Physics 500

Question 1

A sound wave is:

a) transverse
b) electromagnetic
c) mechanical, longitudinal
d) transverse, longitudinal

Answer 1

c) mechanical, longitudinal

Question 2

A compression area of a sound wave is:

a) high pressure, low density
b) low pressure, low density
c) high pressure, high density
d) low pressure, high density

Answer 2

c) high pressure, high density

Question 3

A rarefaction area of a sound wave is:

a) high pressure, low density
b) low pressure, low density
c) high pressure, high density
d) low pressure, high density

Answer 3

b) low pressure, low density

Question 4

Which of the following is considered an acoustic variable?

a) power
b) intensity
c) amplitude
d) pressure

Answer 4

d) pressure

Question 5

Which of the following is a unit for pressure

a) lbs/in
b) N/m squared
c) kg/cm cubed
d) inches squared

Answer 5

b) N/m squared

Question 6

Which of the following is a correct unit for density?

a) lb/in
b) mm Hg
c) centigrade
d) lbs/cm cubed

Answer 6

d) lbs/cm cubed

Question 7

Which of the following waves propagate in a medium?

a) heat
b) light
c) x-ray
d) sound

Answer 7

d) sound

Question 8

The range for ultrasound is:

a) less than 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
c) greater than 20 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz

Answer 8

c) greater than 20 kHz

Question 9

(BLANK) is the number of wave cycles per second.

a) Frequency
b) Period
c) Wavelength
d) Amplitude

Answer 9

a) Frequency

Question 10

One kilohertz is equal to:

a) one cycle per second
b) 100 cycles per second
c) 1,000 cycles per second
d) 10,000 cyclers per second

Answer 10

c) 1,000 cycles per second

Question 11

One Megahertz is equal to:

a) one cycle per second
b) one hundred cycles per second
c) one thousand cycles per second
d) one million cycles per second

Answer 11

d) one million cycles per second

Question 12

The useful frequency range for clinical imaging ultrasound is:

a) 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
c) 1 Hz to 10 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz

Answer 12

d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz

Question 13

Frequency is determined by the:

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 13

a) source

Question 14

Frequency affects all of the following except:

a) wavelength
b) resolution
c) penetration
d) impedance

Answer 14

d) impedance

Question 15

The time per cycle is:

a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) sound speed

Answer 15

b) period

Question 16

The period for a 5 MHz probe is:

a) 0.2 cycles per second
b) 0.2
c) 0.2 µsec
d) 0.2 msec

Answer 16

c) 0.2 µsec

Question 17

If frequency increases, period:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) unchanged

Answer 17

b) decreases

Question 18

Period is determined by the:

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 18

a) source

Question 19

Period multiplied by the number of cycles in a pulse equals:

a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) pulse duration
d) sound velocity

Answer 19

c) pulse duration

Question 20

The distance between cyclical peaks is:

a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) sound speed

Answer 20

c) wavelength

Question 21

The symbol for wavelength:

a) delta
b) mu
c) lambda
d) Hertz

Answer 21

c) lambda

Question 22

The wavelength of a 5 MHz probe in soft tissue is:

a) 5.0 mm
b) 0.3 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 1.54 mm

Answer 22

b) 0.3 mm

Question 23

As frequency increases, wavelength (assume same medium):

a) increases
b) decreases
c) not affected
d) varies

Answer 23

b) decreases

Question 24

Wavelength is determined by the:

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 24

c) source and medium

Question 25

As wavelength decreases:

a) resolution improves
b) frequency decreases
c) depth of penetration increases
d) attenuation decreases

Answer 25

a) resolution improves

Question 26

The rate at which a sound vibration propagates through a medium is called all of the following except:

a) sound speed
b) propagation speed
c) speed of sound
d) velocity

Answer 26

d) velocity

Question 27

The units for propagation speed include all of the following except:

a) km/sec
b) mph
c) msec
d) mm/sec

Answer 27

c) msec

Question 28

The average speed of sound in soft tissue is:

a) 1.54 m/sec
b) 1540 m/sec
c) 1.54 cm/sec
d) 154,000 m/sec

Answer 28

b) 1540 m/sec

Question 29

Arrange the following in increasing order of sound speed in a medium:
fat, bone, muscle, air, soft tissue

Answer 29

air, fat, soft tissue, muscle, bone

Question 30

The propagation speed of sound of the ceramic lead zirconate titanate (PZT) is approximately:

a) 1.54 mm/sec
b) 330 m/sec
c) 4000 m/sec
d) 2680 m/sec

Answer 30

c) 4000 m/sec

Question 31

Sound speed is determined by the:

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 31

b) medium

Question 32

The peak variation minus the mean variation is:

a) frequency
b) period
c) amplitude
d) intensity

Answer 32

c) amplitude

Question 33

All of the following are possible units for amplitude except:

a) degrees
b) decibles
c) Pascal
d) watts

Answer 33

d) watts

Question 34

The maximum variation of an acoustic variable is 60. The mean value is 45. The minimum value is 30. The amplitude is:

a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) 15

Answer 34

d) 15

Question 35

Amplitude is determined by the:

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 35

a) source

Question 36

Which of the following ultrasound machine control will affect amplitude?

a) receiver gain
b) threshold
c) time gain compensation
d) output power

Answer 36

d) output power

Question 37

As sound propagates through a medium, amplitude:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) is unaffected
d) varies

Answer 37

b) decreases

Question 38

The total energy transferred is:

a) frequency
b) amplitude
c) power
d) intensity

Answer 38

c) power

Question 39

Power is determined by the:

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 39

a) source

Question 40

The amplitude of a wave is 4. Power is:

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

Answer 40

d) 16

Question 41

Power may be affected by which gain control?

a) transmit
b) receive
c) time
d) overall

Answer 41

a) transmit

Question 42

The rate of energy transferred into a particular area is:

a) amplitude
b) power
c) intensity
d) attenuation

Answer 42

c) intensity

Question 43

The units for intensity are:

a) Hertz
b) watts
c) mm Hg
d) watts per centimeter squared

Answer 43

d) watts per centimeter squared

Question 44

The highest measured intensity is:

a) spatial peak, temporal peak
b) spatial average, temporal peak
c) spatial peak, temporal average
d) spatial average, temporal average

Answer 44

a) spatial peak, temporal peak

Question 45

The lowest measured intensity is:

a) spatial peak, temporal peak
b) spatial average, temporal peak
c) spatial peak, temporal average
d) spatial average, temporal average

Answer 45

d) spatial average, temporal average

Question 46

According to the AIUM, there has been no proven biological effects for unfocused ultrasound below:

a) 1 mW/cm squared SPTP
b) 100 mW/cm squared SPTA
c) 1 W/cm squared SPTA
d) 1000 mW/cm squared SATA

Answer 46

b) 100 mW/cm squared SPTA

Question 47

According to the AIUM, there has been no proven biological effects for focused ultrasound below:

a) 1 mW/cm squared SPTP
b) 100 mW/cm squared SPTA
c) 1 W/cm squared SPTA
d) 1000 mW/cm squared SATA

Answer 47

c) 1 W/cm squared SPTA

Question 48

Intensity is determined by the:

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 48

a) source

Question 49

Which of the following gain controls affect intensity?

a) overall
b) time
c) transmit
d) receiver

Answer 49

c) transmit

Question 50

Assuming the same area, what effect will an increase in power have on intensity?

a) increase
b) decrease
c) no change
d) varied

Answer 50

a) increase

Question 51

What effect will an increase in area have on intensity if power remain unchanged?

a) increase
b) decrease
c) no change
d) varied

Answer 51

b) decrease

Question 52

For continuous wave ultrasound, which of the following intensities are equal?

a) SPPA, SPTA
b) SPPA, SATA
c) SATP, SPPA
d) SPTA, SATA

Answer 52

a) SPPA, SPTA

Question 53

The factor that describes the spatial intensity distribution across a sound beam is the:

a) duty factor
b) SP/SA factor
c) quality factor
d) bandwidth

Answer 53

b) SP/SA factor

Question 54

The minimum value for the beam uniformity ratio is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 100
d) 1,000

Answer 54

b) 1

Question 55

Ultrasound transducer A has a SP/SA factor of 40. Ultrasound transducer B has a SP/SA factor of 20. Which transducer has the brighter center?

a) Transducer A
b) Transducer B
c) Neither
d) Cannot be determined

Answer 55

a) Transducer A

Question 56

An increase in intensity is determined to be 30 decibels. The intensity is increased by:

a) 1x30 or 30
b) 10x10x10 or 1000
c) 10x10 or 100
d) 10x10x10x10 or 10,000

Answer 56

b) 10x10x10 or 1000

Question 57

For soft tissue, a 75% loss in intensity can be expressed in decibels as:

a) -0 dB
b) -3 dB
c) -6 dB
d) -9 dB

Answer 57

c) -6 dB

Question 58

The number 1540 may be expressed in scientific notation as:

a) 1540 x 10‘
b) 1.540 x 10‘
c) 15.40 x 10‘
d) 154.0 x 10‘

Answer 58

b) 1.540 x 10‘

Question 59

The number 0.1492 may be written in scientific notation as;

a) 1492 x 10‘
b) 1.492 x 10(to the -1 power)
c) 14.92 x 10‘
d) 149.2 x 10(to the -1 power)

Answer 59

b) 1.492 x 10(to the -1 power)

Question 60

Arrange the following in proper increasing order:

Giga, Mega, Kilo, Hector, Deca

Answer 60

Deca, Hector, Kilo, Mega, Giga

Question 61

Arrange in decreasing order:

Milli, Centi, Deci, Micro, Nano

Answer 61

Decid, Centi, Milli, Micro, Nano

Question 62

Arrange the following units of length in increasing order:

Kilometer, Meter, Centimeter, Micrometer, Nanometer

Answer 62

Micrometer, Millimeter, Centimeter, Meter, Kilometer

Question 63

Which unit would be best to use to express aortic valve area?

a) centimeters squared
b) centimeters
c) cubic meters
d) microseconds

Answer 63

a) centimeters squared

Question 64

All of the following are correct ways to express the average propagation speed of sound in soft tissue except:

a) 1.54 mm/µsec
b) 1540 m/sec
c) 15,400 cm/sec
d) 1.54 km/sec

Answer 64

c) 15,400 cm/sec

Question 65

The acoustic characteristic of a medium is:

a) sound velocity
b) density
c) impedance
d) attenuation

Answer 65

c) impedance

Question 66

The acoustic impedance range for soft tissue is:

a) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) 1 kHz to 10 kHz
c) 1.25 Mrayls to 1.75 Mrayls
d) -10 kHz to +10 kHz

Answer 66

c) 1.25 Mrayls to 1.75 Mrayls

Question 67

A reflection will occur at the boundary of two media if the media impedances are:

a) equal
b) dissimilar
c) average
d) identical

Answer 67

b) dissimilar

Question 68

The percentage of sound energy reflected at a fat/muscle interface is approximately:

a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 99.9%

Answer 68

a) 1%

Question 69

The percentage of sound energy reflected at a soft tissue/air interface is approximately:

a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 99%

Answer 69

d) 99%

Question 70

A reflector that is smooth surfaced and large is called:

a) specular
b) scatter
c) Rayleigh
d) Parenchyma

Answer 70

a) specular

Question 71

All of the following are examples of specular reflectors except:

a) mitral valve
b) interventricular septum
c) carotid artery
d) red blood cell

Answer 71

d) red blood cell

Question 72

Specular reflectors are highly dependent upon:

a) transmit frequency
b) incident angle
c) sound speed
d) pulse repletion period

Answer 72

b) incident angle

Question 73

Reflectors that are rough surfaced and small are known as:

a) specular
b) transverse
c) scatter
d) angular

Answer 73

c) scatter

Question 74

Scatter reflectors are highly dependent upon:

a) transmit frequency
b) incident angle
c) spatial pulse length
d) acoustic velocity

Answer 74

a) transmit frequency

Question 75

The strength of backscatter is dependent upon all of the following except scatter:

a) density
b) size
c) impedance
d) angle

Answer 75

d) angle

Question 76

Reflectors that reflect ultrasound energy equally in all direction are called:

a) scatter
b) backscatter
c) specular
d) Rayleigh

Answer 76

d) Rayleigh

Question 77

The best example of a scatter reflector is the:

a) tricuspid valve
b) interatrial septum
c) organ parenchyma
d) abdominal aorta

Answer 77

c) organ parenchyma

Question 78

The best example of a Rayleigh scatterer is the:

a) pulmonic valve
b) myocardium
c) red blood cell
d) aortic vessel wall

Answer 78

c) red blood cell

Question 79

The ultrasound beam strikes an interface at ninety degrees. The incidence is considered:

a) perpendicular
b) oblique
c) angular
d) azimuthal

Answer 79

a) perpendicular

Question 80

The optimal angle to strike specular reflectors is:

a) direct
b) oblique
c) angular
d) azimuthal

Answer 80

a) direct

Question 81

The reflected intensity coefficient may be calculated by the formula:

a) 4(V2-V1)
b) CSA x V
c) [Z2-Z1/Z2+Z1] squared
d) D3

Answer 81

c) [Z2-Z1/Z2+Z1] squared

Question 82

The ultrasound beam strikes an interface at 74 degrees. This incidence is considered:

a) perpendicular
b) oblique
c) normal
d) direct

Answer 82

b) oblique

Question 83

The incidence angle is 36 degrees. The reflected angle is:

a) 0 degrees
b) 18 degrees
c) 36 degrees
d) 72 degrees

Answer 83

c) 36 degrees

Question 84

The change in sound travel direction as sound crosses a boundary is known as:

a) reflection
b) incidence
c) refraction
d) transmission

Answer 84

c) refraction

Question 85

The incident angle is 53 degrees. The propagation speed in medium one is 1540 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium two is 1580 m/sec. The reflection angle is:

a) 53 degrees
b) less than 53 degrees
c) greater than 53 degrees
d) cannot be predicted

Answer 85

a) 53 degrees

Question 86

The incident angle is 46 degrees. The propagation speed in medium one is 1540 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium two is 1540 m/sec. The reflected angle is 46 degrees. The transmitted angle is:

a) 46 degrees
b) less than 46 degrees
c) greater than 46 degrees
d) cannot be predicted

Answer 86

a) 46 degrees

Question 87

The incident angle is 72 degrees. The propagation speed in medium one is 1580 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium two is 1680 m/sec. The reflected angle is 72 degrees. The transmitted angle is:

a) 72 degrees
b) less than 72 degrees
c) greater than 72 degrees
d) cannot be predicted

Answer 87

c) greater than 72 degrees

Question 88

The incident angle is 80 degrees. the propagation speed in medium two is 1500 m/sec. The propagation speed in medium one is 1600 m/sec. The reflected angle is 80 degrees. The transmitted angle is:

a) 80 degrees
b) less than 80 degrees
c) greater than 80 degrees
d) cannot be determined

Answer 88

b) less than 80 degrees

Question 89

Refraction will occur when there is oblique incidence and the (BLANK):

a) impedance are equal
b) propagation speeds are equal
c) impedance are not equal
d) propagation speeds are not equal

Answer 89

d) propagation speeds are not equal

Question 90

Acoustic couplants are needed because they reduce the impedance difference between the:

a) damping material and the active element
b) matching layer and the active element
c) transducer and skin surface
d) element and electric wires

Answer 90

c) transducer and skin surface

Question 91

The loss of sound intensity is called:

a) refraction
b) reflection
c) absorption
d) attenuation

Answer 91

d) attenuation

Question 92

The conversion of sound energy to heat is:

a) absorption
b) reflection
c) scatter
d) refraction

Answer 92

a) absorption

Question 93

The most important cause of attenuation in soft tissue is:

a) absorption
b) reflection
c) scatter
d) refraction

Answer 93

a) absorption

Question 94

The most likely cause of sound attenuation in bone is:

a) absorption
b) reflection
c) scatter
d) refraction

Answer 94

b) reflection

Question 95

The most likely cause of sound attenuation in air is:

a) scatter
b) reflection
c) sound velocity
d) refraction

Answer 95

a) scatter

Question 96

The units for attenuation coefficient are:

a) dB
b) dB/cm
c) Hertz
d) dB/MHz

Answer 96

b) dB/cm

Question 97

The attenuation coefficient for 2 MHz in soft tissue is:

a) 1 dB/cm
b) 2 dB/cm
c) 3 dB/cm
d) 5 dB/cm

Answer 97

a) 1 dB/cm

Question 98

As frequency increases, the attenuation coefficient:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined

Answer 98

a) increases

Question 99

For soft tissue, the total attenuation for a 2 MHz transducer at 20 cm is:

a) 2 dB
b) 4 dB
c) 16 dB
d) 20 dB

Answer 99

d) 20 dB

Question 100

As frequency increases, attenuation:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined

Answer 100

a) increases

Question 101

The half intensity depth for a 2 MHz transducer in soft tissue is:

a) 3 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 9 cm
d) 12 cm

Answer 101

a) 3 cm

Question 102

Attenuation is lowest in which of the following mediums?

a) bone
b) air
c) water
d) steel

Answer 102

c) water

Question 103

Increasing frequency will result in all of the following except:

a) range resolution improvement
b) transverse resolution improvement
c) increase depth of penetration
d) decrease in beam diameter

Answer 103

c) increase depth of penetration

Question 104

Ultrasound transducers utilize which effect upon transmission?

a) piezoelectric
b) reverse piezoelectric
c) Doppler
d) Bernouli

Answer 104

b) reverse piezoelectric

Question 105

Ultrasound transducers utilize which effect upon reception?

a) piezoelectric
b) reverse piezoelectric
c) Doppler
d) Bernoulli

Answer 105

a) piezoelectric

Question 106

All of the following possess the piezoelectric property naturally except:

a) quartz
b) Rochelle salts
c) tourmaline
d) lead zirconate titanate

Answer 106

d) lead zirconate titanate

Question 107

Man-made materials receive the piezoelectric property through the process called:

a) depolarization
b) depolarization
c) repolarization
d) polarization

Answer 107

d) polarization

Question 108

The most common man-made ceramic used in ultrasound transducers today is:

a) barium titanate
b) lithium sulfate
c) lead zirconate titanate
d) polyvinyl diflouride

Answer 108

c) lead zirconate titanate

Question 109

The point at which an ultrasound transducer gives up its piezoelectric property is:

a) Bernoulli
b) Curie
c) Doppler
d) Edler

Answer 109

b) Curie

Question 110

The temperature at which lead zirconate titanate loses its piezoelectric property is:

a) 300 degrees F
b) 400 degrees F
c) 500 degrees F
d) 600 degrees F

Answer 110

d) 600 degrees F

Question 111

The center frequency for pulsed wave transducers is determined primarily by the element’s:

a) propagation speed
b) bandwidth
c) quality factor
d) thickness

Answer 111

d) thickness

Question 112

The material that reduces the impedance difference between the active element and soft tissue is the :

a) crystal
b) damping block
c) matching layer
d) PZT

Answer 112

c) matching layer

Question 113

The optimal thickness for the matching layer is:

a) 1/4 wavelength
b) 1/2 wavelength
c) 3/4 wavelength
d) 1 wavelength

Answer 113

a) 1/4 wavelength

Question 114

The optimal impedance value for the matching layer is:

a) greater than the active element
b) less than the active element
c) equal to the active element
d) mean between active element and soft tissue

Answer 114

d) mean between active element and soft tissue

Question 115

The material placed behind the active element to reduce its ringing is the:

a) PZT
b) matching layer
c) damping block
d) cable

Answer 115

c) damping block

Question 116

The impedance value for the damping block is:

a) greater than the active element
b) less than the active element
c) equal to the active element
d) varies with transducer

Answer 116

c) equal to active element

Question 117

The number of cycles produced by imaging ultrasound transducers is:

a) 0-1 cycle
b) 2-4 cycles
c) 4-6 cycles
d) 6-8 cycles

Answer 117

b) 2-4 cycles

Question 118

The damping block reduces all of the following except:

a) pulse duration
b) spatial pulse length
c) duty factor
d) bandwidth

Answer 118

d) bandwidth

Question 119

Which of the following increases with damping?

a) output intensity
b) sensitivity
c) quality factor
d) bandwidth

Answer 119

d) bandwidth

Question 120

Which of the following pulsed-wave ultrasound transducers will have the highest frequency?

a) thin element, low propagation speed
b) thick element, low propagation speed
c) thin element, high propagation speed
d) thick element, high propagation speed

Answer 120

c) thin element, high propagation speed

Question 121

The center frequency of a continuous wave ultrasound transducer is determined by the:

a) thickness of the crystal
b) propagation speed of the crystal
c) driving voltage frequency
d) damping block

Answer 121

c) driving voltage frequency

Question 122

The propagation speed for PZT is:

a) 1.54 mm/µs
b) 4.0 mm/µs
c) 8 mm/µs
d) 16 mm/µs

Answer 122

b) 4.0 mm/µs

Question 123

The impedance value for the coupling gel is:

a) greater than the element
b) greater than the matching layer
c) less than the matching layer
d) equal to the damping block

Answer 123

c) less than the matching layer

Question 124

The sound beam decreases in the:

a) near zone
b) transition point
c) far zone
d) divergence zone

Answer 124

a) near zone

Question 125

The most effective way to increase near zone length is by increasing transducer:

a) frequency
b) damping
c) diameter
d) wavelength

Answer 125

c) diameter

Question 126

For a continuous wave 6 mm unfocused transducer, the beam diameter at one near zone length is equal to:

a) 6 mm
b) 3 mm
c) 0 mm
d) 12 mm

Answer 126

b) 3 mm

Question 127

In the far zone, all of the following decrease except:

a) amplitude
b) intensity
c) beam diameter
d) power

Answer 127

c) beam diameter

Question 128

The zone of the ultrasound beam beyond the focus is called the:

a) Fraunhofer
b) Fresnel
c) near
d) focal

Answer 128

a) Fraunhofer

Question 129

Sound beam intensity decreases in the:

a) near zone
b) far zone
c) Fresnel zone
d) Focal region

Answer 129

b) far zone

Question 130

Methods for reducing the overall beam diameter in the near zone includes all of the following except increase:

a) focus
b) transducer diameter
c) frequency
d) damping

Answer 130

d) damping

Question 131

A focus method where the electrical pulses to the transducer array are curved is:

a) mechanical
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) external

Answer 131

a) mechanical

Question 132

Utilizing an acoustic lens is considered which type of focus?

a) internal
b) external
c) electronic
d) dynamic

Answer 132

b) external

Question 133

A focus method where the electrical pulses to the transducer array are curved is:

a) mechanical
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) external

Answer 133

b) variable

Question 134

A receive focus method utilizing delay lines is called:

a) mechanical
b) transmit
c) dynamic
d) external

Answer 134

c) dynamic

Question 135

Which of the following type of focusing is sonographer controlled?

a) internal
b) receive
c) transmit
d) dynamic

Answer 135

c) transmit

Question 136

All of the following are true statements concerning focusing except:

a) decreases beam diameter in the near zone
b) increases the angle of divergence
c) extends the near zone length
d) improves lateral resolution

Answer 136

c) extends the near zone length

Question 137

The distance form the front of the transducer to the focus is called the:

a) focal length
b) focus
c) transition point
d) far zone

Answer 137

a) focal length

Question 138

The narrowest point of the focused sound beam is the:

a) focal length
b) focal zone
c) focus
d) Fresnel zone

Answer 138

c) focus

Question 139

A strongly focused transducer may be best used to examine the:

a) adult heart
b) neonate heart
c) gallbladder
d) kidneys

Answer 139

b) neonate heart

Question 140

Strongly focusing a transducer decreases all of the following except:

a) angle of divergence
b) focal length
c) near zone length
d) focal zone length

Answer 140

a) angle of divergence

Question 141

The resolution defined as the ability to reusable two structures that lie perpendicular to the sound beam is:

a) axial
b) radial
c) longitudinal
d) angular

Answer 141

d) angular

Question 142

Lateral resolution equals:

a) 0.5 x frequency
b) 0.5 x spatial pulse length
c) 6/frequency
d) beam diameter

Answer 142

d) beam diameter

Question 143

Transducer A has a lateral resolution of 5 mm. Transducer B has a lateral resolution on 3 mm. Transducer C has a lateral resolution of 2 mm. Which transducer has the best lateral resolution?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) cannot be determined

Answer 143

c) C

Question 144

Lateral resolution is best in the:

a) near zone
b) focal zone
c) focus
d) far zone

Answer 144

c) focus

Question 145

Lateral resolution may be improved by all of the following except increasing:

a) transducer diameter
b) transducer frequency
c) focusing
d) transmit gain

Answer 145

d) transmit gain

Question 146

The numerical value for both lateral resolution and axial resolution may be comparable in the:

a) near zone
b) Fresnel zone
c) focus
d) Fraunhofer zone

Answer 146

c) focus

Question 147

The resolution that is defined as the ability to resolve two reflectors that lie parallel to beam advancement is:

a) radial
b) lateral
c) angular
d) azimuthal

Answer 147

a) radial

Question 148

Axial resolution may be called all of the following except:

a) range
b) angular
c) radial
d) longitudinal

Answer 148

b) angular

Question 149

Axial resolution is equal to:

a) beam diameter
b) 0.5 x frequency
c) 0.5 x spatial pulse length
d) 6/frequency

Answer 149

c) 0.5 x spatial pulse length

Question 150

Transducer A has a longitudinal resolution of 4 mm. Transducer B has a longitudinal resolution of 6 mm. Transducer C has a longitudinal resolution of 3mm. Which transducer has the poorest longitudinal resolution.

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) cannot be predicted

Answer 150

b) B

Question 151

Axial resolution improves by all of the following methods except:

a) increasing damping
b) decreasing pulse duration
c) increasing transmit frequency
d) decreasing beam diameter

Answer 151

d) decreasing beam diameter

Question 152

Axial resolution is best at the:

a) near zone
b) focal zone
c) focus
d) equal throughout the beam length

Answer 152

d) equal throughout the beam length

Question 153

Increasing transducer frequency:

a) increases
b) increases pulse duration
c) improves depth of penetration
d) improves range resolution

Answer 153

d) improves range resolution

Question 154

The transducer which creates a cross-sectional image by electronically firing a group of elements sequentially is the:

a) wobbler
b) linear switched array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array

Answer 154

b) linear switched array

Question 155

The linear sequenced array creates an image display that is:

a) rectangular
b) circular
c) pie shaped
d) blunted

Answer 155

a) rectangular

Question 156

All of the following are true statements concerning the linear sequenced array except:

a) fires group of elements sequentially
b) electronically beam steered
c) comparatively large transducer
d) utilizes mechanical focusing

Answer 156

b) electronically beam steered

Question 157

A piezoelectric element in a linear sequenced array fails. The result on the image display will be:

a) vertical echo free region
b) confetti like signals
c) horizontal echo free space
d) complete loss of image

Answer 157

a) vertical echo free region

Question 158

The square shaped transducer with multiple piezoelectric elements arranged in a line that are all electronically fired nearly at the same time is the:

a) oscillating mirror
b) linear sequenced array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array

Answer 158

c) sector phased array

Question 159

Which of the following transducers utilizes transmit focus?

a) linear sequenced array
b) sector phased array
c) wobbler
d) linear translating

Answer 159

b) sector phased array

Question 160

All of the following are true statements concerning the sector phased array transducer except:

a) creates a pie-shaped display
b) electronically beam steered
c) utilizes transmit and receive focus
d) comparatively large transducer

Answer 160

d) comparatively large transducer

Question 161

The most common electronic transducer used in cardiac ultrasound today is the:

a) linear sequenced array
b) convex phased array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array

Answer 161

c) sector phased array

Question 162

All of the following are true statements concerning the sector phased array transducer except:

a) groups of elements sequentially fired
b) utilizes transmit and receive focus
c) creates a pie-shaped display
d) utilizes beam steering

Answer 162

a) groups of elements sequentially fired

Question 163

All of the following utilizes electronic beam steering except:

a) linear sequenced array
b) linear phased array
c) sector phased array
d) convex phased array

Answer 163

a) linear sequenced array

Question 164

The transducer that is fired electronically and mechanically steered is the:

a) Wobbler
b) Rotary Wheel
c) Annular array
d) convex phased array

Answer 164

c) annular array

Question 165

All of the following are true statements concerning annular array except:

a) creates sector image
b) utilizes transmit and receive focus
c) comparatively poor lateral resolution
d) mechanically steered

Answer 165

c) comparatively poor lateral resolution

Question 166

All of the following are considered mechanical transducers except:

a) Wobbler
b) Rotary Wheel
c) Oscillating mirror
d) Phased array

Answer 166

d) phased array

Question 167

All of the following create a sector display except:

a) Wobbler
b) Rotating wheel
c) oscillating mirror
d) convex array

Answer 167

d) convex array

Question 168

All of the following are true statements concerning mechanical transducers except:

a) utilize motor to beam steer
b) create sector display
c) utilize electronic focus
d) utilize fixed transmit focus

Answer 168

c) utilize electronic focus

Question 169

Which of the following is an Arc shaped transducer:

a) Rotating wheel
b) linear sequenced array
c) convex switched array
d) annular array

Answer 169

c) convex switched array

Question 170

All of the following are true statements concerning the convex sequenced array except:

a) Arc shaped transducer
b) creates rectangular display
c) utilizes mechanical focusing techniques
d) no beam steering

Answer 170

b) creates rectangular display

Question 171

The convex switched array operates similar to the:

a) linear sequenced array
b) linear phased array
c) sector phased array
d) annular array

Answer 171

a) linear sequenced array

Question 172

All of the following are true statements concerning the convex phased array except:

a) utilized mechanical focusing and steering
b) operates on the same principle as the sector phased array
c) creates a blunted sector
d) Arc shaped transducer

Answer 172

a) utilizes mechanical focusing and steering

Question 173

All of the following formulas are a way to write the range equation for soft tissue except:

a) 0.5 x [propagation speed (mm/µs) x pulse round trip (µs)]
b) 0.5 x 1540 m/s
c) 0.77 x pulse round trip time (µs)
d) pulse round trip time (µs) / 13 µs

Answer 173

b) 0.5 x 1540 m/s

Question 174

The pulse round trip time in soft tissue is 260 µs the distance to the reflector is:

a) 1 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 100 cm
d) 20 cm

Answer 174

d) 20 cm

Question 175

A (BLANK) is a few sound cycles:

a) wave
b) pulse
c) rarefaction
d) compression

Answer 175

b) pulse

Question 176

The number of pulses emitted by the ultrasound transducer per second is:

a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length

Answer 176

a) pulse repetition frequency

Question 177

The formula used to determine pulse repetition frequency is:

a) propagation speed / frequency
b) wavelength x frequency
c) 1/period
d) 1/pulse repetition period

Answer 177

d) 1/pulse repetition period

Question 178

The clinical range for pulse repetition frequency is:

a) 2 MHz to 10 MHz
b) 1,000 Hz to 10,000 Hz
c) -10,000 Hz to +10,000 Hz
d) 1,000 kHz to 1,000,000 kHz

Answer 178

b) 1,000 Hz to 10,000 Hz

Question 179

The imaging depth is increased, pulse repetition frequency:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) cannot be predicted

Answer 179

b) decreases

Question 180

Pulse repetition frequency is determined by the:

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 180

a) source

Question 181

??? The sonographer can affect all the following except:

a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) intensity

Answer 181

c) pulse duration

Question 182

The time between the beginning of one pulse to the beginning of the next emitted pulse is called:

a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length

Answer 182

b) pulse repetition period

Question 183

The imaging depth is increased, pulsed repetition period:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) cannot be predicted

Answer 183

a) increases

Question 184

The time for one pulse is

a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) duty factor

Answer 184

c) pulse duration

Question 185

The formula for pulse duration is number of cycles in a pulse multiplied by:

a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) amplitude

Answer 185

b) period

Question 186

Pulse duration is determined by the :

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 186

a) source

Question 187

All of the following are affected by image depth except:

a) pulse duration
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) pulse repetition period
d) duty factor

Answer 187

a) pulse duration

Question 188

All of the following will increase pulse duration except:

a) increasing period
b) increasing number of cycles in pulse
c) increasing image depth
d) decreasing frequency

Answer 188

c) increasing image depth

Question 189

Changing pulse duration will affect all of the following except:

a) axial resolution
b) lateral resolution
c) spatial pulse length
d) duty factor

Answer 189

b) lateral resolution

Question 190

Axial resolution is affected by all of the following except:

a) pulse duration
b) spatial pulse length
c) image depth
d) transmit frequency

Answer 190

c) image depth

Question 191

Decreasing the frequency increases all of the following except:

a) sound velocity
b) period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length

Answer 191

a) sound velocity

Question 192

The distance of one pulse is called:

a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length

Answer 192

d) spatial pulse length

Question 193

The formula for spatial pulse length is the number of cycles in a pulse x (BLANK)

a) frequency
b) period
c) wavelength
d) pulse duration

Answer 193

c) wavelength

Question 194

Spatial pulse length is determined by the :

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 194

c) source and medium

Question 195

All of the following will increase spatial pulse length except:

a) increasing wavelength
b) decreasing frequency
c) increasing number of cycles in a pulse
d) increasing receiver gain

Answer 195

d) increasing receiver gain

Question 196

The resolution most affected by spatial pulse length is:

a) longitudinal
b) azimuthal
c) contrast
d) temporal

Answer 196

a) longitudinal

Question 197

The sonographer can not affect:

a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) spatial pulse length
d) duty factor

Answer 197

c) spatial pulse length

Question 198

The percentage of time that the ultrasound instrument is emitting ultrasound is called:

a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition period
c) pulse duration
d) duty factor

Answer 198

d) duty factor

Question 199

The units for duty factor are:

a) Hertz
b) mm
c) ms
d) unit-less

Answer 199

d) unit-less

Question 200

The maximum value for duty factor is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 10
d) 100

Answer 200

b) 1

Question 201

The minimum value for the duty factor is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 10%
d) 100%

Answer 201

a) 0

Question 202

Duty factor is determined by the :

a) source
b) medium
c) medium and source
d) sonographer

Answer 202

a) source

Question 203

Increasing the imaging depth affects all of the following except:

a) axial resolution
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) pulse repetition period
d) duty factor

Answer 203

a) axial resolution

Question 204

By increasing the image depth, duty factor:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined

Answer 204

b) decreases

Question 205

By increasing the pulse repetition frequency the duty factor:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) unchanged

Answer 205

a) increases

Question 206

By increasing pulse duration, duty factor:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) varies

Answer 206

a) increases

Question 207

By increasing the pulse repetition period, duty factor:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) varies

Answer 207

b) decreases

Question 208

Which of the following components delivers electrical shock to the transducer:

a) pulser
b) receiver
c) memory
d) display

Answer 208

a) pulser

Question 209

The pulser is connected to all of the following except:

a) transducer
b) receiver
c) memory
d) display

Answer 209

d) display

Question 210

All of the following affect the ultrasound dose to the patient except:

a) pulser
b) output gain
c) transmit gain
d) time gain compensation

Answer 210

d) time gain compensation

Question 211

The sonographer controls the pulser by which of the following controls:

a) receiver gain
b) acoustic power
c) time gain compensation
d) reject

Answer 211

b) acoustic power

Question 212

All of the following functions are performed by the receiver except:

a) amplification
b) compensation
c) demodulation
d) post processing

Answer 212

d) post processing

Question 213

Which of the following lists the correct sequence of receiver function:

a) rejection, demodulation, compression, compensation, amplification
b) compensation, compression, demodulation, rejection, amplification
c) amplification, compensation, compression, demodulation, rejection
d) demodulation, compression, compensation, rejection, amplification

Answer 213

c) amplification, compensation, compression, demodulation, rejection

Question 214

The sonographer may control all the following except:

a) amplification
b) compensation
c) demodulation
d) rejection

Answer 214

c) demodulation

Question 215

Which of the following receiver function amplifies all the returning signals regardless of depth:

a) amplification
b) compression
c) compensation
d) rejection

Answer 215

a) amplification

Question 216

Which instrument control directly affects amplification:

a) transmit gain
b) overall gain
c) time gain compensation
d) threshold

Answer 216

b) overall gain

Question 217

Which of the following receiver functions equalizes signal strength based on reflector depth:

a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) rejection

Answer 217

b) compensation

Question 218

Depth gain compensation, compensates for:

a) amplitude
b) attenuation
c) period
d) power

Answer 218

b) attenuation

Question 219

Which of the following receiver function reduces dynamic range;

a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) demodulation

Answer 219

c) compression

Question 220

Which of the following has the greatest dynamic range:

a) transducer
b) amplifier
c) memory
d) display

Answer 220

a) transducer

Question 221

Which of the following has the narrowest dynamic range:

a) transducer
b) amplifier
c) memory
d) display

Answer 221

d) display

Question 222

Rectification and smoothing are a function of :

a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) demodulation

Answer 222

d) demodulation

Question 223

Demodulation is determined by the :

a) source
b) medium
c) source and medium
d) sonographer

Answer 223

a) source

Question 224

The receiver function that eliminates or includes weak signals is:

a) compression
b) compensation
c) demodulation
d) reject

Answer 224

d) reject

Question 225

The sonographer controls all of the following receiver functions except:

a) amplification
b) compensation
c) rejection
d) compression

Answer 225

d) compression

Question 226

The ration of the strongest amplitude signal to the weakest amplitude signal that a particular component may process is called:

a) amplification
b) compensation
c) compression
d) dynamic range

Answer 226

d) dynamic range

Question 227

The assignment of a number to the analog signal leaving the receiver is called:

a) amplification
b) compensation
c) pre processing
d) post processing

Answer 227

c) pre processing

Question 228

Pre processing is performed by the:

a) transducer
b) receiver
c) analog to digital converter
d) digital to analog converter

Answer 228

c) analog to digital converter

Question 229

In general the dynamic range for clinical ultrasound is:

a) 10 dB to 20 dB
b) 10 to 50
c) 10 dB to 60 dB
d) 10 dB to 80 dB

Answer 229

d) 10 dB to 80 dB

Question 230

The mode that displays returning signals as vertical spikes is:

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) M

Answer 230

a) A

Question 231

The mode that displays returning echoes as bright dots is:

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) T-M

Answer 231

b) B

Question 232

The mode that displays retuning echoes only from a pre selected depth is:

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) T-M

Answer 232

c) C

Question 233

The mode that displays motion over time is:

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) M

Answer 233

d) M

Question 234

C - mode operates similar to:

a) A mode
b) M mode
c) 2D
d) pulse wave doppler

Answer 234

d) pulse wave doppler

Question 235

An articulated arm is used for:

a) A mode
b) real time B scan
c) static B scan
d) pulsed wave doppler

Answer 235

c) static B scan

Question 236

Optical encoders and/or electrical resistors are used in:

a) A mode
b) real time B scan
c) static B scan
d) color flow doppler

Answer 236

c) static B scan

Question 237

The time it takes for an ultrasound pulse to travel 1 cm round trip in soft tissue is:

a) 6.5 µs
b) 13 µs
c) 260 µs
d) 1 second

Answer 237

b) 13 µs

Question 238

The pulse round trip time in soft tissue is determined to be 130 µs the depth of the reflector is:

a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm

Answer 238

b) 10 cm

Question 239

The pulse time to a reflector is 52 µs in soft tissue, the reflector depth is:

a) 4 cm
b) 8 cm
c) 16 cm
d) 20 cm

Answer 239

b) 8 cm

Question 240

??? The propagation speed of a material is 2.0 mm/µs the pulse round trip time is 200 µs, the reflector depth is:

a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 20 mm
d) 200 mm

Answer 240

d) 200 mm

Question 241

One scan line represents:

a) one cycle
b) wavelength
c) pulse
d) second

Answer 241

c) pulse

Question 242

The average number of lines per frame in clinical ultrasound imaging is:

a) 10 to 100
b) 50 to 100
c) 100 to 150
d) 150 to 200

Answer 242

c) 100 to 150

Question 243

The standard frame rate for clinical ultrasound imaging is:

a) 10 frames/second
b) 20 frames/second
c) 30 frames/second
d) 40 frames/second

Answer 243

c) 30 frames/second

Question 244

Flicker will accrue when the frame rate decreases below:

a) 75 frames/second
b) 60 frames/ second
c) 30 frames/second
d) 15 frames/second

Answer 244

d) 15 frames/second

Question 245

For soft tissue, image depth, lines per frame and frame rate may not exceed:

a) 1540
b) 154,000
c) 77,000
d) 100,000

Answer 245

c) 77,000

Question 246

The product of image depth, lines per frame and frame rate is equal to 100,000. Which artifact may occur:

a) reverberation
b) aliasing
c) acoustic speckle
d) range ambiguity

Answer 246

d) range ambiguity

Question 247

The resolution defined as the ability to resolve events closely spaced in time is:

a) angular
b) range
c) temporal
d) azimuthal

Answer 247

c) temporal

Question 248

Temporal resolution is determined by:

a) spatial pulse length
b) frame rate
c) wavelength
d) beam diameter

Answer 248

b) frame rate

Question 249

The resolution that is enhanced by increasing frame rate is:

a) axial lateral
b) lateral
c) temporal
d) contrast

Answer 249

c) temporal

Question 250

All of the following will improve temporal resolution except:

a) decreasing image depth
b) decreasing image display width
c) decreasing transducer frequency
d) utilizing write magnification

Answer 250

c) decreasing transducer frequency

Question 251

The scan converter most commonly used in clinical imaging ultrasound instruments is the:

a) analog
b) digital
c) fast fourier
d) matrix

Answer 251

b) digital

Question 252

The smallest component of a display is the:

a) pixel
b) matrix
c) byte
d) cine-loop

Answer 252

a) pixel

Question 253

The standard digital scan converter matrix size used in clinical imaging ultrasound is:

a) 100 x 100
b) 200 x 200
c) 512 x 512
d) 624 x 624

Answer 253

c) 512 x 512

Question 254

The decimal number 20 may be written in binary as:

a) 020
b) 101
c) 10100
d) 10111

Answer 254

c) 10100

Question 255

The binary number 1110 represents the decimal number:

a) 1110
b) 14
c) 111
d) 8421

Answer 255

b) 14

Question 256

The number of gray shades that may be displayed by a three bit digital system is:

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

Answer 256

c) 8

Question 257

Most digital scan converters in clinical use today have at least:

a) 1 bit
b) 3 bits
c) 6 bits
d) 9 bits

Answer 257

c) 6 bits

Question 258

A 1 bit digital system is considered:

a) singular
b) optimal
c) bi-stable
d) experimental

Answer 258

c) bi-stable

Question 259

The number of gray shades that digital systems may display may be calculated by the formula:

a) CSA x VTI
b) 4 x V squared
c) .785 x diameter(d) squared
d) 2x

Answer 259

d) 2x

Question 260

Post processing is performed by the:

a) transducer
b) analog to digital converter
c) digital to analog converter
d) cathode ray tube

Answer 260

c) digital to analog converter

Question 261

Spatial resolution is improved by all of the following steps except:

a) increasing the number of television lines
b) increasing the number of pixels
c) decreasing the field of view
d) decreasing the transmit frequency

Answer 261

d) decreasing the transmit frequency

Question 262

The correct sequence for image storage is:

a) receiver-ADC-memory-DAC-display
b) receiver-display-memory-DAC-ADC
c) ADC-receiver-memory-display-DAC
d) ADC-receiver-memory-display-DAC

Answer 262

a) receiver-ADC-memory-DAC-display

Question 263

All of the following affect spatial resolution except:

a) number of pixels
b) number of television lines
c) transducer frequency
d) intensity

Answer 263

d) intensity

Question 264

A television cathode ray tube writes in a format called:

a) analog
b) digital
c) binary
d) raster

Answer 264

d) raster

Question 265

The number of fields displayed at a frame rate of 30 is:

a) 15
b) 30
c) 60
d) 90

Answer 265

c) 60

Question 266

The material will emit light when struck by electrons:

a) tourmaline
b) phosphor
c) quartz
d) titanate

Answer 266

b) phosphor

Question 267

The assignment of specific shades of gray to number leaving the memory is:

a) demodulation
b) pre processing
c) post processing
d) compensation

Answer 267

c) post processing

Question 268

All of the following are true statements concerning post processing except:

a) performed by the digital to analog converter
b) sonographer selectable
c) able to affect stored and live images
d) allows for rite magnification

Answer 268

d) allows for rite magnification

Question 269

A change in the frequency of a sound wave relative to the motion of the source and/or the observer is:

a) Boernoulli Principle
b) Ohms Law
c) Doppler Principle
d) Doppler Shift

Answer 269

d) Doppler Principle

Question 270

The Doppler Shift will be 0 when the intercept angle is:

a) 0 degrees
b) 20 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees

Answer 270

d) 90 degrees

Question 271

The difference between the transmitted and received frequency is the doppler:

a) frequency
b) velocity
c) shift
d) principle

Answer 271

c) shift

Question 272

As red blood cell velocity increases, the doppler shift:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) is unchanged
d) varies

Answer 272

a) increases

Question 273

All of the following are true statements concerning the doppler examination except:

a) positive doppler shifts are displayed above the 0 baseline
b) negative doppler shifts are displayed below the 0 baseline
c) the greater the red blood cell velocity the greater the doppler shift
d) the optimal doppler intercept angle is 90 degrees

Answer 273

d) the optimal doppler intercept angle is 90 degrees

Question 274

The best example of a Rayleigh scatterer is the:

a) diaphragm
b) heart wall
c) liver Parenchyma
d) Red blood cell

Answer 274

d) Red blood cell

Question 275

In increase in transmitted frequency will have which affect on backscatter:

a) decrease
b) increase
c) unchanged
d) varies

Answer 275

b) increase

Question 276

In general the preferred transmitted frequency for the doppler examination is:

a) higher as compared to imaging
b) equal to that of imaging
c) lower as compared to imaging
d) in not contributory

Answer 276

c) lower as compared to imaging

Question 277

As compared to the Echo amplitude from a specular reflector, back scatters echo amplitude is:

a) greater than
b) equal to
c) less than
d) dependent on the type of scatterer reflector

Answer 277

c) less than

Question 278

As compared to a specular reflector, the echo strength from a red blood cell is:

a) 1/10 to 1/100
b) 1/100 to 1/1,000
c) 1/1,000 to 1/10,000
d) 1/10,000 to 1/100,000

Answer 278

b) 1/100 to 1/1,000

Question 279

All of the following are true statements concerning the doppler equation except:

a) an increase in transmitted frequency will result in an increase in the doppler shift
b) sound speed of soft tissue is considered a constant
c) a decrease in red blood cell velocity will increase the detected doppler shift
d) a decrease in the intercept angle will increase the detected doppler shift

Answer 279

c) a decrease in red blood cell velocity will increases the detected doppler shift

Question 280

The intercept angle which will yield a doppler shift that is one-half the true doppler shift is:

a) 0 degrees
b) 30 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees

Answer 280

c) 60 degrees

Question 281

The cosign of 0 degrees is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7

Answer 281

b) 1

Question 282

The cosign of 60 degrees is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7

Answer 282

c) 0.5

Question 283

The cosign of 90 degrees is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7

Answer 283

a) 0

Question 284

The cosign of 180 degrees is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.7

Answer 284

b) 1

Question 285

The doppler shift range for clinical imaging ultrasound is:

a) 1 kHz to 10 kHz
b) -10 kHz to 10 kHz
c) -1 kHz to 10 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz

Answer 285

b) -10 kHz to 10 kHz

Question 286

A 20 degree doppler intercept angle will result in a:

a) 6% overestimation of a true doppler shift
b) 6% underestimation of a true doppler shift
c) has no effect on true doppler shift
d) indeterminable

Answer 286

b) 6% underestimation of a true doppler shift

Question 287

A 60 degree doppler intercept angle will result in a:

a) 50% overestimation of true doppler shift
b) 50% underestimation of true doppler shift
c) has no effect on true doppler shift
d) undetermined

Answer 287

b) 50% underestimation of true doppler shift

Question 288

A 90 degree doppler intercept angle will result in a:

a) 100% overestimation of true doppler shift
b) 100% underestimation of true doppler shift
c) has no effect on true doppler shift
d) undetermined

Answer 288

b) 100% underestimation of true doppler shift

Question 289

The doppler spectral display will provide information about all of the following except blood flow:

a) type
b) direction
c) duration
d) character

Answer 289

a) type

Question 290

By convention a positive doppler shift will be placed:

a) above the 0 baseline
b) below the 0 baseline
c) horizontally on 0 baseline
d) varies

Answer 290

a) above the 0 baseline

Question 291

The units that may be used to express red blood cell doppler velocity are:

a) Hertz
b) kHz
c) m/s
d) cm squared

Answer 291

c) m/s

Question 292

An increase in PW doppler spectral broadening and wind fill in may represent:

a) laminar flow
b) Plug flow
c) turbulent flow
d) inlet

Answer 292

c) turbulent flow

Question 293

Currently the conventional doppler spectral analysis is accompanied by:

a) auto correlation
b) fast fourier transform
c) Bernoulli Principle
d) time interval histogram

Answer 293

b) fast fourier transform

Question 294

The x axis of the doppler spectral display represents:

a) flow duration
b) peak flow velocity
c) amplitude of blood flow
d) intensity of blood flow

Answer 294

a) flow duration

Question 295

The y axis of the doppler spectral display represents:

a) flow duration
b) peak flow velocity
c) amplitude
d) mean flow volume

Answer 295

b) peak flow velocity

Question 296

The z axis of the doppler spectral display represents:

a) Blood flow duration
b) peak flow velocity
c) amplitude of blood flow
d) blood flow direction

Answer 296

c) amplitude of blood flow

Question 297

The doppler gray scale is affected by all of the following except:

a) blood type
b) wall filter
c) transmit gain
d) reflector amplitude

Answer 297

a) blood type

Question 298

The doppler modal velocity represents:

a) average blood flow velocity
b) amplitude of blood flow
c) peak frequency shift
d) peak velocity

Answer 298

b) amplitude of blood flow

Question 299

Which of the following represents the doppler maximum pressure gradient:

a) mean velocity
b) modal velocity
c) peak velocity
d) average velocity

Answer 299

c) peak velocity

Question 300

The doppler wall filter is considered a:

a) low pass filter
b) modal filter
c) high pass filter
d) high gain filter

Answer 300

c) high pass filter

Question 301

The doppler wall filter eliminates:

a) low amplitude, low velocity signals
b) high amplitude, low velocity signals
c) low amplitude, high velocity signals
d) high amplitude, high velocity signals

Answer 301

b) high amplitude, low velocity signals

Question 302

Doppler wall filters are considered high pass filters because they eliminate:

a) low doppler frequency shifts
b) modal doppler frequency shifts
c) high doppler frequency shifts
d) high doppler blood flow velocities

Answer 302

a) low doppler frequency shifts

Question 303

Increasing the doppler transmit gain will cause all of the following to increase except:

a) background noise
b) magnitude of doppler shift
c) spectral broadening
d) mirroring

Answer 303

b) magnitude of doppler shift

Question 304

Excessive conventional doppler transmit gain may cause the artifact:

a) acoustic speckle
b) comet tail
c) mirroring
d) ghosting

Answer 304

c) mirroring

Question 305

If the conventional doppler intercept angle is not 0 degrees, which of the following artifacts may occur:

a) acoustic speckle
b) mirroring
c) slice thickness
d) ghosting

Answer 305

b) mirroring

Question 306

Spectral broadening may be caused by all of the following except:

a) turbulent flow
b) large sample gate size
c) increase doppler transmit gain
d) decrease in transmit frequency

Answer 306

d) decrease in transmit frequency

Question 307

All of the following are possible doppler artifacts except:

a) acoustic speckle
b) mirroring
c) electrical interference
d) aliasing

Answer 307

a) acoustic speckle

Question 308

All of the following contribute to the presentation of the conventional doppler information except:

a) visual
b) fast fourier transform
c) audio
d) autocorrelation

Answer 308

d) autocorrelation

Question 309

The magnitude of the doppler shift in the clinical setting fails in the sound range that is:

a) infrasound
b) subsonic
c) audible
d) ultrasound

Answer 309

c) audible

Question 310

The doppler audio aids in all the following ways except:

a) improves the angle of incidence
b) determines laminar flow
c) determines turbulent flow
d) provides the mean velocity

Answer 310

d) provides the mean velocity

Question 311

All of the following true statements concerning continuous wave doppler except:

a) requires 1 piezoelectric element
b) center frequency is determined by the driving voltage
c) doppler shift information is detected all along the sound beam path
d) able to resolve high blood flow velocity

Answer 311

a) requires 1 piezoelectric element

Question 312

The dedicated continuous wave pencil probe is called the:

a) Bernoulli
b) doppler
c) pedoff
d) Poiseulle

Answer 312

c) pedoff

Question 313

The major disadvantage of continuous wave doppler is:

a) aliasing
b) nyquist limit
c) lack of range resolution
d) unable to resolve high blood flow velocity

Answer 313

c) lack of range resolution

Question 314

The major advantage of continuous wave doppler is:

a) range resolution
b) resolves high velocity blood flow
c) range ambiguity
d) 1 piezoelectric element only

Answer 314

b) resolves high velocity blood flow

Question 315

All of the following are true statements concerning pulse wave doppler except:

a) requires two piezoelectric elements
b) utilizes longer pulse lengths compared to imaging
c) governed by the nyquist limit
d) greater intensity levels as compared to imaging

Answer 315

a) requires two piezoelectric elements

Question 316

Which of the following ultrasound modalities expose the patient to the greatest acoustic output:

a) M mode
b) two dimensional
c) continuous wave doppler
d) pulse wave doppler

Answer 316

d) pulse wave doppler

Question 317

The major advantage of pulse wave doppler is:

a) range resolution
b) aliasing
c) nyquist limit
d) range ambiguity

Answer 317

a) range resolution

Question 318

Compared to clinical ultrasound imaging axial resolution for pulse wave doppler is:

a) better than imaging
b) poorer than imaging
c) equal to imaging
d) cannot be compared

Answer 318

b) poorer than imaging

Question 319

Which of the following statements is true concerning the relationship between doppler and reflectors:

a) processes scatter reflectors, filter out specular reflectors
b) processes both scatter and specular reflectors
c) processes specular reflectors, filters out scatter reflectors
d) filters out both specular and scatter reflectors

Answer 319

a) processes scatter reflectors

Question 320

The artifact associated with a doppler shift exceeding the nyquist limit is:

a) acoustic speckle
b) aliasing
c) reverberation
d) shadowing

Answer 320

b) aliasing

Question 321

The major disadvantage of pulse waved doppler is:

a) range resolution
b) high velocity resolution
c) aliasing
d) range gating

Answer 321

c) aliasing

Question 322

Aliasing will occur in which of the following pulse wave doppler examples:

a) doppler shift if 3 kHz; PRF is 5 kHz
b) doppler shift is 4 kHz; PRF is 10 kHz
c) doppler shift is 5 kHz; PRF is 15 kHz
d) doppler shift is 6 kHz; PRF is 20 kHz

Answer 322

a) doppler shift is 3 kHz; PRF is 5 kHz

Question 323

To avoid aliasing during a pulse waved doppler examination the sonographer may do all of the following except:

a) utilize the pedoff probe
b) decrease image depth
c) shift the 0 baseline
d) increase the transmit frequency

Answer 323

d) increase the transmit frequency

Question 324

Color flow doppler utilizes the ultrasound modality of:

a) pulse wave
b) continuous wave
c) high pulse repetition
d) amplitude mode

Answer 324

a) pulse wave

Question 325

Color flow doppler is a:

a) single gate method
b) multi gate method
c) biplane method
d) multiplane method

Answer 325

b) multi gate method

Question 326

The most likely number of sample gates used per color doppler scan line is approximately:

a) 1-10
b) 10-100
c) 100-250
d) 250-500

Answer 326

d) 250-500

Question 327

The number of ultrasound pulses per scan line for color flow doppler is referred to as the:

a) range gate
b) multi gate
c) packet size
d) frame rate

Answer 327

c) packet size

Question 328

Increasing the packet size improves the:

a) mean doppler shift estimation
b) frame rate
c) image depth
d) color threshold

Answer 328

a) mean doppler shift estimation

Question 329

Increasing the packet size may result in all of the following except:

a) improvement of the mean doppler shift estimate
b) frame rate decrease
c) alternation of the transmit frequency
d) decrease in line density

Answer 329

c) alternation of the transmit frequency

Question 330

Color flow doppler information is placed where tissue should appear, the sonographer should decrease:

a) packet size
b) line density
c) frame rate
d) color threshold

Answer 330

d) color threshold

Question 331

As the color doppler image depth is increased all of the following will decrease except:

a) PRF
b) nyquist limit
c) frame rate
d) duty factor

Answer 331

d) duty factor

Question 332

The technique used to process color doppler frequency shift information is:

a) fast fourier transform
b) 0 crossing detector
c) time interval histogram
d) autocorrelation

Answer 332

d) autocorrelation

Question 333

The velocity display by color flow doppler is the:

a) peak velocity
b) mean
c) modal
d) maximum

Answer 333

b) mean

Question 334

Peak velocity maybe determined by all of the following doppler modalities except:

a) pulse wave
b) CW
c) high PRF
d) color flow

Answer 334

d) color flow

Question 335

A color flow doppler mosaic pattern suggests:

a) laminar flow
b) plug flow
c) turbulent flow
d) inlet flow

Answer 335

c) turbulent flow

Question 336

By convention, blood moving towards the transducer will be color coded:

a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green

Answer 336

a) red

Question 337

By convention, blood moving away from the transducer will be color coded:

a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green

Answer 337

b) blue

Question 338

By convention, the color used to indicate the absence of doppler shift is:

a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green

Answer 338

c) black

Question 339

By convention, the color used to indicate turbulent flow is:

a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green

Answer 339

d) green

Question 340

A dull red in a color flow doppler image represents:

a) high velocity flow away from the transducer
b) low velocity flow towards the transducer
c) turbulent flow away from the transducer
d) stagnant flow

Answer 340

b) low velocity flow towards the transducer

Question 341

By color flow doppler convention a bright color represents:

a) high velocity
b) laminar flow
c) turbulent flow
d) low velocity

Answer 341

a) high velocity

Question 342

Turbulent flow moving towards the transducer will be color encoded:

a) red
b) red with green
c) blue with green
d) Black

Answer 342

b) red and green

Question 343

Turbulent flow moving away from the transducer will be color encoded:

a) red
b) red with green
c) blue with green
d) black

Answer 343

c) blue with green

Question 344

The color flow doppler artifact associated with the super imposition of color on moving tissue is:

a) aliasing
b) ghosting
c) reverberation
d) shadowing

Answer 344

b) ghosting

Question 345

(WRONG) A color doppler artifact associated with the super imposition of color on moving tissue is:

a) red
b) blue
c) black
d) green

Answer 345

(WRONG)

c) black

Question 346

Which of the following ultrasound modalities has the highest intensity values:

a) M mode
b) 2D
c) PW
d) CW

Answer 346

c) PW

Question 347

PW doppler has the highest intensity values for all of the following reasons except utilizes:

a) higher PRF
b) higher transmit frequencies
c) longer pulse lengths
d) greater dwell times as compared to imaging

Answer 347

b) higher transmit frequencies

Question 348

The artifact that is associated with multiple reflections spaced equally is:

a) refraction
b) reverberation
c) acoustic speckle
d) multi path

Answer 348

b) reverberation

Question 349

The artifact defined as apparent tissue texture is:

a) refraction
b) reverberation
c) acoustic speckle
d) slice thickness

Answer 349

c) acoustic speckle

Question 350

Refraction may cause a reflector to be misplaced:

a) central
b) medial
c) lateral
d) superior

Answer 350

c) lateral

Question 351

??? The axial resolution for ultrasound system A is 2 mm. The axial resolution for ultrasound system B is 6 mm. The ultrasound resolution for system C is 4 mm. Which system will be able to resolve structures 3mm apart?

a) System A
b) System B
c) System C
d) none of the above

Answer 351

a) System A

Question 352

The artifact that may cause a fluid filled cyst to appear filled in:

a) reverberation
b) acoustic speckle
c) ring down
d) slice thickness

Answer 352

d) slice thickness

Question 353

Multi path results in an error of:

a) apparent tissue texture
b) edge shadowing
c) multiple echoes equally spaced
d) improper depth

Answer 353

d) improper depth

Question 354

Weak reflections due to low intensity sound beams which diverge from the main sound beam are due to:

a) refraction
b) side lobes
c) mirror image
d) comet tail

Answer 354

b) side lobes

Question 355

The transducer type that may produce grating lobes is the :

a) single element
b) oscillating mirror
c) array
d) wobbler

Answer 355

c) array

Question 356

If the propagation speed of a material is greater than 1540 m/s the returning echoes will be placed to:

a) lateral
b) medial
c) close
d) far

Answer 356

c) close

Question 357

If the propagation speed of a material is less than 1540 m/s the returning echoes will be placed to:

a) lateral
b) medial
c) close
d) far

Answer 357

d) far

Question 358

Shadowing involves intervening structures whose attenuating qualities are:

a) low
b) high
c) varied
d) mixed

Answer 358

b) high

Question 359

The artifact that may cause prosthetic valve mitral regurgitation to be missed during a cardiac doppler examination is:

a) enhancement
b) reverberation
c) refraction
d) shadowing

Answer 359

d) shadowing

Question 360

The artifact where there is a reduction in the strength of returning echoes due to intervening structure of increased attenuation is:

a) refraction
b) multi path
c) shadowing
d) enhancement

Answer 360

d) shadowing

Question 361

The enhancement artifact is caused by intervening reflectors that are:

a) weak
b) strong
c) small
d) large

Answer 361

a) weak

Question 362

The best method for predicting the volume of an irregular shaped object is the:

a) area length
b) bullet
c) Simpson’s method of disc
d) cubed

Answer 362

c) Simpson’s method of disc

Question 363

The area of a circle may be derived from each of the following diameter formulas except:

a) diameter cubed
b) 3.14 x (diameter/2) squared
c) 3.14 x diameter squared / 4
d) .785 x diameter squared

Answer 363

a) diameter cubed

Question 364

Simpson’s rule calculates volume by which of the following formulas:

a) area x length x length
b) diameter cubed
c) area x length x minor axis
d) area x length x width

Answer 364

d) area x length x width

Question 365

The ingredients of the AIUM 100 mm tests object includes all of the following except:

a) water
b) tungsten powder
c) algae inhibitor
d) alcohol

Answer 365

b) tungsten powder

Question 366

The sound velocity for the AIUM 100 mm tests object is:

a) 1.540 m/s
b) 1540 m/s
c) 1054 km/s
d) 1540 mm/s

Answer 366

b) 1540 m/s

Question 367

For the AIUM 100 mm tests object, which tests measures the weakest signal that a system may display:

a) minimum sensitivity
b) axial resolution
c) depth calibration
d) dead zone

Answer 367

a) minimum sensitivity

Question 368

For the AIUM test object, which face and rod group should be used for testing a systems minimum sensitivity:

a) face A, rod group D
b) face B, rod group B
c) face A, rod group C
d) any face, any rod

Answer 368

d) any face, any rod

Question 369

For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which tests measure an ultrasound systems ability to resolve two structures that lie parallel to the direction of sound propagation:

a) minimum sensitivity
b) axial resolution
c) lateral resolution
d) range accuracy

Answer 369

b) axial resolution

Question 370

For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group set should be used to test an ultrasound systems axial resolution:

a) Face A, Rod group A
b) Face A, rod group B
c) Face A, rod group C
d) Face A, rod group D

Answer 370

a) Face A, rod group A

Question 371

For the AIUM 100 mm test object, the test that measures an ultrasound systems ability to resolve structures that lie perpendicular to the sound beam direction is:

a) axial resolution
b) lateral resolution
c) depth calibration
d) range accuracy

Answer 371

b) lateral resolution

Question 372

For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group should be used to test an ultrasound systems for lateral resolution:

a) Face B, rod group D
b) Face B, rod group C
c) Face B, rod group B
d) Face B, rod group A

Answer 372

c) Fave B, rod group B

Question 373

For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which test measures an ultrasound systems vertical electronic caliber accuracy:

a) lateral resolution
b) depth calibration
c) registration accuracy
d) dead zone

Answer 373

b) depth calibration

Question 374

For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group should be used to test ultrasound systems depth calibration:

a) Face A, rod group A
b) Face B, rod group B
c) Face A, rod group C
d) Face D, rod group D

Answer 374

c) Face A, rod group C

Question 375

For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which test measures an ultrasound systems ability to become a receiver after transmitting:

a) depth calibration
b) range accuracy
c) dead zone
d) axial resolution

Answer 375

c) dead zone

Question 376

For the AIUM 100 mm test object, which face and rod group should be used to measure an ultrasound systems dead zone:

a) Face A, rod group D
b) Face A, rod group C
c) Face A, rod group B
d) Face A, rod group A

Answer 376

a) Face A, rod group D

Question 377

Which of the following performance test instruments best mimics the attenuation and scatter characteristics of soft tissue:

a) AIUM 100 mm test object
b) tissue phantom
c) hydrophone
d) SUAR

Answer 377

b) tissue phantom

Question 378

All of the following are the monographers responsibility for preventative maintenance except:

a) display screen surface
b) evaluating for cable wear and tear
c) evaluating pulser power
d) cleaning machine filters

Answer 378

c) evaluating pulser power

Question 379

All of the following will increase when transmit gain is increased except:

a) impedance
b) pressure
c) power
d) intensity

Answer 379

a) impedance

Question 380

The units for pressure include all of the following except:

a) Pascal
b) Newton per square meter
c) atmosphere
d) watts

Answer 380

d) watts

Question 381

Which of the following has the greatest intensity value for clinical imaging ultrasound:

a) B- mode
b) M mode
c) PW doppler
d) CW doppler

Answer 381

c) PW doppler

Question 382

The units that may be used to measure the ultrasound dose to the patient is:

a) inches
b) Pascals
c) Joules/cm squared
d) lbs/in squared

Answer 382

c) joules/cm squared

Question 383

The sonographer may be able to minimize the ultrasound dose to the patient by all of the following except:

a) decrease transmit gain
b) increase receiver gain
c) increase duty factor
d) shorten exam time

Answer 383

c) increase duty factor

Question b

Question 384

The main cause of attenuation in soft tissue is:

a) scatter
b) absorption
c) reflection
d) refraction

Answer 384

b) absorption

Question 385

Absorption is associated with the bio-effect mechanism of:

a) transient cavitation
b) stable cavitation
c) thermal
d) direct mechanical

Answer 385

c) thermal

Question 386

The AIUM has stated that there has been no confirmed bio effects for a body temperature rise of less than:

a) 1 degree F
b) 1 degree C
c) 1 degree K
d) 98.6 degrees F

Answer 386

b) 1 degree C

Question 387

The type of cavitation where there is an expansion and contraction of a gas bubble with possible micro streaming is:

a) absorption
b) stable
c) transient
d) direct mechanical

Answer 387

b) stable

Question 388

The type of cavitation where there is an implosion of a gas bubble with a release of a great amount of energy is:

a) absorption
b) stable
c) transient
d) direct mechanical

Answer 388

c) transient

Question 389

The type of bio effect mechanism caused by the movement of a mediums particles is:

a) thermal
b) stable cavitation
c) transient cavitation
d) direct mechanical

Answer 389

d) direct mechanical

Question 390

Experimental studies performed in the living body of a plant or animal is called:

a) In vitro
b) In vivo
c) epidemiology
d) experimental

Answer 390

b) in vivo

Question 391

Experimental studies performed outside the living body in an artificial environment is called:

a) in vitro
b) in vivo
c) epidemiology
d) experimental

Answer 391

a) in vitro

Question 392

The study of the prevalence of disease is:

a) biology
b) physics
c) epidemiology
d) archeology

Answer 392

c) epidemiology

Question 393

The period of a 4 MHz transducer is:

a) 0.15 ms
b) 0.25 µs
c) 0.35 ms
d) 0.45 ms

Answer 393

b) 0.25 µs

Question 394

For soft tissue, the wavelength of a 5 MHz transducer is:

a) 0.3 mm
b) 0.5 mm
c) 1.0 mm
d) 5.0 mm

Answer 394

a) 0.3 mm

Question 395

The density of a medium is 2000 kg/m cubed and the propagation speed is 1.0 m/µs, the impedance is (BLANK) rayls.

a) 2000
b) 20,000
c) 200,000
d) 2,000,000

Answer 395

d) 2,000,000

Question 396

The spatial pulse length for a 3 cycle pulse with a wavelength of 4 mm is:

a) 3 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 7 mm
d) 12 mm

Answer 396

d) 12 mm

Question 397

For soft tissue, the spatial pulse length for a 2 MHz transducer which emits a 2 cycle pulse is:

a) 1.5 mm
b) 2.0 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 4.0 mm

Answer 397

a) 1.5 mm

Question 398

Determine the pulse duration for a 3 cycle pulse with a frequency of 3 MHz:

a) 0.3 mm
b) 0.5 ms
c) 1.0 µs
d) 1.3 µs

Answer 398

c) 1.0 µs

Question 399

The power of a sound wave is 30 Pascals the area in which the sound wave is traveling is 10 cm squared. How will the intensity be affected if power is doubled and the area remain unchanged?

a) Doubled
b) tripled
c) quadrupled
d) unchanged

Answer 399

a) doubled

Question 400

The power of a sound wave is 40 Pascals, the area in which the sound wave is traveling is 10 cm squared. How will the intensity be affected if area is doubled and power remain unchanged?

a) doubled
b) halved
c) quadrupled
d) unchanged

Answer 400

b) halved

Question 401

The maximum variation of a sound wave acoustic variable is 15, the minimum variation is 5, the mean value is 10. The amplitude of the sound wave is:

a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) 5

Answer 401

d) 5

Question 402

In soft tissue the attenuation coefficient is equal to:

a) 0.5 dB/cm/MHz
b) 1.0 dB/cm/MHz
c) 1.5 dB/cm/MHz
d) 2.0 dB/cm/MHz

Answer 402

a) 0.5 dB/cm/MHz

Question 403

The attenuation coefficient for a 5 MHz sound wave traveling in soft tissue is:

a) 1.0 dB/cm
b) 1.5 dB/cm
c) 2.0 dB/cm
d) 2.5 dB/cm

Answer 403

d) 2.5 dB/cm

Question 404

The total attenuation for a 3 MHz sound wave traveling in soft tissue 2 cm is:

a) 1.0 dB
b) 2.0 dB
c) 3.0 dB
d) 4.0 dB

Answer 404

c) 3.0 dB

Question 405

The half intensity depth for a 3 MHz transducer in soft tissue is:

a) 1 cm
b) 2 cm
c) 3 cm
d) 4 cm

Answer 405

b) 2 cm

Question 406

The initial intensity of a 3 MHz sound wave traveling in soft tissue is 100 mW/cm squared, determine the remaining intensity at an image depth of 2 cm squared?

a) 100 mW/cm squared
b) 75 mW/cm squared
c) 50 mW/cm squared
d) 25 mW/cm squared

Answer 406

c) 50 mW/cm squared

Question 407

The impedance value for medium 1 is 100 rayls, the impedance value for medium 2 is 200 rayls. The intensity reflection coefficient is:

a) 0.1
b) 1.0
c) 10
d) 100

Answer 407

a) 0.1

Question 408

The impedance value for medium 1 is 100 rayls, the impedance value for medium 2 is 200 rayls. The intensity transmission coefficient is:

a) 9.9
b) 9.9
c) 1.9
d) 0.9

Answer 408

d) 0.9

Question 409

The propagation speed is 3 mm/µs, the pulse round trip time is 10 µs, the reflector distance is?

a) 0.15 mm
b) 1.5 cm
c) 15 mm
d) 15 cm

Answer 409

c) 15 mm

Question 410

For soft tissue a reflection returns 91 µs after transmission, the reflector distance is?

a) 7 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 4 cm

Answer 410

a) 7 cm

Question 411

For soft tissue a sound travel time to a reflector is 6.5µs, the reflector distance is?

a) 0.5 cm
b) 1 cm
c) 2 cm
d) 3 cm

Answer 411

b) 1 cm

Question 412

For soft tissue, the axial resolution for a 3 MHz sound wave of 2 cycles is:

a) 0.5 mm
b) 0.6 mm
c) 0.9 mm
d) 3.0 mm

Answer 412

a) 0.5 mm

Question 413

For soft tissue, the axial resolution for a 5 MHz sound wave for 2 cycles is:

a) .3 mm
b) .6 mm
c) .9 mm
d) 3.0

Answer 413

a) .3 mm

Question 414

How may the decimal number 17 be written in binary:

a) 101
b) 1001
c) 11001
d) 10001

Answer 414

d) 10001

Question 415

The binary number 101 represents the decimal number:

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

Answer 415

a) 5

Question 416

How many shades of gray may a 7 bit digital system display?

a) 16
b) 32
c) 64
d) 128

Answer 416

d) 128

Question 417

Which of the following combinations of PRF, image depth and frame rate will be associated with the artifact range ambiguity?

a) 50 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
b) 100 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
c) 150 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec
d) 200 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec

Answer 417

d) 200 Hz, 15 cm, 30 frames/sec

Question 418

The true doppler shift at a 0 degree angle of incidence is 5 kHz. If the angle of incidence is changed to 60 degrees the doppler shift will be:

a) 5 kHz
b) 2.5 kHz
c) 0.0 kHz
d) unchanged

Answer 418

b) 2.5 kHz

Question 419

The true doppler shift at a 0 degree incident angle is 10 kHz. If the angle of incidence is changed to 90 degrees the doppler shift will be:

a) 5 kHz
b) 2.5 kHz
c) 0.0 kHz
d) unchanged

Answer 419

c) 0.0 kHz

Question 420

The end diastolic volume of a left ventricle that measure 50 mm is:

a) 25 cc
b) 2,500 cc
c) 125 cc
d) 125,000

Answer 420

c) 125 cc

Question 421

As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will be altered except:

a) period
b) wavelength
c) impedance
d) lateral resolution

Answer 421

c) impedance

Question 422

As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will be altered except:

a) pulse duration
b) SPL
c) axial resolution
d) intensity

Answer 422

d) intensity

Question 423

As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will be altered except:

a) propagation speed
b) temporal resolution
c) attenuation coefficient
d) penetration depth

Answer 423

a) propagation speed

Question 424

As a sonographer decreases the transmit frequency the greatest advantage will be an improvement in:

a) intensity
b) lateral resolution
c) penetration depth
d) propagation speed

Answer 424

c) penetration depth

Question 425

As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency the greatest advantage will be an improvement in:

a) axial resolution
b) penetration depth
c) propagation speed
d) intensity

Answer 425

a) axial resolution

Question 426

As a sonographer decreases the transmit frequency during a PW doppler examination the greatest advantage will be a reduction in (the):

a) penetration depth
b) beam diameter
c) propagation speed
d) risk of aliasing

Answer 426

d) risk of aliasing

Question 427

As a sonographer increases the transmit frequency there will be an improvement in:

a) propagation speed
b) beam diameter
c) intensity
d) impedance

Answer 427

b) beam diameter

Question 428

As a sonographer increase the transmit frequency the near zone:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) cannot be determined

Answer 428

a) increases

Question 429

As the sonographer increases the transmit frequency all of the following will improve except:

a) beam diameter
b) penetration depth
c) angle of divergence
d) near zone length

Answer 429

b) penetration depth

Question 430

As a sonographer chooses a large diameter phased array transducer all of the following will improve except:

a) near zone length
b) overall beam diameter
c) near field resolution
d) view point of divergence

Answer 430

c) near field resolution

Question 431

During a color flow doppler examination, the sonographer first uses a 3.0 MHz transducer to examine a vessel, the sonographer then increases the transmit frequency. All of the following will occur except:

a) decrease in penetration depth
b) increase in attenuation coefficient
c) decrease in the chance of aliasing
d) bright color will be displayed

Answer 431

c) decrease in the chance of aliasing

Question 432

As the sonographer increases the transmit frequency the instrumental control most likely to be also changed by the sonographer will be the:

a) compression
b) time gain compensation
c) persistance
d) image display width

Answer 432

b) time gain compensation

Question 433

As the sonographer changes the transmit gain all of the following will be altered except:

a) power
b) amplitude
c) intensity
d) frame rate

Answer 433

d) frame rate

Question 434

How will a patient be affected as a sonographer increases the transmit gain:

a) increased risk of bio effects
b) increased risk of electrical burn
c) not directly affected
d) cannot be affected

Answer 434

a) increased risk of bio effects

Question 435

As a sonographer increases the transmit gain the greatest advantage will be an improvement in:

a) lateral resolution
b) propagation speed
c) penetration depth
d) acoustic impedance

Answer 435

c) penetration depth

Question 436

As the sonographer increases the transmit gain the strength of the returning echoes will be :

a) increased
b) decreased
c) varied
d) undetermined

Answer 436

a) increased

Question 437

As a sonographer increases the transmit gain which of the following will increase:

a) beam diameter
b) transmit frequency
c) acoustic impedance
d) frame rate

Answer 437

a) beam diameter

Question 438

As a sonographer increases the transmit gain all of the following will improve except:

a) penetration depth
b) lateral resolution
c) transmit power
d) instrument sensitivity

Answer 438

b) lateral resolution

Question 439

Which component of the ultrasound instrument will be directly affected by the sonographer increasing the transmit gain:

a) pulser
b) receiver
c) memory
d) display

Answer 439

a) pulser

Question 440

As a sonographer decreases the image depth all of the following will increase except the:

a) PRF
b) PRP
c) frame rate
d) duty factor

Answer 440

b) PRP

Question 441

Which resolution will most likely be directly affected when a sonographer decreases the image depth:

a) longitudinal
b) azimuthal
c) temporal
d) contrast

Answer 441

c) temporal

Question 442

Which ultrasound image control will be directly affected when the sonographer changes the image depth:

a) pulser
b) transducer
c) receiver
d) memory

Answer 442

a) pulser

Question 443

Which of the following would the sonographer most likely alter to better visualize a structure close to the transducer:

a) persistance
b) sweep speed
c) baseline tag
d) transmit focus

Answer 443

d) transmit focus

Question 444

As the sonographer utilizes transmit focus the resolution directly affected will be:

a) range
b) radial
c) transverse
d) longitudinal

Answer 444

c) transverse

Question 445

As the sonographer chooses multiple transmit focus sites all of the following resolutions will improve except:

a) transverse
b) angular
c) temporal
d) lateral

Answer 445

c) temporal

Question 446

The sonographer need to make an accurate dimension measurement during an ultrasound examination, which resolution would be best to rely upon:

a) axial
b) lateral
c) temporal
d) contrast

Answer 446

a) axial

Question 447

The sonographer needs to make an accurate lateral dimension measurement of a structure, for the best result the transducer should place the structure:

a) close to the transducer
b) away from the transducer
c) In the focal region
d) lateral from the transducer

Answer 447

c) in the focal region

Question 448

The sonographer wishes to improve lateral resolution during an ultrasound examination, which transducer would be the best choice:

a) annular array
b) sector phased array
c) mechanical wobbler
d) linear translating

Answer 448

a) annular array

Question 449

In order to improve visualization of a small structure such as a cardiac vegetation, the sonographer may:

a) increase image depth
b) increase image width
c) utilize right magnification
d) increase transmit frequency

Answer 449

c) utilize right magnification

Question 450

All of the following are ways in which the sonographer may increase frame rate except decrease:

a) image depth
b) number of transmit focus
c) display width
d) transmit frequency

Answer 450

d) transmit frequency

Question 451

In order to increase the frame rate during a color flow doppler examination the sonographer should do all the following except decrease:

a) packet size
b) image width
c) image depth
d) color baseline

Answer 451

d) color baseline

Question 452

The sonographer chooses a large color flow doppler packet size, which of the following statements is true: A large packet size will:

a) increase frame rate
b) will degrade mean velocity estimations
c) is acceptable to use for a neonatal examination
d) will improve peak velocity estimations

Answer 452

c) is acceptable to use for a neonatal examination

Question 453

The sonographer wishes to improve ultrasound transmission. Which of the following may be utilized:

a) sternum
b) plural effusion
c) pericardium
d) lungs

Answer 453

b) plural effusion

Question 454

The sonographer notices during a PW doppler examination that blood flow moving towards the transducer is displayed below the zero baseline, which doppler instrument control may be altered:

a) velocity scale
b) incident angle
c) sample volume length
d) spectral invert

Answer 454

d) spectral invert

Question 455

While performing a PW doppler examination the sonographer would like to improve the spectral display, all of the following may be helpful except:

a) decrease the sample gate size
b) align the sound beam to intercept blood flow at 0 degrees
c) increase the transmit frequency
d) vary the doppler transmit gain

Answer 455

c) increase the transmit frequency

Question 456

Which of the following color flow doppler controls would increase the amount of color shown on the display:

a) color baseline
b) color gain
c) color map
d) color width

Answer 456

b) color gain

Question 457

As the sonographer increases the color flow doppler sector width the frame rate:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) varies
d) unchanged

Answer 457

b) decreases

Question 458

Which of the following color flow doppler controls would be useful in unwrapping aliased signals:

a) color baseline
b) color transmit
c) color map
d) color width

Answer 458

a) color baseline

Question 459

The sonographer notes that the middle section of the image display is too bright, which of the following instruments controls would be best to adapt to improve the displayed image:

a) overall gain
b) transmit gain
c) reject
d) TGC

Answer 459

d) TGC

Question 460

The sonographer notes that throughout the image display there is too many low level echoes, which of the following instruments controls would be used to adjust to improve the displayed image:

a) overall gain
b) transmit gain
c) reject
d) TGC

Answer 460

a) overall gain

Question 461

Which of the following instruments controls may the sonographer choose to stop all acoustic output from the transducer:

a) gain
b) image depth
c) transmit focus
d) freeze

Answer 461

d) freeze

Question 462

Which type of wave is present when particle motion is perpendicular to the direction of wave advancement:

a) longitudinal
b) parallel
c) harmonic
d) transverse

Answer 462

d) transverse

Question 463

Which type of wave is present when particle motion is parallel to the direction of wave advancement:

a) longitudinal
b) parallel
c) harmonic
d) transverse

Answer 463

a) longitudinal

Question 464

Audible sound has a frequency range that is:

a) less than 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
c) greater than 20 kHz
d) 2 MHz to 10 MHz

Answer 464

b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

Question 465

propagation speed is equal to:

a) frequency/wavelength
b) wavelength x frequency
c) 1/frequency
d) density x stiffness

Answer 465

b) wavelength x frequency

Question 466

Wavelength is equal to:

a) frequency x wavelength
b) propagation speed/frequency
c) 1/frequency
d) density x propagation speed

Answer 466

b) propagation speed/frequency

Question 467

Period is equal to:

a) frequency x wavelength
b) propagation speed/frequency
c) 1/frequency
d) density x propagation speed

Answer 467

c) 1/frequency

Question 468

Frequency and wavelength are:

a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) directly proportional
d) unrelated

Answer 468

b) inversely related

Question 469

Period and wavelength are:

a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated

Answer 469

c) inversely proportional

Question 470

Frequency and period are:

a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) directly proportional
d) unrelated

Answer 470

b) inversely related

Question 471

Which of the following will cause an increase in the refraction angle:

a) decreased propagation speed differences, increased incident angle
b) increased propagation speed differences, decreased incident angle
c) decreased propagation speed differences, decreased incident angle
d) increased propagation speed differences, increased incident angle

Answer 471

a) decreased propagation speed differences, increased incident angle

Question 472

For soft tissue, the half value layer may be represented as:

a) -1 dB
b) -2 dB
c) -3 dB
d) -4 dB

Answer 472

b) -2 dB

Question 473

Increasing the transmit frequency increases all of the following except:

a) half value layer
b) attenuation coefficient
c) total attenuation
d) scatter

Answer 473

d) scatter

Question 474

The damping material decreases all the following except:

a) Pulse duration
b) spatial pulse length
c) number of cycles in a pulse
d) time for reception

Answer 474

d) time for reception

Question 475

The damping material decreases all the following except:

a) output intensity
b) bandwidth
c) pulse duration
d) spatial pulse length

Answer 475

b) bandwidth

Question 476

The area of the sound beam where there is an absence of sound wave divergence is the:

a) fresnel zone
b) fraunhofer zone
c) far zone
d) focal region

Answer 476

a) fresnel zone

Question 477

Lateral resolution will have the highest numerical value in the:

a) fresnel zone
b) near zone
c) focus
d) fraunhofer zone

Answer 477

d) fraunhofer zone

Question 478

Sound beam divergence occurs in the:

a) fresnel zone
b) fraunhofer zone
c) near zone
d) focus

Answer 478

b) fraunhofer zone

Question 479

Dynamic receive focusing and frame rate are:

a) directly related
b) inversely proportional
c) inversely related
d) unrelated

Answer 479

d) unrelated

Question 480

Transducer diameter and near zone length are:

a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated

Answer 480

a) directly related

Question 481

Transmit frequency and near zone length are:

a) directly related
b) inversely related
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated

Answer 481

a) directly related

Question 482

Wavelength and near zone length are:

a) directly related
b) directly proportional
c) inversely proportional
d) unrelated

Answer 482

c) inversely proportional

Question 483

Damping is inversely related to:

a) transmit frequency
b) spatial pulse length
c) bandwidth
d) cannot be predicted

Answer 483

b) spatial pulse length

Question 484

focusing improves:

a) transmit frequency
b) lateral resolution
c) range resolution
d) temporal resolution

Answer 484

b) lateral resolution

Question 485

Which of the following focus length will cause the greatest angle of beam divergence:

a) long
b) medium
c) short
d) cannot be predicted

Answer 485

c) short

Question 486

Damping improves:

a) radial resolution
b) lateral resolution
c) angular resolution
d) azimuthal resolution

Answer 486

a) radial resolution

Question 487

For a 2 cycle pulse of 3 MHz in soft tissue, which of the following will not be resolved using the systems axial resolution:

a) reflectors 1.1 mm apart
b) reflectors 0.8 mm apart
c) reflectors 0.6 mm apart
d) reflectors 0.4 mm apart

Answer 487

d) reflectors 0.4 mm apart

Question 488

Increasing the bandwidth improves:

a) lateral resolution
b) angular resolution
c) longitudinal resolution
d) transverse resolution

Answer 488

c) longitudinal resolution

Question 489

Exposure of the patient to bioeffects is:

a) directly related to intensity
b) inversely proportional to intensity
c) inversely related to intensity
d) unrelated

Answer 489

a) directly related to intensity

Question 490

Pre processing occurs during:

a) freeze frame
b) cine lupe playback
c) image acquisition
d) demodulation

Answer 490

c) image acquisition

Question 491

The numb of lines displayed per frame is directly dependent upon all of the following except:

a) frame rate
b) depth of penetration
c) pulse repetition frequency
d) SPL

Answer 491

d) SPL

Question 492

Image depth and frame rate are:

a) directly related
b) directly proportional
c) inversely related
d) unrelated

Answer 492

c) inversely related

Question 493

The range ambiguity imaging artifact will result in structures being placed too:

a) close to the transducer
b) far from the transducer
c) medial
d) lateral

Answer 493

a) close to the transducer

Question 494

The artifact reverberation will result in displaying images that are:

a) real
b) unreal
c) bright
d) singular

Answer 494

b) unreal

Question 495

The artifact multi path will result in placing structures too:

a) close
b) far
c) lateral
d) medial

Answer 495

b) far

Question 496

The artifact shadowing will result in structures being displayed as too:

a) close
b) far
c) weak
d) bright

Answer 496

c) weak

Question 497

The artifact enhancement will result in displaying structures that are too:

a) far
b) close
c) bright
d) weak

Answer 497

c) bight

Question 498

All of the following are true statements concerning read magnification except:

a) increases pixel dimension
b) post processing function
c) maintains the same number of scan lines
d) significantly enhances spatial resolution

Answer 498

d) significantly enhances spatial resolution

Question 499

All of the following are true statement concerning write magnification except:

a) increases number of scan lines in area of interest
b) pre processing function
c) decreases frame rate
d) greatly enhances spatial resolution

Answer 499

c) decreases fram rate

Question 500

As the sonographer increases the color flow doppler reject all of the following will improve except:

a) color sensitivity
b) noise reduction
c) color image quality
d) jet size

Answer 500

a) color sensitivity