phys final - cardio, resp, thermoregulation Flashcards

1
Q

the greatest blood pressure decrease occurs as blood flows through ___

A

arterioles

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2
Q

BP of static circulation when the heart is not pumping blood; typically 7 mm Hg

A

mean circulatory filling pressure

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3
Q

pressure difference b/w mean aortic pressure and mean venae cavae pressure; typically 95 mm Hg

A

systemic perfusion pressure

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4
Q

pressure between pulmonary artery and pulmonary veins; typically 8 mm Hg

A

pulmonary perfusion pressure

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5
Q

which type of BP represents the potential energy to move blood

A

aortic BP

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6
Q

pressure energy is used up through friction, which is converted to __

A

heat

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7
Q

the pressure difference between the aorta and venae cavae is maintained by

A

the pumping of blood by the heart

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8
Q

___ are more compliant than arteries; blood volume reservoirs

A

veins

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9
Q

perfusion pressure divided by blood flow; regulates blood flow in tissues, organs, etc

A

resistance

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10
Q

resistance of a tube is defined by ___ law

A

poiseuille’s law

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11
Q

why is the resistance of a single arteriole greater than the resistance of a capillary network

A

the capillary network has a greater diameter

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12
Q

vascular resistance of an organ is primarily determined by

A

diameter of its arterioles

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13
Q

how does vasoconstriction affect arteriole resistance to blood flow (inc or dec)

A

increases

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14
Q

how does vasodilation affect arteriole resistance to blood flow (inc or dec)

A

decreases

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15
Q

what are the only three potential causes of increased mean aortic blood pressure

A

increased cardiac output (CO)
increased TPR
both

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16
Q

how does hypertension affect CO, BP and TPR

A

normal CO
inc BP
inc TPR

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17
Q

how does severe hemorrhage or dehydration affect CO, BP and TPR

A

dec CO
dec BP
inc TPR

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18
Q

why does vasoconstriction occur in arterioles of kidneys, splanchnic circulation and resting skeletal muscle when an animal is experiencing low BP

A

minimizes the fall in arterial pressure

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19
Q

how does vigorous exercise affect CO, BP, TPR

A

CO inc
TPR dec
BP negligibly changed

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20
Q

pulmonary perfusion pressure difference divided by cardiac output

A

pulmonary vascular resistance

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21
Q

pressures in the aorta and pulmonary artery during each cardiac ejection

A

systolic arterial pressure

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22
Q

minimal pressures in the aorta and pulmonary artery before each new cardiac ejection

A

diastolic arterial pressure

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23
Q

amplitude of the pressure pulsations in an artery

A

pulse pressure

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24
Q

what conditions will cause an inc in pulse pressure

A

stroke volume inc
HR dec
aortic compliance dec

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25
Q

how does PDA and aortic regurgitation affect aortic and pulse pressure

A

aortic systolic pressure inc
aortic diastolic pressure dec
aortic pulse pressure inc

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26
Q

aorta and large arteries are described as ___ vessels

A

elastic

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27
Q

dispensability and ability to return to the original shape after the distending force or pressure is removed

A

elasticity

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28
Q

measure of how much force or pressure is required to achieve distension

A

compliance

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29
Q

arterioles are described as ___ vessels

A

muscular

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30
Q

contraction of ___ can reduce or stop the flow of blood in individual capillaries

A

precapillary sphincters

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31
Q

veins are described as ___ and ___ vessels

A

compliant and reservoir

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32
Q

most widespread type of capillary in the body

A

continuous

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33
Q

three ways of exchange through continuous capillaries are

A

diffusion - lipid soluble substances
pores - H2O and small lipid-insoluble
transcytosis - plasma proteins

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34
Q

the blood brain barrier is made of ___ capillaries

A

continuous

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35
Q

discontinuous (sinusoid) capillaries have large pores in between endothelial cells which allow

A

large plasma proteins to pass through

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36
Q

how do sinusoid capillaries contribute to detoxification

A

large pores allow toxins bound to plasma proteins to get into the liver

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37
Q

where are sinusoid capillaries found

A

liver
spleen
bone marrow

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38
Q

capillaries with holes through endothelial cells, rather than between

A

fenestrated capillaries

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39
Q

where are fenestrated capillaries found

A

sites of high fluid exchange
GIT
endocrine glands
kidneys

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40
Q

excess interstitial fluid and its plasma proteins are removed from the interstitial space through ___

A

lymph flow

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41
Q

what conditions cause an inc in capillary hydrostatic pressure

A

inc arterial BP
dec arteriolar resistance
backing up of venous blood

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42
Q

what condition causes an inc in interstitial hydrostatic pressure

A

accumulation of interstitial fluid (swelling and edema)

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43
Q

what condition causes an inc in capillary oncotic pressure

A

hyperproteinemia

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44
Q

what conditions cause an inc in interstitial oncotic pressure

A

inc rate of transcytosis
tissue inflammation

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45
Q

what conditions cause excessive filtration of fluid out of capillaries

A

inc in venous BP
hypoproteinemia
physical injury or allergic reaction

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46
Q

an inc in venous BP can be caused by:
1. application of too tight dressings on an extremity
2. severe pulmonic stenosis
3. ____

A

failure of LV or RV

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47
Q

what chemicals, released during an injury or Ag reaction, inc the permeability of capillaries to plasma proteins

A

histamine
bradykinin

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48
Q

extrinsic mechanisms predominately control the arteriolar resistance of organs that can withstand temporary blood flow reductions including

A

kidneys
splanchnic organs
resting skeletal muscle

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49
Q

intrinsic mechanisms control the arteriolar resistance of critical organs including

A

brain
heart
working skeletal muscle

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50
Q

2 examples of intrinsic mechanisms that control arteriolar resistance

A

histamine
exercise

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51
Q

effect of oxygen on arterioles

A

vasoconstriction - systemic
vasodilation - pulmonary

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52
Q

effect of CO2 on systemic arterioles

A

vasodilation

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53
Q

effect of K+ ions on systemic arterioles

A

vasodilation

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54
Q

effect of adenosine on systemic arterioles

A

vasodilation

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55
Q

effect of lactic acid on systemic arterioles

A

vasodilation

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56
Q

effect of endothelin-1 (ET-1) on local (paracrine) vessels

A

vasoconstriction
contraction of vascular sm. muscles
dec blood flow

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57
Q

nitric oxide (NO) is stimulated by

A

inc in blood flow velocity past the endothelium

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58
Q

effect of NO on local vessels

A

vasodilation
relaxes sm. muscle
inc blood flow

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59
Q

effect of thromboxane A2 (TXA2) on local vessels

A

vasoconstriction
platelet aggregation

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60
Q

effect of prostacyclin (PGI2) on local vessels

A

vasodilation
bleeding

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61
Q

effect of histamine on local vessels

A

vasodilation

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62
Q

effect of bradykinin on local vessels

A

vasodilation

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63
Q

histamine and bradykinin stimulate the formation of

A

nitric oxide

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64
Q

source of bradykinin

A

globulins in blood or tissue fluid

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65
Q

source of ET1, NO, PGI2

A

endothelial cells

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66
Q

an increase in tissue blood flow in response to increased metabolic rate

A

active hyperemia

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67
Q

a temporary increase above normal in blood flow to the tissue after a period when blood flow was restricted

A

reactive hyperemia

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68
Q

relative constancy of blood flow in an organ despite changes in perfusion pressure

A

autoregulation

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69
Q

true or false: the same metabolic mechanism responsible for active and reactive hyperemia control autoregulation

A

true

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70
Q

why must most of the blood needed to support the LV be delivered during ventricular diastole

A

mechanical compression during ventricular systole reduces the blood flow to the left coronary vessels

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71
Q

animals with coronary artery disease will develop ___ because ____ develops during exercise

A

exercise intolerance;
ventricular ischemia

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72
Q

pulmonary vessels have (greater or lesser) compliance, due to less intravascular pressure

A

greater

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73
Q

when a endotracheal tube is placed in an animal, what can cause the pulmonary vessels to become compressed

A

abnormal elevation in airway pressure

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74
Q

by which two ways does the ANS regulate the cardiovascular system

A
  1. release norepinephrine and acetylcholine
  2. release epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal medullar
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75
Q

which neurotransmitter do sympathetic neurons release to regulate the CV system

A

norepinephrine

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76
Q

which neurotransmitter do parasympathetic neurons release to regulate the CV system

A

acetylcholine

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77
Q

receptors for epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

a-adrenergic (a1, a2)
b-adrenergic (b1, b2, b3)

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78
Q

receptors for acetylcholine

A

muscarinic cholinergic (M2, M3)
nictotinic cholinergic

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79
Q

effect of activating a-adrenergic receptor in arterioles/veins

A

vasoconstriction/venoconstriction

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80
Q

which receptor causes decreased blood flow to the organs, increase total peripheral resistance and increased arterial BP when activated

A

a-adrenergic receptors in the arterioles

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81
Q

which receptor displaces venous blood toward the heart, increases central venous pressure, RV preload and stroke volume when activated

A

a-adrenergic in veins of abdominal organs

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82
Q

which receptor causes an increased pacemaker rate, faster speed of conduction, decreased refractory period, and quicker stronger contractions when activated

A

b1 adrenergic

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83
Q

which receptor increases HR, stroke volume and cardiac output

A

b1 adrenergic

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84
Q

which sympathetic receptor causes vasodilation

A

b2 adrenergic

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85
Q

which receptor increases coronary and skeletal muscle blood flow

A

b2 adrenergic

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86
Q

where are b1 adrenergic receptors located

A

heart - all cardiac muscle cells

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87
Q

where are b2 adrenergic receptors located

A

arterioles - coronary and skeletal muscle

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88
Q

which receptor decreases pacemaker rate, slows speed of conduction, increases refractory period, causes slower contractions when activated

A

M2 cholinergic - of heart cells

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89
Q

which receptor inhibits norepinephrine release from sympathetic neurons when activated

A

M2cholinergic - of sympathetic nerve endings at ventricular muscle cells

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90
Q

which receptor decreases HR and cardiac output

A

M2 cholinergic - of heart cells

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91
Q

which receptor decreases magnitude of sympathetic effects of ventricular muscle cells

A

M2 cholinergic - of ventricular muscle cells

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92
Q

which parasympathetic receptor causes vasodilation, which is mediated by nitric oxide

A

M3 cholinergic

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93
Q

in which location do M3 cholinergic receptors increase coronary blood flow

A

coronary arterioles

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94
Q

in which location to M3 cholinergic receptors cause engorgement and erection

A

genital arterioles

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95
Q

in which location do M3 cholinergic receptors increase muscle blood flow in anticipation of exercise

A

skeletal muscle arterioles

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96
Q

the four neural-hormonal mechanisms that regulated BP and blood volume to ensure adequate blood flow are:
1. arterial baroreceptor reflex
2. atrial volume receptor reflex
3. defense alarm reaction
4. ______

A

vasovagal syncope

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97
Q

via the arterial baroreceptor reflex, afferent impulses are sent to the CNS to reflexively alter ____ and _____ in noncritical organs to keep BP at a set point

A

cardiac output and vascular resistance

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98
Q

the 2 types of baroreceptors

A

aortic arch baroreceptors
carotid sinus baroreceptors

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99
Q

what do arterial baroreceptors sense

A

arterial pressure changes

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100
Q

afferent nerves of the carotid sinus baroreceptors join which cranial nerve

A

glossopharyngeal (ninth)

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101
Q

afferent nerves of the aortic arch baroreceptors join which cranial nerve

A

vagus (tenth)

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102
Q

what causes the baroreceptors to initiates APs

A

systolic ejections from the heart

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103
Q

how do baroreceptors signal an increase in arterial pressure

A

by increasing their AP frequency

104
Q

when the arterial baroreceptor reflex responds to decreased BP, it will stimulate and ___ in sympathetic activity

A

increase

105
Q

to counteract the dec BP, the increased sympathetic activity of the baroreceptor reflex will cause ____ of the arteriolar smooth muscles, leading to an increase in ____

A

contraction (vasoconstriction);
total peripheral resistance (TPR)

106
Q

to counteract the dec BP, the increased sympathetic activity of the baroreceptor reflex will cause increased ____ and decreased _____ of the myocardium; this leads to an increased cardiac output

A

contractility;
systolic duration

107
Q

to counteract the dec BP, the increased sympathetic activity of the baroreceptor reflex will stimulate the SA node to increase the ____; this leads to an increased cardiac output

A

HR

108
Q

what are the 2 limitations of the baroreceptor reflex

A
  1. does not reverse BP disturbances, only minimizes their effects
  2. has little influence on longterm BP
109
Q

locations of the atrial volume receptors

A

walls of LA, RA and pulmonary veins

110
Q

atrial volume receptors are activated by

A

stretch

111
Q

in response to low blood volume, the atria volume receptor reflex increases sympathetic activity on the kidney to increase ____ and decrease ____

A

inc renin release;
dec Na excretion

112
Q

in response to low blood volume, the atria volume receptor reflex increases sympathetic activity on the pituitary to increase ___ and ___

A

inc ADH release and thirst

113
Q

in response to low blood volume, the increased ADH release and inc thirst causes an increase in ___ and decrease in ___

A

inc water intake;
dec urine flow

114
Q

psychogenic responses are triggered by

A

sensory stimuli

115
Q

2 important psychogenic responses

A
  1. defense alarm reaction (fight or flight)
  2. vasovagal syncope (playing dead)
116
Q

intrinsic HR of a dog

A

about 140 bpm

117
Q

cardiovascular effects of the defense alarm reaction include:
1. inc HR and SV
2. vasoconstriction in noncritical organs
3. vasodilation in coronary vessels and working skeletal m.
4. _____

A

inc BP - reset baroreceptor reflex so as to not oppose increased BP

118
Q

during the defense alarm reaction, the cardiovascular effects are enhanced by which two circulating hormones

A

ADH
angiotensin II

119
Q

cardiovascular effects of the vasovagal syncope include:
1. dec BP
2. dec sympathetic activity, inc parasympathetic
3. vasodilation in noncritical organs
4. ____

A

dec in TPR, HR and CO

120
Q

true or false: the baroreceptor reflex is reset to compensate the BP change of vasovagal syncope

A

false - emotional state overrides the baroreceptor reflex and the compensatory reflex is not observed

121
Q

fainting during vasovagal syncope is caused by

A

dec BP leading to inadequate cerebral blood flow

122
Q

potential causes of heart failure include:
- ischemia
- myocarditis
- toxins
- drug effects
- _____

A

electrolyte imbalances

123
Q

consequences of left heart failure without compensation:
1. dec LV stroke volume
2. dec LV output
3. _____
4. severe exercise intolerance or death

A

dec mean arterial BP (MAP)

124
Q

2 mechanisms for compensating left heart failure

A

starling’s mechanism
arterial baroreflex

125
Q

during starling’s mechanism of compensation, the RV maintains a higher stroke volume than the LV, this results in:
1. inc LA pressure
2. ____
3. inc LV end diastolic volume - a partial correction of the low stroke volume

A

inc LV preload

126
Q

complications of heart failure include:
1. exercise intolerance
2. _____
3. persistent inc in blood volume

A

edema

127
Q

during LV failure, blood dams up in the pulmonary vessels, leading to

A

pulmonary edema
hypoxemia
pleural effusion

128
Q

during RV failure, blood dams up in systemic vessels, leading to

A

edema in extremities and abdomen

129
Q

a persistent increase in blood volume causes

A

inc BP

130
Q

a common treatment for increased blood volume is

A

diuretics - reduce salt and H2O retention, dec BP

131
Q

with persistent heart failure, pulmonary edema can cause

A

cardiac hypoxia

132
Q

with persistent heart failure, vasoconstriction in kidneys can cause tissue ischemia leading to

A

kidney failure and uremia

133
Q

with persistent heart failure, vasoconstriction of intestinal mucosa can cause tissue ischemia leading to

A

inc permeability of intestinal mucosa, bacteremia, and septic shock

134
Q

where does is the majority of blood lost from during hemorrhage

A

veins - blood reservoirs

135
Q

at what point is hemorrhage fatal without compensation

A

40% hemorrhage

136
Q

what 2 mechanisms act as immediate compensations for hemorrhage

A

arterial baroreceptor reflex
atrial volume receptor reflex

137
Q

effects after compensation for hemorrhage

A

MAP 10% below normal
SV 20% below normal
CO 20% below normal

138
Q

hemorrhage causes hydrostatic pressure to fall below normal, therefore ____ is favored

A

reabsorption of interstitial fluid back into the capillaries

139
Q

water reabsorption to compensate for hemorrhage does not contain ___ and ___

A

plasma proteins and blood cells

140
Q

the final steps for compensation from hemorrhage is the

A

restoration of lost plasma cells and blood cells

141
Q

within several days, plasma proteins are synthesized in the ____ to compensate from hemorrhage

A

liver

142
Q

within several weeks, blood cells are produced by the ____ to compensate from hemorrhage

A

bone marrow

143
Q

how does gravity affect the CV system

A

increases distending pressure in the dependent vessels (those below the heart)
distends dependent veins

144
Q

what occurs when an animal transitions from lying down to standing up

A

decrease in central blood volume and central venous pressure

145
Q

exercising muscle has increased ___ and decreased ___

A

inc metabolic products
dec local oxygen

146
Q

increased blood flow to exercising muscle is known as

A

active hyperemia

147
Q

effects of active hyperemia on exercising muscle

A

deliver more O2
remove some accumulated metabolic products

148
Q

a psychogenic effect where the CNS inc sympathetic activity (and decreased parasympathetic activity) to the heart and blood vessels in preparation for exercise

A

central command

149
Q

activation of specialized receptors in muscles and joints by an increase in muscular work to increase sympathetic and decrease parasympathetic activity

A

exercise reflex

150
Q

autonomic adjustments for exercise

A

central command and exercise reflex

151
Q

effects of muscle pump on CV system

A

inc ventricular preload
inc stroke volume
inc CO

152
Q

effects of respiratory pump on CV system:
1. inc venous return
2. inc central venous volume
3. _____

A

inc ventricular preload

153
Q

the nostrils, nasal cavities, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles are part of the ____; they are responsible for humidifying, warming and filtering the air before it reaches the gas exchange region

A

conducting zone

154
Q

the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs are part of the ___; they are where gas exchage occurs

A

respiratory zone

155
Q

what are the mucosa covered turbinate bones which warm and humidify the inhaled air, while cooling the arterial blood that supplies the brain; they include the dorsal, middle and ventral meatus airway passages

A

conchae

156
Q

____ prevents aspiration of food into the trachea

A

epiglottis

157
Q

the organ of phonation is located in

A

larynx
(syrinx in birds)

158
Q

site of insertion of an ET tube

A

glottis

159
Q

during inspiration, abductor muscles contract to prevent the upper airways from closing; in horses, laryngeal neuropathy prevents the abductor muscles on the L side from contracting, this causes the horse to make a ____ sound

A

roaring

160
Q

what is the purpose of the cartilaginous rings of the trachea

A

prevent airway from collapsing

161
Q

volume of the conducting zones

A

anatomic dead space

162
Q

ventilated but not perfused alveoli, no gas exchange

A

alveolar dead space

163
Q

the sum of anatomic and alveolar dead spaces

A

physiologic dead space

164
Q

part of an ET tube that extends beyond the respiratory system

A

equipment dead space
- important to choose the right size tube

165
Q

total volume of air breathed per minute

A

minute ventilation

166
Q

sum of air volume that enters the perfused alveoli and the volume that remains in the physiologic dead space

A

tidal volume (VT)

167
Q

as oxygen demands increase, the animal can inc ___ and ___ to compensate

A

inc VT
inc respiratory frequency

168
Q

fresh air available for gas exchange

A

alveolar ventilation

169
Q

cattle and horses have a (greater or lesser) dead space/tidal volume ratio than dogs

A

greater

170
Q

what happens to the alveolar pressure when the lungs expand during inhalation

A

alveolar pressure dec; becomes lower than atm pressure

171
Q

when might abdominal or internal intercostal muscles participate in the respiratory cycle

A

during exercise or some disease states

172
Q

how do the diaphragm and external intercostals move during inspiration

A

diaphragm contracts, moves caudal
external intercostals contract

173
Q

type of breathing: pronounced abdominal movements

A

abdominal

174
Q

type of breathing: pronounced rib movements

A

costal

175
Q

complementary breathing cycles include accessory movements such as

A

yawning
sigh

176
Q

normal quiet breathing

A

eupnea

177
Q

difficult breathing

A

dyspnea

178
Q

increased depth, frequency or both

A

hyperpnea

179
Q

rapid shallow breathing

A

polypnea

180
Q

cessation of breathing

A

apnea

181
Q

excessive rapidity of breathing

A

tachypnea

182
Q

abnormal slowness of breathing

A

bradypnea

183
Q

crackles can be heard if there is

A

edema
exudate within airways

184
Q

wheezes can be heard if there is

A

airway narrowing

185
Q

air that can be inspired after inhaling the tidal volume; forced inspiration

A

inspiratory reserve volume

186
Q

air that can still be expired after the tidal volume; forced expiration

A

expiratory reserve volume

187
Q

air that remains in the lungs after the most forceful expiration

A

residual volume

188
Q

an open connection b/w the pleural space and the outside air or alveoli

A

pneumothorax

189
Q

pneumothorax can cause

A

lung collapse
mediastinum displacement
death from asphyxia

190
Q

the interpleural pressure is (positive or negative)

A

negative

191
Q

under normal conditions, airways are held open because of ___

A

transpulmonary pressure difference

192
Q

lung compliance depends on:
1. elasticity of the tissues in the lung and thoracic cage
2. ____

A

surface tension in the alveoli

193
Q

less pressure is necessary to maintain a given volume during deflation than during inflation

A

pressure-volume hysteresis

194
Q

disease conditions that lower the lung compliance include:
1. fibrosis
2. edema
3. pneumothorax
4. ____

A

lack of surfactant

195
Q

produced by alveolar cells type II; essential to maintain a high lung compliance; is amphipathic

A

surfactant

196
Q

force that impedes airflow along the respiratory tract

A

resistance

197
Q

the resistance in the trachea and bronchi is (higher or lower) than in the bronchioles

A

higher

198
Q

how does volume affect resistance

A

as volume inc, airway dilates and R dec

199
Q

sympathetic innervation: circulating epinephrine acts on beta 2 adrenergic receptors to ___ the airways

A

dilate

200
Q

parasympathetic innervation: which nerve controls Ach for bronchoconstriction

A

vagus

201
Q

how does NO affect airways

A

dilator

202
Q

how do the inflammatory mediators histamine and leukotrienes affect airways

A

constrictors

203
Q

the first site of edema fluid accumulation

A

extra-alveolar vessels

204
Q

how is resistance and alveolar capillaries affected when total lung capacity (TLC) is reached

A

resistance inc
alveolar capillaries flattened

205
Q

the main source of vascular resistance in pulmonary circulation

A

capillaries

206
Q

in quadrupeds, where is blood perfusion greatest

A

caudodorsal regions of the lungs

207
Q

on the pulmonary circulation, a1 receptors cause (constriction or dilation)

A

vasoconstriction

208
Q

on the pulmonary circulation, b2 receptors cause (constriction or dilation)

A

vasodilation

209
Q

the thicker vascular muscle of cows and pigs allows them to have

A

greater vascular response to hypoxia

210
Q

occurs in response to disease conditions where PO2 is reduced; causes low blood flow to poorly ventilated regions of the lung

A

hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

211
Q

collapsed alveoli leading to reduced blood flow

A

atelectasis

212
Q

disease condition in cattle at high altitude; hypoxic vasoconstriction causes R side heart failure

A

brisket disease

213
Q

heartworm disease can cause ___ due to blocking the flow of the R heart, increasing the pulmonary arterial pressure

A

RV hypertrophy

214
Q

disease in racehorses in which pulmonary hypertension causes blood vessels to dilate and eventually rupture

A

exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage

215
Q

the peribronchial plexus is formed by the bronchial circulation (broncho-esophageal and right apical bronchial arteries), it divides into subepithelial vascular plexus and vasa vasorum, what is the function of the subepithelial vascular plexus

A

warming of inhaled air

216
Q

the peribronchial plexus is formed by the bronchial circulation (broncho-esophageal and right apical bronchial arteries), it divides into subepithelial vascular plexus and vasa vasorum, what is the function of the vasa vasorum

A

nourishment

217
Q

what is the bronchial circulation’s response to hypoxia

A

vasodilation

218
Q

when the pulmonary arterial supply is inadequate, such as in the case of obstruction, ____ will supply the lungs

A

bronchial vessels

219
Q

alveolar gas composition and exchange is determined by

A

PO2
PCO2

220
Q

PO2 is essential for

A

O2 movement in/out of blood

221
Q

PO2 values change due to changes in __ and ___

A

atmospheric pressure
presence of water vapor

222
Q

if CO2 production inc, what must also inc to keep PCO2 constant

A

alveolar ventilation

223
Q

causes of hypoxemia include:
1. alveolar hypoventilation
2. diffusion impairment
3. low ventilation to perfusion ratio
4. intense exercise in elite athletes
5. _____

A

right to left shunts

224
Q

CO2 has higher solubility than O2, therefore CO2 diffuses (faster or slower) than O2

A

faster

225
Q

how does exercise affect perfusion rates

A

increases
- inc surface area for diffusion

226
Q

what is the driving force for gas diffusion

A

difference in partial pressures b/w the alveoli and capillary blood

227
Q

why does edema, inflammation and fibrosis cause diffusion impairments leading to hypoxemia

A

thicken membrane reducing surface area

228
Q

how is the blood O2 level during exercise

A

low

229
Q

what condition occurs when the pneumonic region receives no blood flow resulting in lower oxygen tension in blood returning to systemic arteries for delivery to tissues; treatment with O2 does not help

A

right to left shunt

230
Q

factors that shift the Hb dissociation curve to the right (lowers affinity)

A

dec pH
high PCO2
inc in 2,3-BPG
inc in temp

231
Q

the change in color of Hb from bright red to bluish red as it loses O2

A

cyanosis

232
Q

Hb affinity for CO is (higher or lower) than O2

A

higher
- carboxyhemoglobin
- carbon monoxide poisoning

233
Q

how much the respiratory muscles are working is monitored by

A

proprioceptors

234
Q

what kind of signal do peripheral chemoreceptors, central chemoreceptors and joint/muscle receptors send

A

stimulatory

235
Q

what kind of signal do pulmonary stretch receptors and airway irritant receptors send

A

inhibitory

236
Q

where is the central pattern generator located

A

pons and medulla

237
Q

what type of receptor is myelinated and participates in the hering-bruer reflex that prevents lungs from over-inflating; located in sm muscle in trachea and main bronchi

A

slow adapting pulmonary stretch receptors

238
Q

what type of receptor is myelinated and rapid adapting and is stimulated by irritants to produce cough, bronchoconstriction, and mucus secretion tachypnea; located among epithelial cells from the nasopharynx to bronchi

A

irritant receptors

239
Q

what type of receptor is unmyelinated, C fibers located next to capillaries in the interstitium and walls of airways

A

J receptors

240
Q

what type of receptors are located in the diaphragm and intercostal muscles

A

muscle spindle and tendon organs

241
Q

central chemoreceptors detect PCO2 and H+ changes in the ___ and ___

A

CSF and brain ECF

242
Q

peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies detect changes in

A

pH
PaCO2
PaO2

243
Q

in birds, what is the correct order of flow of:
air capillaries, blood capillaries, infundibulum

A

infundibulum
air capillaries
blood capillaries

244
Q

skin cell that produces keratin, is the major structural protein of the epidermis and contributes to the epidermal water barrier

A

keratinocytes

245
Q

where is the epidermal water barrier located

A

b/w stratum granulosum and corneum

246
Q

skin cell located in the stratum basale which protects the skin against UV irradiation

A

melanocytes

247
Q

what amino acid starts the synthesis of melanin

A

tyrosine

248
Q

merkel’s corpuscle has what type of receptor

A

mechanoreceptor

249
Q

cells of the dermis incl:
1. fibroblasts
2. macrophages
3. leukocytes
4. ____

A

mast cells

250
Q

which gland lubricates the skin, provides water impermeability and inhibits bacterial growth

A

sebaceous

251
Q

sebaceous glands are stimulated by

A

testosterone

252
Q

which type of sweat gland is common in primates, open into pores, and is not associated with the hair follicle

A

eccrine glands

253
Q

which type of sweat gland is common in domestic animals, opens into a hair follicle and has an odiferous secretion

A

apocrine glands

254
Q

how does brown adipose tissue produce heat

A

uncoupling the ETC

255
Q

where in the brain are the feeback control mechanisms for body temp regulation located

A

hypothalamus

256
Q

___ produced by preoptic anterior hypothalamic area causes a rise in the thermoregulatory set point, leading to a fever

A

PGE2 - prostaglandin E2