Physics Flashcards

1
Q

Conductors will only retain charge if

A

they are insulated from their surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can an objected be charged

A
  • friction
  • induction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If something is earthed

A

Can not become charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which way the electrons move?

A

Determined by whichever object has nuclei that attract the electrons less strongly (loses electrons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Two factors which affect the electrostatic force

A

Larger the charges = larger the force
Larger distance = smaller the force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sparking

A

Air between two objected becomes ionised by a large voltage and starts conducting Two charged objects that have air between them can discharge by a spark between them (when charge is large enough/distance is small enough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How can risk of sparking be eliminated

A

By earthing; or if they are connected together by a wire then electrostatic charging cannot take place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Photocopying and printing

A

Charge being placed on the paper; exposed to toner powder which sticks to the paper at those locations as a result of electrostatic induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aircraft refuelling

A

Large volumes of fuel flow through the pipe - large amounts of friction - pipe is electrostatically charged - thus pipe is always earthed to prevent build up of charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A

Wires crossing - NOT connected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A

Wires connected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Battery

A

Group of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dc power supply symbol

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ac power supply symbol

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The output from a power supply from mains electricity can be converted from ac to dc using

A

diodes as a ‘rectifier’.

A diode only allows current in one direction, in the direction of the arrow on the symbol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Uk maims supply

A

50 Hz

(i.e. the current changes direction 100 times each second, producing 50 complete ‘to and fro’ cycles in one second).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Examples of good conductors:

A
  • all metals, particularly copper, gold and silver
  • carbon (in the form of graphite)
  • ionic solutions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Examples of good insulators (poor conductors):

A
  • most non-metals, particularly plastics, rubber, dry wood, air, vacuum.

Water, unless extremely pure, is a conductor, so wet or damp materials are not good insulators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

all materials allow…

A

electric charge to move through them to some extent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Q

A

quantity’ of charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

why metals are good conductors

A

ey contain free electrons that can move about through the metal and carry their (negative) charge with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If a voltage is connected across a metal…

A

positive end of the metal attracts electrons and the negative end repels electrons.

In this way the electrons can move along the metal and cause a current (a flow of charge).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CURRENT DIRECTION

A

from the positive end of a conductor to the negative end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ELECTRON DIRECTION

A

Negative to positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

voltmeter is connected in

A

parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why does a voltmeter need to have a HIGH resistance

A

otherwise it would tend to ‘short circuit’ the component across which it was connected

(because there would be a significant amount of current in the voltmeter instead of in the component).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why does an ammeter need to have a low resistance

A

otherwise it would tend to reduce the amount of current that it was being used to measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ohm’s law:

A

current is directly proportional to the voltage causing it at constant temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

resistance of the filament is not constant because

A

its temperature changes as the current in it changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

V-I graphs for fixed resistor + filament light bulb

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

thermistor

A

with a resistance that depends on its temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Thermistor resistance

A

As its temperature increases, its resistance decreases.

Semi-conductor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

LDR resistance

A

As the light intensity increases, the resistance of the LDR decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Diode shows

A

Direction of current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which one works

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The temperature of the thermistor decreases.

What happens to the readings on meters 1 and 2?

A

1 = ammeter = decrease as more resistance from thermistors

2 = voltmeter = reduced current means reduced voltage in FIXED resistor as R is a constant in V=IR = causes voltage across thermistors to INCREASE, because total voltage supplied by battery has not changed

= voltmeter increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Series

A

Current is same

Voltage adds up to total

Resistance adds up total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Parallel

A

Voltage is same

Current adds up in each branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

voltage

A

The difference in energy carried by each unit of charge either side of a circuit component (the energy lost or gained per unit charge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How to find voltage across 2 resistors

A

Two resistors, of resistances 2Ω and 3Ω, are connected in series.

Combined resistance = 2 + 3 = 5Ω.

Note that 5Ω is greater than both 2Ω and 3Ω.

If these resistors are connected in series to a 10V supply, then the supply current = 10 / 5 = 2A.

The voltages across the two resistors are therefore 2 × 2 = 4V and 2 ×3 = 6V respectively.

Note that 4V and 6V add up to the supply voltage, 10V.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

For two resistors of resistance R connected in series, the combined resistance is

A

R/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Units of voltage

A

1V = 1JC-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Two resistors, of resistances 3Ω and 6Ω, are connected in parallel. The parallel combination is connected in series with a third resistor, of resistance 4Ω, to a supply voltage of 18V. The 4Ω resistor dissipates a power of 36W.

How much energy is dissipated in the 6Ω resistor in 1 minute?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

magnetic materials

A

iron, cobalt and nickel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Magnetic field lines

A

NORTH TI SIUTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Soft magnetic materials

A

easy to magnetise but also easily lose their magnetisation.

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hard magnetic materials

A

are difficult to magnetise but once they are magnetised, they are difficult to demagnetise.

Steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Factors affecting the magnetic field created by an electric current

A

Reversing the direction of the current

Increasing the current increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Proof to show electric current create magnetic field

A

Demonstrate by placing a small magnetic compass close to a current carrying conductor and then switching the current on and off ; compass needle will point north when the current is off and deflect from north when the current is on (current has created a magnetic field)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is magnetic field actually created by

A

by these moving charges and not by the material through which they are moving (e.g. a copper conductor).

A beam of charged particles (e.g. electrons or ions) moving through a vacuum will also create a magnetic field, just like an electric current in a wire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

magnetic field pattern around a long, straight current-carrying wire:

A

consists of concentric circles,

that become farther apart at greater distance from the wire,

and have a direction given that can be predicted using a right-hand grip rule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Right Hand rule

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Magnetic field through solenoid

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The strength of the magnetic field around a wire depends on:

A

the current in the wire: increasing current increases magnetic field strength

the distance from the wire: farther from the wire the field is weaker

the medium surrounding the wire: magnetic media such as iron can increase the field strength.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Iron

A

ferromagnetic material.

Each iron atom acts like a tiny bar magnet being north at one end and south at the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Differences between electromagnets and permanent magnets

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How to increase strength if solenoid

A
  • increase number of coils
  • increase current
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why can’t increase current to crazy

A

Strong heating effect = melt insulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How do strong electromagnets avoid this heat problem

A

by using superconducting coils, that is coils of zero resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Disadvantage of superconducting coils

A

coils only become superconducting when cooled to extremely low temperatures using liquid helium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A permanent magnet can be made by

A

placing a hard magnetic material in a strong external magnetic field, usually from an electromagnet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How can hard / Permanent magnets suddenly lose their magnetism

A

Heated above curie temp = specific to each material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Maximum motor force

A

when the current and magnetic field are at right angles to one another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Reversing the direction of the current OR the magnetic field..

A

Reversing the direction of the current OR the magnetic field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Reversing the directions of both the current and the magnetic field

A

results in no change in the direction of the motor effect force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

If the magnetic field and current are not at 90°

A

then the direction to use is the part (component) of the magnetic field that is perpendicular to the current, as shown in the diagram:

motor effect force is directly out of the page.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ANGLE

A

angle between magnetic field and current: force is greatest at 90° and zero at 0°.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Investigating the strength of the motor effect force

A

When there is a current in the wire there is an upward motor effect force on the wire.

By Newton’s third law, there is an equal downward force on the magnets.

The magnets press down on the top pan balance and the reading increases.

This change can be used to measure the motor effect force (using W = mg).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Tesla

A

1T = 1 Nm-1A-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Angle in motor effect

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

when is force at maximum + minimum

A

It is at its maximum when the two forces are farthest apart (coil in plane of field)

zero when the two forces are in the same vertical plane (coil perpendicular to field).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

graphite brushes in split

A

make a low friction sliding contact with the surface of the commutator but mai

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The material used to make the brushes must be a

A

CONDUCTOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Electromagnetic indication

A

ONLY HAPPENS IF THEIR IS A CHANGE = cutting field lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Will Electromagnetic induction always induce voltage

A

Yes - but only current in a closed system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The magnitude of an induced voltage is directly proportional to:

A

the rate at which a wire cuts magnetic field lines
or
the rate at which the magnetic field through a conductor (e.g. a coil) changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The induced voltage will increase if:

A
  • the magnet is moved faster – more field lines are cut per second – the rate of cutting field lines increases
  • a stronger magnet is used – there is a higher density of field lines, so more field lines are cut per second than with a weaker magnet at the same speed – the rate of cutting field lines increases

the ac frequency in coil A is increased – the rate of change of the field through coil B increases

  • the ac amplitude in coil A is increased – the rate of change of the field through coil B increases*.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Lenzes law

A

induced voltage is always in a direction that opposes the change that caused it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The direction of an induced voltage reverses when:

A

the direction of the cutting of magnetic field lines reverses

an increasing magnetic field in a coil changes to one that is decreasing

a decreasing magnetic field in a coil changes to one that is increasing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The amplitude of the output ac voltage increases if:

A

the coil is rotated more rapidly – greater rate of change of magnetic field through the coil (or of cutting magnetic field lines)

the magnetic field is stronger – greater rate of change of magnetic field through the coil (or of cutting magnetic field lines)

the coil has greater area –greater rate of change of magnetic field through the coil (or of cutting magnetic field lines)

there are more turns on the coil – each coil has the same induced voltage and these voltages add together because the turns are in series.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The frequency of the output ac voltage is equal to

A

the coil’s rotation frequency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

If the time for one rotation of the coil is doubled (generator)

A

the coil is rotating more slowly and it cuts the field at a lower rate inducing a smaller voltage

FREQUENCE HALFS USING f=1/time periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Do the slip rings change polarity

A

Yes

For half of the rotation, one slip ring is positive and the other negative but in the other half of the rotation, the wires are moving through the field in the opposite direction, so the slip rings both change polarity, becoming negative and positive respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Angle positions

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Draw a graph of voltage output for one cycle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Increasing the frequency of rotation of the coil has two effects:

A

it increases the frequency of the output ac voltage because the direction of cutting of the field lines changes more rapidly

it increases the amplitude of the output ac voltage because the rate at which the field lines are cut increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What’s peak + what’s zero

A

Position 1 = peak

Position 2 = zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Generators transfer

A

mechanical work (to rotate the generator) to electrical energy in the form of ac electricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A step-up transformer

A

increases the voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Mains voltage

A

230V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Transformer equation

A

Vp = (ac) voltage across the primary coil

Vs = (ac) voltage across the secondary coil

np = number of turns on the primary coil

ns = number of turns on the secondary coil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Transform equation thing

A

only valid for an ideal transformer, i.e. one that is 100% efficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Other transformer equation

A

the current ratio is the inverse of the voltage ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Put two transformer equations together

A

the current ratio is equal to the inverse ratio of the turns:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Why not 100% Effiecient

A

the resistance in the wires on the coils

heating effects in the core as it magnetises and demagnetises

currents induced in the core (eddy currents) by the changing magnetic field.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is used in transmission lines

A

High voltage low current

  • reduce losses due to heating of the cables.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The higher the voltage

A

the harder it is to insulate from other conductors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Cause of weight

A

mass in a gravitational field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Cause of normal contact

A

two solid objects in contact with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Cause of drag

A

movement of an object through a fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Cause of friction

A

relative sliding motion between two solid surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Magnetic

A

two magnets or a current in a magnetic field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Electrostatic

A

two charges or a charge in an electric field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

upthrust

A

solid immersed in a fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

thrust

A

driving force from an engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

lift

A

aerofoil (wing) moving through a fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

non-contact forces

A

weight associated with a gravitational field,

magnetic force associated with a magnetic field

electrostatic force associated with an electric field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

force-extension graph: steeper

A

steeper this graph, the more force is required to produce a given extension. = more rigid

The shallower this graph, the greater the extension for a given force.= less rigid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Elastic

A

if the spring / wire returns to its original length when the tension force is removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Hooke’s law.

A

Springs and wires that are being extended within their elastic limits experience an extension that is proportional to the tension force

F=kx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

spring constant

A

force per unit extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Spring constant is a measure of

A

Rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Materials with high spring constants….

A

require large forces to produce small extensions

(Gradient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Cross-sectional area + K

A

the greater the cross-sectional area, the greater the spring constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Length + K

A

longer the wire, the smaller the spring constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Combining springs - If two identical springs, each of spring constant k are connected together in series

A

same force will produce double the extension

so the spring constant is halved to 1/2K

117
Q

Combing springs - two identical springs are connected in parallel

A

double the force will be needed to produce the same extension and so the spring constant is doubled to 2k

118
Q

Force - extension = area under graph

A

work done by tension force / elastic potential = AS LONG AS ELASTIC LIMIT NOT EXCEEDED

119
Q

Prove elastic limit formula

A
120
Q

Mass + inertia

A

Mass is the property of an object that resists acceleration

121
Q

Newton’s second law

A

resultant force is proportional to the rate of change of momentum

122
Q

Two things about Newton’s third law that most people don’t know

A

the two forces in the pair are of the same type (e.g. both friction, or both normal contact, or both gravitational etc.)

the two forces in the pair act on different objects (one on body A and the other on body B).

123
Q

the more massive the planet

A

the greater the gravitational field

124
Q

gravitational field near the surface of the Moon

A

1.6

125
Q

gravitational field near the surface of Jupiter

A

26

126
Q

gravitational field near the surface of the Sun

A

280

127
Q

free-fall acceleration

A

Only gravity

128
Q

magnitude of the air resistance force

A

increases with increasing speed of motion

129
Q

Turbulent vs streamlined air

A

Turbulent air flow gives rise to a larger air resistance force than streamlined air flow.

130
Q

relationship between speed of motion and turbulence

A

greater the speed of movement of the object through the air, the more likely it is that the air flow will become turbulent

131
Q

streamlined air flow

A

air resistance tends to be proportional to speed

132
Q

turbulent air flow

A

, air resistance tends to be proportional to speed squared

133
Q

Units of momentum

A

Ns

134
Q

Force + momentum

A

force = rate of change of momentum

135
Q

Change in momentum formula

A

momentum = external resultant force × time.

136
Q

Work dome

A

Scalar

137
Q

1 kWh is equivalent to

A

3 600 000 J.

138
Q

Active forms of energy are:

A
  • electrical energy (transferred by a current in a circuit)
  • heat (thermal energy)
  • light
  • kinetic energy (energy of an object that is moving)
  • sound.
139
Q

Stored forms of energy are

A
  • chemical potential energy (stored in a battery or cell)
  • gravitational potential energy (stored due to height)
  • strain potential (energy stored in a stretched spring)
140
Q

Conduction

A

transfer of heat from one place to another through the passing on of kinetic energy between the particles of a substance

141
Q

Where can conduction happen

A

Solid / liquid / gas if in contact + between states

142
Q

How does conduction work

A

particles in the hotter region vibrate more energetically.

Over time, some of this energy is passed along to neighbouring particles, so that they also vibrate more energetically.

This process continues through the solid, so that the temperature rises

143
Q

‘Good conductor’

A

heat transfers by conduction relatively quickly

144
Q

What does conduction need

A

PARTICLES - CANT TRAVEL THROUGH VACUUM

145
Q

Why are gases poor conductors

A

particles in a gas are far apart relative to their size.

Collisions are not frequent enough to transfer kinetic energy between particles as quickly as in liquids and solids.

146
Q

why metals are particularly good thermal conductors.

A

Delocalised electrons - transfer energy much faster, by moving through the lattice and colliding with ions and with each other

147
Q

Factor affecting rate of heat transfer by conduction

A
  • heat gradient = higher temp difference faster conduction
  • nature of substance = better thermal conductor

+ distance between the two objects = shorter distance faster rate

  • surface area in CONTACT = larger area faster rate
148
Q

When temp increases

A

Liquid expands + density decreases

149
Q

When in a convection current - when does conduction come into play

A

As the warmer fluid rises, it gradually cools (by conduction of heat to the cooler fluid around it), becomes less dense, and tends to sink.

150
Q

Conduction vs convection

A
151
Q

Many houses have two layers of outer wall, with a cavity (empty space) between them. These cavities were originally designed to be filled with air, to reduce heat loss from the house in cold weather by conduction (since air is a good thermal insulator) = why bad

A

when heat from the house transfers through the inner wall to the air in the cavity, convection makes this air circulate.

This speeds up the transfer of heat to the outer wall and then out to the surroundings.

So fill with insulating material

152
Q

During a sunny day, the surface of the land reaches a higher temperature than the surface of the sea. This causes a breeze to blow.

a) State and explain the direction of this breeze.

b) Explain why there is a breeze moving in the opposite direction at a higher altitude.

A

a) The air above the land and sea is warmed by conduction, but the air above the land becomes warmer because the land’s temperature is higher. This causes a convection current in which air above the land rises and is replaced by cooler air moving across from over the sea. So a breeze blows from the sea towards the land.

b) This is the uppermost part of the convection current, which flows horizontally from above the land to above the sea.

153
Q

Thermal radiation

A

EM

154
Q

What can transfer heat through vacuum

A

Thermal radiation

155
Q

thermal energy is transferred by…

A

Infrared radiation

156
Q

What emits thermal radiation

A

Any object or substance with a temperature above absolute zero

157
Q

higher the temperature of an object

A

higher the rate at which it emits thermal radiation

158
Q

if an object were to emit thermal radiation without any other energy transfers occurring….

A

, its temperature would decrease

159
Q

All objects always emitting + absorbing thermal radiation = net goes from hot to cold

A
160
Q

factors affecting rate of absorption and emission of thermal radiation

A
161
Q

Absorbers + emitters

A

A good absorber of thermal radiation is a good emitter, and a poor absorber is a poor emitter

162
Q

Why are survival blankets for cold people shiny

A

so that it is a poor absorber and emitter, and a good reflector, of thermal radiation.

It is better than, for example, a dull matt blanket at reflecting thermal radiation from the person back towards them, and it is poorer at emitting thermal radiation to the surroundings.

163
Q

Can conduction, convection or radiation happen at same time

A

Yes

164
Q

specific

A

per unit mass

165
Q

Can you compress solid + liquid

A

Not really = both have fixed volume

166
Q

When a substance is melting / boiling

A

absorbs thermal energy without increasing its temperature.

The absorbed energy is needed to increase the separations between the particles

Endo

167
Q

When a substance is freezing / condensing

A

releases thermal energy without decreasing its temperature.

As the attractions between the particles increase and their separations decrease, energy is transferred from the sample to thermal energy of its surroundings

Exo

168
Q

Things when finding volume of irregular solid

A

must be enough water initially in the cylinder to completely cover the sample

and the water must not overflow

sample does not react with or dissolve in the water

sample sinks in water

169
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

hydrostatic pressure = hρg

170
Q

Wave definition

A

transfer of energy without net movement of matter

171
Q

Transverse

A

vibration direction is perpendicular to the wave direction.

172
Q

Longitudinal

A

vibration direction is parallel to the wave direction

173
Q

Transverse waves

A

EM

waves in string

Seismic S- waves

174
Q

Longitudinal

A

Sound waves

Ultrasound

Compression waves on a slinky / string

175
Q

What is a mix of longitudinal and transverse

A

Water waves = elliptical motion

176
Q

Features of longitudinal

A

Compression

Rarefaction

177
Q

What are compression and rarefactions

A

Higher or lower pressure then atmospheric pressure

178
Q

Mechanical waves

A

Vibrating particles - can’t go through vacuum

179
Q

EM waves

A

Can go through vacuum

Travel at speed of light

180
Q

Examples of mechanical waves

A

Sound

Ultrasound

Seismic waves

Water waves

Waves on a string / slinky

181
Q

Examples of EM waves

A

RMIVUXG

182
Q

How are EM waves formed

A

Charged particles such as electrons set up an electric field in the space around them.

When they are made to vibrate a magnetic field is also produced.

The pattern of electric field and magnetic field vibrations travels outwards as an electromagnetic wave.

183
Q

Wavelength

A

distance between adjacent peaks (or troughs) in a transverse wave.

184
Q

Amplitude

A

maximum displacement of a particle in the wave from its equilibrium position.

185
Q

Period

A

time taken to complete one cycle of vibration (
oscillation). Measured in seconds.

186
Q

1 Hz =

A

1 oscillation per second

187
Q

incident angle

A

angle between the normal and the direction of the incident wave

188
Q

reflected angle

A

angle between the normal and the direction of the reflected wave

189
Q

law of reflection

A

incident angle = reflected angle

190
Q

Smooth surface

A

all the normals are parallel to one another so all the waves are reflected in an orderly way = e.g. reflection from a mirror

191
Q

Rough surfaces

A

normals at each point are in different directions so each ray is reflected in a random direction
(e.g. reflection from a white sheet of paper).

192
Q
A
193
Q

If a light ray slows down….

A

refracts toward the normal

194
Q

If a light ray speeds up…

A

refracts away from the normal

195
Q

If the waves are travelling along the normal…

A

they continue in the same direction (but still change speed).

196
Q

What happens at air glass boundary

A

light ray slows down + refracts toward the normal

197
Q

What happens at glass air boundary

A

light ray speeds up + refracts away from the normal

198
Q

Wave crests on diagram

A

perpendicular to the direction of travel of the wave

199
Q

If wave slows down

A

Peaks / crests closer together = because frequence never changes so wavelength must

200
Q

When waves speed up

A

Peaks / crests further apart because frequency never changes so wavelength must

201
Q

Energy is conserved at the boundary:

A

Incident energy = reflected energy + transmitted energy + absorbed energy

202
Q

If the sides of the block are parallel

A

The refracted waves should be parallel

203
Q

Why does the direction change for refraction

A

wave is travelling at a non-zero angle to the normal, different parts of the wave crest enter the second medium at different times

. In this case, the left hand end A) enters first and slows down first, moving a shorter distance than the right hand end B) of the same wave crest.

This causes the direction of the wave to change.

204
Q

An astronomer is using a telescope to observe a distant star. Light from the star has to pass through the Earth’s atmosphere to reach the telescope and as it does so, it slows down. Which of the statements below, about the apparent position of the star is/are correct?

1) If the star is vertically above the telescope its apparent position in the sky will be the same as its actual position in the sky.

2) If the apparent position of the star is close to the observer’s horizon then its actual position is higher in the sky.

3) If the star can be seen when the telescope is at 45° to the horizontal then the actual position of the star in the sky must be at an altitude less than 45° to the horizontal.

A
205
Q

What does water waves do in shallower water 💧

A

Slow down

206
Q

Which of the following statements about the analogy between water waves and light is/are correct?

1) Water waves refract when they cross a boundary and their speed changes. Light waves refract when they move from water into glass so the speed of light in glass must differ from the speed of light in water.

2) When light waves strike a plane mirror the angle of reflection (measured from the normal) is equal to the angle of incidence (measured from the same normal). Therefore when water waves strike a plane barrier the angle of reflection (measured from the normal) is equal to the angle of incidence (measured from the same normal).

3) The wavelength of water waves is not changed by reflection. Therefore the wavelength of light waves will not be changed by reflection.

A

All correct

207
Q

Doppler effect

A

relative motion between a source of waves and an observer, the wavelength and frequency of the waves detected by the observer is different from the wavelength and frequency of the waves received when there is no relative motion

208
Q

Table for Doppler effect

A
209
Q

Special Doppler

A

faster the observer approaches or recedes from the source, the greater the shift in frequency and wavelength.

210
Q
A
211
Q

Draw a mirror ray diagram

A
212
Q

What do you need to make sure in mirror diagram

A

image in a plane mirror is formed at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.

213
Q

Draw a ray diagram for a corner reflector - add all angles

A
214
Q
A
215
Q

Why would emerging and incident rays be parallel

A

change of speed at both boundaries has the same ratio and the boundaries are parallel to one another

216
Q

Do all EM travel at same speed not in a vacuum

A

No - Different wavelengths of visible light travel at different speeds in glass

217
Q

Different wavelengths of visible light travel at different speeds in glass - what does this result in

A

deviated by different amounts from the normal + spectrum

218
Q

What em slows down more

A

Shorter wavelengths (the blue end of the spectrum) slows down more than longer wavelengths so blue light is deviated more than red light.

219
Q
A
220
Q

Relationship between vibrations of the source and sound produced: (3)

A

The sound waves have the same frequency (or frequencies) as the vibrations of the source.

The amplitude of the sound waves depends on the amplitude of the vibrations of the source.

The speed of the sound waves is determined by the medium through which they travel and NOT by the source.

221
Q

rarefies

A

creating a region of lower pressure

222
Q

Sources of EM waves

A

Anything that causes electric charges to vibrate will emit EM waves.

E,g warm body contains vibrating atoms which contain charged particles, so all bodies emit a spectrum of EM radiation (because all bodies are above the absolute zero of temperature)

223
Q

The hotter the body..

A

the more radiation and the more high frequency radiation.

224
Q

How do antennas work

A

When the waves meet the rods they cause electrons in the rods to vibrate at the same frequency as the wave and this electrical signal is used to create the TV pictures.

225
Q

How are x rays produced

A

when fast moving electrons crash into a metal target and sto

226
Q

Applications of radio waves

A

Communications: radio and TV. Radar systems. Radio astronomy.

227
Q

Hazards radio

A

Only hazardous if extremely intense.

228
Q

Microwave applications

A

Satellite and space communications. Radar systems. Mobile phones. Wifi systems. Microwave cookers.

229
Q

Microwave hazards

A

Tissues can be damaged if too much microwave radiation is absorbed by living tissues so protective (reflective) suits must be worn if working near a powerful transmitter. They can also cause cataracts in the eye.

230
Q

Infrared applications

A

Radiant heaters. TV/DVD remote controls. Heat seeking missiles. Sensors on security lights. Optical fibre communications. Night sights. Thermal imaging. Weather satellites (IR photography).

231
Q

Infrared hazards

A

Cell damage: burns.

232
Q

Visible applications

A

Sight. Astronomical and terrestrial telescopes. Microscopes. Illumination. Optical fibre communications. LASERs

233
Q

Visible hazards

A

Looking at an intense source of light can damage the retina of the eye. This is why you should not look directly at the Sun and never direct a telescope or binoculars towards it!

234
Q

Uv applications

A

Causes some things to fluoresce – (e.g. washing powders in clothes so are often used at clubs and parties). Security marking. Can kill microbes so can be used to sterilise medical equipment. Insect control (UV attracts insects).

235
Q

Uv hazards

A

Can damage the retina of the eye. Can cause sunburn and skin cancer.

236
Q

X ray applications

A

X-ray images, CAT scans. Airport security. X-ray crystallography (investigating the structure of crystalline materials using X-rays). Detecting art forgeries. X-ray telescopes in astronomy.

237
Q

X ray hazards

A

X-rays are a form of ionising radiation that can damage molecules, causing cell damage and various types of cancer

238
Q

Gamma applications

A

Radiotherapy to kill cancer cells. Radioactive tracers. Food sterilisation. Locating cracks in pipes and turbines. Gamma-ray telescopes in astronomy.

239
Q

Gamma hazards

A

Gamma-rays are a form of ionising radiation that can damage molecules causing cell damage and various types of cancer. They can also cause cells to mutate and if they affect sex cells or a developing embryo, the effects are seen in the next generation.

240
Q

What can cause ionisation and heating

A

High frequency short wavelength EM waves such as X-rays and gamma-rays deliver energy in such a way that they can ionise atoms in the material that absorbs them.

Lower frequency, longer wavelength EM waves cannot cause ionisation but do cause heating, making particles in the absorbing material vibrate more strongly.

241
Q

Reduce risk radio

A

Do not go too close to a powerful transmitter

242
Q

Reduce risk microwaves

A

Limit direct exposure, especially to eyes. If working with strong transmitters, maintain a safe distance and wear a reflective suit. Limit the time for which you use a mobile phone.

243
Q

Reduce risk infrared

A

Maintain a safe distance from intense sources. Wear reflective clothing.

244
Q

Reduce risk visible

A

Do not look directly at bright sources. Never point a telescope directly at the Sun (unless it has a solar filter attached to the objective). Wear sunglasses. Place a shield in front of an intense source. Do not direct LASERs or LASER pens into the eye.

245
Q

Reduce risk Uv

A

Do not look directly at a UV lamp. Limit skin exposure to UV – e.g. sunbeds. Use a protective sun cream if outside on a sunny day. Wear sunglasses that block UV.

246
Q

Reduce risk x rays

A

Limit your exposure to X-rays, e.g. increase distance from source, wear protective clothing and/or stand behind a screen. Use lead shielding between an X-ray source and your body. Doctors should ensure that the potential benefit of X-ray treatment always outweighs the potential risk.

247
Q

Reduce risk gamma

A

Maximise your distance from the source and minimise the time that you use the source. Use lead shielding to absorb some of the gamma radiation – e.g. by placing this between the source and your body. Never handle gamma-sources directly, always remotely.

248
Q

Protons and neutrons are held together in the nucleus by

A

strong nuclear force = balances the electrostatic repulsion between the protons.

249
Q

What’s a nuclide

A

any particular type (or ‘species’) of nucleus, characterised by the numbers of protons and neutrons it has.

250
Q

Nuclides that decay are

A

Radioactive

251
Q

What is alpha

A

2 protons + 2 neutrons

252
Q

What is Gamma

A

Burst of em radiation

253
Q

Speed of alpha

A

0.1 c

compared with speed of light,
c = 3 × 108 ms−1

254
Q

Speed of beta

A

0.8c

compared with speed of light,
c = 3 × 108 ms−1

255
Q

Speed of gamma

A

C

compared with speed of light,
c = 3 × 108 ms−1

256
Q

Alpha origin

A

unstable nucleus emits two of its protons and two of its neutrons, bound together as a single particle.

257
Q

Beta origin

A

One neutron of the unstable nucleus transforms into a proton (which remains in the nucleus) and an electron (which is emitted as the beta particle).

258
Q

Gamma origin

A

Excess energy of the unstable nucleus is ejected in the form of gamma radiation

259
Q

What’s alpha blocked by

A

Sheet of paper / human skin

260
Q

How far can alpha travel

A

A few cm

261
Q

What’s beta blocked by

A

Thin metal / alluminium

NOT BLOCKED by human skin

262
Q

How far can beta go

A

several metres in air

263
Q

What is gamma blocked by

A

Several cm of very dense metal = lead

264
Q

How far can gamma go

A

hundreds of metres in air

265
Q

Most variable penetrating ability

A

Beta - can be blocked by Thin metal OR low energy beta can not even penetrate skin

266
Q

Count rate

A

number of radiation impacts detected by the counter per second

267
Q

Least penetrating

A

Alpha

268
Q

Most penetrating

A

Gamma

269
Q

Most ionising

A

Alpha

270
Q

Least ionising

A

Gamma

271
Q

Why is alpha most ionising

A

although alpha particles travel at lower speeds than beta particles, alpha particles’ much greater mass means that they have more momentum

this, along with their double charge, gives them a strong tendency to interact with atoms and cause ionisation.

272
Q

Why is more ionising less penetrating

A

Radiation that is very ionising quickly loses its kinetic energy as it travels through matter, and so it is not very penetrating.

273
Q

What’s deflected by electric / magnetic fields

A

Alpha + beta

274
Q

Factors that effect deflection in an electric field

A

Charge

Mass

Speed

Overall effect

275
Q

Charge

A

Alpha particle has twice as much charge as beta, so experiences twice as much force in an electric field.

276
Q

Mass

A

Alpha particle is about 8000 times heavier than beta, so acceleration a=Fm is about 28000 × or 14000× that of a beta particle in the same field.

277
Q

Speed

A

Alpha particle typically has 10–20% of speed of beta – therefore it takes longer to move through the field so there is more time for the force to act.

278
Q

Overall effect

A

The effect of the speed difference is less than the opposing effect of the charge and mass differences (with the mass difference being the dominant factor).

So an alpha particle is less deflected than a beta particle in the same electric field.

279
Q

Natural sources of background radiation (typically over 80% of the total)

A

radon gas from the ground
rocks and buildings
cosmic rays
food and drink

280
Q

Artificial sources of background radiation (typically under 20% of the total)

A

medical procedures (typically around 99% of the total radiation from artificial sources)
nuclear power and nuclear weapons testing

281
Q

mean count rate from source =

A

mean count rate (measured with source present) − mean background count rate (measured with source absent)

282
Q

State one reason why the background radiation rate may be higher in one region than in another.

A

different types of rock and soil emit radiation at different rates (because they contain different levels of radioactive isotopes).

283
Q

What’s most dangerous in body

A

Alpha = highly ionising

284
Q

What’s most damaging outside the body

A

Gamma = can easily penetrate skin + cause damage

285
Q

What’s least damaging in the body

A

less ionising, and much of it will pass straight through cells without damaging them

286
Q

What’s least dangerous outside body

A

alpha particles cannot penetrate the skin

287
Q

WHAT DIRECTION DOES CURRRNT FLOW

A

FROM POSITIVE (LONG LINE) TO NEGATIVE (SHORT LINE)

288
Q

Does kinetic energy change if velocity changes direction

A

NO BECAUSE V IS SQUARED

289
Q

North

A

IS NOT UP ITS INFRONT OF YIU