a medium is:
a) sound velocity
b) density
c) impedance
d) attenuation
c) impedance
The acoustic impedance range for soft tissue is:
a) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) 1 kHz to 10 kHz
c) 1.25 Mrayls to 1.75 Mrayls
d) -10 kHz to +10 kHz
c) 1.25 Mrayls to 1.75 Mrayls
A reflection will occur at the boundary of two media if the media impedances are:
a) equal
b) dissimilar
c) average
d) identical
b) dissimilar
The percentage of sound energy reflected at a fat/muscle interface is approximately:
a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 99.9%
a) 1%
The percentage of sound energy reflected at a soft tissue/air interface is approximately:
a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 99%
d) 99%
A reflector that is smooth surfaced and large is called:
a) specular
b) scatter
c) Rayleigh
d) Parenchyma
a) specular
All of the following are examples of specular reflectors except:
a) mitral valve
b) interventricular septum
c) carotid artery
d) red blood cell
d) red blood cell
Specular reflectors are highly dependent upon:
a) transmit frequency
b) incident angle
c) sound speed
d) pulse repletion period
b) incident angle
Reflectors that are rough surfaced and small are known as:
a) specular
b) transverse
c) scatter
d) angular
c) scatter
Scatter reflectors are highly dependent upon:
a) transmit frequency
b) incident angle
c) spatial pulse length
d) acoustic velocity
a) transmit frequency
The strength of backscatter is dependent upon all of the following except scatter:
a) density
b) size
c) impedance
d) angle
d) angle
Reflectors that reflect ultrasound energy equally in all direction are called:
a) scatter
b) backscatter
c) specular
d) Rayleigh
d) Rayleigh
The best example of a scatter reflector is the:
a) tricuspid valve
b) interatrial septum
c) organ parenchyma
d) abdominal aorta
c) organ parenchyma
The best example of a Rayleigh scatterer is the:
a) pulmonic valve
b) myocardium
c) red blood cell
d) aortic vessel wall
c) red blood cell
The ultrasound beam strikes an interface at ninety degrees. The incidence is considered:
a) perpendicular
b) oblique
c) angular
d) azimuthal
a) perpendicular
The optimal angle to strike specular reflectors is:
a) direct
b) oblique
c) angular
d) azimuthal
a) direct
The reflected intensity coefficient may be calculated by the formula:
a) 4(V2-V1)
b) CSA x V
c) [Z2-Z1/Z2+Z1] squared
d) D3
c) [Z2-Z1/Z2+Z1] squared
The ultrasound beam strikes an interface at 74 degrees. This incidence is considered:
a) perpendicular
b) oblique
c) normal
d) direct
b) oblique
The incidence angle is 36 degrees. The reflected angle is:
a) 0 degrees
b) 18 degrees
c) 36 degrees
d) 72 degrees
c) 36 degrees
The change in sound travel direction as sound crosses a boundary is known as:
a) reflection
b) incidence
c) refraction
d) transmission
c) refraction
The incident angle is 53 degrees. The propagation speed in medium one is 1540 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium two is 1580 m/sec. The reflection angle is:
a) 53 degrees
b) less than 53 degrees
c) greater than 53 degrees
d) cannot be predicted
a) 53 degrees
The incident angle is 46 degrees. The propagation speed in medium one is 1540 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium two is 1540 m/sec. The reflected angle is 46 degrees. The transmitted angle is:
a) 46 degrees
b) less than 46 degrees
c) greater than 46 degrees
d) cannot be predicted
a) 46 degrees
The incident angle is 72 degrees. The propagation speed in medium one is 1580 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium two is 1680 m/sec. The reflected angle is 72 degrees. The transmitted angle is:
a) 72 degrees
b) less than 72 degrees
c) greater than 72 degrees
d) cannot be predicted
c) greater than 72 degrees
The incident angle is 80 degrees. the propagation speed in medium two is 1500 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium one is 1600 m/sec. The reflected angle is 80 degrees. The transmitted angle is:
a) 80 degrees
b) less than 80 degrees
c) greater than 80 degrees
d) cannot be determined
b) less than 80 degrees
Refraction will occur when there is oblique incidence and the (BLANK):
a) impedance are equal
b) propagation speeds are equal
c) impedance are not equal
d) propagation speeds are not equal
d) propagation speeds are not equal
Acoustic couplants are needed because they reduce the impedance difference between the:
a) damping material and the active element
b) matching layer and the active element
c) transducer and skin surface
d) element and electric wires
c) transducer and skin surface
The loss of sound intensity is called:
a) refraction
b) reflection
c) absorption
d) attenuation
d) attenuation
The conversion of sound energy to heat is:
a) absorption
b) reflection
c) scatter
d) refraction
a) absorption
The most important cause of attenuation in soft tissue is:
a) absorption
b) reflection
c) scatter
d) refraction
a) absorption
The most likely cause of sound attenuation in bone is:
a) absorption
b) reflection
c) scatter
d) refraction
b) reflection
The most likely cause of sound attenuation in air is:
a) scatter
b) reflection
c) sound velocity
d) refraction
a) scatter
The units for attenuation coefficient are:
a) dB
b) dB/cm
c) Hertz
d) dB/MHz
b) dB/cm
The attenuation coefficient for 2 MHz in soft tissue is:
a) 1 dB/cm
b) 2 dB/cm
c) 3 dB/cm
d) 5 dB/cm
a) 1 dB/cm
As frequency increases, the attenuation coefficient:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined
a) increases
For soft tissue, the total attenuation for a 2 MHz transducer at 20 cm is:
a) 2 dB
b) 4 dB
c) 16 dB
d) 20 dB
d) 20 dB
As frequency increases, attenuation:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined
a) increases
The half intensity depth for a 2 MHz transducer in soft tissue is:
a) 3 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 9 cm
d) 12 cm
a) 3 cm
Attenuation is lowest in which of the following mediums?
a) bone
b) air
c) water
d) steel
c) water
Increasing frequency will result in all of the following except:
a) range resolution improvement
b) transverse resolution improvement
c) increase depth of penetration
d) decrease in beam diameter
c) increase depth of penetration
Ultrasound transducers utilize which effect upon transmission?
a) piezoelectric
b) reverse piezoelectric
c) Doppler
d) Bernouli
b) reverse piezoelectric
Ultrasound transducers utilize which effect upon reception?
a) piezoelectric
b) reverse piezoelectric
c) Doppler
d) Bernoulli
a) piezoelectric
All of the following possess the piezoelectric property naturally except:
a) quartz
b) Rochelle salts
c) tourmaline
d) lead zirconate titanate
d) lead zirconate titanate
Man-made materials receive the piezoelectric property through the process called:
a) depolarization
b) depolarization
c) repolarization
d) polarization
d) polarization
The most common man-made ceramic used in ultrasound transducers today is:
a) barium titanate
b) lithium sulfate
c) lead zirconate titanate
d) polyvinyl diflouride
c) lead zirconate titanate
The point at which an ultrasound transducer gives up its piezoelectric property is:
a) Bernoulli
b) Curie
c) Doppler
d) Edler
b) Curie
The temperature at which lead zirconate titanate loses its piezoelectric property is:
a) 300 degrees F
b) 400 degrees F
c) 500 degrees F
d) 600 degrees F
d) 600 degrees F
The center frequency for pulsed wave transducers is determined primarily by the element’s:
a) propagation speed
b) bandwidth
c) quality factor
d) thickness
d) thickness
The material that reduces the impedance difference between the active element and soft tissue is the :
a) crystal
b) damping block
c) matching layer
d) PZT
c) matching layer
The optimal thickness for the matching layer is:
a) 1/4 wavelength
b) 1/2 wavelength
c) 3/4 wavelength
d) 1 wavelength
a) 1/4 wavelength
The optimal impedance value for the matching layer is:
a) greater than the active element
b) less than the active element
c) equal to the active element
d) mean between active element and soft tissue
d) mean between active element and soft tissue
The material placed behind the active element to reduce its ringing is the:
a) PZT
b) matching layer
c) damping block
d) cable
c) damping block
The impedance value for the damping block is:
a) greater than the active element
b) less than the active element
c) equal to the active element
d) varies with transducer
c) equal to active element
The number of cycles produced by imaging ultrasound transducers is:
a) 0-1 cycle
b) 2-4 cycles
c) 4-6 cycles
d) 6-8 cycles
b) 2-4 cycles
The damping block reduces all of the following except:
a) pulse duration
b) spatial pulse length
c) duty factor
d) bandwidth
d) bandwidth
Which of the following increases with damping?
a) output intensity
b) sensitivity
c) quality factor
d) bandwidth
d) bandwidth
Which of the following pulsed-wave ultrasound transducers will have the highest frequency?
a) thin element, low propagation speed
b) thick element, low propagation speed
c) thin element, high propagation speed
d) thick element, high propagation speed
c) thin element, high propagation speed
The center frequency of a continuous wave ultrasound transducer is determined by the:
a) thickness of the crystal
b) propagation speed of the crystal
c) driving voltage frequency
d) damping block
c) driving voltage frequency
The propagation speed for PZT is:
a) 1.54 mm/µs
b) 4.0 mm/µs
c) 8 mm/µs
d) 16 mm/µs
b) 4.0 mm/µs
The impedance value for the coupling gel is:
a) greater than the element
b) greater than the matching layer
c) less than the matching layer
d) equal to the damping block
c) less than the matching layer
The sound beam decreases in the:
a) near zone
b) transition point
c) far zone
d) divergence zone
a) near zone
The most effective way to increase near zone length is by increasing transducer:
a) frequency
b) damping
c) diameter
d) wavelength
c) diameter
For a continuous wave 6 mm unfocused transducer, the beam diameter at one near zone length is equal to:
a) 6 mm
b) 3 mm
c) 0 mm
d) 12 mm
b) 3 mm
In the far zone, all of the following decrease except:
a) amplitude
b) intensity
c) beam diameter
d) power
c) beam diameter
The zone of the ultrasound beam beyond the focus is called the:
a) Fraunhofer
b) Fresnel
c) near
d) focal
a) Fraunhofer
Sound beam intensity decreases in the:
a) near zone
b) far zone
c) Fresnel zone
d) Focal region
b) far zone
Methods for reducing the overall beam diameter in the near zone includes all of the following except increase:
a) focus
b) transducer diameter
c) frequency
d) damping
d) damping
A focus method where the electrical pulses to the transducer array are curved is:
a) mechanical
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) external
a) mechanical
Utilizing an acoustic lens is considered which type of focus?
a) internal
b) external
c) electronic
d) dynamic
b) external
A focus method where the electrical pulses to the transducer array are curved is:
a) mechanical
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) external
b) variable
A receive focus method utilizing delay lines is called:
a) mechanical
b) transmit
c) dynamic
d) external
c) dynamic
Which of the following type of focusing is sonographer controlled?
a) internal
b) receive
c) transmit
d) dynamic
c) transmit
All of the following are true statements concerning focusing except:
a) decreases beam diameter in the near zone
b) increases the angle of divergence
c) extends the near zone length
d) improves lateral resolution
c) extends the near zone length
The distance form the front of the transducer to the focus is called the:
a) focal length
b) focus
c) transition point
d) far zone
a) focal length
The narrowest point of the focused sound beam is the:
a) focal length
b) focal zone
c) focus
d) Fresnel zone
c) focus
A strongly focused transducer may be best used to examine the:
a) adult heart
b) neonate heart
c) gallbladder
d) kidneys
b) neonate heart
Strongly focusing a transducer decreases all of the following except:
a) angle of divergence
b) focal length
c) near zone length
d) focal zone length
a) angle of divergence
The resolution defined as the ability to reusable two structures that lie perpendicular to the sound beam is:
a) axial
b) radial
c) longitudinal
d) angular
d) angular
Lateral resolution equals:
a) 0.5 x frequency
b) 0.5 x spatial pulse length
c) 6/frequency
d) beam diameter
d) beam diameter
Transducer A has a lateral resolution of 5 mm. Transducer B has a lateral resolution on 3 mm. Transducer C has a lateral resolution of 2 mm. Which transducer has the best lateral resolution?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) cannot be determined
c) C
Lateral resolution is best in the:
a) near zone
b) focal zone
c) focus
d) far zone
c) focus
Lateral resolution may be improved by all of the following except increasing:
a) transducer diameter
b) transducer frequency
c) focusing
d) transmit gain
d) transmit gain
The numerical value for both lateral resolution and axial resolution may be comparable in the:
a) near zone
b) Fresnel zone
c) focus
d) Fraunhofer zone
c) focus
The resolution that is defined as the ability to resolve two reflectors that lie parallel to beam advancement is:
a) radial
b) lateral
c) angular
d) azimuthal
a) radial
Axial resolution may be called all of the following except:
a) range
b) angular
c) radial
d) longitudinal
b) angular
Axial resolution is equal to:
a) beam diameter
b) 0.5 x frequency
c) 0.5 x spatial pulse length
d) 6/frequency
c) 0.5 x spatial pulse length
Transducer A has a longitudinal resolution of 4 mm. Transducer B has a longitudinal resolution of 6 mm. Transducer C has a longitudinal resolution of 3mm. Which transducer has the poorest longitudinal resolution.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) cannot be predicted
b) B
Axial resolution improves by all of the following methods except:
a) increasing damping
b) decreasing pulse duration
c) increasing transmit frequency
d) decreasing beam diameter
d) decreasing beam diameter
Axial resolution is best at the:
a) near zone
b) focal zone
c) focus
d) equal throughout the beam length
d) equal throughout the beam length
Increasing transducer frequency:
a) increases
b) increases pulse duration
c) improves depth of penetration
d) improves range resolution
d) improves range resolution
The transducer which creates a cross-sectional image by electronically firing a group of elements sequentially is the:
a) wobbler
b) linear switched array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array
b) linear switched array
The linear sequenced array creates an image display that is:
a) rectangular
b) circular
c) pie shaped
d) blunted
a) rectangular
All of the following are true statements concerning the linear sequenced array except:
a) fires group of elements sequentially
b) electronically beam steered
c) comparatively large transducer
d) utilizes mechanical focusing
b) electronically beam steered
A piezoelectric element in a linear sequenced array fails. The result on the image display will be:
a) vertical echo free region
b) confetti like signals
c) horizontal echo free space
d) complete loss of image
a) vertical echo free region
The square shaped transducer with multiple piezoelectric elements arranged in a line that are all electronically fired nearly at the same time is the:
a) oscillating mirror
b) linear sequenced array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array
c) sector phased array
Which of the following transducers utilizes transmit focus?
a) linear sequenced array
b) sector phased array
c) wobbler
d) linear translating
b) sector phased array
All of the following are true statements concerning the sector phased array transducer except:
a) creates a pie-shaped display
b) electronically beam steered
c) utilizes transmit and receive focus
d) comparatively large transducer
d) comparatively large transducer
The most common electronic transducer used in cardiac ultrasound today is the:
a) linear sequenced array
b) convex phased array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array
c) sector phased array
All of the following are true statements concerning the sector phased array transducer except:
a) groups of elements sequentially fired
b) utilizes transmit and receive focus
c) creates a pie-shaped display
d) utilizes beam steering
a) groups of elements sequentially fired
All of the following utilizes electronic beam steering except:
a) linear sequenced array
b) linear phased array
c) sector phased array
d) convex phased array
a) linear sequenced array
The transducer that is fired electronically and mechanically steered is the:
a) Wobbler
b) Rotary Wheel
c) Annular array
d) convex phased array
c) annular array
All of the following are true statements concerning annular array except:
a) creates sector image
b) utilizes transmit and receive focus
c) comparatively poor lateral resolution
d) mechanically steered
c) comparatively poor lateral resolution
All of the following are considered mechanical transducers except:
a) Wobbler
b) Rotary Wheel
c) Oscillating mirror
d) Phased array
d) phased array
All of the following create a sector display except:
a) Wobbler
b) Rotating wheel
c) oscillating mirror
d) convex array
d) convex array
All of the following are true statements concerning mechanical transducers except:
a) utilize motor to beam steer
b) create sector display
c) utilize electronic focus
d) utilize fixed transmit focus
c) utilize electronic focus
Which of the following is an Arc shaped transducer:
a) Rotating wheel
b) linear sequenced array
c) convex switched array
d) annular array
c) convex switched array
All of the following are true statements concerning the convex sequenced array except:
a) Arc shaped transducer
b) creates rectangular display
c) utilizes mechanical focusing techniques
d) no beam steering
b) creates rectangular display
The convex switched array operates similar to the:
a) linear sequenced array
b) linear phased array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array
a) linear sequenced array
All of the following are true statements concerning the convex phased array except:
a) utilized mechanical focusing and steering
b) operates on the same principle as the sector phased array
c) creates a blunted sector
d) Arc shaped transducer
a) utilizes mechanical focusing and steering
All of the following formulas are a way to write the range equation for soft tissue except:
a) 0.5 x [propagation speed (mm/µs) x pulse round trip (µs)]
b) 0.5 x 1540 m/s
c) 0.77 x pulse round trip time (µs)
d) pulse round trip time (µs) / 13 µs
b) 0.5 x 1540 m/s
The pulse round trip time in soft tissue is 260 µs the distance to the reflector is:
a) 1 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 100 cm
d) 20 cm
d) 20 cm
A (BLANK) is a few sound cycles:
a) wave
b) pulse
c) rarefaction
d) compression
b) pulse
The number of pulses emitted by the ultrasound transducer per second is:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
a) pulse repetition frequency
The formula used to determine pulse repetition frequency is:
a) propagation speed / frequency
b) wavelength x frequency
c) 1/period
d) 1/pulse repetition period
d) 1/pulse repetition period
The clinical range for pulse repetition frequency is:
a) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) 1,000 Hz to 10,000 Hz
c) -10,000 Hz to +10,000 Hz
d) 1,000 kHz to 1,000,000 kHz
b) 1,000 Hz to 10,000 Hz
The imaging depth is increased, pulse repetition frequency:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) cannot be predicted
b) decreases
Pulse repetition frequency is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
??? The sonographer can affect all the following except:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) intensity
c) pulse duration
The time between the beginning of one pulse to the beginning of the next emitted pulse is called:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
b) pulse repetition period
The imaging depth is increased, pulsed repetition period:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) cannot be predicted
a) increases
The time for one pulse is
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) duty factor
c) pulse duration
The formula for pulse duration is number of cycles in a pulse multiplied by:
a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) amplitude
b) period
Pulse duration is determined by the :
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
All of the following are affected by image depth except:
a) pulse duration
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) pulse repetition period
d) duty factor
a) pulse duration
All of the following will increase pulse duration except:
a) increasing period
b) increasing number of cycles in pulse
c) increasing image depth
d) decreasing frequency
c) increasing image depth
Changing pulse duration will affect all of the following except:
a) axial resolution
b) lateral resolution
c) spatial pulse length
d) duty factor
b) lateral resolution
Axial resolution is affected by all of the following except:
a) pulse duration
b) spatial pulse length
c) image depth
d) transmit frequency
c) image depth
Decreasing the frequency increases all of the following except:
a) sound velocity
b) period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
a) sound velocity
The distance of one pulse is called:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
d) spatial pulse length
The formula for spatial pulse length is the number of cycles in a pulse x (BLANK)
a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) pulse duration
c) wavelength
Spatial pulse length is determined by the :
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
c) source and medium
All of the following will increase spatial pulse length except:
a) increasing wavelength
b) decreasing frequency
c) increasing number of cycles in a pulse
d) increasing receiver gain
d) increasing receiver gain
The resolution most affected by spatial pulse length is:
a) longitudinal
b) azimuthal
c) contrast
d) temporal
a) longitudinal
The sonographer can not affect:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) spatial pulse length
d) duty factor
c) spatial pulse length
The percentage of time that the ultrasound instrument is emitting ultrasound is called:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) duty factor
d) duty factor
The units for duty factor are:
a) Hertz
b) mm
c) ms
d) unit-less
d) unit-less
The maximum value for duty factor is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 10
d) 100
b) 1
The minimum value for the duty factor is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 10%
d) 100%
a) 0
Duty factor is determined by the :
a) source
b) medium
c) medium and source
d) sonographer
a) source
Increasing the imaging depth affects all of the following except:
a) axial resolution
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) pulse repetition period
d) duty factor
a) axial resolution
By increasing the image depth, duty factor:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined
b) decreases
By increasing the pulse repetition frequency the duty factor:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) unchanged
a) increases
By increasing pulse duration, duty factor:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) varies
a) increases
By increasing the pulse repetition period, duty factor:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) varies
b) decreases
Which of the following components delivers electrical shock to the transducer:
a) pulser
b) receiver
c) memory
d) display
a) pulser
The pulser is connected to all of the following except:
a) transducer
b) receiver
c) memory
d) display
d) display
All of the following affect the ultrasound dose to the patient except:
a) pulser
b) output gain
c) transmit gain
d) time gain compensation
d) time gain compensation
The sonographer controls the pulser by which of the following controls:
a) receiver gain
b) acoustic power
c) time gain compensation
d) reject
b) acoustic power
All of the following functions are performed by the receiver except:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) demodulation
d) post processing
d) post processing
Which of the following lists the correct sequence of receiver function:
a) rejection, demodulation, compression, compensation, amplification
b) compensation, compression, demodulation, rejection, amplification
c) amplification, compensation, compression, demodulation, rejection
d) demodulation, compression, compensation, rejection, amplification
c) amplification, compensation, compression, demodulation, rejection
The sonographer may control all the following except:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) demodulation
d) rejection
c) demodulation
Which of the following receiver function amplifies all the returning signals regardless of depth:
a) amplification
b) compression
c) compensation
d) rejection
a) amplification
Which instrument control directly affects amplification:
a) transmit gain
b) overall gain
c) time gain compensation
d) threshold
b) overall gain
Which of the following receiver functions equalizes signal strength based on reflector depth:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) rejection
b) compensation
Depth gain compensation, compensates for:
a) amplitude
b) attenuation
c) period
d) power
b) attenuation
Which of the following receiver function reduces dynamic range;
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) demodulation
c) compression
Which of the following has the greatest dynamic range:
a) transducer
b) amplifier
c) memory
d) display
a) transducer
Which of the following has the narrowest dynamic range:
a) transducer
b) amplifier
c) memory
d) display
d) display
Rectification and smoothing are a function of :
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) demodulation
d) demodulation
Demodulation is determined by the :
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
The receiver function that eliminates or includes weak signals is:
a) compression
b) compensation
c) demodulation
d) reject
d) reject
The sonographer controls all of the following receiver functions except:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) rejection
d) compression
d) compression
The ration of the strongest amplitude signal to the weakest amplitude signal that a particular component may process is called:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) dynamic range
d) dynamic range
The assignment of a number to the analog signal leaving the receiver is called:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) pre processing
d) post processing
c) pre processing
Pre processing is performed by the:
a) transducer
b) receiver
c) analog to digital converter
d) digital to analog converter
c) analog to digital converter
In general the dynamic range for clinical ultrasound is:
a) 10 dB to 20 dB
b) 10 to 50
c) 10 dB to 60 dB
d) 10 dB to 80 dB
d) 10 dB to 80 dB
The mode that displays returning signals as vertical spikes is:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) M
a) A
The mode that displays returning echoes as bright dots is:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) T-M
b) B
The mode that displays retuning echoes only from a pre selected depth is:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) T-M
c) C
The mode that displays motion over time is:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) M
d) M
C - mode operates similar to:
a) A mode
b) M mode
c) 2D
d) pulse wave doppler
d) pulse wave doppler
An articulated arm is used for:
a) A mode
b) real time B scan
c) static B scan
d) pulsed wave doppler
c) static B scan
Optical encoders and/or electrical resistors are used in:
a) A mode
b) real time B scan
c) static B scan
d) color flow doppler
c) static B scan
The time it takes for an ultrasound pulse to travel 1 cm round trip in soft tissue is:
a) 6.5 µs
b) 13 µs
c) 260 µs
d) 1 second
b) 13 µs
The pulse round trip time in soft tissue is determined to be 130 µs the depth of the reflector is:
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm
b) 10 cm
The pulse time to a reflector is 52 µs in soft tissue, the reflector depth is:
a) 4 cm
b) 8 cm
c) 16 cm
d) 20 cm
b) 8 cm
??? The propagation speed of a material is 2.0 mm/µs the pulse round trip time is 200 µs, the reflector depth is:
a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 20 mm
d) 200 mm
d) 200 mm
One scan line represents:
a) one cycle
b) wavelength
c) pulse
d) second
c) pulse
The average number of lines per frame in clinical ultrasound imaging is:
a) 10 to 100
b) 50 to 100
c) 100 to 150
d) 150 to 200
c) 100 to 150
The standard frame rate for clinical ultrasound imaging is:
a) 10 frames/second
b) 20 frames/second
c) 30 frames/second
d) 40 frames/second
c) 30 frames/second
Flicker will accrue when the frame rate decreases below:
a) 75 frames/second
b) 60 frames/ second
c) 30 frames/second
d) 15 frames/second
d) 15 frames/second
For soft tissue, image depth, lines per frame and frame rate may not exceed:
a) 1540
b) 154,000
c) 77,000
d) 100,000
c) 77,000
The product of image depth, lines per frame and frame rate is equal to 100,000. Which artifact may occur:
a) reverberation
b) aliasing
c) acoustic speckle
d) range ambiguity
d) range ambiguity
The resolution defined as the ability to resolve events closely spaced in time is:
a) angular
b) range
c) temporal
d) azimuthal
c) temporal
Temporal resolution is determined by:
a) spatial pulse length
b) frame rate
c) wavelength
d) beam diameter
b) frame rate
The resolution that is enhanced by increasing frame rate is:
a) axial lateral
b) lateral
c) temporal
d) contrast
c) temporal
All of the following will improve temporal resolution except:
a) decreasing image depth
b) decreasing image display width
c) decreasing transducer frequency
d) utilizing write magnification
c) decreasing transducer frequency
The scan converter most commonly used in clinical imaging ultrasound instruments is the:
a) analog
b) digital
c) fast fourier
d) matrix
b) digital
The smallest component of a display is the:
a) pixel
b) matrix
c) byte
d) cine-loop
a) pixel
The standard digital scan converter matrix size used in clinical imaging ultrasound is:
a) 100 x 100
b) 200 x 200
c) 512 x 512
d) 624 x 624
c) 512 x 512
The decimal number 20 may be written in binary as:
a) 020
b) 101
c) 10100
d) 10111
c) 10100
The binary number 1110 represents the decimal number:
a) 1110
b) 14
c) 111
d) 8421
b) 14
The number of gray shades that may be displayed by a three bit digital system is:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
c) 8
Most digital scan converters in clinical use today have at least:
a) 1 bit
b) 3 bits
c) 6 bits
d) 9 bits
c) 6 bits
A 1 bit digital system is considered:
a) singular
b) optimal
c) bi-stable
d) experimental
c) bi-stable
The number of gray shades that digital systems may display may be calculated by the formula:
a) CSA x VTI
b) 4 x V squared
c) .785 x diameter(d) squared
d) 2x
d) 2x
Post processing is performed by the:
a) transducer
b) analog to digital converter
c) digital to analog converter
d) cathode ray tube
c) digital to analog converter
Spatial resolution is improved by all of the following steps except:
a) increasing the number of television lines
b) increasing the number of pixels
c) decreasing the field of view
d) decreasing the transmit frequency
d) decreasing the transmit frequency
The correct sequence for image storage is:
a) receiver-ADC-memory-DAC-display
b) receiver-display-memory-DAC-ADC
c) ADC-receiver-memory-display-DAC
d) ADC-receiver-memory-display-DAC
a) receiver-ADC-memory-DAC-display
All of the following affect spatial resolution except:
a) number of pixels
b) number of television lines
c) transducer frequency
d) intensity
d) intensity
A television cathode ray tube writes in a format called:
a) analog
b) digital
c) binary
d) raster
d) raster
The number of fields displayed at a frame rate of 30 is:
a) 15
b) 30
c) 60
d) 90
c) 60
The material will emit light when struck by electrons:
a) tourmaline
b) phosphor
c) quartz
d) titanate
b) phosphor
The assignment of specific shades of gray to number leaving the memory is:
a) demodulation
b) pre processing
c) post processing
d) compensation
c) post processing
All of the following are true statements concerning post processing except:
a) performed by the digital to analog converter
b) sonographer selectable
c) able to affect stored and live images
d) allows for rite magnification
d) allows for rite magnification
A change in the frequency of a sound wave relative to the motion of the source and/or the observer is:
a) Boernoulli Principle
b) Ohms Law
c) Doppler Principle
d) Doppler Shift
d) Doppler Principle
The Doppler Shift will be 0 when the intercept angle is:
a) 0 degrees
b) 20 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees
d) 90 degrees
The difference between the transmitted and received frequency is the doppler:
a) frequency
b) velocity
c) shift
d) principle
c) shift
As red blood cell velocity increases, the doppler shift:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) is unchanged
d) varies
a) increases
All of the following are true statements concerning the doppler examination except:
a) positive doppler shifts are displayed above the 0 baseline
b) negative doppler shifts are displayed below the 0 baseline
c) the greater the red blood cell velocity the greater the doppler shift
d) the optimal doppler intercept angle is 90 degrees
d) the optimal doppler intercept angle is 90 degrees
The best example of a Rayleigh scatterer is the:
a) diaphragm
b) heart wall
c) liver Parenchyma
d) Red blood cell
d) Red blood cell
In increase in transmitted frequency will have which affect on backscatter:
a) decrease
b) increase
c) unchanged
d) varies
b) increase
In general the preferred transmitted frequency for the doppler examination is:
a) higher as compared to imaging
b) equal to that of imaging
c) lower as compared to imaging
d) in not contributory
c) lower as compared to imaging
As compared to the Echo amplitude from a specular reflector, back scatters echo amplitude is:
a) greater than
b) equal to
c) less than
d) dependent on the type of scatterer reflector
c) less than
As compared to a specular reflector, the echo strength from a red blood cell is:
a) 1/10 to 1/100
b) 1/100 to 1/1,000
c) 1/1,000 to 1/10,000
d) 1/10,000 to 1/100,000
b) 1/100 to 1/1,000
All of the following are true statements concerning the doppler equation except:
a) an increase in transmitted frequency will result in an increase in the doppler shift
b) sound speed of soft tissue is considered a constant
c) a decrease in red blood cell velocity will increase the detected doppler shift
d) a decrease in the intercept angle will increase the detected doppler shift
c) a decrease in red blood cell velocity will increases the detected doppler shift
The intercept angle which will yield a doppler shift that is one-half the true doppler shift is:
a) 0 degrees
b) 30 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees
c) 60 degrees
The cosign of 0 degrees is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
b) 1
The cosign of 60 degrees is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
c) 0.5
The cosign of 90 degrees is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
a) 0
The cosign of 180 degrees is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
b) 1
The doppler shift range for clinical imaging ultrasound is:
a) 1 kHz to 10 kHz
b) -10 kHz to 10 kHz
c) -1 kHz to 10 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) -10 kHz to 10 kHz
A 20 degree doppler intercept angle will result in a:
a) 6% overestimation of a true doppler shift
b) 6% underestimation of a true doppler shift
c) has no effect on true doppler shift
d) indeterminable
b) 6% underestimation of a true doppler shift
A 60 degree doppler intercept angle will result in a:
a) 50% overestimation of true doppler shift
b) 50% underestimation of true doppler shift
c) has no effect on true doppler shift
d) undetermined
b) 50% underestimation of true doppler shift
A 90 degree doppler intercept angle will result in a:
a) 100% overestimation of true doppler shift
b) 100% underestimation of true doppler shift
c) has no effect on true doppler shift
d) undetermined
b) 100% underestimation of true doppler shift
The doppler spectral display will provide information about all of the following except blood flow:
a) type
b) direction
c) duration
d) character
a) type
By convention a positive doppler shift will be placed:
a) above the 0 baseline
b) below the 0 baseline
c) horizontally on 0 baseline
d) varies
a) above the 0 baseline
The units that may be used to express red blood cell doppler velocity are:
a) Hertz
b) kHz
c) m/s
d) cm squared
c) m/s
An increase in PW doppler spectral broadening and wind fill in may represent:
a) laminar flow
b) Plug flow
c) turbulent flow
d) inlet
c) turbulent flow
Currently the conventional doppler spectral analysis is accompanied by:
a) auto correlation
b) fast fourier transform
c) Bernoulli Principle
d) time interval histogram
b) fast fourier transform
The x axis of the doppler spectral display represents:
a) flow duration
b) peak flow velocity
c) amplitude of blood flow
d) intensity of blood flow
a) flow duration
The y axis of the doppler spectral display represents:
a) flow duration
b) peak flow velocity
c) amplitude
d) mean flow volume
b) peak flow velocity
The z axis of the doppler spectral display represents:
a) Blood flow duration
b) peak flow velocity
c) amplitude of blood flow
d) blood flow direction
c) amplitude of blood flow
The doppler gray scale is affected by all of the following except:
a) blood type
b) wall filter
c) transmit gain
d) reflector amplitude
a) blood type
The doppler modal velocity represents:
a) average blood flow velocity
b) amplitude of blood flow
c) peak frequency shift
d) peak velocity
b) amplitude of blood flow
Which of the following represents the doppler maximum pressure gradient:
a) mean velocity
b) modal velocity
c) peak velocity
d) average velocity
c) peak velocity
The doppler wall filter is considered a:
a) low pass filter
b) modal filter
c) high pass filter
d) high gain filter
c) high pass filter
The doppler wall filter eliminates:
a) low amplitude, low velocity signals
b) high amplitude, low velocity signals
c) low amplitude, high velocity signals
d) high amplitude, high velocity signals
b) high amplitude, low velocity signals
Doppler wall filters are considered high pass filters because they eliminate:
a) low doppler frequency shifts
b) modal doppler frequency shifts
c) high doppler frequency shifts
d) high doppler blood flow velocities
a) low doppler frequency shifts
Increasing the doppler transmit gain will cause all of the following to increase except:
a) background noise
b) magnitude of doppler shift
c) spectral broadening
d) mirroring
b) magnitude of doppler shift
Excessive conventional doppler transmit gain may cause the artifact:
a) acoustic speckle
b) comet tail
c) mirroring
d) ghosting
c) mirroring
If the conventional doppler intercept angle is not 0 degrees, which of the following artifacts may occur:
a) acoustic speckle
b) mirroring
c) slice thickness
d) ghosting
b) mirroring
Spectral broadening may be caused by all of the following except:
a) turbulent flow
b) large sample gate size
c) increase doppler transmit gain
d) decrease in transmit frequency
d) decrease in transmit frequency
All of the following are possible doppler artifacts except:
a) acoustic speckle
b) mirroring
c) electrical interference
d) aliasing
a) acoustic speckle
All of the following contribute to the presentation of the conventional doppler information except:
a) visual
b) fast fourier transform
c) audio
d) autocorrelation
d) autocorrelation
The magnitude of the doppler shift in the clinical setting fails in the sound range that is:
a) infrasound
b) subsonic
c) audible
d) ultrasound
c) audible
The doppler audio aids in all the following ways except:
a) improves the angle of incidence
b) determines laminar flow
c) determines turbulent flow
d) provides the mean velocity
d) provides the mean velocity
All of the following true statements concerning continuous wave doppler except:
a) requires 1 piezoelectric element
b) center frequency is determined by the driving voltage
c) doppler shift information is detected all along the sound beam path
d) able to resolve high blood flow velocity
a) requires 1 piezoelectric element
The dedicated continuous wave pencil probe is called the:
a) Bernoulli
b) doppler
c) pedoff
d) Poiseulle
c) pedoff
The major disadvantage of continuous wave doppler is:
a) aliasing
b) nyquist limit
c) lack of range resolution
d) unable to resolve high blood flow velocity
c) lack of range resolution
The major advantage of continuous wave doppler is:
a) range resolution
b) resolves high velocity blood flow
c) range ambiguity
d) 1 piezoelectric element only
b) resolves high velocity blood flow
All of the following are true statements concerning pulse wave doppler except:
a) requires two piezoelectric elements
b) utilizes longer pulse lengths compared to imaging
c) governed by the nyquist limit
d) greater intensity levels as compared to imaging
a) requires two piezoelectric elements
Which of the following ultrasound modalities expose the patient to the greatest acoustic output:
a) M mode
b) two dimensional
c) continuous wave doppler
d) pulse wave doppler
d) pulse wave doppler
The major advantage of pulse wave doppler is:
a) range resolution
b) aliasing
c) nyquist limit
d) range ambiguity
a) range resolution
Compared to clinical ultrasound imaging axial resolution for pulse wave doppler is:
a) better than imaging
b) poorer than imaging
c) equal to imaging
d) cannot be compared
b) poorer than imaging
Which of the following statements is true concerning the relationship between doppler and reflectors:
a) processes scatter reflectors, filter out specular reflectors
b) processes both scatter and specular reflectors
c) processes specular reflectors, filters out scatter reflectors
d) filters out both specular and scatter reflectors
a) processes scatter reflectors
The artifact associated with a doppler shift exceeding the nyquist limit is:
a) acoustic speckle
b) aliasing
c) reverberation
d) shadowing
b) aliasing
The major disadvantage of pulse waved doppler is:
a) range resolution
b) high velocity resolution
c) aliasing
d) range gating
c) aliasing
Aliasing will occur in which of the following pulse wave doppler examples:
a) doppler shift if 3 kHz; PRF is 5 kHz
b) doppler shift is 4 kHz; PRF is 10 kHz
c) doppler shift is 5 kHz; PRF is 15 kHz
d) doppler shift is 6 kHz; PRF is 20 kHz
a) doppler shift is 3 kHz; PRF is 5 kHz
To avoid aliasing during a pulse waved doppler examination the sonographer may do all of the following except:
a) utilize the pedoff probe
b) decrease image depth
c) shift the 0 baseline
d) increase the transmit frequency
d) increase the transmit frequency
Color flow doppler utilizes the ultrasound modality of:
a) pulse wave
b) continuous wave
c) high pulse repetition
d) amplitude mode
a) pulse wave
Color flow doppler is a:
a) single gate method
b) multi gate method
c) biplane method
d) multiplane method
b) multi gate method
The most likely number of sample gates used per color doppler scan line is approximately:
a) 1-10
b) 10-100
c) 100-250
d) 250-500
d) 250-500
The number of ultrasound pulses per scan line for color flow doppler is referred to as the:
a) range gate
b) multi gate
c) packet size
d) frame rate
c) packet size
Increasing the packet size improves the:
a) mean doppler shift estimation
b) frame rate
c) image depth
d) color threshold
a) mean doppler shift estimation
Increasing the packet size may result in all of the following except:
a) improvement of the mean doppler shift estimate
b) frame rate decrease
c) alternation of the transmit frequency
d) decrease in line density
c) alternation of the transmit frequency
Color flow doppler information is placed where tissue should appear, the sonographer should decrease:
a) packet size
b) line density
c) frame rate
d) color threshold
d) color threshold
As the color doppler image depth is increased all of the following will decrease except:
a) PRF
b) nyquist limit
c) frame rate
d) duty factor
d) duty factor
The technique used to process color doppler frequency shift information is:
a) fast fourier transform
b) 0 crossing detector
c) time interval histogram
d) autocorrelation
d) autocorrelation
The velocity display by color flow doppler is the:
a) peak velocity
b) mean
c) modal
d) maximum
b) mean
Peak velocity maybe determined by all of the following doppler modalities except:
a) pulse wave
b) CW
c) high PRF
d) color flow
d) color flow
A color flow doppler mosaic pattern suggests:
a) laminar flow
b) plug flow
c) turbulent flow
d) inlet flow
c) turbulent flow
By convention, blood moving towards the transducer will be color coded:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
a) red
By convention, blood moving away from the transducer will be color coded:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
b) blue
By convention, the color used to indicate the absence of doppler shift is:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
c) black
By convention, the color used to indicate turbulent flow is:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
d) green
A dull red in a color flow doppler image represents:
a) high velocity flow away from the transducer
b) low velocity flow towards the transducer
c) turbulent flow away from the transducer
d) stagnant flow
b) low velocity flow towards the transducer
By color flow doppler convention a bright color represents:
a) high velocity
b) laminar flow
c) turbulent flow
d) low velocity
a) high velocity
Turbulent flow moving towards the transducer will be color encoded:
a) red
b) red with green
c) blue with green
d) Black
b) red and green
Turbulent flow moving away from the transducer will be color encoded:
a) red
b) red with green
c) blue with green
d) black
c) blue with green
The color flow doppler artifact associated with the super imposition of color on moving tissue is:
a) aliasing
b) ghosting
c) reverberation
d) shadowing
b) ghosting
(WRONG) A color doppler artifact associated with the super imposition of color on moving tissue is:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
(WRONG)
c) black
Which of the following ultrasound modalities has the highest intensity values:
a) M mode
b) 2D
c) PW
d) CW
c) PW
PW doppler has the highest intensity values for all of the following reasons except utilizes:
a) higher PRF
b) higher transmit frequencies
c) longer pulse lengths
d) greater dwell times as compared to imaging
b) higher transmit frequencies
The artifact that is associated with multiple reflections spaced equally is:
a) refraction
b) reverberation
c) acoustic speckle
d) multi path
b) reverberation
The artifact defined as apparent tissue texture is:
a) refraction
b) reverberation
c) acoustic speckle
d) slice thickness
c) acoustic speckle
Refraction may cause a reflector to be misplaced:
a) central
b) medial
c) lateral
d) superior
c) lateral
??? The axial resolution for ultrasound system A is 2 mm. The axial resolution for ultrasound system B is 6 mm. The ultrasound resolution for system C is 4 mm. Which system will be able to resolve structures 3mm apart?
a) System A
b) System B
c) System C
d) none of the above
a) System A
The artifact that may cause a fluid filled cyst to appear filled in:
a) reverberation
b) acoustic speckle
c) ring down
d) slice thickness
d) slice thickness
Multi path results in an error of:
a) apparent tissue texture
b) edge shadowing
c) multiple echoes equally spaced
d) improper depth
d) improper depth
Weak reflections due to low intensity sound beams which diverge from the main sound beam are due to:
a) refraction
b) side lobes
c) mirror image
d) comet tail
b) side lobes
The transducer type that may produce grating lobes is the :
a) single element
b) oscillating mirror
c) array
d) wobbler
c) array
If the propagation speed of a material is greater than 1540 m/s the returning echoes will be placed to:
a) lateral
b) medial
c) close
d) far
c) close
If the propagation speed of a material is less than 1540 m/s the returning echoes will be placed to:
a) lateral
b) medial
c) close
d) far
d) far
Shadowing involves intervening structures whose attenuating qualities are:
a) low
b) high
c) varied
d) mixed
b) high
The artifact that may cause prosthetic valve mitral regurgitation to be missed during a cardiac doppler examination is:
a) enhancement
b) reverberation
c) refraction
d) shadowing
d) shadowing
The artifact where there is a reduction in the strength of returning echoes due to intervening structure of increased attenuation is:
a) refraction
b) multi path
c) shadowing
d) enhancement
d) shadowing
The enhancement artifact is caused by intervening reflectors that are:
a) weak
b) strong
c) small
d) large
a) weak
The best method for predicting the volume of an irregular shaped object is the:
a) area length
b) bullet
c) Simpson’s method of disc
d) cubed
c) Simpson’s method of disc
The area of a circle may be derived from each of the following diameter formulas except:
a) diameter cubed
b) 3.14 x (diameter/2) squared
c) 3.14 x diameter squared / 4
d) .785 x diameter squared
a) diameter cubed
Simpson’s rule calculates volume by which of the following formulas:
a) area x length x length
b) diameter cubed
c) area x length x minor axis
d) area x length x width
d) area x length x width
The ingredients of the AIUM 100 mm tests object includes all of the following except:
a) water
b) tungsten powder
c) algae inhibitor
d) alcohol
b) tungsten powder
The sound velocity for the AIUM 100 mm tests object is:
a) 1.540 m/s
b) 1540 m/s
c) 1054 km/s
d) 1540 mm/s
b) 1540 m/s
For the AIUM 100 mm tests object, which tests measures the weakest signal that a system may display:
a) minimum sensitivity
b) axial resolution
c) depth calibration
d) dead zone
a) minimum sensitivity
For the AIUM test object, which face and rod group should be used for testing a systems minimum sensitivity:
a) face A, rod group D
b) face B, rod group B
c) face A, rod group C
d) any face, any rod
d) any face, any rod
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which tests measure an ultrasound systems ability to resolve two structures that lie parallel to the direction of sound propagation:
a) minimum sensitivity
b) axial resolution
c) lateral resolution
d) range accuracy
b) axial resolution
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group set should be used to test an ultrasound systems axial resolution:
a) Face A, Rod group A
b) Face A, rod group B
c) Face A, rod group C
d) Face A, rod group D
a) Face A, rod group A
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, the test that measures an ultrasound systems ability to resolve structures that lie perpendicular to the sound beam direction is:
a) axial resolution
b) lateral resolution
c) depth calibration
d) range accuracy
b) lateral resolution
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group should be used to test an ultrasound systems for lateral resolution:
a) Face B, rod group D
b) Face B, rod group C
c) Face B, rod group B
d) Face B, rod group A
c) Fave B, rod group B
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which test measures an ultrasound systems vertical electronic caliber accuracy:
a) lateral resolution
b) depth calibration
c) registration accuracy
d) dead zone
b) depth calibration
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group should be used to test ultrasound systems depth calibration:
a) Face A, rod group A
b) Face B, rod group B
c) Face A, rod group C
d) Face D, rod group D
c) Face A, rod group C
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which test measures an ultrasound systems ability to become a receiver after transmitting:
a) depth calibration
b) range accuracy
c) dead zone
d) axial resolution
c) dead zone
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group should be used to measure an ultrasound systems dead zone:
a) Face A, rod group D
b) Face A, rod group C
c) Face A, rod group B
d) Face A, rod group A
a) Face A, rod group D
Which of the following performance test instruments best mimics the attenuation and scatter characteristics of soft tissue:
a) AIUM 100 mm test object
b) tissue phantom
c) hydrophone
d) SUAR
b) tissue phantom
All of the following are the monographers responsibility for preventative maintenance except:
a) display screen surface
b) evaluating for cable wear and tear
c) evaluating pulser power
d) cleaning machine filters
c) evaluating pulser power
All of the following will increase when transmit gain is increased except:
a) impedance
b) pressure
c) power
d) intensity
a) impedance
The units for pressure include all of the following except:
a) Pascal
b) Newton per square meter
c) atmosphere
d) watts
d) watts
Which of the following has the greatest intensity value for clinical imaging ultrasound:
a) B- mode
b) M mode
c) PW doppler
d) CW doppler
c) PW doppler
The units that may be used to measure the ultrasound dose to the patient is:
a) inches
b) Pascals
c) Joules/cm squared
d) lbs/in squared
c) joules/cm squared
The sonographer may be able to minimize the ultrasound dose to the patient by all of the following except:
a) decrease transmit gain
b) increase receiver gain
c) increase duty factor
d) shorten exam time
c) increase duty factor
Question b
The main cause of attenuation in soft tissue is:
a) scatter
b) absorption
c) reflection
d) refraction
b) absorption
Absorption is associated with the bio-effect mechanism of:
a) transient cavitation
b) stable cavitation
c) thermal
d) direct mechanical
c) thermal
The AIUM has stated that there has been no confirmed bio effects for a body temperature rise of less than:
a) 1 degree F
b) 1 degree C
c) 1 degree K
d) 98.6 degrees F
b) 1 degree C
The type of cavitation where there is an expansion and contraction of a gas bubble with possible micro streaming is:
a) absorption
b) stable
c) transient
d) direct mechanical
b) stable
The type of cavitation where there is an implosion of a gas bubble with a release of a great amount of energy is:
a) absorption
b) stable
c) transient
d) direct mechanical
c) transient
The type of bio effect mechanism caused by the movement of a mediums particles is:
a) thermal
b) stable cavitation
c) transient cavitation
d) direct mechanical
d) direct mechanical
Experimental studies performed in the living body of a plant or animal is called:
a) In vitro
b) In vivo
c) epidemiology
d) experimental
b) in vivo
Experimental studies performed outside the living body in an artificial environment is called:
a) in vitro
b) in vivo
c) epidemiology
d) experimental
a) in vitro
The study of the prevalence of disease is:
a) biology
b) physics
c) epidemiology
d) archeology
c) epidemiology
The period of a 4 MHz transducer is:
a) 0.15 ms
b) 0.25 µs
c) 0.35 ms
d) 0.45 ms
b) 0.25 µs
For soft tissue, the wavelength of a 5 MHz transducer is:
a) 0.3 mm
b) 0.5 mm
c) 1.0 mm
d) 5.0 mm
a) 0.3 mm
The density of a medium is 2000 kg/m cubed and the propagation speed is 1.0 m/µs, the impedance is (BLANK) rayls.
a) 2000
b) 20,000
c) 200,000
d) 2,000,000
d) 2,000,000
The spatial pulse length for a 3 cycle pulse with a wavelength of 4 mm is:
a) 3 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 7 mm
d) 12 mm
d) 12 mm
For soft tissue, the spatial pulse length for a 2 MHz transducer which emits a 2 cycle pulse is:
a) 1.5 mm
b) 2.0 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 4.0 mm
a) 1.5 mm
Determine the pulse duration for a 3 cycle pulse with a frequency of 3 MHz:
a) 0.3 mm
b) 0.5 ms
c) 1.0 µs
d) 1.3 µs
c) 1.0 µs
The power of a sound wave is 30 Pascals the area in which the sound wave is traveling is 10 cm squared. How will the intensity be affected if power is doubled and the area remain unchanged?
a) Doubled
b) tripled
c) quadrupled
d) unchanged
a) doubled
The power of a sound wave is 40 Pascals, the area in which the sound wave is traveling is 10 cm squared. How will the intensity be affected if area is doubled and power remain unchanged?
a) doubled
b) halved
c) quadrupled
d) unchanged
b) halved
The maximum variation of a sound wave acoustic variable is 15, the minimum variation is 5, the mean value is 10. The amplitude of the sound wave is:
a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) 5
d) 5
In soft tissue the attenuation coefficient is equal to:
a) 0.5 dB/cm/MHz
b) 1.0 dB/cm/MHz
c) 1.5 dB/cm/MHz
d) 2.0 dB/cm/MHz
a) 0.5 dB/cm/MHz
The attenuation coefficient for a 5 MHz sound wave traveling in soft tissue is:
a) 1.0 dB/cm
b) 1.5 dB/cm
c) 2.0 dB/cm
d) 2.5 dB/cm
d) 2.5 dB/cm
The total attenuation for a 3 MHz sound wave traveling in soft tissue 2 cm is:
a) 1.0 dB
b) 2.0 dB
c) 3.0 dB
d) 4.0 dB
c) 3.0 dB
The half intensity depth for a 3 MHz transducer in soft tissue is:
a) 1 cm
b) 2 cm
c) 3 cm
d) 4 cm
b) 2 cm
The initial intensity of a 3 MHz sound wave traveling in soft tissue is 100 mW/cm squared, determine the remaining intensity at an image depth of 2 cm squared?
a) 100 mW/cm squared
b) 75 mW/cm squared
c) 50 mW/cm squared
d) 25 mW/cm squared
c) 50 mW/cm squared
The impedance value for medium 1 is 100 rayls, the impedance value for medium 2 is 200 rayls. The intensity reflection coefficient is:
a) 0.1
b) 1.0
c) 10
d) 100
a) 0.1
The impedance value for medium 1 is 100 rayls, the impedance value for medium 2 is 200 rayls. The intensity transmission coefficient is:
a) 9.9
b) 9.9
c) 1.9
d) 0.9
d) 0.9
The propagation speed is 3 mm/µs, the pulse round trip time is 10 µs, the reflector distance is?
a) 0.15 mm
b) 1.5 cm
c) 15 mm
d) 15 cm
c) 15 mm
For soft tissue a reflection returns 91 µs after transmission, the reflector distance is?
a) 7 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 4 cm
a) 7 cm
For soft tissue a sound travel time to a reflector is 6.5µs, the reflector distance is?
a) 0.5 cm
b) 1 cm
c) 2 cm
d) 3 cm
b) 1 cm
For soft tissue, the axial resolution for a 3 MHz sound wave of 2 cycles is:
a) 0.5 mm
b) 0.6 mm
c) 0.9 mm
d) 3.0 mm
a) 0.5 mm
For soft tissue, the axial resolution for a 5 MHz sound wave for 2 cycles is:
a) .3 mm
b) .6 mm
c) .9 mm
d) 3.0
a) .3 mm
How may the decimal number 17 be written in binary:
a) 101
b) 1001
c) 11001
d) 10001
d) 10001
The binary number 101 represents the decimal number:
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
a) 5
How many shades of gray may a 7 bit digital system display?
a) 16
b) 32
c) 64
d) 128
d) 128
Which of the following combinations of PRF, image depth and frame rate will be associated with the artifact range ambiguity?
a) 50 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
b) 100 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
c) 150 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
d) 200 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
d) 200 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
The true doppler shift at a 0 degree angle of incidence is 5 kHz. If the angle of incidence is changed to 60 degrees the doppler shift will be:
a) 5 kHz
b) 2.5 kHz
c) 0.0 kHz
d) unchanged
b) 2.5 kHz
The true doppler shift at a 0 degree incident angle is 10 kHz. If the angle of incidence is changed to 90 degrees the doppler shift will be:
a) 5 kHz
b) 2.5 kHz
c) 0.0 kHz
d) unchanged
c) 0.0 kHz
The end diastolic volume of a left ventricle that measure 50 mm is:
a) 25 cc
b) 2,500 cc
c) 125 cc
d) 125,000
c) 125 cc
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will be altered except:
a) period
b) wavelength
c) impedance
d) lateral resolution
c) impedance
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will be altered except:
a) pulse duration
b) SPL
c) axial resolution
d) intensity
d) intensity
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will be altered except:
a) propagation speed
b) temporal resolution
c) attenuation coefficient
d) penetration depth
a) propagation speed
As a sonographer decreases the transmit frequency the greatest advantage will be an improvement in:
a) intensity
b) lateral resolution
c) penetration depth
d) propagation speed
c) penetration depth
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency the greatest advantage will be an improvement in:
a) axial resolution
b) penetration depth
c) propagation speed
d) intensity
a) axial resolution
As a sonographer decreases the transmit frequency during a PW doppler examination the greatest advantage will be a reduction in (the):
a) penetration depth
b) beam diameter
c) propagation speed
d) risk of aliasing
d) risk of aliasing
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency there will be an improvement in:
a) propagation speed
b) beam diameter
c) intensity
d) impedance
b) beam diameter
As a sonographer increase the transmit frequency the near zone:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined
a) increases
As the sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will improve except:
a) beam diameter
b) penetration depth
c) angle of divergence
d) near zone length
b) penetration depth
As a sonographer chooses a large diameter phased array transducer all of the following will improve except:
a) near zone length
b) overall beam diameter
c) near field resolution
d) view point of divergence
c) near field resolution
During a color flow doppler examination, the sonographer first uses a 3.0 MHz transducer to examine a vessel, the sonographer then increases the transmit frequency. All of the following will occur except:
a) decrease in penetration depth
b) increase in attenuation coefficient
c) decrease in the chance of aliasing
d) bright color will be displayed
c) decrease in the chance of aliasing
As the sonographer increases the transmit frequency the instrumental control most likely to be also changed by the sonographer will be the:
a) compression
b) time gain compensation
c) persistance
d) image display width
b) time gain compensation
As the sonographer changes the transmit gain all of the following will be altered except:
a) power
b) amplitude
c) intensity
d) frame rate
d) frame rate
How will a patient be affected as a sonographer increases the transmit gain:
a) increased risk of bio effects
b) increased risk of electrical burn
c) not directly affected
d) cannot be affected
a) increased risk of bio effects
As a sonographer increases the transmit gain the greatest advantage will be an improvement in:
a) lateral resolution
b) propagation speed
c) penetration depth
d) acoustic impedance
c) penetration depth
As the sonographer increases the transmit gain the strength of the returning echoes will be :
a) increased
b) decreased
c) varied
d) undetermined
a) increased
As a sonographer increases the transmit gain which of the following will increase:
a) beam diameter
b) transmit frequency
c) acoustic impedance
d) frame rate
a) beam diameter
As a sonographer increases the transmit gain all of the following will improve except:
a) penetration depth
b) lateral resolution
c) transmit power
d) instrument sensitivity
b) lateral resolution
Which component of the ultrasound instrument will be directly affected by the sonographer increasing the transmit gain:
a) pulser
b) receiver
c) memory
d) display
a) pulser
As a sonographer decreases the image depth all of the following will increase except the:
a) PRF
b) PRP
c) frame rate
d) duty factor
b) PRP
Which resolution will most likely be directly affected when a sonographer decreases the image depth:
a) longitudinal
b) azimuthal
c) temporal
d) contrast
c) temporal
Which ultrasound image control will be directly affected when the sonographer changes the image depth:
a) pulser
b) transducer
c) receiver
d) memory
a) pulser
Which of the following would the sonographer most likely alter to better visualize a structure close to the transducer:
a) persistance
b) sweep speed
c) baseline tag
d) transmit focus
d) transmit focus
As the sonographer utilizes transmit focus the resolution directly affected will be:
a) range
b) radial
c) transverse
d) longitudinal
c) transverse
As the sonographer chooses multiple transmit focus sites all of the following resolutions will improve except:
a) transverse
b) angular
c) temporal
d) lateral
c) temporal
The sonographer need to make an accurate dimension measurement during an ultrasound examination, which resolution would be best to rely upon:
a) axial
b) lateral
c) temporal
d) contrast
a) axial
The sonographer needs to make an accurate lateral dimension measurement of a structure, for the best result the transducer should place the structure:
a) close to the transducer
b) away from the transducer
c) In the focal region
d) lateral from the transducer
c) in the focal region
The sonographer wishes to improve lateral resolution during an ultrasound examination, which transducer would be the best choice:
a) annular array
b) sector phased array
c) mechanical wobbler
d) linear translating
a) annular array
In order to improve visualization of a small structure such as a cardiac vegetation, the sonographer may:
a) increase image depth
b) increase image width
c) utilize right magnification
d) increase transmit frequency
c) utilize right magnification
All of the following are ways in which the sonographer may increase frame rate except decrease:
a) image depth
b) number of transmit focus
c) display width
d) transmit frequency
d) transmit frequency
In order to increase the frame rate during a color flow doppler examination the sonographer should do all the following except decrease:
a) packet size
b) image width
c) image depth
d) color baseline
d) color baseline
The sonographer chooses a large color flow doppler packet size, which of the following statements is true: A large packet size will:
a) increase frame rate
b) will degrade mean velocity estimations
c) is acceptable to use for a neonatal examination
d) will improve peak velocity estimations
c) is acceptable to use for a neonatal examination
The sonographer wishes to improve ultrasound transmission. Which of the following may be utilized:
a) sternum
b) plural effusion
c) pericardium
d) lungs
b) plural effusion
The sonographer notices during a PW doppler examination that blood flow moving towards the transducer is displayed below the zero baseline, which doppler instrument control may be altered:
a) velocity scale
b) incident angle
c) sample volume length
d) spectral invert
d) spectral invert
While performing a PW doppler examination the sonographer would like to improve the spectral display, all of the following may be helpful except:
a) decrease the sample gate size
b) align the sound beam to intercept blood flow at 0 degrees
c) increase the transmit frequency
d) vary the doppler transmit gain
c) increase the transmit frequency
Which of the following color flow doppler controls would increase the amount of color shown on the display:
a) color baseline
b) color gain
c) color map
d) color width
b) color gain
As the sonographer increases the color flow doppler sector width the frame rate:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) unchanged
b) decreases
Which of the following color flow doppler controls would be useful in unwrapping aliased signals:
a) color baseline
b) color transmit
c) color map
d) color width
a) color baseline
The sonographer notes that the middle section of the image display is too bright, which of the following instruments controls would be best to adapt to improve the displayed image:
a) overall gain
b) transmit gain
c) reject
d) TGC
d) TGC
The sonographer notes that throughout the image display there is too many low level echoes, which of the following instruments controls would be used to adjust to improve the displayed image:
a) overall gain
b) transmit gain
c) reject
d) TGC
a) overall gain
Which of the following instruments controls may the sonographer choose to stop all acoustic output from the transducer:
a) gain
b) image depth
c) transmit focus
d) freeze
d) freeze
Which type of wave is present when particle motion is perpendicular to the direction of wave advancement:
a) longitudinal
b) parallel
c) harmonic
d) transverse
d) transverse
Which type of wave is present when particle motion is parallel to the direction of wave advancement:
a) longitudinal
b) parallel
c) harmonic
d) transverse
a) longitudinal
Audible sound has a frequency range that is:
a) less than 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
c) greater than 20 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
propagation speed is equal to:
a) frequency/wavelength
b) wavelength x frequency
c) 1/frequency
d) density x stiffness
b) wavelength x frequency
Wavelength is equal to:
a) frequency x wavelength
b) propagation speed/frequency
c) 1/frequency
d) density x propagation speed
b) propagation speed/frequency
Period is equal to:
a) frequency x wavelength
b) propagation speed/frequency
c) 1/frequency
d) density x propagation speed
c) 1/frequency
Frequency and wavelength are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) directly proportional
d) unrelated
b) inversely related
Period and wavelength are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated
c) inversely proportional
Frequency and period are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) directly proportional
d) unrelated
b) inversely related
Which of the following will cause an increase in the refraction angle:
a) decreased propagation speed differences, increased incident angle
b) increased propagation speed differences, decreased incident angle
c) decreased propagation speed differences, decreased incident angle
d) increased propagation speed differences, increased incident angle
a) decreased propagation speed differences, increased incident angle
For soft tissue, the half value layer may be represented as:
a) -1 dB
b) -2 dB
c) -3 dB
d) -4 dB
b) -2 dB
Increasing the transmit frequency increases all of the following except:
a) half value layer
b) attenuation coefficient
c) total attenuation
d) scatter
d) scatter
The damping material decreases all the following except:
a) Pulse duration
b) spatial pulse length
c) number of cycles in a pulse
d) time for reception
d) time for reception
The damping material decreases all the following except:
a) output intensity
b) bandwidth
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
b) bandwidth
The area of the sound beam where there is an absence of sound wave divergence is the:
a) fresnel zone
b) fraunhofer zone
c) far zone
d) focal region
a) fresnel zone
Lateral resolution will have the highest numerical value in the:
a) fresnel zone
b) near zone
c) focus
d) fraunhofer zone
d) fraunhofer zone
Sound beam divergence occurs in the:
a) fresnel zone
b) fraunhofer zone
c) near zone
d) focus
b) fraunhofer zone
Dynamic receive focusing and frame rate are:
a) directly related
b) inversely proportional
c) inversely related
d) unrelated
d) unrelated
Transducer diameter and near zone length are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated
a) directly related
Transmit frequency and near zone length are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated
a) directly related
Wavelength and near zone length are:
a) directly related
b) directly proportional
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated
c) inversely proportional
Damping is inversely related to:
a) transmit frequency
b) spatial pulse length
c) bandwidth
d) cannot be predicted
b) spatial pulse length
focusing improves:
a) transmit frequency
b) lateral resolution
c) range resolution
d) temporal resolution
b) lateral resolution
Which of the following focus length will cause the greatest angle of beam divergence:
a) long
b) medium
c) short
d) cannot be predicted
c) short
Damping improves:
a) radial resolution
b) lateral resolution
c) angular resolution
d) azimuthal resolution
a) radial resolution
For a 2 cycle pulse of 3 MHz in soft tissue, which of the following will not be resolved using the systems axial resolution:
a) reflectors 1.1 mm apart
b) reflectors 0.8 mm apart
c) reflectors 0.6 mm apart
d) reflectors 0.4 mm apart
d) reflectors 0.4 mm apart
Increasing the bandwidth improves:
a) lateral resolution
b) angular resolution
c) longitudinal resolution
d) transverse resolution
c) longitudinal resolution
Exposure of the patient to bioeffects is:
a) directly related to intensity
b) inversely proportional to intensity
c) inversely related to intensity
d) unrelated
a) directly related to intensity
Pre processing occurs during:
a) freeze frame
b) cine lupe playback
c) image acquisition
d) demodulation
c) image acquisition
The numb of lines displayed per frame is directly dependent upon all of the following except:
a) frame rate
b) depth of penetration
c) pulse repetition frequency
d) SPL
d) SPL
Image depth and frame rate are:
a) directly related
b) directly proportional
c) inversely related
d) unrelated
c) inversely related
The range ambiguity imaging artifact will result in structures being placed too:
a) close to the transducer
b) far from the transducer
c) medial
d) lateral
a) close to the transducer
The artifact reverberation will result in displaying images that are:
a) real
b) unreal
c) bright
d) singular
b) unreal
The artifact multi path will result in placing structures too:
a) close
b) far
c) lateral
d) medial
b) far
The artifact shadowing will result in structures being displayed as too:
a) close
b) far
c) weak
d) bright
c) weak
The artifact enhancement will result in displaying structures that are too:
a) far
b) close
c) bright
d) weak
c) bight
All of the following are true statements concerning read magnification except:
a) increases pixel dimension
b) post processing function
c) maintains the same number of scan lines
d) significantly enhances spatial resolution
d) significantly enhances spatial resolution
All of the following are true statement concerning write magnification except:
a) increases number of scan lines in area of interest
b) pre processing function
c) decreases frame rate
d) greatly enhances spatial resolution
c) decreases fram rate
As the sonographer increases the color flow doppler reject all of the following will improve except:
a) color sensitivity
b) noise reduction
c) color image quality
d) jet size
a) color sensitivity
