Physics 500 Flashcards
1
Q
A sound wave is:
a) transverse
b) electromagnetic
c) mechanical, longitudinal
d) transverse, longitudinal
A
c) mechanical, longitudinal
2
Q
A compression area of a sound wave is:
a) high pressure, low density
b) low pressure, low density
c) high pressure, high density
d) low pressure, high density
A
c) high pressure, high density
3
Q
A rarefaction area of a sound wave is:
a) high pressure, low density
b) low pressure, low density
c) high pressure, high density
d) low pressure, high density
A
b) low pressure, low density
4
Q
Which of the following is considered an acoustic variable?
a) power
b) intensity
c) amplitude
d) pressure
A
d) pressure
5
Q
Which of the following is a unit for pressure
a) lbs/in
b) N/m squared
c) kg/cm cubed
d) inches squared
A
b) N/m squared
6
Q
Which of the following is a correct unit for density?
a) lb/in
b) mm Hg
c) centigrade
d) lbs/cm cubed
A
d) lbs/cm cubed
7
Q
Which of the following waves propagate in a medium?
a) heat
b) light
c) x-ray
d) sound
A
d) sound
8
Q
The range for ultrasound is:
a) less than 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
c) greater than 20 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
A
c) greater than 20 kHz
9
Q
(BLANK) is the number of wave cycles per second.
a) Frequency
b) Period
c) Wavelength
d) Amplitude
A
a) Frequency
10
Q
One kilohertz is equal to:
a) one cycle per second
b) 100 cycles per second
c) 1,000 cycles per second
d) 10,000 cyclers per second
A
c) 1,000 cycles per second
11
Q
One Megahertz is equal to:
a) one cycle per second
b) one hundred cycles per second
c) one thousand cycles per second
d) one million cycles per second
A
d) one million cycles per second
12
Q
The useful frequency range for clinical imaging ultrasound is:
a) 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
c) 1 Hz to 10 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
A
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
13
Q
Frequency is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
A
a) source
14
Q
Frequency affects all of the following except:
a) wavelength
b) resolution
c) penetration
d) impedance
A
d) impedance
15
Q
The time per cycle is:
a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) sound speed
A
b) period
16
Q
The period for a 5 MHz probe is:
a) 0.2 cycles per second
b) 0.2
c) 0.2 µsec
d) 0.2 msec
A
c) 0.2 µsec
17
Q
If frequency increases, period:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) unchanged
A
b) decreases
18
Q
Period is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
A
a) source
19
Q
Period multiplied by the number of cycles in a pulse equals:
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) pulse duration
d) sound velocity
A
c) pulse duration
20
Q
The distance between cyclical peaks is:
a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) sound speed
A
c) wavelength
21
Q
The symbol for wavelength:
a) delta
b) mu
c) lambda
d) Hertz
A
c) lambda
22
Q
The wavelength of a 5 MHz probe in soft tissue is:
a) 5.0 mm
b) 0.3 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 1.54 mm
A
b) 0.3 mm
23
Q
As frequency increases, wavelength (assume same medium):
a) increases
b) decreases
c) not affected
d) varies
A
b) decreases
24
Q
Wavelength is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
A
c) source and medium
25
As wavelength decreases:
a) resolution improves
b) frequency decreases
c) depth of penetration increases
d) attenuation decreases
a) resolution improves
26
The rate at which a sound vibration propagates through a medium is called all of the following except:
a) sound speed
b) propagation speed
c) speed of sound
d) velocity
d) velocity
27
The units for propagation speed include all of the following except:
a) km/sec
b) mph
c) msec
d) mm/sec
c) msec
28
The average speed of sound in soft tissue is:
a) 1.54 m/sec
b) 1540 m/sec
c) 1.54 cm/sec
d) 154,000 m/sec
b) 1540 m/sec
29
Arrange the following in increasing order of sound speed in a medium:
fat, bone, muscle, air, soft tissue
air, fat, soft tissue, muscle, bone
30
The propagation speed of sound of the ceramic lead zirconate titanate (PZT) is approximately:
a) 1.54 mm/sec
b) 330 m/sec
c) 4000 m/sec
d) 2680 m/sec
c) 4000 m/sec
31
Sound speed is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
b) medium
32
The peak variation minus the mean variation is:
a) frequency
b) period
c) amplitude
d) intensity
c) amplitude
33
All of the following are possible units for amplitude except:
a) degrees
b) decibles
c) Pascal
d) watts
d) watts
34
The maximum variation of an acoustic variable is 60. The mean value is 45. The minimum value is 30. The amplitude is:
a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) 15
d) 15
35
Amplitude is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
36
Which of the following ultrasound machine control will affect amplitude?
a) receiver gain
b) threshold
c) time gain compensation
d) output power
d) output power
37
As sound propagates through a medium, amplitude:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) is unaffected
d) varies
b) decreases
38
The total energy transferred is:
a) frequency
b) amplitude
c) power
d) intensity
c) power
39
Power is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
40
The amplitude of a wave is 4. Power is:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
d) 16
41
Power may be affected by which gain control?
a) transmit
b) receive
c) time
d) overall
a) transmit
42
The rate of energy transferred into a particular area is:
a) amplitude
b) power
c) intensity
d) attenuation
c) intensity
43
The units for intensity are:
a) Hertz
b) watts
c) mm Hg
d) watts per centimeter squared
d) watts per centimeter squared
44
The highest measured intensity is:
a) spatial peak, temporal peak
b) spatial average, temporal peak
c) spatial peak, temporal average
d) spatial average, temporal average
a) spatial peak, temporal peak
45
The lowest measured intensity is:
a) spatial peak, temporal peak
b) spatial average, temporal peak
c) spatial peak, temporal average
d) spatial average, temporal average
d) spatial average, temporal average
46
According to the AIUM, there has been no proven biological effects for unfocused ultrasound below:
a) 1 mW/cm squared SPTP
b) 100 mW/cm squared SPTA
c) 1 W/cm squared SPTA
d) 1000 mW/cm squared SATA
b) 100 mW/cm squared SPTA
47
According to the AIUM, there has been no proven biological effects for focused ultrasound below:
a) 1 mW/cm squared SPTP
b) 100 mW/cm squared SPTA
c) 1 W/cm squared SPTA
d) 1000 mW/cm squared SATA
c) 1 W/cm squared SPTA
48
Intensity is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
49
Which of the following gain controls affect intensity?
a) overall
b) time
c) transmit
d) receiver
c) transmit
50
Assuming the same area, what effect will an increase in power have on intensity?
a) increase
b) decrease
c) no change
d) varied
a) increase
51
What effect will an increase in area have on intensity if power remain unchanged?
a) increase
b) decrease
c) no change
d) varied
b) decrease
52
For continuous wave ultrasound, which of the following intensities are equal?
a) SPPA, SPTA
b) SPPA, SATA
c) SATP, SPPA
d) SPTA, SATA
a) SPPA, SPTA
53
The factor that describes the spatial intensity distribution across a sound beam is the:
a) duty factor
b) SP/SA factor
c) quality factor
d) bandwidth
b) SP/SA factor
54
The minimum value for the beam uniformity ratio is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 100
d) 1,000
b) 1
55
Ultrasound transducer A has a SP/SA factor of 40. Ultrasound transducer B has a SP/SA factor of 20. Which transducer has the brighter center?
a) Transducer A
b) Transducer B
c) Neither
d) Cannot be determined
a) Transducer A
56
An increase in intensity is determined to be 30 decibels. The intensity is increased by:
a) 1x30 or 30
b) 10x10x10 or 1000
c) 10x10 or 100
d) 10x10x10x10 or 10,000
b) 10x10x10 or 1000
57
For soft tissue, a 75% loss in intensity can be expressed in decibels as:
a) -0 dB
b) -3 dB
c) -6 dB
d) -9 dB
c) -6 dB
58
The number 1540 may be expressed in scientific notation as:
a) 1540 x 10‘
b) 1.540 x 10‘
c) 15.40 x 10‘
d) 154.0 x 10‘
b) 1.540 x 10‘
59
The number 0.1492 may be written in scientific notation as;
a) 1492 x 10‘
b) 1.492 x 10(to the -1 power)
c) 14.92 x 10‘
d) 149.2 x 10(to the -1 power)
b) 1.492 x 10(to the -1 power)
60
Arrange the following in proper increasing order:
| Giga, Mega, Kilo, Hector, Deca
Deca, Hector, Kilo, Mega, Giga
61
Arrange in decreasing order:
| Milli, Centi, Deci, Micro, Nano
Decid, Centi, Milli, Micro, Nano
62
Arrange the following units of length in increasing order:
| Kilometer, Meter, Centimeter, Micrometer, Nanometer
Micrometer, Millimeter, Centimeter, Meter, Kilometer
63
Which unit would be best to use to express aortic valve area?
a) centimeters squared
b) centimeters
c) cubic meters
d) microseconds
a) centimeters squared
64
All of the following are correct ways to express the average propagation speed of sound in soft tissue except:
a) 1.54 mm/µsec
b) 1540 m/sec
c) 15,400 cm/sec
d) 1.54 km/sec
c) 15,400 cm/sec
65
The acoustic characteristic of a medium is:
a) sound velocity
b) density
c) impedance
d) attenuation
c) impedance
66
The acoustic impedance range for soft tissue is:
a) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) 1 kHz to 10 kHz
c) 1.25 Mrayls to 1.75 Mrayls
d) -10 kHz to +10 kHz
c) 1.25 Mrayls to 1.75 Mrayls
67
A reflection will occur at the boundary of two media if the media impedances are:
a) equal
b) dissimilar
c) average
d) identical
b) dissimilar
68
The percentage of sound energy reflected at a fat/muscle interface is approximately:
a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 99.9%
a) 1%
69
The percentage of sound energy reflected at a soft tissue/air interface is approximately:
a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 99%
d) 99%
70
A reflector that is smooth surfaced and large is called:
a) specular
b) scatter
c) Rayleigh
d) Parenchyma
a) specular
71
All of the following are examples of specular reflectors except:
a) mitral valve
b) interventricular septum
c) carotid artery
d) red blood cell
d) red blood cell
72
Specular reflectors are highly dependent upon:
a) transmit frequency
b) incident angle
c) sound speed
d) pulse repletion period
b) incident angle
73
Reflectors that are rough surfaced and small are known as:
a) specular
b) transverse
c) scatter
d) angular
c) scatter
74
Scatter reflectors are highly dependent upon:
a) transmit frequency
b) incident angle
c) spatial pulse length
d) acoustic velocity
a) transmit frequency
75
The strength of backscatter is dependent upon all of the following except scatter:
a) density
b) size
c) impedance
d) angle
d) angle
76
Reflectors that reflect ultrasound energy equally in all direction are called:
a) scatter
b) backscatter
c) specular
d) Rayleigh
d) Rayleigh
77
The best example of a scatter reflector is the:
a) tricuspid valve
b) interatrial septum
c) organ parenchyma
d) abdominal aorta
c) organ parenchyma
78
The best example of a Rayleigh scatterer is the:
a) pulmonic valve
b) myocardium
c) red blood cell
d) aortic vessel wall
c) red blood cell
79
The ultrasound beam strikes an interface at ninety degrees. The incidence is considered:
a) perpendicular
b) oblique
c) angular
d) azimuthal
a) perpendicular
80
The optimal angle to strike specular reflectors is:
a) direct
b) oblique
c) angular
d) azimuthal
a) direct
81
The reflected intensity coefficient may be calculated by the formula:
a) 4(V2-V1)
b) CSA x V
c) [Z2-Z1/Z2+Z1] squared
d) D3
c) [Z2-Z1/Z2+Z1] squared
82
The ultrasound beam strikes an interface at 74 degrees. This incidence is considered:
a) perpendicular
b) oblique
c) normal
d) direct
b) oblique
83
The incidence angle is 36 degrees. The reflected angle is:
a) 0 degrees
b) 18 degrees
c) 36 degrees
d) 72 degrees
c) 36 degrees
84
The change in sound travel direction as sound crosses a boundary is known as:
a) reflection
b) incidence
c) refraction
d) transmission
c) refraction
85
The incident angle is 53 degrees. The propagation speed in medium one is 1540 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium two is 1580 m/sec. The reflection angle is:
a) 53 degrees
b) less than 53 degrees
c) greater than 53 degrees
d) cannot be predicted
a) 53 degrees
86
The incident angle is 46 degrees. The propagation speed in medium one is 1540 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium two is 1540 m/sec. The reflected angle is 46 degrees. The transmitted angle is:
a) 46 degrees
b) less than 46 degrees
c) greater than 46 degrees
d) cannot be predicted
a) 46 degrees
87
The incident angle is 72 degrees. The propagation speed in medium one is 1580 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium two is 1680 m/sec. The reflected angle is 72 degrees. The transmitted angle is:
a) 72 degrees
b) less than 72 degrees
c) greater than 72 degrees
d) cannot be predicted
c) greater than 72 degrees
88
The incident angle is 80 degrees. the propagation speed in medium two is 1500 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium one is 1600 m/sec. The reflected angle is 80 degrees. The transmitted angle is:
a) 80 degrees
b) less than 80 degrees
c) greater than 80 degrees
d) cannot be determined
b) less than 80 degrees
89
Refraction will occur when there is oblique incidence and the (BLANK):
a) impedance are equal
b) propagation speeds are equal
c) impedance are not equal
d) propagation speeds are not equal
d) propagation speeds are not equal
90
Acoustic couplants are needed because they reduce the impedance difference between the:
a) damping material and the active element
b) matching layer and the active element
c) transducer and skin surface
d) element and electric wires
c) transducer and skin surface
91
The loss of sound intensity is called:
a) refraction
b) reflection
c) absorption
d) attenuation
d) attenuation
92
The conversion of sound energy to heat is:
a) absorption
b) reflection
c) scatter
d) refraction
a) absorption
93
The most important cause of attenuation in soft tissue is:
a) absorption
b) reflection
c) scatter
d) refraction
a) absorption
94
The most likely cause of sound attenuation in bone is:
a) absorption
b) reflection
c) scatter
d) refraction
b) reflection
95
The most likely cause of sound attenuation in air is:
a) scatter
b) reflection
c) sound velocity
d) refraction
a) scatter
96
The units for attenuation coefficient are:
a) dB
b) dB/cm
c) Hertz
d) dB/MHz
b) dB/cm
97
The attenuation coefficient for 2 MHz in soft tissue is:
a) 1 dB/cm
b) 2 dB/cm
c) 3 dB/cm
d) 5 dB/cm
a) 1 dB/cm
98
As frequency increases, the attenuation coefficient:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined
a) increases
99
For soft tissue, the total attenuation for a 2 MHz transducer at 20 cm is:
a) 2 dB
b) 4 dB
c) 16 dB
d) 20 dB
d) 20 dB
100
As frequency increases, attenuation:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined
a) increases
101
The half intensity depth for a 2 MHz transducer in soft tissue is:
a) 3 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 9 cm
d) 12 cm
a) 3 cm
102
Attenuation is lowest in which of the following mediums?
a) bone
b) air
c) water
d) steel
c) water
103
Increasing frequency will result in all of the following except:
a) range resolution improvement
b) transverse resolution improvement
c) increase depth of penetration
d) decrease in beam diameter
c) increase depth of penetration
104
Ultrasound transducers utilize which effect upon transmission?
a) piezoelectric
b) reverse piezoelectric
c) Doppler
d) Bernouli
b) reverse piezoelectric
105
Ultrasound transducers utilize which effect upon reception?
a) piezoelectric
b) reverse piezoelectric
c) Doppler
d) Bernoulli
a) piezoelectric
106
All of the following possess the piezoelectric property naturally except:
a) quartz
b) Rochelle salts
c) tourmaline
d) lead zirconate titanate
d) lead zirconate titanate
107
Man-made materials receive the piezoelectric property through the process called:
a) depolarization
b) depolarization
c) repolarization
d) polarization
d) polarization
108
The most common man-made ceramic used in ultrasound transducers today is:
a) barium titanate
b) lithium sulfate
c) lead zirconate titanate
d) polyvinyl diflouride
c) lead zirconate titanate
109
The point at which an ultrasound transducer gives up its piezoelectric property is:
a) Bernoulli
b) Curie
c) Doppler
d) Edler
b) Curie
110
The temperature at which lead zirconate titanate loses its piezoelectric property is:
a) 300 degrees F
b) 400 degrees F
c) 500 degrees F
d) 600 degrees F
d) 600 degrees F
111
The center frequency for pulsed wave transducers is determined primarily by the element's:
a) propagation speed
b) bandwidth
c) quality factor
d) thickness
d) thickness
112
The material that reduces the impedance difference between the active element and soft tissue is the :
a) crystal
b) damping block
c) matching layer
d) PZT
c) matching layer
113
The optimal thickness for the matching layer is:
a) 1/4 wavelength
b) 1/2 wavelength
c) 3/4 wavelength
d) 1 wavelength
a) 1/4 wavelength
114
The optimal impedance value for the matching layer is:
a) greater than the active element
b) less than the active element
c) equal to the active element
d) mean between active element and soft tissue
d) mean between active element and soft tissue
115
The material placed behind the active element to reduce its ringing is the:
a) PZT
b) matching layer
c) damping block
d) cable
c) damping block
116
The impedance value for the damping block is:
a) greater than the active element
b) less than the active element
c) equal to the active element
d) varies with transducer
c) equal to active element
117
The number of cycles produced by imaging ultrasound transducers is:
a) 0-1 cycle
b) 2-4 cycles
c) 4-6 cycles
d) 6-8 cycles
b) 2-4 cycles
118
The damping block reduces all of the following except:
a) pulse duration
b) spatial pulse length
c) duty factor
d) bandwidth
d) bandwidth
119
Which of the following increases with damping?
a) output intensity
b) sensitivity
c) quality factor
d) bandwidth
d) bandwidth
120
Which of the following pulsed-wave ultrasound transducers will have the highest frequency?
a) thin element, low propagation speed
b) thick element, low propagation speed
c) thin element, high propagation speed
d) thick element, high propagation speed
c) thin element, high propagation speed
121
The center frequency of a continuous wave ultrasound transducer is determined by the:
a) thickness of the crystal
b) propagation speed of the crystal
c) driving voltage frequency
d) damping block
c) driving voltage frequency
122
The propagation speed for PZT is:
a) 1.54 mm/µs
b) 4.0 mm/µs
c) 8 mm/µs
d) 16 mm/µs
b) 4.0 mm/µs
123
The impedance value for the coupling gel is:
a) greater than the element
b) greater than the matching layer
c) less than the matching layer
d) equal to the damping block
c) less than the matching layer
124
The sound beam decreases in the:
a) near zone
b) transition point
c) far zone
d) divergence zone
a) near zone
125
The most effective way to increase near zone length is by increasing transducer:
a) frequency
b) damping
c) diameter
d) wavelength
c) diameter
126
For a continuous wave 6 mm unfocused transducer, the beam diameter at one near zone length is equal to:
a) 6 mm
b) 3 mm
c) 0 mm
d) 12 mm
b) 3 mm
127
In the far zone, all of the following decrease except:
a) amplitude
b) intensity
c) beam diameter
d) power
c) beam diameter
128
The zone of the ultrasound beam beyond the focus is called the:
a) Fraunhofer
b) Fresnel
c) near
d) focal
a) Fraunhofer
129
Sound beam intensity decreases in the:
a) near zone
b) far zone
c) Fresnel zone
d) Focal region
b) far zone
130
Methods for reducing the overall beam diameter in the near zone includes all of the following except increase:
a) focus
b) transducer diameter
c) frequency
d) damping
d) damping
131
A focus method where the electrical pulses to the transducer array are curved is:
a) mechanical
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) external
a) mechanical
132
Utilizing an acoustic lens is considered which type of focus?
a) internal
b) external
c) electronic
d) dynamic
b) external
133
A focus method where the electrical pulses to the transducer array are curved is:
a) mechanical
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) external
b) variable
134
A receive focus method utilizing delay lines is called:
a) mechanical
b) transmit
c) dynamic
d) external
c) dynamic
135
Which of the following type of focusing is sonographer controlled?
a) internal
b) receive
c) transmit
d) dynamic
c) transmit
136
All of the following are true statements concerning focusing except:
a) decreases beam diameter in the near zone
b) increases the angle of divergence
c) extends the near zone length
d) improves lateral resolution
c) extends the near zone length
137
The distance form the front of the transducer to the focus is called the:
a) focal length
b) focus
c) transition point
d) far zone
a) focal length
138
The narrowest point of the focused sound beam is the:
a) focal length
b) focal zone
c) focus
d) Fresnel zone
c) focus
139
A strongly focused transducer may be best used to examine the:
a) adult heart
b) neonate heart
c) gallbladder
d) kidneys
b) neonate heart
140
Strongly focusing a transducer decreases all of the following except:
a) angle of divergence
b) focal length
c) near zone length
d) focal zone length
a) angle of divergence
141
The resolution defined as the ability to reusable two structures that lie perpendicular to the sound beam is:
a) axial
b) radial
c) longitudinal
d) angular
d) angular
142
Lateral resolution equals:
a) 0.5 x frequency
b) 0.5 x spatial pulse length
c) 6/frequency
d) beam diameter
d) beam diameter
143
Transducer A has a lateral resolution of 5 mm. Transducer B has a lateral resolution on 3 mm. Transducer C has a lateral resolution of 2 mm. Which transducer has the best lateral resolution?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) cannot be determined
c) C
144
Lateral resolution is best in the:
a) near zone
b) focal zone
c) focus
d) far zone
c) focus
145
Lateral resolution may be improved by all of the following except increasing:
a) transducer diameter
b) transducer frequency
c) focusing
d) transmit gain
d) transmit gain
146
The numerical value for both lateral resolution and axial resolution may be comparable in the:
a) near zone
b) Fresnel zone
c) focus
d) Fraunhofer zone
c) focus
147
The resolution that is defined as the ability to resolve two reflectors that lie parallel to beam advancement is:
a) radial
b) lateral
c) angular
d) azimuthal
a) radial
148
Axial resolution may be called all of the following except:
a) range
b) angular
c) radial
d) longitudinal
b) angular
149
Axial resolution is equal to:
a) beam diameter
b) 0.5 x frequency
c) 0.5 x spatial pulse length
d) 6/frequency
c) 0.5 x spatial pulse length
150
Transducer A has a longitudinal resolution of 4 mm. Transducer B has a longitudinal resolution of 6 mm. Transducer C has a longitudinal resolution of 3mm. Which transducer has the poorest longitudinal resolution.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) cannot be predicted
b) B
151
Axial resolution improves by all of the following methods except:
a) increasing damping
b) decreasing pulse duration
c) increasing transmit frequency
d) decreasing beam diameter
d) decreasing beam diameter
152
Axial resolution is best at the:
a) near zone
b) focal zone
c) focus
d) equal throughout the beam length
d) equal throughout the beam length
153
Increasing transducer frequency:
a) increases
b) increases pulse duration
c) improves depth of penetration
d) improves range resolution
d) improves range resolution
154
The transducer which creates a cross-sectional image by electronically firing a group of elements sequentially is the:
a) wobbler
b) linear switched array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array
b) linear switched array
155
The linear sequenced array creates an image display that is:
a) rectangular
b) circular
c) pie shaped
d) blunted
a) rectangular
156
All of the following are true statements concerning the linear sequenced array except:
a) fires group of elements sequentially
b) electronically beam steered
c) comparatively large transducer
d) utilizes mechanical focusing
b) electronically beam steered
157
A piezoelectric element in a linear sequenced array fails. The result on the image display will be:
a) vertical echo free region
b) confetti like signals
c) horizontal echo free space
d) complete loss of image
a) vertical echo free region
158
The square shaped transducer with multiple piezoelectric elements arranged in a line that are all electronically fired nearly at the same time is the:
a) oscillating mirror
b) linear sequenced array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array
c) sector phased array
159
Which of the following transducers utilizes transmit focus?
a) linear sequenced array
b) sector phased array
c) wobbler
d) linear translating
b) sector phased array
160
All of the following are true statements concerning the sector phased array transducer except:
a) creates a pie-shaped display
b) electronically beam steered
c) utilizes transmit and receive focus
d) comparatively large transducer
d) comparatively large transducer
161
The most common electronic transducer used in cardiac ultrasound today is the:
a) linear sequenced array
b) convex phased array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array
c) sector phased array
162
All of the following are true statements concerning the sector phased array transducer except:
a) groups of elements sequentially fired
b) utilizes transmit and receive focus
c) creates a pie-shaped display
d) utilizes beam steering
a) groups of elements sequentially fired
163
All of the following utilizes electronic beam steering except:
a) linear sequenced array
b) linear phased array
c) sector phased array
d) convex phased array
a) linear sequenced array
164
The transducer that is fired electronically and mechanically steered is the:
a) Wobbler
b) Rotary Wheel
c) Annular array
d) convex phased array
c) annular array
165
All of the following are true statements concerning annular array except:
a) creates sector image
b) utilizes transmit and receive focus
c) comparatively poor lateral resolution
d) mechanically steered
c) comparatively poor lateral resolution
166
All of the following are considered mechanical transducers except:
a) Wobbler
b) Rotary Wheel
c) Oscillating mirror
d) Phased array
d) phased array
167
All of the following create a sector display except:
a) Wobbler
b) Rotating wheel
c) oscillating mirror
d) convex array
d) convex array
168
All of the following are true statements concerning mechanical transducers except:
a) utilize motor to beam steer
b) create sector display
c) utilize electronic focus
d) utilize fixed transmit focus
c) utilize electronic focus
169
Which of the following is an Arc shaped transducer:
a) Rotating wheel
b) linear sequenced array
c) convex switched array
d) annular array
c) convex switched array
170
All of the following are true statements concerning the convex sequenced array except:
a) Arc shaped transducer
b) creates rectangular display
c) utilizes mechanical focusing techniques
d) no beam steering
b) creates rectangular display
171
The convex switched array operates similar to the:
a) linear sequenced array
b) linear phased array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array
a) linear sequenced array
172
All of the following are true statements concerning the convex phased array except:
a) utilized mechanical focusing and steering
b) operates on the same principle as the sector phased array
c) creates a blunted sector
d) Arc shaped transducer
a) utilizes mechanical focusing and steering
173
All of the following formulas are a way to write the range equation for soft tissue except:
a) 0.5 x [propagation speed (mm/µs) x pulse round trip (µs)]
b) 0.5 x 1540 m/s
c) 0.77 x pulse round trip time (µs)
d) pulse round trip time (µs) / 13 µs
b) 0.5 x 1540 m/s
174
The pulse round trip time in soft tissue is 260 µs the distance to the reflector is:
a) 1 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 100 cm
d) 20 cm
d) 20 cm
175
A (BLANK) is a few sound cycles:
a) wave
b) pulse
c) rarefaction
d) compression
b) pulse
176
The number of pulses emitted by the ultrasound transducer per second is:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
a) pulse repetition frequency
177
The formula used to determine pulse repetition frequency is:
a) propagation speed / frequency
b) wavelength x frequency
c) 1/period
d) 1/pulse repetition period
d) 1/pulse repetition period
178
The clinical range for pulse repetition frequency is:
a) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) 1,000 Hz to 10,000 Hz
c) -10,000 Hz to +10,000 Hz
d) 1,000 kHz to 1,000,000 kHz
b) 1,000 Hz to 10,000 Hz
179
The imaging depth is increased, pulse repetition frequency:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) cannot be predicted
b) decreases
180
Pulse repetition frequency is determined by the:
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
181
??? The sonographer can affect all the following except:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) intensity
c) pulse duration
182
The time between the beginning of one pulse to the beginning of the next emitted pulse is called:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
b) pulse repetition period
183
The imaging depth is increased, pulsed repetition period:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) cannot be predicted
a) increases
184
The time for one pulse is
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) duty factor
c) pulse duration
185
The formula for pulse duration is number of cycles in a pulse multiplied by:
a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) amplitude
b) period
186
Pulse duration is determined by the :
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
187
All of the following are affected by image depth except:
a) pulse duration
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) pulse repetition period
d) duty factor
a) pulse duration
188
All of the following will increase pulse duration except:
a) increasing period
b) increasing number of cycles in pulse
c) increasing image depth
d) decreasing frequency
c) increasing image depth
189
Changing pulse duration will affect all of the following except:
a) axial resolution
b) lateral resolution
c) spatial pulse length
d) duty factor
b) lateral resolution
190
Axial resolution is affected by all of the following except:
a) pulse duration
b) spatial pulse length
c) image depth
d) transmit frequency
c) image depth
191
Decreasing the frequency increases all of the following except:
a) sound velocity
b) period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
a) sound velocity
192
The distance of one pulse is called:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
d) spatial pulse length
193
The formula for spatial pulse length is the number of cycles in a pulse x (BLANK)
a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) pulse duration
c) wavelength
194
Spatial pulse length is determined by the :
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
c) source and medium
195
All of the following will increase spatial pulse length except:
a) increasing wavelength
b) decreasing frequency
c) increasing number of cycles in a pulse
d) increasing receiver gain
d) increasing receiver gain
196
The resolution most affected by spatial pulse length is:
a) longitudinal
b) azimuthal
c) contrast
d) temporal
a) longitudinal
197
The sonographer can not affect:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) spatial pulse length
d) duty factor
c) spatial pulse length
198
The percentage of time that the ultrasound instrument is emitting ultrasound is called:
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) duty factor
d) duty factor
199
The units for duty factor are:
a) Hertz
b) mm
c) ms
d) unit-less
d) unit-less
200
The maximum value for duty factor is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 10
d) 100
b) 1
201
The minimum value for the duty factor is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 10%
d) 100%
a) 0
202
Duty factor is determined by the :
a) source
b) medium
c) medium and source
d) sonographer
a) source
203
Increasing the imaging depth affects all of the following except:
a) axial resolution
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) pulse repetition period
d) duty factor
a) axial resolution
204
By increasing the image depth, duty factor:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined
b) decreases
205
By increasing the pulse repetition frequency the duty factor:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) unchanged
a) increases
206
By increasing pulse duration, duty factor:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) varies
a) increases
207
By increasing the pulse repetition period, duty factor:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) varies
b) decreases
208
Which of the following components delivers electrical shock to the transducer:
a) pulser
b) receiver
c) memory
d) display
a) pulser
209
The pulser is connected to all of the following except:
a) transducer
b) receiver
c) memory
d) display
d) display
210
All of the following affect the ultrasound dose to the patient except:
a) pulser
b) output gain
c) transmit gain
d) time gain compensation
d) time gain compensation
211
The sonographer controls the pulser by which of the following controls:
a) receiver gain
b) acoustic power
c) time gain compensation
d) reject
b) acoustic power
212
All of the following functions are performed by the receiver except:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) demodulation
d) post processing
d) post processing
213
Which of the following lists the correct sequence of receiver function:
a) rejection, demodulation, compression, compensation, amplification
b) compensation, compression, demodulation, rejection, amplification
c) amplification, compensation, compression, demodulation, rejection
d) demodulation, compression, compensation, rejection, amplification
c) amplification, compensation, compression, demodulation, rejection
214
The sonographer may control all the following except:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) demodulation
d) rejection
c) demodulation
215
Which of the following receiver function amplifies all the returning signals regardless of depth:
a) amplification
b) compression
c) compensation
d) rejection
a) amplification
216
Which instrument control directly affects amplification:
a) transmit gain
b) overall gain
c) time gain compensation
d) threshold
b) overall gain
217
Which of the following receiver functions equalizes signal strength based on reflector depth:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) rejection
b) compensation
218
Depth gain compensation, compensates for:
a) amplitude
b) attenuation
c) period
d) power
b) attenuation
219
Which of the following receiver function reduces dynamic range;
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) demodulation
c) compression
220
Which of the following has the greatest dynamic range:
a) transducer
b) amplifier
c) memory
d) display
a) transducer
221
Which of the following has the narrowest dynamic range:
a) transducer
b) amplifier
c) memory
d) display
d) display
222
Rectification and smoothing are a function of :
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) demodulation
d) demodulation
223
Demodulation is determined by the :
a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer
a) source
224
The receiver function that eliminates or includes weak signals is:
a) compression
b) compensation
c) demodulation
d) reject
d) reject
225
The sonographer controls all of the following receiver functions except:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) rejection
d) compression
d) compression
226
The ration of the strongest amplitude signal to the weakest amplitude signal that a particular component may process is called:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) dynamic range
d) dynamic range
227
The assignment of a number to the analog signal leaving the receiver is called:
a) amplification
b) compensation
c) pre processing
d) post processing
c) pre processing
228
Pre processing is performed by the:
a) transducer
b) receiver
c) analog to digital converter
d) digital to analog converter
c) analog to digital converter
229
In general the dynamic range for clinical ultrasound is:
a) 10 dB to 20 dB
b) 10 to 50
c) 10 dB to 60 dB
d) 10 dB to 80 dB
d) 10 dB to 80 dB
230
The mode that displays returning signals as vertical spikes is:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) M
a) A
231
The mode that displays returning echoes as bright dots is:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) T-M
b) B
232
The mode that displays retuning echoes only from a pre selected depth is:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) T-M
c) C
233
The mode that displays motion over time is:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) M
d) M
234
C - mode operates similar to:
a) A mode
b) M mode
c) 2D
d) pulse wave doppler
d) pulse wave doppler
235
An articulated arm is used for:
a) A mode
b) real time B scan
c) static B scan
d) pulsed wave doppler
c) static B scan
236
Optical encoders and/or electrical resistors are used in:
a) A mode
b) real time B scan
c) static B scan
d) color flow doppler
c) static B scan
237
The time it takes for an ultrasound pulse to travel 1 cm round trip in soft tissue is:
a) 6.5 µs
b) 13 µs
c) 260 µs
d) 1 second
b) 13 µs
238
The pulse round trip time in soft tissue is determined to be 130 µs the depth of the reflector is:
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm
b) 10 cm
239
The pulse time to a reflector is 52 µs in soft tissue, the reflector depth is:
a) 4 cm
b) 8 cm
c) 16 cm
d) 20 cm
b) 8 cm
240
??? The propagation speed of a material is 2.0 mm/µs the pulse round trip time is 200 µs, the reflector depth is:
a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 20 mm
d) 200 mm
d) 200 mm
241
One scan line represents:
a) one cycle
b) wavelength
c) pulse
d) second
c) pulse
242
The average number of lines per frame in clinical ultrasound imaging is:
a) 10 to 100
b) 50 to 100
c) 100 to 150
d) 150 to 200
c) 100 to 150
243
The standard frame rate for clinical ultrasound imaging is:
a) 10 frames/second
b) 20 frames/second
c) 30 frames/second
d) 40 frames/second
c) 30 frames/second
244
Flicker will accrue when the frame rate decreases below:
a) 75 frames/second
b) 60 frames/ second
c) 30 frames/second
d) 15 frames/second
d) 15 frames/second
245
For soft tissue, image depth, lines per frame and frame rate may not exceed:
a) 1540
b) 154,000
c) 77,000
d) 100,000
c) 77,000
246
The product of image depth, lines per frame and frame rate is equal to 100,000. Which artifact may occur:
a) reverberation
b) aliasing
c) acoustic speckle
d) range ambiguity
d) range ambiguity
247
The resolution defined as the ability to resolve events closely spaced in time is:
a) angular
b) range
c) temporal
d) azimuthal
c) temporal
248
Temporal resolution is determined by:
a) spatial pulse length
b) frame rate
c) wavelength
d) beam diameter
b) frame rate
249
The resolution that is enhanced by increasing frame rate is:
a) axial lateral
b) lateral
c) temporal
d) contrast
c) temporal
250
All of the following will improve temporal resolution except:
a) decreasing image depth
b) decreasing image display width
c) decreasing transducer frequency
d) utilizing write magnification
c) decreasing transducer frequency
251
The scan converter most commonly used in clinical imaging ultrasound instruments is the:
a) analog
b) digital
c) fast fourier
d) matrix
b) digital
252
The smallest component of a display is the:
a) pixel
b) matrix
c) byte
d) cine-loop
a) pixel
253
The standard digital scan converter matrix size used in clinical imaging ultrasound is:
a) 100 x 100
b) 200 x 200
c) 512 x 512
d) 624 x 624
c) 512 x 512
254
The decimal number 20 may be written in binary as:
a) 020
b) 101
c) 10100
d) 10111
c) 10100
255
The binary number 1110 represents the decimal number:
a) 1110
b) 14
c) 111
d) 8421
b) 14
256
The number of gray shades that may be displayed by a three bit digital system is:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
c) 8
257
Most digital scan converters in clinical use today have at least:
a) 1 bit
b) 3 bits
c) 6 bits
d) 9 bits
c) 6 bits
258
A 1 bit digital system is considered:
a) singular
b) optimal
c) bi-stable
d) experimental
c) bi-stable
259
The number of gray shades that digital systems may display may be calculated by the formula:
a) CSA x VTI
b) 4 x V squared
c) .785 x diameter(d) squared
d) 2x
d) 2x
260
Post processing is performed by the:
a) transducer
b) analog to digital converter
c) digital to analog converter
d) cathode ray tube
c) digital to analog converter
261
Spatial resolution is improved by all of the following steps except:
a) increasing the number of television lines
b) increasing the number of pixels
c) decreasing the field of view
d) decreasing the transmit frequency
d) decreasing the transmit frequency
262
The correct sequence for image storage is:
a) receiver-ADC-memory-DAC-display
b) receiver-display-memory-DAC-ADC
c) ADC-receiver-memory-display-DAC
d) ADC-receiver-memory-display-DAC
a) receiver-ADC-memory-DAC-display
263
All of the following affect spatial resolution except:
a) number of pixels
b) number of television lines
c) transducer frequency
d) intensity
d) intensity
264
A television cathode ray tube writes in a format called:
a) analog
b) digital
c) binary
d) raster
d) raster
265
The number of fields displayed at a frame rate of 30 is:
a) 15
b) 30
c) 60
d) 90
c) 60
266
The material will emit light when struck by electrons:
a) tourmaline
b) phosphor
c) quartz
d) titanate
b) phosphor
267
The assignment of specific shades of gray to number leaving the memory is:
a) demodulation
b) pre processing
c) post processing
d) compensation
c) post processing
268
All of the following are true statements concerning post processing except:
a) performed by the digital to analog converter
b) sonographer selectable
c) able to affect stored and live images
d) allows for rite magnification
d) allows for rite magnification
269
A change in the frequency of a sound wave relative to the motion of the source and/or the observer is:
a) Boernoulli Principle
b) Ohms Law
c) Doppler Principle
d) Doppler Shift
d) Doppler Principle
270
The Doppler Shift will be 0 when the intercept angle is:
a) 0 degrees
b) 20 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees
d) 90 degrees
271
The difference between the transmitted and received frequency is the doppler:
a) frequency
b) velocity
c) shift
d) principle
c) shift
272
As red blood cell velocity increases, the doppler shift:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) is unchanged
d) varies
a) increases
273
All of the following are true statements concerning the doppler examination except:
a) positive doppler shifts are displayed above the 0 baseline
b) negative doppler shifts are displayed below the 0 baseline
c) the greater the red blood cell velocity the greater the doppler shift
d) the optimal doppler intercept angle is 90 degrees
d) the optimal doppler intercept angle is 90 degrees
274
The best example of a Rayleigh scatterer is the:
a) diaphragm
b) heart wall
c) liver Parenchyma
d) Red blood cell
d) Red blood cell
275
In increase in transmitted frequency will have which affect on backscatter:
a) decrease
b) increase
c) unchanged
d) varies
b) increase
276
In general the preferred transmitted frequency for the doppler examination is:
a) higher as compared to imaging
b) equal to that of imaging
c) lower as compared to imaging
d) in not contributory
c) lower as compared to imaging
277
As compared to the Echo amplitude from a specular reflector, back scatters echo amplitude is:
a) greater than
b) equal to
c) less than
d) dependent on the type of scatterer reflector
c) less than
278
As compared to a specular reflector, the echo strength from a red blood cell is:
a) 1/10 to 1/100
b) 1/100 to 1/1,000
c) 1/1,000 to 1/10,000
d) 1/10,000 to 1/100,000
b) 1/100 to 1/1,000
279
All of the following are true statements concerning the doppler equation except:
a) an increase in transmitted frequency will result in an increase in the doppler shift
b) sound speed of soft tissue is considered a constant
c) a decrease in red blood cell velocity will increase the detected doppler shift
d) a decrease in the intercept angle will increase the detected doppler shift
c) a decrease in red blood cell velocity will increases the detected doppler shift
280
The intercept angle which will yield a doppler shift that is one-half the true doppler shift is:
a) 0 degrees
b) 30 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees
c) 60 degrees
281
The cosign of 0 degrees is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
b) 1
282
The cosign of 60 degrees is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
c) 0.5
283
The cosign of 90 degrees is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
a) 0
284
The cosign of 180 degrees is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
b) 1
285
The doppler shift range for clinical imaging ultrasound is:
a) 1 kHz to 10 kHz
b) -10 kHz to 10 kHz
c) -1 kHz to 10 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) -10 kHz to 10 kHz
286
A 20 degree doppler intercept angle will result in a:
a) 6% overestimation of a true doppler shift
b) 6% underestimation of a true doppler shift
c) has no effect on true doppler shift
d) indeterminable
b) 6% underestimation of a true doppler shift
287
A 60 degree doppler intercept angle will result in a:
a) 50% overestimation of true doppler shift
b) 50% underestimation of true doppler shift
c) has no effect on true doppler shift
d) undetermined
b) 50% underestimation of true doppler shift
288
A 90 degree doppler intercept angle will result in a:
a) 100% overestimation of true doppler shift
b) 100% underestimation of true doppler shift
c) has no effect on true doppler shift
d) undetermined
b) 100% underestimation of true doppler shift
289
The doppler spectral display will provide information about all of the following except blood flow:
a) type
b) direction
c) duration
d) character
a) type
290
By convention a positive doppler shift will be placed:
a) above the 0 baseline
b) below the 0 baseline
c) horizontally on 0 baseline
d) varies
a) above the 0 baseline
291
The units that may be used to express red blood cell doppler velocity are:
a) Hertz
b) kHz
c) m/s
d) cm squared
c) m/s
292
An increase in PW doppler spectral broadening and wind fill in may represent:
a) laminar flow
b) Plug flow
c) turbulent flow
d) inlet
c) turbulent flow
293
Currently the conventional doppler spectral analysis is accompanied by:
a) auto correlation
b) fast fourier transform
c) Bernoulli Principle
d) time interval histogram
b) fast fourier transform
294
The x axis of the doppler spectral display represents:
a) flow duration
b) peak flow velocity
c) amplitude of blood flow
d) intensity of blood flow
a) flow duration
295
The y axis of the doppler spectral display represents:
a) flow duration
b) peak flow velocity
c) amplitude
d) mean flow volume
b) peak flow velocity
296
The z axis of the doppler spectral display represents:
a) Blood flow duration
b) peak flow velocity
c) amplitude of blood flow
d) blood flow direction
c) amplitude of blood flow
297
The doppler gray scale is affected by all of the following except:
a) blood type
b) wall filter
c) transmit gain
d) reflector amplitude
a) blood type
298
The doppler modal velocity represents:
a) average blood flow velocity
b) amplitude of blood flow
c) peak frequency shift
d) peak velocity
b) amplitude of blood flow
299
Which of the following represents the doppler maximum pressure gradient:
a) mean velocity
b) modal velocity
c) peak velocity
d) average velocity
c) peak velocity
300
The doppler wall filter is considered a:
a) low pass filter
b) modal filter
c) high pass filter
d) high gain filter
c) high pass filter
301
The doppler wall filter eliminates:
a) low amplitude, low velocity signals
b) high amplitude, low velocity signals
c) low amplitude, high velocity signals
d) high amplitude, high velocity signals
b) high amplitude, low velocity signals
302
Doppler wall filters are considered high pass filters because they eliminate:
a) low doppler frequency shifts
b) modal doppler frequency shifts
c) high doppler frequency shifts
d) high doppler blood flow velocities
a) low doppler frequency shifts
303
Increasing the doppler transmit gain will cause all of the following to increase except:
a) background noise
b) magnitude of doppler shift
c) spectral broadening
d) mirroring
b) magnitude of doppler shift
304
Excessive conventional doppler transmit gain may cause the artifact:
a) acoustic speckle
b) comet tail
c) mirroring
d) ghosting
c) mirroring
305
If the conventional doppler intercept angle is not 0 degrees, which of the following artifacts may occur:
a) acoustic speckle
b) mirroring
c) slice thickness
d) ghosting
b) mirroring
306
Spectral broadening may be caused by all of the following except:
a) turbulent flow
b) large sample gate size
c) increase doppler transmit gain
d) decrease in transmit frequency
d) decrease in transmit frequency
307
All of the following are possible doppler artifacts except:
a) acoustic speckle
b) mirroring
c) electrical interference
d) aliasing
a) acoustic speckle
308
All of the following contribute to the presentation of the conventional doppler information except:
a) visual
b) fast fourier transform
c) audio
d) autocorrelation
d) autocorrelation
309
The magnitude of the doppler shift in the clinical setting fails in the sound range that is:
a) infrasound
b) subsonic
c) audible
d) ultrasound
c) audible
310
The doppler audio aids in all the following ways except:
a) improves the angle of incidence
b) determines laminar flow
c) determines turbulent flow
d) provides the mean velocity
d) provides the mean velocity
311
All of the following true statements concerning continuous wave doppler except:
a) requires 1 piezoelectric element
b) center frequency is determined by the driving voltage
c) doppler shift information is detected all along the sound beam path
d) able to resolve high blood flow velocity
a) requires 1 piezoelectric element
312
The dedicated continuous wave pencil probe is called the:
a) Bernoulli
b) doppler
c) pedoff
d) Poiseulle
c) pedoff
313
The major disadvantage of continuous wave doppler is:
a) aliasing
b) nyquist limit
c) lack of range resolution
d) unable to resolve high blood flow velocity
c) lack of range resolution
314
The major advantage of continuous wave doppler is:
a) range resolution
b) resolves high velocity blood flow
c) range ambiguity
d) 1 piezoelectric element only
b) resolves high velocity blood flow
315
All of the following are true statements concerning pulse wave doppler except:
a) requires two piezoelectric elements
b) utilizes longer pulse lengths compared to imaging
c) governed by the nyquist limit
d) greater intensity levels as compared to imaging
a) requires two piezoelectric elements
316
Which of the following ultrasound modalities expose the patient to the greatest acoustic output:
a) M mode
b) two dimensional
c) continuous wave doppler
d) pulse wave doppler
d) pulse wave doppler
317
The major advantage of pulse wave doppler is:
a) range resolution
b) aliasing
c) nyquist limit
d) range ambiguity
a) range resolution
318
Compared to clinical ultrasound imaging axial resolution for pulse wave doppler is:
a) better than imaging
b) poorer than imaging
c) equal to imaging
d) cannot be compared
b) poorer than imaging
319
Which of the following statements is true concerning the relationship between doppler and reflectors:
a) processes scatter reflectors, filter out specular reflectors
b) processes both scatter and specular reflectors
c) processes specular reflectors, filters out scatter reflectors
d) filters out both specular and scatter reflectors
a) processes scatter reflectors
320
The artifact associated with a doppler shift exceeding the nyquist limit is:
a) acoustic speckle
b) aliasing
c) reverberation
d) shadowing
b) aliasing
321
The major disadvantage of pulse waved doppler is:
a) range resolution
b) high velocity resolution
c) aliasing
d) range gating
c) aliasing
322
Aliasing will occur in which of the following pulse wave doppler examples:
a) doppler shift if 3 kHz; PRF is 5 kHz
b) doppler shift is 4 kHz; PRF is 10 kHz
c) doppler shift is 5 kHz; PRF is 15 kHz
d) doppler shift is 6 kHz; PRF is 20 kHz
a) doppler shift is 3 kHz; PRF is 5 kHz
323
To avoid aliasing during a pulse waved doppler examination the sonographer may do all of the following except:
a) utilize the pedoff probe
b) decrease image depth
c) shift the 0 baseline
d) increase the transmit frequency
d) increase the transmit frequency
324
Color flow doppler utilizes the ultrasound modality of:
a) pulse wave
b) continuous wave
c) high pulse repetition
d) amplitude mode
a) pulse wave
325
Color flow doppler is a:
a) single gate method
b) multi gate method
c) biplane method
d) multiplane method
b) multi gate method
326
The most likely number of sample gates used per color doppler scan line is approximately:
a) 1-10
b) 10-100
c) 100-250
d) 250-500
d) 250-500
327
The number of ultrasound pulses per scan line for color flow doppler is referred to as the:
a) range gate
b) multi gate
c) packet size
d) frame rate
c) packet size
328
Increasing the packet size improves the:
a) mean doppler shift estimation
b) frame rate
c) image depth
d) color threshold
a) mean doppler shift estimation
329
Increasing the packet size may result in all of the following except:
a) improvement of the mean doppler shift estimate
b) frame rate decrease
c) alternation of the transmit frequency
d) decrease in line density
c) alternation of the transmit frequency
330
Color flow doppler information is placed where tissue should appear, the sonographer should decrease:
a) packet size
b) line density
c) frame rate
d) color threshold
d) color threshold
331
As the color doppler image depth is increased all of the following will decrease except:
a) PRF
b) nyquist limit
c) frame rate
d) duty factor
d) duty factor
332
The technique used to process color doppler frequency shift information is:
a) fast fourier transform
b) 0 crossing detector
c) time interval histogram
d) autocorrelation
d) autocorrelation
333
The velocity display by color flow doppler is the:
a) peak velocity
b) mean
c) modal
d) maximum
b) mean
334
Peak velocity maybe determined by all of the following doppler modalities except:
a) pulse wave
b) CW
c) high PRF
d) color flow
d) color flow
335
A color flow doppler mosaic pattern suggests:
a) laminar flow
b) plug flow
c) turbulent flow
d) inlet flow
c) turbulent flow
336
By convention, blood moving towards the transducer will be color coded:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
a) red
337
By convention, blood moving away from the transducer will be color coded:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
b) blue
338
By convention, the color used to indicate the absence of doppler shift is:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
c) black
339
By convention, the color used to indicate turbulent flow is:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
d) green
340
A dull red in a color flow doppler image represents:
a) high velocity flow away from the transducer
b) low velocity flow towards the transducer
c) turbulent flow away from the transducer
d) stagnant flow
b) low velocity flow towards the transducer
341
By color flow doppler convention a bright color represents:
a) high velocity
b) laminar flow
c) turbulent flow
d) low velocity
a) high velocity
342
Turbulent flow moving towards the transducer will be color encoded:
a) red
b) red with green
c) blue with green
d) Black
b) red and green
343
Turbulent flow moving away from the transducer will be color encoded:
a) red
b) red with green
c) blue with green
d) black
c) blue with green
344
The color flow doppler artifact associated with the super imposition of color on moving tissue is:
a) aliasing
b) ghosting
c) reverberation
d) shadowing
b) ghosting
345
(WRONG) A color doppler artifact associated with the super imposition of color on moving tissue is:
a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green
(WRONG)
| c) black
346
Which of the following ultrasound modalities has the highest intensity values:
a) M mode
b) 2D
c) PW
d) CW
c) PW
347
PW doppler has the highest intensity values for all of the following reasons except utilizes:
a) higher PRF
b) higher transmit frequencies
c) longer pulse lengths
d) greater dwell times as compared to imaging
b) higher transmit frequencies
348
The artifact that is associated with multiple reflections spaced equally is:
a) refraction
b) reverberation
c) acoustic speckle
d) multi path
b) reverberation
349
The artifact defined as apparent tissue texture is:
a) refraction
b) reverberation
c) acoustic speckle
d) slice thickness
c) acoustic speckle
350
Refraction may cause a reflector to be misplaced:
a) central
b) medial
c) lateral
d) superior
c) lateral
351
??? The axial resolution for ultrasound system A is 2 mm. The axial resolution for ultrasound system B is 6 mm. The ultrasound resolution for system C is 4 mm. Which system will be able to resolve structures 3mm apart?
a) System A
b) System B
c) System C
d) none of the above
a) System A
352
The artifact that may cause a fluid filled cyst to appear filled in:
a) reverberation
b) acoustic speckle
c) ring down
d) slice thickness
d) slice thickness
353
Multi path results in an error of:
a) apparent tissue texture
b) edge shadowing
c) multiple echoes equally spaced
d) improper depth
d) improper depth
354
Weak reflections due to low intensity sound beams which diverge from the main sound beam are due to:
a) refraction
b) side lobes
c) mirror image
d) comet tail
b) side lobes
355
The transducer type that may produce grating lobes is the :
a) single element
b) oscillating mirror
c) array
d) wobbler
c) array
356
If the propagation speed of a material is greater than 1540 m/s the returning echoes will be placed to:
a) lateral
b) medial
c) close
d) far
c) close
357
If the propagation speed of a material is less than 1540 m/s the returning echoes will be placed to:
a) lateral
b) medial
c) close
d) far
d) far
358
Shadowing involves intervening structures whose attenuating qualities are:
a) low
b) high
c) varied
d) mixed
b) high
359
The artifact that may cause prosthetic valve mitral regurgitation to be missed during a cardiac doppler examination is:
a) enhancement
b) reverberation
c) refraction
d) shadowing
d) shadowing
360
The artifact where there is a reduction in the strength of returning echoes due to intervening structure of increased attenuation is:
a) refraction
b) multi path
c) shadowing
d) enhancement
d) shadowing
361
The enhancement artifact is caused by intervening reflectors that are:
a) weak
b) strong
c) small
d) large
a) weak
362
The best method for predicting the volume of an irregular shaped object is the:
a) area length
b) bullet
c) Simpson's method of disc
d) cubed
c) Simpson's method of disc
363
The area of a circle may be derived from each of the following diameter formulas except:
a) diameter cubed
b) 3.14 x (diameter/2) squared
c) 3.14 x diameter squared / 4
d) .785 x diameter squared
a) diameter cubed
364
Simpson's rule calculates volume by which of the following formulas:
a) area x length x length
b) diameter cubed
c) area x length x minor axis
d) area x length x width
d) area x length x width
365
The ingredients of the AIUM 100 mm tests object includes all of the following except:
a) water
b) tungsten powder
c) algae inhibitor
d) alcohol
b) tungsten powder
366
The sound velocity for the AIUM 100 mm tests object is:
a) 1.540 m/s
b) 1540 m/s
c) 1054 km/s
d) 1540 mm/s
b) 1540 m/s
367
For the AIUM 100 mm tests object, which tests measures the weakest signal that a system may display:
a) minimum sensitivity
b) axial resolution
c) depth calibration
d) dead zone
a) minimum sensitivity
368
For the AIUM test object, which face and rod group should be used for testing a systems minimum sensitivity:
a) face A, rod group D
b) face B, rod group B
c) face A, rod group C
d) any face, any rod
d) any face, any rod
369
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which tests measure an ultrasound systems ability to resolve two structures that lie parallel to the direction of sound propagation:
a) minimum sensitivity
b) axial resolution
c) lateral resolution
d) range accuracy
b) axial resolution
370
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group set should be used to test an ultrasound systems axial resolution:
a) Face A, Rod group A
b) Face A, rod group B
c) Face A, rod group C
d) Face A, rod group D
a) Face A, rod group A
371
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, the test that measures an ultrasound systems ability to resolve structures that lie perpendicular to the sound beam direction is:
a) axial resolution
b) lateral resolution
c) depth calibration
d) range accuracy
b) lateral resolution
372
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group should be used to test an ultrasound systems for lateral resolution:
a) Face B, rod group D
b) Face B, rod group C
c) Face B, rod group B
d) Face B, rod group A
c) Fave B, rod group B
373
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which test measures an ultrasound systems vertical electronic caliber accuracy:
a) lateral resolution
b) depth calibration
c) registration accuracy
d) dead zone
b) depth calibration
374
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group should be used to test ultrasound systems depth calibration:
a) Face A, rod group A
b) Face B, rod group B
c) Face A, rod group C
d) Face D, rod group D
c) Face A, rod group C
375
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which test measures an ultrasound systems ability to become a receiver after transmitting:
a) depth calibration
b) range accuracy
c) dead zone
d) axial resolution
c) dead zone
376
For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group should be used to measure an ultrasound systems dead zone:
a) Face A, rod group D
b) Face A, rod group C
c) Face A, rod group B
d) Face A, rod group A
a) Face A, rod group D
377
Which of the following performance test instruments best mimics the attenuation and scatter characteristics of soft tissue:
a) AIUM 100 mm test object
b) tissue phantom
c) hydrophone
d) SUAR
b) tissue phantom
378
All of the following are the monographers responsibility for preventative maintenance except:
a) display screen surface
b) evaluating for cable wear and tear
c) evaluating pulser power
d) cleaning machine filters
c) evaluating pulser power
379
All of the following will increase when transmit gain is increased except:
a) impedance
b) pressure
c) power
d) intensity
a) impedance
380
The units for pressure include all of the following except:
a) Pascal
b) Newton per square meter
c) atmosphere
d) watts
d) watts
381
Which of the following has the greatest intensity value for clinical imaging ultrasound:
a) B- mode
b) M mode
c) PW doppler
d) CW doppler
c) PW doppler
382
The units that may be used to measure the ultrasound dose to the patient is:
a) inches
b) Pascals
c) Joules/cm squared
d) lbs/in squared
c) joules/cm squared
383
The sonographer may be able to minimize the ultrasound dose to the patient by all of the following except:
a) decrease transmit gain
b) increase receiver gain
c) increase duty factor
d) shorten exam time
c) increase duty factor
| Question b
384
The main cause of attenuation in soft tissue is:
a) scatter
b) absorption
c) reflection
d) refraction
b) absorption
385
Absorption is associated with the bio-effect mechanism of:
a) transient cavitation
b) stable cavitation
c) thermal
d) direct mechanical
c) thermal
386
The AIUM has stated that there has been no confirmed bio effects for a body temperature rise of less than:
a) 1 degree F
b) 1 degree C
c) 1 degree K
d) 98.6 degrees F
b) 1 degree C
387
The type of cavitation where there is an expansion and contraction of a gas bubble with possible micro streaming is:
a) absorption
b) stable
c) transient
d) direct mechanical
b) stable
388
The type of cavitation where there is an implosion of a gas bubble with a release of a great amount of energy is:
a) absorption
b) stable
c) transient
d) direct mechanical
c) transient
389
The type of bio effect mechanism caused by the movement of a mediums particles is:
a) thermal
b) stable cavitation
c) transient cavitation
d) direct mechanical
d) direct mechanical
390
Experimental studies performed in the living body of a plant or animal is called:
a) In vitro
b) In vivo
c) epidemiology
d) experimental
b) in vivo
391
Experimental studies performed outside the living body in an artificial environment is called:
a) in vitro
b) in vivo
c) epidemiology
d) experimental
a) in vitro
392
The study of the prevalence of disease is:
a) biology
b) physics
c) epidemiology
d) archeology
c) epidemiology
393
The period of a 4 MHz transducer is:
a) 0.15 ms
b) 0.25 µs
c) 0.35 ms
d) 0.45 ms
b) 0.25 µs
394
For soft tissue, the wavelength of a 5 MHz transducer is:
a) 0.3 mm
b) 0.5 mm
c) 1.0 mm
d) 5.0 mm
a) 0.3 mm
395
The density of a medium is 2000 kg/m cubed and the propagation speed is 1.0 m/µs, the impedance is (BLANK) rayls.
a) 2000
b) 20,000
c) 200,000
d) 2,000,000
d) 2,000,000
396
The spatial pulse length for a 3 cycle pulse with a wavelength of 4 mm is:
a) 3 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 7 mm
d) 12 mm
d) 12 mm
397
For soft tissue, the spatial pulse length for a 2 MHz transducer which emits a 2 cycle pulse is:
a) 1.5 mm
b) 2.0 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 4.0 mm
a) 1.5 mm
398
Determine the pulse duration for a 3 cycle pulse with a frequency of 3 MHz:
a) 0.3 mm
b) 0.5 ms
c) 1.0 µs
d) 1.3 µs
c) 1.0 µs
399
The power of a sound wave is 30 Pascals the area in which the sound wave is traveling is 10 cm squared. How will the intensity be affected if power is doubled and the area remain unchanged?
a) Doubled
b) tripled
c) quadrupled
d) unchanged
a) doubled
400
The power of a sound wave is 40 Pascals, the area in which the sound wave is traveling is 10 cm squared. How will the intensity be affected if area is doubled and power remain unchanged?
a) doubled
b) halved
c) quadrupled
d) unchanged
b) halved
401
The maximum variation of a sound wave acoustic variable is 15, the minimum variation is 5, the mean value is 10. The amplitude of the sound wave is:
a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) 5
d) 5
402
In soft tissue the attenuation coefficient is equal to:
a) 0.5 dB/cm/MHz
b) 1.0 dB/cm/MHz
c) 1.5 dB/cm/MHz
d) 2.0 dB/cm/MHz
a) 0.5 dB/cm/MHz
403
The attenuation coefficient for a 5 MHz sound wave traveling in soft tissue is:
a) 1.0 dB/cm
b) 1.5 dB/cm
c) 2.0 dB/cm
d) 2.5 dB/cm
d) 2.5 dB/cm
404
The total attenuation for a 3 MHz sound wave traveling in soft tissue 2 cm is:
a) 1.0 dB
b) 2.0 dB
c) 3.0 dB
d) 4.0 dB
c) 3.0 dB
405
The half intensity depth for a 3 MHz transducer in soft tissue is:
a) 1 cm
b) 2 cm
c) 3 cm
d) 4 cm
b) 2 cm
406
The initial intensity of a 3 MHz sound wave traveling in soft tissue is 100 mW/cm squared, determine the remaining intensity at an image depth of 2 cm squared?
a) 100 mW/cm squared
b) 75 mW/cm squared
c) 50 mW/cm squared
d) 25 mW/cm squared
c) 50 mW/cm squared
407
The impedance value for medium 1 is 100 rayls, the impedance value for medium 2 is 200 rayls. The intensity reflection coefficient is:
a) 0.1
b) 1.0
c) 10
d) 100
a) 0.1
408
The impedance value for medium 1 is 100 rayls, the impedance value for medium 2 is 200 rayls. The intensity transmission coefficient is:
a) 9.9
b) 9.9
c) 1.9
d) 0.9
d) 0.9
409
The propagation speed is 3 mm/µs, the pulse round trip time is 10 µs, the reflector distance is?
a) 0.15 mm
b) 1.5 cm
c) 15 mm
d) 15 cm
c) 15 mm
410
For soft tissue a reflection returns 91 µs after transmission, the reflector distance is?
a) 7 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 4 cm
a) 7 cm
411
For soft tissue a sound travel time to a reflector is 6.5µs, the reflector distance is?
a) 0.5 cm
b) 1 cm
c) 2 cm
d) 3 cm
b) 1 cm
412
For soft tissue, the axial resolution for a 3 MHz sound wave of 2 cycles is:
a) 0.5 mm
b) 0.6 mm
c) 0.9 mm
d) 3.0 mm
a) 0.5 mm
413
For soft tissue, the axial resolution for a 5 MHz sound wave for 2 cycles is:
a) .3 mm
b) .6 mm
c) .9 mm
d) 3.0
a) .3 mm
414
How may the decimal number 17 be written in binary:
a) 101
b) 1001
c) 11001
d) 10001
d) 10001
415
The binary number 101 represents the decimal number:
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
a) 5
416
How many shades of gray may a 7 bit digital system display?
a) 16
b) 32
c) 64
d) 128
d) 128
417
Which of the following combinations of PRF, image depth and frame rate will be associated with the artifact range ambiguity?
a) 50 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
b) 100 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
c) 150 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
d) 200 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
d) 200 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
418
The true doppler shift at a 0 degree angle of incidence is 5 kHz. If the angle of incidence is changed to 60 degrees the doppler shift will be:
a) 5 kHz
b) 2.5 kHz
c) 0.0 kHz
d) unchanged
b) 2.5 kHz
419
The true doppler shift at a 0 degree incident angle is 10 kHz. If the angle of incidence is changed to 90 degrees the doppler shift will be:
a) 5 kHz
b) 2.5 kHz
c) 0.0 kHz
d) unchanged
c) 0.0 kHz
420
The end diastolic volume of a left ventricle that measure 50 mm is:
a) 25 cc
b) 2,500 cc
c) 125 cc
d) 125,000
c) 125 cc
421
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will be altered except:
a) period
b) wavelength
c) impedance
d) lateral resolution
c) impedance
422
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will be altered except:
a) pulse duration
b) SPL
c) axial resolution
d) intensity
d) intensity
423
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will be altered except:
a) propagation speed
b) temporal resolution
c) attenuation coefficient
d) penetration depth
a) propagation speed
424
As a sonographer decreases the transmit frequency the greatest advantage will be an improvement in:
a) intensity
b) lateral resolution
c) penetration depth
d) propagation speed
c) penetration depth
425
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency the greatest advantage will be an improvement in:
a) axial resolution
b) penetration depth
c) propagation speed
d) intensity
a) axial resolution
426
As a sonographer decreases the transmit frequency during a PW doppler examination the greatest advantage will be a reduction in (the):
a) penetration depth
b) beam diameter
c) propagation speed
d) risk of aliasing
d) risk of aliasing
427
As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency there will be an improvement in:
a) propagation speed
b) beam diameter
c) intensity
d) impedance
b) beam diameter
428
As a sonographer increase the transmit frequency the near zone:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined
a) increases
429
As the sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will improve except:
a) beam diameter
b) penetration depth
c) angle of divergence
d) near zone length
b) penetration depth
430
As a sonographer chooses a large diameter phased array transducer all of the following will improve except:
a) near zone length
b) overall beam diameter
c) near field resolution
d) view point of divergence
c) near field resolution
431
During a color flow doppler examination, the sonographer first uses a 3.0 MHz transducer to examine a vessel, the sonographer then increases the transmit frequency. All of the following will occur except:
a) decrease in penetration depth
b) increase in attenuation coefficient
c) decrease in the chance of aliasing
d) bright color will be displayed
c) decrease in the chance of aliasing
432
As the sonographer increases the transmit frequency the instrumental control most likely to be also changed by the sonographer will be the:
a) compression
b) time gain compensation
c) persistance
d) image display width
b) time gain compensation
433
As the sonographer changes the transmit gain all of the following will be altered except:
a) power
b) amplitude
c) intensity
d) frame rate
d) frame rate
434
How will a patient be affected as a sonographer increases the transmit gain:
a) increased risk of bio effects
b) increased risk of electrical burn
c) not directly affected
d) cannot be affected
a) increased risk of bio effects
435
As a sonographer increases the transmit gain the greatest advantage will be an improvement in:
a) lateral resolution
b) propagation speed
c) penetration depth
d) acoustic impedance
c) penetration depth
436
As the sonographer increases the transmit gain the strength of the returning echoes will be :
a) increased
b) decreased
c) varied
d) undetermined
a) increased
437
As a sonographer increases the transmit gain which of the following will increase:
a) beam diameter
b) transmit frequency
c) acoustic impedance
d) frame rate
a) beam diameter
438
As a sonographer increases the transmit gain all of the following will improve except:
a) penetration depth
b) lateral resolution
c) transmit power
d) instrument sensitivity
b) lateral resolution
439
Which component of the ultrasound instrument will be directly affected by the sonographer increasing the transmit gain:
a) pulser
b) receiver
c) memory
d) display
a) pulser
440
As a sonographer decreases the image depth all of the following will increase except the:
a) PRF
b) PRP
c) frame rate
d) duty factor
b) PRP
441
Which resolution will most likely be directly affected when a sonographer decreases the image depth:
a) longitudinal
b) azimuthal
c) temporal
d) contrast
c) temporal
442
Which ultrasound image control will be directly affected when the sonographer changes the image depth:
a) pulser
b) transducer
c) receiver
d) memory
a) pulser
443
Which of the following would the sonographer most likely alter to better visualize a structure close to the transducer:
a) persistance
b) sweep speed
c) baseline tag
d) transmit focus
d) transmit focus
444
As the sonographer utilizes transmit focus the resolution directly affected will be:
a) range
b) radial
c) transverse
d) longitudinal
c) transverse
445
As the sonographer chooses multiple transmit focus sites all of the following resolutions will improve except:
a) transverse
b) angular
c) temporal
d) lateral
c) temporal
446
The sonographer need to make an accurate dimension measurement during an ultrasound examination, which resolution would be best to rely upon:
a) axial
b) lateral
c) temporal
d) contrast
a) axial
447
The sonographer needs to make an accurate lateral dimension measurement of a structure, for the best result the transducer should place the structure:
a) close to the transducer
b) away from the transducer
c) In the focal region
d) lateral from the transducer
c) in the focal region
448
The sonographer wishes to improve lateral resolution during an ultrasound examination, which transducer would be the best choice:
a) annular array
b) sector phased array
c) mechanical wobbler
d) linear translating
a) annular array
449
In order to improve visualization of a small structure such as a cardiac vegetation, the sonographer may:
a) increase image depth
b) increase image width
c) utilize right magnification
d) increase transmit frequency
c) utilize right magnification
450
All of the following are ways in which the sonographer may increase frame rate except decrease:
a) image depth
b) number of transmit focus
c) display width
d) transmit frequency
d) transmit frequency
451
In order to increase the frame rate during a color flow doppler examination the sonographer should do all the following except decrease:
a) packet size
b) image width
c) image depth
d) color baseline
d) color baseline
452
The sonographer chooses a large color flow doppler packet size, which of the following statements is true: A large packet size will:
a) increase frame rate
b) will degrade mean velocity estimations
c) is acceptable to use for a neonatal examination
d) will improve peak velocity estimations
c) is acceptable to use for a neonatal examination
453
The sonographer wishes to improve ultrasound transmission. Which of the following may be utilized:
a) sternum
b) plural effusion
c) pericardium
d) lungs
b) plural effusion
454
The sonographer notices during a PW doppler examination that blood flow moving towards the transducer is displayed below the zero baseline, which doppler instrument control may be altered:
a) velocity scale
b) incident angle
c) sample volume length
d) spectral invert
d) spectral invert
455
While performing a PW doppler examination the sonographer would like to improve the spectral display, all of the following may be helpful except:
a) decrease the sample gate size
b) align the sound beam to intercept blood flow at 0 degrees
c) increase the transmit frequency
d) vary the doppler transmit gain
c) increase the transmit frequency
456
Which of the following color flow doppler controls would increase the amount of color shown on the display:
a) color baseline
b) color gain
c) color map
d) color width
b) color gain
457
As the sonographer increases the color flow doppler sector width the frame rate:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) unchanged
b) decreases
458
Which of the following color flow doppler controls would be useful in unwrapping aliased signals:
a) color baseline
b) color transmit
c) color map
d) color width
a) color baseline
459
The sonographer notes that the middle section of the image display is too bright, which of the following instruments controls would be best to adapt to improve the displayed image:
a) overall gain
b) transmit gain
c) reject
d) TGC
d) TGC
460
The sonographer notes that throughout the image display there is too many low level echoes, which of the following instruments controls would be used to adjust to improve the displayed image:
a) overall gain
b) transmit gain
c) reject
d) TGC
a) overall gain
461
Which of the following instruments controls may the sonographer choose to stop all acoustic output from the transducer:
a) gain
b) image depth
c) transmit focus
d) freeze
d) freeze
462
Which type of wave is present when particle motion is perpendicular to the direction of wave advancement:
a) longitudinal
b) parallel
c) harmonic
d) transverse
d) transverse
463
Which type of wave is present when particle motion is parallel to the direction of wave advancement:
a) longitudinal
b) parallel
c) harmonic
d) transverse
a) longitudinal
464
Audible sound has a frequency range that is:
a) less than 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
c) greater than 20 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
465
propagation speed is equal to:
a) frequency/wavelength
b) wavelength x frequency
c) 1/frequency
d) density x stiffness
b) wavelength x frequency
466
Wavelength is equal to:
a) frequency x wavelength
b) propagation speed/frequency
c) 1/frequency
d) density x propagation speed
b) propagation speed/frequency
467
Period is equal to:
a) frequency x wavelength
b) propagation speed/frequency
c) 1/frequency
d) density x propagation speed
c) 1/frequency
468
Frequency and wavelength are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) directly proportional
d) unrelated
b) inversely related
469
Period and wavelength are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated
c) inversely proportional
470
Frequency and period are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) directly proportional
d) unrelated
b) inversely related
471
Which of the following will cause an increase in the refraction angle:
a) decreased propagation speed differences, increased incident angle
b) increased propagation speed differences, decreased incident angle
c) decreased propagation speed differences, decreased incident angle
d) increased propagation speed differences, increased incident angle
a) decreased propagation speed differences, increased incident angle
472
For soft tissue, the half value layer may be represented as:
a) -1 dB
b) -2 dB
c) -3 dB
d) -4 dB
b) -2 dB
473
Increasing the transmit frequency increases all of the following except:
a) half value layer
b) attenuation coefficient
c) total attenuation
d) scatter
d) scatter
474
The damping material decreases all the following except:
a) Pulse duration
b) spatial pulse length
c) number of cycles in a pulse
d) time for reception
d) time for reception
475
The damping material decreases all the following except:
a) output intensity
b) bandwidth
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length
b) bandwidth
476
The area of the sound beam where there is an absence of sound wave divergence is the:
a) fresnel zone
b) fraunhofer zone
c) far zone
d) focal region
a) fresnel zone
477
Lateral resolution will have the highest numerical value in the:
a) fresnel zone
b) near zone
c) focus
d) fraunhofer zone
d) fraunhofer zone
478
Sound beam divergence occurs in the:
a) fresnel zone
b) fraunhofer zone
c) near zone
d) focus
b) fraunhofer zone
479
Dynamic receive focusing and frame rate are:
a) directly related
b) inversely proportional
c) inversely related
d) unrelated
d) unrelated
480
Transducer diameter and near zone length are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated
a) directly related
481
Transmit frequency and near zone length are:
a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated
a) directly related
482
Wavelength and near zone length are:
a) directly related
b) directly proportional
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated
c) inversely proportional
483
Damping is inversely related to:
a) transmit frequency
b) spatial pulse length
c) bandwidth
d) cannot be predicted
b) spatial pulse length
484
focusing improves:
a) transmit frequency
b) lateral resolution
c) range resolution
d) temporal resolution
b) lateral resolution
485
Which of the following focus length will cause the greatest angle of beam divergence:
a) long
b) medium
c) short
d) cannot be predicted
c) short
486
Damping improves:
a) radial resolution
b) lateral resolution
c) angular resolution
d) azimuthal resolution
a) radial resolution
487
For a 2 cycle pulse of 3 MHz in soft tissue, which of the following will not be resolved using the systems axial resolution:
a) reflectors 1.1 mm apart
b) reflectors 0.8 mm apart
c) reflectors 0.6 mm apart
d) reflectors 0.4 mm apart
d) reflectors 0.4 mm apart
488
Increasing the bandwidth improves:
a) lateral resolution
b) angular resolution
c) longitudinal resolution
d) transverse resolution
c) longitudinal resolution
489
Exposure of the patient to bioeffects is:
a) directly related to intensity
b) inversely proportional to intensity
c) inversely related to intensity
d) unrelated
a) directly related to intensity
490
Pre processing occurs during:
a) freeze frame
b) cine lupe playback
c) image acquisition
d) demodulation
c) image acquisition
491
The numb of lines displayed per frame is directly dependent upon all of the following except:
a) frame rate
b) depth of penetration
c) pulse repetition frequency
d) SPL
d) SPL
492
Image depth and frame rate are:
a) directly related
b) directly proportional
c) inversely related
d) unrelated
c) inversely related
493
The range ambiguity imaging artifact will result in structures being placed too:
a) close to the transducer
b) far from the transducer
c) medial
d) lateral
a) close to the transducer
494
The artifact reverberation will result in displaying images that are:
a) real
b) unreal
c) bright
d) singular
b) unreal
495
The artifact multi path will result in placing structures too:
a) close
b) far
c) lateral
d) medial
b) far
496
The artifact shadowing will result in structures being displayed as too:
a) close
b) far
c) weak
d) bright
c) weak
497
The artifact enhancement will result in displaying structures that are too:
a) far
b) close
c) bright
d) weak
c) bight
498
All of the following are true statements concerning read magnification except:
a) increases pixel dimension
b) post processing function
c) maintains the same number of scan lines
d) significantly enhances spatial resolution
d) significantly enhances spatial resolution
499
All of the following are true statement concerning write magnification except:
a) increases number of scan lines in area of interest
b) pre processing function
c) decreases frame rate
d) greatly enhances spatial resolution
c) decreases fram rate
500
As the sonographer increases the color flow doppler reject all of the following will improve except:
a) color sensitivity
b) noise reduction
c) color image quality
d) jet size
a) color sensitivity
