Physics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum number of electrons in an orbital shell?

A

** 2(n)2**

1st shell (K) = 2, 2nd shell (L) = 8, 3rd shell (M) = 18, etc

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2
Q

What is the binding energy of an electron?

When/where is it the highest?

A

The amount of energy it takes to remove it from an atom.

Electrons in the innermost (K) shell have the highest binding energy, because electric force is inversely proportional to the square fo the distance between two charged particles. Binding energy also increases with higher atomic number (Z) because increased + charge in the nucleus means stronger attractive force on the electrons.

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3
Q

What are the processes of ionization and excitation?

A

Ionization: enough energy is imparted on an electron for it to overcome its binding energy, and it becomes free. The atom becomes an ion that carries 1 unit of + charge.

Excitation: the imparted energy isn’t large enough to free the electron, and it jumps to a more outer shell. This creates a vacancy in an inner shell and the atom carries excess energy, is in its “excited” state.

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4
Q

What two things can happen when an electron in an outer shell jumps to an inner shell to fill a vacancy in an excited atom?

A

This releases energy equal to the difference in binding energies between the 2 shells.

The energy can either:

1) Be released as an x-ray photon, called a characteristic x-ray. More likely to happen in heavy atoms.
2) Be imparted onto another orbital electron and free that electron, called the Auger electron. More likely to happen in light atoms.

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5
Q

What happens when a nucleus transitions between energy states (ie between excited state and ground state)?

A

It releases a discrete amount of energy, may be released by emitting gamma photons.

Ex) when Tc99m (a relatively stable excited state, called a metastable state) returns to its ground state, it emits gamma photons, the majority of which carry 140.5 kEv.

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6
Q

What are:

Isotopes?

Isobars?

Isotones?

Isomers?

A

Nuclides that have the:

Isotopes: same Z (atomic #, protons) but different N (neutrons). (125I, 127I, 131I- same element).

Iosbars: same A (mass #) (131I, 131Xe, 131Cs- different element).

Isotones: same N but different Z.

Isomers: same composition (N & Z) but different energies (99Tc, 99mTc).

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7
Q

If a nucleus has an unstable N/Z ratio, how can it achieve a stable ratio?

How does a nucleus release excess energy?

A

It can convert a proton to a neutron or vice versa, and release a charged particle in the process (beta or alpha decay), or the nucleus can be broken into 2 lighter nuclei that have more stable N/Z ratios (nuclear fission).

Excess energy is released in gamma particles.

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8
Q

By what process is 99mTc created?

How does it decay in the patient?

A

It is created by Beta- decay from 99Mo in a generator. Beta- decay is when a nucleus is too neutron rich, so a neutron converts into a proton, electron, and antineutrino (V)… the electron and antineutrino are emitted from the nucleus immediately. A (atomic mass) stays approx the same (technically slightly lighter) but Z (atomic number, protons) goes up by 1.

99mTc further decays to its ground state 99Tc by emitting gamma photons in the patient.

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9
Q

What are the SI and traditional units of radioactivity? How are they related?

A

SI = becquerel (Bq). Defined as one decay per second.

Traditional = Curie (Ci). 1 Ci = 3.7 x 1010 decay per second.

So 1 mCi = 37 MBq.

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10
Q

What do the SI units Tesla (T), Gray (Gy), Sievert (Sv), and Becquerel (Bq) measure?

A

Tesla - magnetic field strength.

Gray- absorbed dose.

Sievert- equivalent/effective dose.

Becquerel- radioactive decay activity.

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11
Q

How do you calculate absorbed dose for a given mass of tissue?

A

In Gray. 1 Gray = 1j/kg.

So if a 10kg mass of tissue absorbes 40j, the dose is 40/10 or 4 Gray.

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12
Q

What are the equivalent and effective dose, and what is their unit?

A

Equivalent dose: takes into effect that not all types of radiation have the same effect on living organisms. Heavy particles (alpha particles and neutrons) are more damaging than electrons, gamma rays, and x-rays. So equivalent dose = Wr x dose. Wr is a radiation weighting factor, and is always 1 for x/gamma-rays and electrons). Used for occupational dose (badge readings).

Effective dose: each organ is assigned a weighting factor. Effective dose = SUM(Wt x organ dose).

The unit for both is Sievert.

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13
Q

Which organs have the highest/lowest tissue weighting factors for effective dose?

A

Highest tissue weighting factor (0.12)- red marrow, lung, colon, stomach, breast.

Lowest (0.01)- salivary glands, bone surface, brain, skin.

The rest are in the middle. Gonads 0.08.

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14
Q

What is Candela? Lux?

A

Candela- unit of luminous intensity. Luminance = luminous intensity/square meter. Brightness of monitors is measured in candelas. Typical PACS brightness = 500 cd/m2. Mammo min brightness = 3000 cd/m2.

Lux- the unit for illuminance (light falling on a surface, which decreases contrast and interferes with ability to use monitors). Illumination of monitors should be below 15 lux.

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15
Q

What is the Bragg peak and what does it tell us about where the most dose is delivered for diagnostic x-rays?

A

A plot of specific ionization of a charged particle vs distance traveled. There is a sharp increase in ionizing potential near the end of a particle’s range.

In diagnostic x-rays, thie maximal dose is delivered at the skin surface.

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16
Q

What is linear energy transfer?

A

Defines the energy deposited per unit path length traveled by a charged particle (energy/distance - eV/cm). Proportional to particle charge, inversely proportional to particle velocity.

High LET = large amount of energy deposited in a small distance. Alpha particles have high LET, and thus are more damaging to tissue.

Low LET = energy deposition more sparsely deposited in a material. Beta particles and electrons have low LET.

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17
Q

What is Bremsstrahlung x-ray emission?

A

Occurs when energetic particles interact with nuclear electric fields. The electrostatic forces cause the charged particle to slow down and change direction, resulting in a loss of kinetic energy. An x-ray is released with energy equal to the amount of energy lost by the charged particle.

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18
Q

Where do the gamma ray photons detected in PET scans come from?

A

Positron annihilations.

When positrons (e+, emitted from the nucleus of certain radioactive atoms with too many protons relative to neutrons) come to rest, they join with a free electron, forming positronium. This complex breaks down, known as positron annihilation. This creates two oppositely directed gamma ray photons with energy of 511 keV each.

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19
Q

What is the basic structure of a traditional x-ray tube?

A

A cathode generates electrons by heating a thin filament to very high temperatures. Electrons are accelerated across a small gap to the anode (target) by high voltage applied between the anode and cathode. Charged particle interactions occur in the anode and produce the x-ray.

In diagnostic radiography, fluoro, and CT, the target (anode) is typically made of tungsten (K shell binding energy of -69.5 keV).

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20
Q

In a tungsten target x-ray tube, what is the primary electron-target interaction that occurs?

What is the primary x-ray generating interaction?

A

Excitation- this produces large amounts of heat, which must be dissipated to prevent damage to the tube.

Ionization accounts for only 0.1-0.15% of the electron-target interactions. This results in the characteristic x-ray emission (-69.5 keV).

The primary x-ray generating interaction is Bremsstrahlung (radiative losses), producing 85-90% of the beam. The energy of these polyenergetic x-rays can range from 0 keV to the maximum accelerating voltage (kVp) applied between the cathode and anode.

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21
Q

What is the kVp in an xray tube?

A

The maximum accelerating voltage (kVp) applied between the cathode and anode.

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22
Q

What are the 3 principle photon (packet of electromagnetic energy) interactions that can occur in clinical imaging?

A

1) Coherent (classical) scattering- an incoming photon excites an entire atom, and a photon of the same energy is released in a different direction. More likely to occur at lower energies (mammo). Photons that reach the image receptor result in a loss of contrast in the recorded image. No absorbed dose.
2) Compton scattering- incoming photon interacts with a loosely bound outer shell or free electron, transfers some of its energy to the electron which is ejected from the atom (compton electron), and the incoming photon changes direction. This is the dominant effect above 25-30 keV, results in degradation of image quality unless measures are taken to remove scattered photons using a grid or air gap. Predominant cause of occupational exposure.
3) Photoelectric absorption- all incoming photon energy is transferred to an inner shell electron, which is ejected from the atom. This effect produces the differential contrast observed in images, and is the most desired interaction. The probability of this effect is proportional to the atomic number cubed of the absorbing material, so tissue with high atomic number (bone) is more likely to absorb x-rays than tissue with low atomic number (fat). Inversely proportional to energy cubed of the incident photon, so less likely with higher energy beam. This is the primary contributor to patient dose.

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23
Q

Why are barium and iodine good contrast agents?

A

Because they have strong photoelectric absorption at diagnostic x-ray energies. They both readily absorb x-ray photons in the 35-50 keV range. When an x-ray tube is operated at 65-90 kVp, there are many x-rays produced in the 35-50 keV range. Iodine and barium strongly absorb this radiation, producing high contrast.

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24
Q

How does kVp affect differential absorption and contrast?

Patient dose?

A

As kVp increases, differential absorption will decrease, and contrast decreases. Higher kVp = reduced imaged contrast.

Higher kVp can be used in places where there is already good contrast (chest), but low kVp must be used when there isn’t much contrast (breast) in order to maximize differential absorption and increase contrast.

Higher kVp = less absorption in the patient = lower dose.

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25
Q

What is the linear attenuation coefficient (u)?

A

The fraction of incident photon that will be attenuated per unit thickness of material. Strongly energy dependent (decreases as energy increases due to the reduced likelihood of photoelectric absorption).

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26
Q

What is half value layer?

Typical HVL in soft tissue?

A

The thickness of material required to reduce the intensity of an x-ray beam to half its original. HVL increases as photon energy increases.

For diagnostic xrays, typical HVL in soft tissue is 3-4 cm. In mammo, about 1 cm.

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27
Q

What is beam hardening?

A

Occurs with polyenergetic x-ray beams. The preferrential attenuation of lower energy photons, which increases the average energy of the beam.

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28
Q

What is the heel effect?

A

Attenuation and beam hardening that occurs within the xray tube, in the direction of the angled target towards the anode.

Can compensate by placing denser portions of the body on the cathode side.

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29
Q

According to NCRP 160, what is the average background and medical radiation dose for the average US citizen?

A

Medical exposure and background exposure both = 3 mGy/yr.

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30
Q

What is the law of Bergonie and Tribondeau?

A

States that the radiosensitivity of cells is directly proportional to their reproductive activity and inversely proportional to their degree of differentiation.

Exception- lymphocytes and oocytes.

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31
Q

What are the 3 types of acute radiation syndrome, and at what whole body doses do they occur?

A

1) Bone marrow syndrome (>2 Gy)- decreased peripheral blood cell counts.
2) GI syndrome (>8 Gy)- N/V, decreased appetite. Feel better after about 1 week, then symptoms return plus fever and diarrhea. Death in 2nd week.
3) CNS Syndroem (>20 Gy)- immediate symptoms, can have unconsciousness in minutes at high doses.

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32
Q

What is the lethal dose (LD) 50/60?

A

The dose of radiation that would kill 50% of a population in 60 days. It is somewhere between 3.5 and 7 Gy depending on level of care.

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33
Q

What skin dose could lead to early transient erythema?

Severe erythema?

Dry desquamation?

Dermal necrosis?

Secondary Ulceration?

When would these effects occur?

A

Early transient erythema- onset in hours- dose = 2 Gy.

Severe erythema- onset 1.5 wks- does = 6 Gy.

Dry desquamation- onset 4 wks- dose = 14 Gy.

Dermal necrosis- onset 10 wks- dose = 18 Gy.

Secondary ulceration- onset > 6 wks = 24 Gy.

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34
Q

In males and females, what radiation dose would lead to temporary sterility, and how long does the effect last?

Dose for permanent sterility?

A

Temporary: Males- 2 Gy (12 months). Females- 1.5 Gy (1-3 years).

Permanent: Males- 5 Gy. Females- 4 Gy.

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35
Q

What is the difference between stochastic and non-stochastic radiation effects and what are the other names?

A

Stochastic (probabilistic)- more likely to occur with increasing dose. Severity is independent of the dose (ie cancer).

Non-stochastic (deterministic)- dose threshold below which the effect will not occur, severity increases with dose (ie cataracts, sterility)

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36
Q

How is radiation risk divided in utero, and what effects can be seen?

What is the increased risk of childhood cancer from radiation?

A

Preimplantation (day 0-9)- effect tends to be all or nothing. Threshold 50-100 mGy pre-implantation.

Organogenesis (weeks 2-8)- highest risk of malformations, most commonly CNS.

Fetal Growth (week 8-term)- no sig risk of death. Can see CNS defects, sense organ defects.

Fetal risks are only considered significantly increased at doses above 0.15 Gy.

Excess risk of childhood cancer from in utero radiation is about 6% per Gy.

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37
Q

What are the effective radiation dose rate limits for restricted and unrestricted areas (regarding nuclear medicine)?

For controlled area (regarding radiation shielding)?

A

Unrestricted areas: max 0.02 mSv/hour, 1 mSv/year (cumulative).

Restricted areas: 1.0 mSv/hour, 50 mSv/year.

Controlled areas: 0.1 mSv/wk or 5 mSv/yr.

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38
Q

What are the annual radiation dose limits for:

Adult occupation workers?

Declared pregnant employees?

Minor occupation workers?

Members of the public?

A

Adult workers: 50 mSv total body (5 rem), 150 mSv to eye (15 rem), 500 mSv extremity or single organ (50 rem).

Pregnant worker: 5 mSv to fetus during entire gestation (divided as 0.5 mSv/month).

Minor worker: 5 mSv total body, 15 mSv to eye, 50 mSv extremity or single organ.

Public: 1 mSv (5 mSv in “special circumstances”).

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39
Q

What is the threshold dose for the formation of radiation-induced cataracts?

How are they different from regular cataracts?

A

Start at 0.5 Gy.

They form in the posterior pole of the lens, vs senile cataracts which start anteriorly.

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40
Q

What is the MQSA limit on dose per image for mammogram of a 4.3 cm compressed breast with 50/50 fat/glandular tissue ratio?

A

3 mGy.

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41
Q

What skin dose is considered a sentinel event by the joint commission?

A

15 Gy.

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42
Q

What does the nuclear regulatory commission consider a reportable “medical event?”

How do they have to be reported?

A

Deviation from normal procedure that results in greater than 20% increase in radiation to a patient, administration of the wrong radiopharmaceutical, the wrong route, or to the wrong patient.

Additionally, effective dose must be > 50 mSv (or a dose equivalent to an organ or the skin > 500 mSv).

Medical events must be reported to the NRC (or agreement state, plus ordering MD and patient) verbally within 1 day of the event being discovered. A written report to the NRC and ordering physician due in 15 days.

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43
Q

At what dose to a fetus or nursing infant does it have to be reported to the NRC?

A

Greater than 50 mSv for both.

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44
Q

What is the excess relative risk of developing cancer per Sv of radiation exposure for the entire population?

For adults only?

A

Entire population: excess RR of cancer = 5.5-6% per Sv.

Adults only = 4.1-4.8% per Sv.

Peds more like 10-15%.

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45
Q

What is the cumulative radiation dose limit for adult occupation workers?

A

20 mSv/year averaged over 5 years.

46
Q

What is the approximate annual background radiation dose for a US adult?

Largest source?

What is the approximate dose received flying across the Atlantic?

A

3.1 mSv.

Radon.

0.05 mSv.

47
Q

What are the most common types of personal dosimeters?

A

Thermoluminescence-based dosimeter (TLD)- emits light when heated that is proportional to radiation dose.

Optically stimulated dosimeter (OSD/OSL)- same but laser beam generates light output.

48
Q

What are the approximate effective doses of:

Extremity xray?

Chest xray?

Mammo?

PET?

CT Head?

CT abd/pelvis?

A

Extremity: 0.001 mSv.

Chest xray: 0.02 PA + 0.1 lat -> 0.12.

Mammo: 0.4.

PET: 15.

CT head: 2.

CT Abd/Pelvis: 8 + 6 -> 14.

49
Q

What model does BIER 7 use to estimate lifetime risk of cancer?

What is DDREF?

What type of research did they give the highest weight?

A

Lifetime attributable risk model. Uses both EAR and ERR (excess absolute/relative), subjectively weighted based on the type of cancer, and adds latency period.

Dose and dose rate effectiveness factor- allows for decreased risk with fractionated exposure compared to a single exposure.

Greatest weight placed on “life span studies” of the atomic bomb survivors. Note: no statistically significant cancer increase has been proven < 100 mSv. Would need to study 1 million people to see radiation cancers at 20 mSv dose.

50
Q

What produces the largest amount of x-rays in an x-ray tube?

A

Bremsstrahlung radiation- electron transversing the target giving up variable amounts of energy due to attracting forces from the target nuclei. Max energy the prodcued photos can have is equal to the kinetic energy of the accelerated electron (determine by voltage, kVp). Produces a spectrum of energies, majority of the photons produced are as heat (99.9%).

The characteristic spikes in the spectrum below are from characteristic radiation, released when ionization occurs.

51
Q

What is the maximum amount of leakage allowed from the shielding around an x-ray tube?

A

Must be <100 mR/hr at 1 meter from the tube operating at maximum voltage.

52
Q

What is thermionic emission?

A

The source of electrons in an x-ray tube, created by supplying a current to a thin tungsten wire filament at cathode. Typical current is 4-5 Amperes.

When they flow to the anode (because of electrical potential difference, kVp, appiled), the electrons also create a current (25-1000 mA).

53
Q

How does focal spot size affect blur?

What is the line focus principle?

A

Smaller focal spot = less blur.

The anode surface is beveled to make the apparent focal spot size smaller than its actual size (this helps with the problem of smaller focal size = danger of overheating). Apparent focal spot size is the smallest on the anode side of the image detector. For a given actual focal spot size, the smaller the anode angle, the smaller the apparent focal spot.

54
Q

What is the consequence of a beveled anode?

A

Heel effect- the xrays coming from the anode side of the target have to travel through more material and are more attenuated. The intensity of the x-ray beam is greater on the cathode side (so put the cathode side over the thickest part of the body).

55
Q

1 Gy = ? Rad.

1 Ci = ? MBq.

1 Sv = ? rem.

A

1 Gy = 100 Rad.

1 Ci = 37000 MBq.

1 Sv = 100 rem.

56
Q

Regarding external sources in nuclear medicine, what is the dose rate constant?

A

The equivalent dose delivered at a distance of 1 m from an unshielded 1 MBq point source of the radionuclide. Unit = mSv/hr.

57
Q

How should beta emitting radiopharmaceuticals be stored?

A

In low Z containers (plus lead around) to avoid the production of bremsstrahlung radiation.

58
Q

What is:

Radionuclidic purity?

Radiochemical purity?

Chemical purity?

A

Radionuclidic purity- the ratio b/t the activity of the desired radiopharmaceutical & total activity (ex 99Mo - molybdenum breakthrough during 99mTc extraction).

Radiochemical purity- the ratio b/t the activity of the radionuclide in chemical form & in the preparation (ie free tech vs labeled tech). Tested by chromatography, the US pharmacopeia sets allowable limits: >95% for Tc99m-pertechnetate, >92% for Tc99m-SCOL, >90% for other Tc99m agents).

Chemical purity- the ratio b/t the quantity of radionuclide in the desired chemical form & all other chemical species (considers non-radioactive substances too, goal >99%). Tested by colorimetry (testing not mandatory in NRC states). For aluminum <10 ppm.

59
Q

What do each of these letters mean?

AZXN

A

Z = protons, atomic number.

A = mass number, approx mass of nucleus.

N = neutrons (A-Z).

60
Q

What is the threshold dose for radiation-induced cataracts? How are they different from senile cataracts?

A

0.5 Gy.

They begin in the posterior pole of the lens, vs senile cataracts which begin anteriorly.

61
Q

Approximate effective dose for a:

Chest x-ray?

Mammo?

PET?

CT Head?

CT Abd/Pelvis

TIPPS?

Extremity x-ray?

Chest CT?

A

CXR: PA 0.02 mSv / lat 0.1 mSv.

Mammo: 0.4 mSv.

PET: 15 mSv.

CT head: 2 mSv.

CT Abd/Pelvis 8/6: 15 mSv.

TIPPS: 70 mSv.

Extremity x-ray: 0.001 mSv.

Chest CT: 7 mSv.

62
Q

What is the maximum amount of leakage through the lead around an x-ray tube?

A

<100 mR/hr at 1 meter from the tube at maximum voltage.

63
Q

How do you calculate sensitivity?

Specificity?

A

true positive / # with disease.

true negative / # without disease.

Depends on the operating threshold.

64
Q

How do you calculate positive predictive value?

Negative predictive value?

A

PPV: # true positive / # positive.

NPV: # true negative / # negative.

Depends on the threshold and disease prevalence.

65
Q

How do you calculate accuracy of a diagnostic test?

A

This is the number of cases that were correctly diagnosed, so:

True pos + True neg / total.

Depends on the threshold and disease prevalence.

66
Q

What is a ROC analysis?

A

Plots sensitivity and specificity for the whole range of possible decision thresholds. Created by plotting the fraction of true positives out of the total actual positives (TPR = true positive rate) vs. the fraction of false positives out of the total actual negatives (FPR = false positive rate), at various threshold settings. Area under the curve is prevalence and criterion independent. Equals the probability of a correct choice.

67
Q

What part of the code of federal regulations deals with standards for protection against radiation?

With medical use of radiation materials?

A

Protection: 10CFR20. Includes definitions of a radiation area (where a person could receive a dose equivalent >0.05 mSv/hr at 30 cm from source), restricted area, unrestricted area (max dose 20 microSv/hr), occupational dose limits.

Medical use: 10CFR35. Radiopharmaceuticals, radiation safety commiteee, authorized people, etc.

68
Q

How big of an error does there have to be in radiopharmaceutical dosing for it to be reportable?

A

If the administered dose differs from the prescribed dose by 20% or more AND >0.05 Sv (5 rem) EDE.

Also must notify for an unintended dose to an embryo/fetus or nursing child > 5 rem EDE.

69
Q

What is effective mAs in CT?

A

The tube current (mA) x length of time a given point is in the beam (exposure time, in ms).

70
Q

What are the approximate Hounsfield units of:

Bone?

Water?

Lung?

Air?

Fat?

A

Bone: 1000 HU.

Water: 0 HU.

Lung: -800 HU.

Air: -1000 HU.

Fat: -100 HU.

71
Q

What is the window width in CT? Level?

A

The range of numbers (HU) to display. Anything above this range is all white, below is black The level is the center of this range.

72
Q

How to the following items affect spatial resolution in CT?

Increasing focal spot size?

Increasing detector aperture size?

Increasing number of projections obtained?

Increasing reconstruction slice thickness?

Reconstruction algorithm filter?

Scan field of view?

Increasing pitch?

Patient motion?

A

Increasing focal spot size: decreases SR.

Increasing detector aperture size: decreases SR.

Increasing number of projections obtained: increases SR.

Increasing reconstruction slice thickness: decreases SR (also decreases noize by sq root of change).

Reconstruction algorithm filter: bone filter better SR than soft tissue filter (but soft tissue filter has less noise and better low contrast resolution).

Scan field of view: smaller pixel size = better SR.

Increasing pitch: decreases SR.

Patient motion: causes blurring and decreases SR.

73
Q

What are specular reflections in US?

A

Reflections from a large, smooth surface. The cause of anisotropy artifact from tendons, b/c angle of reflection is the same as angle of incidence.

Vs diffuse reflections, from an interrupted or irregular surface.

74
Q

Which direction direction has the best spatial resolution in US? The worst?

A

Axial resolution has best spatial resolution (along the axis of the beam, vertical).

Worst = elevational resolution (“slice thickness”). Varies a lot with depth. When something is smaller than the slice, get partial voluming.

75
Q

What is the range equation?

A

In US, describes that the depth at which an echo is formed (D) is related to the dime decay (t) between the pulse emission and the echo reception.
D = ct/2

C = the speed of sound propagation. In soft tissue, the average speed of sound is 1540 m/s.

76
Q

What things affect frame rate in US?

A

Frame rate is directly related to temporal resolution (frequency of refreshing the 2D image, in Hz, 1 Hz = 1 frame/sec).

Limited by: speed of sound propagation (c), depth of FOV (deeper = slower FR), total number of scan lines per frame (N, more = slower FR but better lateral resolution), total number of focal zones (n, more = slower FR).

For a single focal zone, Tframe = N x PRP = 2DN/c.

So FRmax = c/2DN.

77
Q

What does compound imaging in US do?

A

Combines multiple frames of images obtained at various fequencies/beam steering and combines them into one. This decreases inherent artifacts, improves contrast, and increases spatial detail, but also decreases frame rate.

78
Q

What does the Earth’s magnetic field equal?

Conversion of Tesla to gauss?

A

Earths magnetic field = 50 uT (0.5 gauss).

1 T = 10,000 gauss.

79
Q

What is the Larmor equation and what does it tell us?

A

w = gB0.

g (gamma) = gyromagnetic ratio.

Tells us the speed of proton precession (precessional angular frequency = w). Proportional to the strength of the magnetic field (B0) and gyromagnetic ratio.

80
Q

What does a 90º RF pulse do?

A

Equalizes the parallel and anti-parallel protons so that the only net magnetization is in the Mxy direction, no Mz.

81
Q

What are the approximate TR and TE values for T1, T2, and PD contrast?

A

T1: short TR (400-800 msec), short TE (5-30 msec).

T2: long TR (2000-4000), long TE (60-120).

PD: long TR (2000-4000), short TE (5-30).

82
Q

What is the resonant frequency of H+ protons at 1.5 and 3T?

A

1.5T: 63.87 MHz.

3T: 127.74 MHz.

83
Q

Name the artifact.

Cause?

How to fix it?

A

Susceptibility Artifact.

Occurs at locations where magnetic susceptibility varies rapidly with location in tissue- the change perturbs the local magnetic field.

Remedy: try not to use GRE sequences (worst), increase the bandwidth (tradeoff = decreased SNR), increase the matrix, decrease slice thickness, decrease field strength.

84
Q

Name the artifact.

Cause?

How to fix it?

A

Aliasing (wrap-around).

Tissue outside of the FOV is recorded artifactually within the FOV. Occurs along the phase-encoding direction.

Remedy: orient the thinnest anatomy along the phase encoding direction, enlarge FOV, exclude all anatomy from the top few slices (3D), use sat bands to null tissue outside the FOV.

85
Q

Name the artifact.

Cause?

How to fix it?

A

Ghosting (motion artifact).

Due to patient or physiologic motion, tissue is not where it is expected based on the gradient. (Nyquist ghosting = with EPI, large burden on gradient performance and imperfections result in a ghost that is shifted by 1/2 the FOV)

Remedy: Use flow compensation or apply sat bands, switch frequency and phase encoding direction, ask patient to be still, gating, (Nyquist- apply eddy-current correction).

86
Q

Name the artifact.

Cause?

How to fix it?

A

Truncation artifact.

Caused by partially sampled K-space. The Fourier-based image formation process is most inaccurate aruond sharp boundaries that abruptly change intensity. Results in Gibbs “ringing…” multiple alternating bright and dark lines parallel to the boundary.

Remedy: increase matrix, apply pre- or post-reconstruction image filtration.

87
Q

Name the artifact.

Cause?

How to fix it?

A

Due to noise spikes in k-space.

Cause- erroneous detection of large signals at one or more times during readout. Scanner gives too much contribution frmo one or more sinusoidal pattern.

Remedy: check for vibrating metal or loose wires.

88
Q

Name the artifact.

Cause?

How to fix it?

A

Zipper artifact.

Caused by detection of extraneous RF signals during readout. Line runs in the phase-encoding direction.

Remedy: close scan room door, check equiptment in room for RF emissions, check for leak in RF shielding.

89
Q

Name the artifact.

Cause?

How to fix it?

A

Fat saturation failure.

The hydrogen nuclei in water and fat have different resonant frequencies, so a special RF pulse with a narrow band of frequencies centered on the resonant frequency of fat can be applied to “saturate” fat molecules. If the resonant frequency of fat doesn’t match this pulse, fat sat will fail. Can result from poor uniformity of B0, anatomy distant from isocenter.

Remedy: apply shimming within the region of interest, move anatomy as close as possible to isocenter. In hand, hold fingers together.

90
Q

Name the artifact.

Cause?

How to fix it?

A

Dielectric Effects.

Caused by variation in tissue conductivity. Worse with increasing field strength, because the wavelength of the MRI RF excitation pulse becomes comparable in size or smaller than the torso width of large patients (shorter wavelength RF in 3T than 1.5). This can cause a strong decrease in signal near the center of the patients.

Remedy: use dielectric pads (fluid filled pads that increase signal near the patient), engage multi-channel transmission if the scanner is capable.

91
Q

Name the artifact?

Cause?

Remedy?

A

Type 1 chemical shift.

Caused by misregistration of water and fat. Fat is shifted along the FREQUENCY encoding direction.

Remedy: increase the bandwidth.

92
Q

Name the artifact?

Cause?

Remedy?

A

Type 2 chemical shift (India ink).

Boundaries of tissues with a large difference in fat/water are outlined in black.

Remedy: Lengthen TE (>30 msec) and apply shimming. For a short TE, change TE so fat and water are in phase.

93
Q

In ultrasound, which direction is axial and which is lateral?

How can each be improved?

What is elevational resolution?

A

Axial is along a vertical scan line. Directly affected by the length of the ultrasound pulse; increasing frequency of the transducer can enhance axial resolution.

Lateral is along the horizontal scan line. Improved by narrowing the ultrasound’s beam diameter.

Elevational resolution = slice thickness.

94
Q

What is the name of this artifact?

Cause?

A

Slice (section) thickness artifact.

Because 3D structures in the slice of an ultrasound image are displayed in 2D. Limited elevational resolution by the slice thickness.

95
Q

What is this artifact?

What causes it?

A

Speckle artifact.

The result of a return sound beam being intercepted by an incoming sound beam. The net effect is cancelling out of the signal, giving a grainy appearance.

96
Q

What is the name of this artifact?

What causes it?

A

Reverberation artifact.

The result of two parallel strong reflectors, the beam reflects back and forth between the two. The echo that returns to the transducer after a single reflection will be displayed in the proper location. The sequential echoes will take longer to return to the transducer, and the
ultrasound processor will erroneously place the
delayed echoes at an increased distance from the
transducer.

97
Q

What is the name of this artifact?

What causes it?

A

Mirror image.

The duplication of an image on the opposite side of a specular reflector. The primary beam encounters a highly
reflective interface. The reflected echoes then
encounter the “back side” of a structure and
are reflected back toward the reflective interface
before being reflected to the transducer for detection.

98
Q

What is refraction artifact in ultrasound?

A

Occurs due to the displacement of structures laterally from their correct locations.

99
Q

What is range ambiguity artifact in ultrasound?

How can it be decreased?

A

Places a deep object closer to the surface than it actually is b/c the system doesn’t realize that not all echoes have been detected.

Reduce range ambiguity by lowering the frame rate and PRF.

100
Q

What is cavitation in ultrasound?

Where is it greatest?

A

The production of bubbles, a mechanical effect of ultrasound. There are 2 types- stable cavitation (creates bubbles that oscillate in diameter) and transient cavitation (oscillations so large that the bubbles collapse).

Cavitation is greatest in tissues that contain gas.

101
Q

RLQ pain in an immunocompromized patient. Diagnosis?

Who?

Imaging features?

A

Typhlitis (neutropenic colitis)- a necrotising inflammatory condition which typically involves the cecum. It can sometimes extend into the ascending colon or terminal ileum.

Most commonly occurs in the setting of immunocompromise, chemotherapy and steroid therapy.

Thickening of the cecum as well as fat stranding, pneumatosis intestinalis, +/- ileus or obstruction. There may be intramural areas of low attenuation which may represent hemorrhage or edema.

Treatment- IV antibiotics, nasogastric suctioning, and bowel rest. Surgical resection may be necessary for bleeding or bowel infarction.

102
Q

What parameters could you adjust to increase ultrasound sensitivity to blood flow?

A

Frequency is directly proportional to sensitivity of blood flow detection (higher frequency = more sensitive).

Low PRF increases sensitivity to low velocity flow.

High wall filter can accidentally eliminate low velocity flow.

103
Q

How can you reduce aliasing in ultrasound?

A

Reduce aliasing by:

Adjusting scale (increases the PRF)

Select sample volume at decreased depth (increases the PRF)

Use lower frequency transducer (decreases Doppler shift)

Choose Doppler angle closer to 90 (decreases Doppler shift, but gives less accurate measurements)

104
Q

In US, how can you increase visualization of deep structures while increasing your SNR?

A

Increase the transmit power- produces larger waves which give both deeper penetration and higher SNR.

105
Q

What is the typical grid ratio for:

General x-ray?

Fluoro?

Mammo?

A
106
Q

How do you calculate Bucky factor?

A

Bucky Factor = Dose with Grid / Dose without Grid

107
Q

What are typical window and level settings for:

Bone?

Soft tissue?

Liver?

Brain?

Lung?

A

Bone: 2500/300

Soft Tissue: 400/40

Liver: 150/75

Brain: 80/40

Lung: 1500/-600

108
Q

What is comet tail artifact in US?

A

Comet tail artifact is a form of reverberation. The two reflective interfaces (and thus sequential echoes) are closely spaced. On the display, the sequential echoes may be so close together that individual signals are not perceivable. In addition, the later echoes may have decreased amplitude secondary to attenuation, displayed as decreased width.

109
Q

Which US artifact is this figure depicting?

What causes it?

A

Ring-down artifact.

The transmitted ultrasound energy causes resonant vibrations within fluid trapped between a tetrahedron of air bubbles. These vibrations create a continuous sound wave that is transmitted back to the transducer. This phenomenon is displayed as a line or series of parallel bands extending posterior to a gas collection.

110
Q

What is the name/cause of this artifact?

A

Speed displacement artifact.

When sound travels through tissue at a speed significantly different than the assumed 1540 m/s (speed of sound in soft tissue), and the echo gets placed at the wrong location. A common place for this to happen is because of focal fat in the liver.

(Speed of sound in air is much slower 330 m/s, speed in fat is slightly slower 1450 m/s, and speed in bone is faster 4080 m/s)

111
Q

What is the typical kEv used in mammo vs plain radiographs?

kVp?

A

Mammo: ~20 kEv, 35-30 kVp.

Radiographs: ~50 kEv, 50-120 kVp.