Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ObPeds > Physical Exam > Flashcards

Physical Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Newborn

A

birth-2mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infant

A

0-1yr

  • neonatal: 1-28 days
  • postneonatal: 29 days-1 year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Toddler

A

1-2yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Child

A

2+ years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose the Apgar Score?

A

assess neurologic recover from birth and adaptation to extrauterine life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the components of the Apgar score?

A
  • heart rate
  • respiratory effort
  • muscle tone
  • reflex irritability
  • color
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does Apgar stand for?

A
  • Activity
  • Pulse
  • Grimace
  • Appearance
  • Respiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a normal Apgar score at 1 minute?

A

8-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An Apgar score of ___ indicates some nervous system depression.

A

5-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An Apgar score of ___ indicates severe depression requiring immediate resuscitation.

A

0-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a normal Apgar score at 5 minutes?

A

8-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Preterm

A

<37 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Term

A

37-42 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Postterm

A

> 42 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Preterm Appropriate for gestational age infants are more prone to…

A
  • respiratory distress syndrome
  • apnea
  • patent ductus arteriorsus
  • infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Risks for Large for gestational age infatns

A
  • birth difficulties

- metabolic abnormalities shortly after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a risk factor for an infant to be LGA?

A

maternal diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Newborn Exam sequence

A
  • observation
  • head, neck, thorax, abdomen, genitourinary system
  • LE, back
  • ears, mouth when open
  • skin, as you go
  • neurologic system
  • hips
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is paradoxic breathing?

A

when the chest moves inward during inhalation instead of expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the Flush Technique?

A

a way to measure BP in infants

==>empty vessels and release pressure slowly until arm “flushes” to usual color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens if the cuff is too wide or too narrow?

A

wide: underestimate BP
narrow: artificially high BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the most accurate temperature readings in a newborn?

A

rectal or axillary

==> children >5 inc axillary reading by 1 degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How should you measure an infant?

A

from top of head to heel with the foot dorsiflexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is the head circumference taken?

A

every “health visit” yoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is measured for head circumference?

A

largest circumference

==>glabella to EOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where do you measure chest circumference?

A

measure around the nipple line to the nearest 1/8th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Breastfed infants correlate more with ___ growth rates.

A

WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Formula infants correlate more with ___ growth rates.

A

CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the average birth weight?

A

5lbs 8oz- 8lb 13oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the average length at birth?

A

18-22 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the average birth head circumference?

A

13-14 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How much does length increase within the 1st year of life?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the weight increments in the first year?

A

double by 6 months

triple by 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Head & chest circumference newborn to 5 months

A

head may equal or exceed chest by 2cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Head & chest circumference 5 months to 2 years

A

chest should closely approximate head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Head & chest circumference > 2 years

A

chest should exceed head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Growth patterns: infancy

A
  • trunk predominates

- fat inc until 9mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Growth patterns: childhood

A
  • legs grow faster

- slow fat until 7 prepubertal fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Growth patterns: adolescence

A
  • trunk and legs elongate
  • 50% ideal weight gained
  • skeletal mass and organs double in size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is primary hydrocephalus?

A

sutures do not close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is secondary hydrocephalus?

A

brain does not grow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Transient mottling when infant is exposed to dec temperature

A

cutis marmorata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When should an underlying cardiac defect be considered with the presence of acrocyanosis?

A

if it is persistent or more intense in the feet than hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

vernix caseosa

A
  • mixture of sebum and skin cells

- protective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Flat, deep pink patch seen in back of neck

A

telangiectatic nevi

“stork bite”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Irregular areas of blue/gray pigmentation usually in sacral/gluteal regions

A

dermal melanocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed

A

erythema toxicum

-inability of the liver to get rid of toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When does jaundice become worrisome?

A

if it descends below the nipples (>12 mg/dl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Physiologic Jaundice

A

-

  • inability of liver to conjugate bilirubin
  • present in 50%
  • disappears in 8-10 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the most likely cause of nail clubbing?

A

cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What technique is used to check for nail clubbing?

A

Schamroth Technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are milia?

A
  • small, white papules on face

- plugged sebaceous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is miliaria?

A
  • heat rash

- occlusion of sweat ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where is eczema MC seen in younger children?

A

FACE, elbow, knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Faun tail nevus can be associated with ___?

A

spina bifida occulta

56
Q

What can facial port-wine stain be associated with if it involves the ophthalmic division of CN V?

A

Sturge-Weber Syndrome

57
Q

Postauricular and occipital lymph nodes are common up until what age?

A

2 years

58
Q

Cervical and submandibular lymph nodes are common at what age?

A

after 2 years

59
Q

What are the MC symptoms for Mono in children?

A

fever, HA, tummy ache with the absence of a cough

60
Q

Subcutaneous edema that crosses suture lines, is soft and is MC seen in the occiput or presenting part?

A

Caput Succedaneum

61
Q

Subperiosteal bleed that does not cross suture lines, is firm and is MC seen in the parietal region?

A

Cephalhematoma

62
Q

What is the MC type of craniosynostosis?

A 
sagittal synostosis
(most rare = lambdoid)
63
Q

What are some characteristics of lambdoid synostosis?

A
  • flattening of affected side
  • inc. ipsi mastoid growth
  • ear migrates back on affected side
64
Q

Posterior fontanel closes by ___?

A

2 months

65
Q

Anterior fontanel closes by ___?

A

24 months

66
Q

How large should the transillumination ring be in all regions of the head?

A

<2cm

occiput = <1cm

67
Q

Setting sun sign is seen in what condition and what it the cause?

A

Hydrocephalus

==>paresis of superior rectus muscle

68
Q

Craniotabes can be associated with which conditions?

A
  • rickets
  • hydrocephalus
  • premature infants
69
Q

What are some characteristics of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?

A
  • smooth philtrum
  • widespread eyes
  • hirsute forhead
  • short nose
  • thin upper lip
70
Q

What is Hypertelorism?

A

widely spaced eyes

==>may be associated with mental retardation

71
Q

What are Brushfield spots?

A

small gray specks in a circular pattern in the iris; associated with Down’s syndrome

72
Q

In a cross-cover test, you expect the exotropic eye to move ___?

A

lateral to midline

73
Q

In a cross-cover test, you expect the esotropic eye to move ___?

A

medial to midline

74
Q

In a cross-uncover test, you expect the exotropic eye to move ___?

A

lateral

75
Q

In a cross-uncover test, you expect the esotropic eye to move ___?

A

medial

76
Q

What is Amblyopia?

A

reduced vision in an eye that appears structurally normal

77
Q

What is Duane Syndrom?

A

-congenital non-progressive horizontal ophthalmoplegia due to agenesis of abducens nucleus

78
Q

A Snellen result of what may indicate amblyopia in a child?

A

2 line difference between eyes

79
Q

Congenital Cataracts requires what type of workup(s)?

A
  • metabolic
  • infectious
  • systemic
  • genetic
80
Q

What are some common causes of congenital cataracts?

A
  • TORCHS
  • hypoglycemia
  • trismoies
  • prematurity
81
Q

Retinopathy of Prematurity increases the risk of?

A
  • retinal detachment
  • glaucoma
  • blindness
82
Q

How does the external auditory canal differ in an infant compared to an adult?

A

it is shorter and has an upward curve

pull downward

83
Q

The tip of the auricle should line up with which two landmarks?

A

outer canthus and EOP

84
Q

What is the MC infection of the middle ear in children?

A

bacterial otitis media

85
Q

What are some long term issues with chronic otitis media w/effusion?

A

delayed speech development

86
Q

Which sinuses are the first to develop?

A

maxillary and ethmoid

87
Q

When does the frontal sinus develop?

A

by 7-8 years

88
Q

What is the MC symptom in a 3 year old with a sinus infection?

A

bad breath

89
Q

Why should you not use a tongue depressor in an infant?

A

stimulates “tongue thrust reflex”

90
Q

Which teeth normally come in first?

A

front lower incisors

91
Q

Complete cleft palate includes which structures?

A

lip, hard palate, soft palate and into nasal cavity

92
Q

What is a peritonsillar abscess?

A

infection of the tissue between tonsil and pharynx

93
Q

What should you not use on a child that has epiglottitis?

A

tongue depressor b/c it can trigger more muscle spasms

94
Q

When is epiglottitis MC?

A

3-7 years of age

95
Q

What are some characteristics of epiglottitis?

A
  • sudden high fever
  • drooling
  • tripod position
  • sore throat
96
Q

What could be indicative of a relatively larger chest circumference?

A

poorly controlled gestational diabetes

97
Q

If chest roundness persists after 2 years of age, what should you suspect?

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary problem
==>cystic fibrosis (MC)
==>chronic asthma

98
Q

Autosomal recessive disease of exocrine glands

A

cystic fibrosis

99
Q

What is the normal distance between the nipples?

A

1/4 of the chest circumference

100
Q

What is the average respiratory rate in an infant?

A

40-60 rpm

101
Q

What are some indicators of increased respiratory effort?

A
  • retraction of supraclavicular notch
  • SCM contraction
  • flaring of nostrils
  • intercostal retractions
  • tachypnea
102
Q

What is laryngomalacia?

A

when the cartilage of the larynx is not fully developed = “floppy”

103
Q

What is the MC causes bronchiolitis?

A

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

104
Q

When is bronchiolotitis MC?

A

<6 months

105
Q

When is croup MC and what gender does it MC affect?

A

1 1/2 - 3 years; boys

parainfluenza virus

106
Q

During what part of the day does croup come on?

A

at night after child has gone to sleep

107
Q

How long after birth does the foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus close?

A

24-48 hrs

108
Q

What is characteristic of a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

machinery murmur

109
Q

What is a potential complication of a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

right sided heart failure

fatigue, no cyanosis

110
Q

What is a finding commonly found in infants with congestive heart failure?

A

an enlarged, firm liver

111
Q

Which heart condition will always cause cyanosis at birth?

A

transposition of the great vessels

112
Q

What is the normal capillary refill time in a newborn?

A

<1 second
prolonged = >2 sec.
(dehydration, hypovolemic shock)

113
Q

How do you determine amplitude and pulse count in an infant?

A

palpate apical impulse for amplitude and listen for pulse count

114
Q

What are some conditions that can shift the apical impulse?

A
  • pneumothorax
  • diaphragmatic hernia
  • dextrocardia
115
Q

What is sinus invertus?

A

heart and stomach are on the right, liver on the left

116
Q

What are some causes of a weak or thin pulse?

A
  • decreased CO

- peripheral vasoconstriction

117
Q

What are some dDx for a bounding pulse?

A

L to R shunt (PDA)

118
Q

What is a dDx for a difference in pulse amplitude between femoral and radial?

A

coarctation of the aorta

119
Q

How much does HR increase with temp. increase?

A

10-20 beat inc. for each degree inc

120
Q

What are the 4 “S’s” for Innocent murmurs?

A
  • short (2-3 days)
  • soft (grade I or II)
  • systolic
  • no other signs/symptoms
121
Q

What are the top 3 dDx for HTN in a child?

A
  • kidney disease
  • renal artery stenosis
  • coarctation of aorta
122
Q

Which one is the MC heart defect in an infant?

A

tetralogy of fallot

123
Q

What is involved in tetralogy of fallot

A

-pulmonary valves stenosis
-overriding aorta
-RV hypertrophy
-VSD
(ASD)

124
Q

What are Tet spells?

A

central cyanosis, paroxysmal dyspnea with loss of consciousness

125
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

A

complication of strep. pharangitis or skin infxn

126
Q

What can be implicated with rheumatic fever?

A

mitral or aortic valves

127
Q

What is Jone’s Criteria for rheumatic fever diagnosis?

A

presence of 2 major manifestations or 1 major + 2 minor manifestations

128
Q

What are the major manifestations of rheumatic fever?

A 
carditis
polyarthritis
chorea
erythema marginatum
subcutaneous nodules
129
Q

What is kawasaki disease?

A

acute illness (fever) MC affecting young boys under 5

130
Q

What is the medical management of kawasaki disease?

A

intravenous gamma globulin and/or aspirin

131
Q

What is a dDx in a child with spider nevi?

A

liver disease

132
Q

What is granulomatous tissue?

A

serous or serosanguinous dishcarge once the stump has been separated from umbilicus

133
Q

What is the MC intraabdominal tumor of childhood?

A

Nephroblastoma (Wilm’s Tumors)

134
Q

What is a neuroblastoma?

A

a mass in the adrenal medulla

135
Q

What would you suspect if you found a sausage-shaped mass in the left or right upper quadrant?

A

intussusception

136
Q

When is intussusception MC?

A

3-12 months old

ObPeds (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions