Phsych/Soc Review

Question 1

GABA

Answer 1

CNS inhibitory neurotransmitter. When agonized, would act as CNS depressant. Seizures and insomnia.

Question 2

Acetylcholine

Answer 2

Primary neurotransmitter at neuromuscular junction

Question 3

Dopamine

Answer 3

neurotransmitter associated with motivation and motor function, cocaine and amphetamine stimulate this

Question 4

Glutamate

Answer 4

Primary excitatory neurotransmitter of CNS. Stimulant. Can be cause of increased anxiety and stress

Question 5

Hippocampus

Answer 5

Regulates stress and anxiety.

Question 6

Medulla

Answer 6

Basic biological functions like respiration and heart rate.

Question 7

Pons

Answer 7

connects brain stem to cerebrum, may play part in sleep processes

Question 8

Self selection bias

Answer 8

is related to the reality that certain groups of people may be more willing than others to participate in a study, and therefore the sample may not be an accurate reflection of the population

Question 9

Stereotype threat

Answer 9

the self-confirming belief that one’s performance will support a negative stereotype about one’s own gender, race or other designation.

Question 10

Histrionic personality disorder

Answer 10

usually attention seekers, are prone to dramatic displays, and actually want their antics to be witnessed by others.

Question 11

intersectionality

Answer 11

various forms of oppression or discrimination, such as racism, sexism, or ageism, interact with one another to create a new, heightened form of oppression or discrimination that cannot be fully understood on the basis of its component parts.

Question 12

Hypothalamus

Answer 12

interface between the nervous and endocrine systems.

Question 13

cerebellum

Answer 13

involved in balance, coordinated movement, and the storage of non-declarative memory

Question 14

Explicit memory

Answer 14

Requires conscious, intentional recall

Question 15

Implicit memory

Answer 15

Automatic, UNCONSCIOUS recall, usually of skills, procedures, or conditioned responses.

Question 16

Habituation

Answer 16

A decreased response to a stimulus after the stimulus has been presented multiple times, due to a shift of attention away from the stimulus.

Question 17

Dishabituation

Answer 17

An increased response to a stimulus after habituation has already occurred. The old stimulus is suddenly reacted to as if it were new.

Question 18

Sensitization

Answer 18

An increased response to a stimulus after the stimulus has been presented multiple times. Sensitization (NOT dishabituation) is the conceptual opposite of habituation.

Question 19

hippocampus

Answer 19

The hippocampus is then responsible for analyzing these inputs and ultimately deciding if they will be committed to long-term memory. It acts as a kind of sorting centre where the new sensations are compared and associated with previously recorded ones.

Question 20

Working memory

Answer 20

Working memory describes the form of memory we use to hold onto information temporarily. Working memory is used, for example, to keep track of where we are in the course of a complicated math problem, and what the relevant outcomes of prior steps in that problem are.

Question 21

Retrospective memory

Answer 21

Retrospective memory is where the content to be remembered (people, words, events, etc) is in the past, i.e. the recollection of past episodes. It includes semantic, episodic and autobiographical memory, and declarative memory in general, although it can be either explicit or implicit.

Question 22

Prospective memory

Answer 22

Prospective memory is where the content is to be remembered in the future, and may be defined as “remembering to remember” or remembering to perform an intended action. It may be either event-based or time-based, often triggered by a cue, such as going to the doctor (action) at 4pm (cue), or remembering to post a letter (action) after seeing a mailbox (cue)

Question 23

Classical conditioning

Answer 23

involuntary response to a neutral stimuli

Question 24

Operant conditioning

Answer 24

a consequence to a voluntary behavior

Question 25

conditioned stimulus/conditioned response

Answer 25

can result from unconditioned and neutral stimuli to become conditioned, or “accustomed to” . Also known as when the association between the neutral stimuli and conditioned stimulus become acquired.

Question 26

extinguish

Answer 26

Once an association has been acquired, it can be
extinguished by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. Over time, the animal will stop exhibiting the conditioned response to the conditioned stimulus, and we say that extinction has occurred.

Question 27

Spontaneous recovery

Answer 27

the animal is not simply forgetting the original association between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli and will occasionally show a conditioned response to the conditioned stimulus even though the conditioned stimulus has been extinguished

Question 28

shaping

Answer 28

describes the reinforcement of successive approximations for some target behavior

Question 29

punishments

Answer 29

Punishments weaken the behavioral response, decrease its frequency, or stop it altogether

Question 30

reinforcements

Answer 30

Reinforcement strengthen the behavioral response, or increase its frequency.

Question 31

Escape learning (in response to negative reinforcement)

Answer 31

Subject adopts a behavior to reduce or end an unpleasant stimulus.

Question 32

Avoidance learning

Answer 32

Subject adopts a behavior to avoid an unpleasant stimulus in the future.

Question 33

Cones

Answer 33

Less sensitive than rods. Perceive color, used during day, located in fovea only, 20x less than rods

Question 34

Rods

Answer 34

Less sensitive than cones, percieve black and white only, poor resolution of detail, contains rhodopsin pigment, 20x more than cones

Question 35

Feature detection

Answer 35

form, color, motion: Parvo-still Mavro-moving

Question 36

Rod/cone process

Answer 36

Rod/cone-> bipolar cell-> retinal ganglion cell-> Optic nerve -> brain

Question 37

Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN)

Answer 37

= Part of the thalamus; think of it as a relay center between the optic nerve and the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

Question 38

Visual cortex

Answer 38

Part of the occipital lobe responsible for processing visual stimuli.

Question 39

processing (parallel)

Answer 39

The visual system processes different aspects of the visual world in separate streams of
information. This is referred to as parallel processing. For instance, motion and color are
processed in different areas. Feature detection is distinguishing between these characteristics.

Question 40

outer ear

Answer 40

Includes the pinna (earlobe) and auditory canal.

Question 41

middle ear

Answer 41

Includes the tympanic membrane (eardrum), and the three middle ear bones (in this
order outside to inside, lateral to medial): Malleus, Incus & Stapes.

Question 42

Inner ear

Answer 42

Includes the cochlea, vestibule, semicircular canals and the vestibulocochlear nerve

Question 43

inner hair cells and outer hair cells of ear

Answer 43

responsible for transducing the mechanical displacement caused by sound waves into neural impulses. The outer hair cells of the inner ear are involved in amplifying incoming sound waves

Question 44

Transmission pathway of an auditory impulse

Answer 44

1) Hair cells of the inner ear
2) Vestibulocochlear nerve
3) Brain stem
4) Medial Geniculate Nucleus (MGN): Part of the thalamus
5) Auditory Cortex: Part of the temporal lobe

Question 45

Olfactory cells

Answer 45

Called chemoreceptors because they are triggered by membrane receptors that directly bind specific gaseous/vaporized airborne chemicals.

Question 46

Transmission pathway of an olfactory impulse

Answer 46

1) Olfactory Sensory Neurons: Located in the olfactory epithelium of the upper nasal cavity.
2) Olfactory Nerve (Cranial Nerve I)
3) Olfactory Bulb (forebrain)
4) Higher-Order Brain Centers (Various: Amygdala, hippocampus, orbitofrontal cortex, etc.)

Question 47

Somatosensation

Answer 47

Colloquially called “touch” = Includes touch, texture, pain, pressure, stretching, temperature, and vibration.

Question 48

10 MOST-FREQUENTLY-CITED GPS: (Gestalt principles)

Answer 48

1) Closure-“When seeing a complex arrangement of elements, we tend to look for a single, recognizable pattern.”
2) Continuation-“Elements arranged on a line or curve are perceived as more related than elements not on the line or curve.”
3) Common Fate-“Elements that move in the same direction are perceived as more related than elements that are stationary or that move in different directions.”
4) Proximity-“Objects that are closer together are perceived as more related than objects that are further apart.”
5) Similarity-“Elements that share similar characteristics are perceived as more related than elements that don’t share those characteristics.”
7) Good Gestalt
8) Symmetry-“People tend to perceive objects as symmetrical shapes that form around their center.”
9) Past Experience-“Elements tend to be perceived according to an observer’s past experience.”
10) Convexity-Convex rather than concave patterns tend to be perceived as figures.

Question 49

true false effect

Answer 49

exemplified by true statements being verified more quickly than false statements are negated

Question 50

central executive portion of working memory

Answer 50

comprised of both the phonological loop and the

visuospatial sketchpad.

Question 51

Things to know about neurons:

Answer 51

Remember that neurons:

1) Are frozen in G0 phase (unable to divide)
2) Depend entirely on glucose for energy
3) Don’t require insulin for glucose uptake
4) Have very low glycogen & oxygen storage capability and thus require high perfusion (blood flow)

Question 52

Self serving bias:

Answer 52

when a person attributes personal successes to internal factors and personal failures to external factors.

Question 53

Berkson’s fallacy:

Answer 53

the sampling bias that results from selecting both the observed and control population from a hospital setting.

Question 54

Specific real area bias:

Answer 54

occurs when the sampling for a study occurs at one location, which results in the omission of other populations.

Question 55

humanistic perspective:

Answer 55

focuses on the potential for self-fulfillment that resides among all human beings.

Question 56

Social cognitive perspective:

Answer 56

focuses on modeling behavior observed in others (a.k.a., social learning)

Question 57

Social inequality:

Answer 57

the social structural condition wherein some people have significantly more resources (money, education, health, and power) than others in the same society.

Question 58

Meritocracy:

Answer 58

social stratification based on personal merit (not social structural conditions such as social status or health).

Question 59

Intra generational social mobility:

Answer 59

a change in a social position during one’s lifetime

Question 60

Socialization:

Answer 60

the process by which social institutions instill ideals, values, mores, taboos, etc., into members of the social group.

Question 61

Damage to Broca’s area:

Answer 61

is associated with difficulties in speech production, but not speech comprehension.

Question 62

Precentral Gyrus:

Answer 62

the primary motor cortex of the brain.

Question 63

Wernicke’s area:

Answer 63

associated with language comprehension.

Question 64

Dispositional attribution:

Answer 64

generally involve making assumptions about an individual’s personality or character as a way of explaining or accounting for their behavior.

Question 65

Situational attribution:

Answer 65

involves explaining someone else’s behavior based on influences or circumstances in their environment or culture.

Question 66

Structural functional theory:

Answer 66

sees social stratification as functionally necessary for society and its members by rewarding those who work the hardest or contribute the most to society.

Question 67

Symbolic interaction theory:

Answer 67

sees stratification as one factor (out of many) that guides and shapes our interaction with others. It is a micro-level theory that doesn’t successfully explain macro-level phenomena such as social stratification

Question 68

Social loafing:

Answer 68

exerting lower levels of effort towards achieving a goal in a group setting,

Question 69

Social Facilitation:

Answer 69

the beneficial effect that being in the presence of others has on the performance of well-learned tasks.

Question 70

adrenal medulla secretes:

Answer 70

secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine as a function of sympathetic nervous system activation.

Question 71

Glucocorticoids:

Answer 71

are secreted from the adrenal cortex in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone, which is released from the anterior pituitary

Question 72

ritualism:

Answer 72

when someone accepts the conventional means but rejects the cultural goals (for example getting rich).

Question 73

Retreatism:

Answer 73

when someone rejects both the conventional means as well as the cultural goals and drops out of society.

Question 74

Humanism:

Answer 74

focuses on the capacity for everyone to achieve self-actualization given the appropriate environment.

Question 75

Behaviorism:

Answer 75

focuses on overt behavior and uses principles of reward and punishment to describe how personality develops.

Question 76

Psychoanalysis:

Answer 76

focus on the unconscious mind in shaping personality.

Question 77

Schachter-Singer theory of emotion

Answer 77

argues that emotion arises from physiological arousal that is cognitively labeled as a given emotional experience.

Question 78

James-Lange theory of emotion

Answer 78

states that unique patterns give rise to emotional experiences.

Question 79

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

Answer 79

suggests that physiological arousal and emotion occur simultaneously.

Question 80

Cognitive appraisal theory of emotion

Answer 80

argues that emotional experience depends on the appraisal of the situation in which one presently finds oneself.

Question 81

availability heuristic

Answer 81

a cognitive strategy used to estimate the likelihood of some given event based on how many instances of such an event come to mind.

Question 82

Gambler’s fallacy

Answer 82

refers to the erroneous assumption that the probabilities of independent events change because of a string of events that has previously occurred.

Question 83

Somatic symptom disorder:

Answer 83

is a psychological disorder that involves an individual exhibiting symptoms of physical disease or injury in the absence of the actual disease or injury.

Question 84

Fugue state:

Answer 84

a dissociative disorder in which an individual experiences a loss of memory of their own identity.

Question 85

Preoperational stage: (in children)

Answer 85

children acquire language and engage in pretend play.

Question 86

Concrete operational stage:

Answer 86

children acquire both conservation and reasoning

Question 87

Formal operational stage:

Answer 87

children acquire abstract logic.

Question 88

The Yerkes-Dodson law of social facilitation:

social facilitation: perform better when being observed on simple tasks than complex ones

Answer 88

suggests that optimal performance is associated with an intermediate level of arousal.

Question 89

Deindividualization:

Answer 89

involves a loss of one’s sense of themselves and personal responsibility when someone is a part of a larger group. This is often associated with a “mob mentality”

Question 90

Bystander effect:

Answer 90

when help to a victim is withheld in situations in which

there are other people around

Question 91

Social loafing:

Answer 91

people will exert less effort towards a common group task because others are also engaged in completing the task.

Question 92

Solomon Asch’s (1952) famous experiment:

Answer 92

Conforming, it was obvious what the right answer was but when the rest of the group was saying the wrong one, the person being observed also said the wrong answer.

Question 93

Internalization:

Answer 93

The process by which an individual accepts, as his or her own, a set of norms established by people or groups influential to that individual.

Question 94

Identification:

Answer 94

The process of incorporating the characteristics of a parent or other influential person by adopting their appearance, attitudes, and behavior.

Question 95

Diff between conformity, compliance, and obedience:

Answer 95

To conform is to passively change behavior based on influence of others, compliance is to change when asked or encouraged by others, and to obey is to change due to a command by some sort of authority figure.

Question 96

Formal and Informal social control:

Answer 96

Formal: Laws, rules and sanctions enforced by authority figure.
Informal: disapproval such as shame, ridicule, sarcasm or criticism.

Question 97

Group polarization:

Answer 97

Tendency of groups to make decisions that are more extreme (on either end of a continuum) than would individual members of that group acting alone.

Question 98

Groupthink:

Answer 98

Tendency of groups to make decisions that are incorrect or illogical based on a desire to maximize group consensus and minimize group conflict.

Question 99

Irving Janis’ Eight Symptoms of Groupthink:

Answer 99

A. Illusions of invulnerability: The group setting fosters a heightened sense of optimism that can lead to riskier behaviors.
B. Group’s inherent morality: The group setting fosters a belief that the group’s actions are above moral reproach.
C. Group rationalization: Group members do not question assumptions that are being made and ignore any warnings that might deter them from the present course of action.
D. Out-group stereotyping: Group members view those outside of the group as biased, ignorant, and/or morally inferior.
E. Suppression of dissension: Individuals in the group feel pressure not to voice disagreements with the group.
F. Self-censorship: Individuals who may doubt the group do not voice their concerns in the group setting.
G. Illusions of Unanimity: Group members believe that the view of the majority is held by everyone in the group.
H. Mindguards: Group members shield the group from any dissenting information.

Question 100

Folkways:

Answer 100

rules for casual social interaction. We all have an understanding that we face the front of an elevator. Someone violating this folkway would face the opposite direction and look at the other passengers.

Question 101

Mores:

Answer 101

are norms that have great moral significance and are widely observed by members of society.

Question 102

Taboos:

Answer 102

are the most morally significant and even the thought of violation brings about a strong, negative response from members of society.

Question 103

Sanctions:

Answer 103

are consequences, formal or informal, assigned by members of society as a result of norm violation.

Question 104

Anomie:

Answer 104

Normlessness; A state of instability due to a lack of social norms, or the breakdown of social standards or values.

Question 105

Deviance:

Answer 105

▪ Functional Theory: Deviance is not necessarily negative, and is in fact necessary for social
order. Deviance helps clarify the boundaries of social norms. It can also play a positive role in
initiating social change.
▪ Differential Association Theory: Through interaction with others, individuals learn the values,
attitudes, and techniques for deviant behavior, especially criminal behavior.
▪ Labeling Theory: Deviance and conformity result from how others respond to another person’s actions rather than what these others actually do. LABELS
▪ Strain Theory: Conformity, Innovation-reject society to achieve social goals, Ritualism-Reject culture goals but rigidly adhere to societal rules, Retreatism-rejects both, societal dropouts, Rebellion-rejects both but comes up with own versions of both (tea party activists).

Question 106

Stigma:

Answer 106

extreme dislike or negativity toward a person or group (or some characteristic of that person or group) based on perceived deviance from social norms. For example,
psychologists frequently discuss “the stigma of mental illness.”

Question 107

Diff between collectives and groups:

Answer 107

collectives are defined as an unplanned activity among a large number of people that may result in social change. It is often controversial. Groups: primary, fam and close friends have most influence. Secondary, EX: an intro college course, is temporary and likely will not be influenced by one another after class ends.

Question 108

Examples of collective behavior:

Answer 108

Fads, mass hysteria, riots

Question 109

Socialization:

Answer 109

A lifelong process, beginning in infancy, by which an individual acquires the habits, norms, and beliefs of society. Primary: influence from fam and close friends. Secondary: influence from groups, education, media, religion, etc.

Question 110

4 Main agents of socialization: (in order)

Answer 110

o The Family
o Mass Media
o Peers
o Workplace

Question 111

Attribution:

Answer 111

The tendency to infer that the behavior we observe in others can be attributed to specific causes. (Often inaccurate)
Dispositional: behavior attributed to disposition and way of being. (internal locus of control)
Situational: behavior attributed to situation in which it is expressed. (external locus of control).

Question 112

Collectivist vs individualistic cultures:

Answer 112

 Western Cultures = more individualistic = more prone to the Fundamental Attribution Error: (more likely to associate behavior with disposition than situation)
 Non-Western Cultures = more collectivist = more prone to make situational attributions.

Question 113

Social perception:

Answer 113

How we perceive other individuals or groups, form impressions of them, and make judgments about them. Our social perceptions are often inaccurate due to various forms of bias.

Question 114

Self Serving BIas:

Answer 114

Focusing on strengths, downplaying weaknesses. Examples would include believing that we are more intelligent than we actually are or by blaming personal failures on others.

Question 115

Confirmation bias:

Answer 115

we tend to overestimate how “right” we are about some particular belief and experience the confirmation bias by seeking out and attending to information that
agrees with our own perspective while ignoring information that would counter our beliefs.

Question 116

The primacy effect:

Answer 116

is experienced when we recall the first few items in a list more readily than other items. Examples would include remembering the names of the first few people you met at a party better than others

Question 117

The recency effect:

Answer 117

is experienced when we recall the most
recent items from a list of items better than others. Again, remembering the last few names or
words in a list would or using the most recent interactions to form an impression of a person
would serve as examples.

Question 118

Just world hypothesis:

Answer 118

is the tendency to believe that people get

what they deserve.

Question 119

The halo effect:

Answer 119

is a bias by which a positive appraisal in one area will automatically generate positive appraisals in other areas.

Question 120

Reliance on central traits:

Answer 120

describes how our perceptions of others are affected by focusing on characteristics that are of particular interest to us. So for example, we may have
more positive perceptions of others that show key characteristics that we view positively and
more negative perceptions of people that show key characteristics that we view negatively.

Question 121

Ethnocentrism:

Answer 121

judging another culture based solely on the values of one’s own culture.

Question 122

Cultural relativism:

Answer 122

is judging another’s culture by its own standards.

Question 123

Role conflict:

Answer 123

occurs when there is a clash between the roles associated with two or more statuses

Question 124

Role strain:

Answer 124

refers to stresses among the roles associated with one particular status. For example, a parent may feel closer to one of their children more so than the others. In order to treat each child fairly, however, the parent must put those feelings aside.

Question 125

Role exit:

Answer 125

Role exit refers to the process by which people disengage from important social roles

Question 126

Ainsworth’s strange situation:

Answer 126

In this scenario, the infant is separated from and reunited with their caregivers. The infant’s reactions to each event are video recorded and scored to determine the degree to which the infant is securely attached to their caregiver.

Question 127

What is umami responsible for detecting in taste?

Answer 127

Amino Acids, protien

Question 128

Primary group:

Answer 128

long-lasting, close interactions, tight bonds, unlikely to dissolve

Question 129

Secondary group:

Answer 129

short-lived, superficial, weak bonds, dissolve easily

Question 130

What are in groups and out groups?

Answer 130

In-groups are those social groups that members feel an affinity for, aloyalty to and a respect for. In contrast, out-groups are those social groups that individuals feel
competition or conflict toward.

Question 131

Dyad:

Answer 131

smallest possible group; tend to be emotional and unstable; by definition a dyad is dissolved if one person leaves the group; less likely to survive.

Question 132

Triad:

Answer 132

addition of one person adds stability; disputes often mediated by the third member of the group; more likely to survive (even if becomes a dyad to do so).

Question 133

Large group:

Answer 133

as group size increases, stability and longevity also increase, but intimacy, loyalty, bonding, sense of responsibility, level of individual contribution, and consensus all decline. Most stable group size.

Question 134

Weber and Parkinson’s 6 and 7 characteristics of bureaucracy:

Answer 134

Formal Hierarchical Structure
 Management by Rules
 Organization by Functional Specialty
 Either an “Up-Focused” or “in-Focused” Mission
 Purposely Impersonal
 Employment Based on Technical Qualifications
 Number of Management/Professional Staff is Always Increasing (Parkinson)

Question 135

Mcdonaldization:

Answer 135

the tendency of large organizations to standardize operations, even when such standardization may be nonsensical in certain situations, in attempt to achieve consistency and efficiency.

Question 136

Cognitive dissonance:

Answer 136

the feeling of discomfort associated with holding two conflicting beliefs.

Question 137

The Cocktail party Effect:

Answer 137

a specific instance in which we may suddenly shift our attention to something that was previously ignored because of some cue that draws our attention.

Question 138

What part of the brain is responsible for motor learning:

Answer 138

Cerebellum

Question 139

Schemas:

Answer 139

are patterns of thought that we use to create categories of information or behavior and to understand the relationship that exists among those categories

Question 140

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development:

Answer 140

1) Sensorimotor 0-2
2) Preoperational 2-7
3) Concrete operational 7-11
4) Formal operational 11+

Question 141

Age related memory changes:

Answer 141

Overall memory = Declines;
Procedural memory = Stable;
Working memory = Significant decline
Semantic memory = Stable

Question 142

Barriers to Effective PS (Problem Solving):

• Mental Set

Answer 142

Predetermined mental framework for approaching a problem; a tendency to rely on approaches and solutions that have worked in the past. Mental sets can lead to rigid thinking and a lack of cognitive flexibility.

Question 143

Functional fixedness:

Answer 143

One example of a mental set in which, when solving a problem, we can only visualize using an object or tool in the ways we have seen it used previously

Question 144

Cognitive bias:

Answer 144

An error in thinking that leads to inaccuracy, illogical thought, a lack of objectivity, a failure to consider all available options or consequences, or prejudice toward
one approach or outcome.

Question 145

Heuristics: Rules of thumb

Answer 145

 Representative Heuristic = Reliance on prototypes or stereotypes as a shortcut to making a decision or judgment.
 Availability Heuristic = Favoring the most easily recalled or imagined solution as a shortcut to making a decision or judgment.
 Anchoring and Adjustment Heuristic = Giving higher priority to the very first piece of information received and/or framing subsequent information around it.

Question 146

Deductive reasoning:

Answer 146

Conclusions are based on assumed premises; also

referred to as “Top-Down Processing.”

Question 147

Inductive reasoning:

Answer 147

Making generalizations from specific observations; also referred to as “Bottom-Up Processing.”

Question 148

Confirmation bias:

Answer 148

seeking out information that agrees with our

own perspective and paying less attention to any information that might challenge our previously held beliefs.

Question 149

“Gardner’s Theory of Multiple Intelligences.”

Answer 149

1) Visual-Spatial
2) Bodily-Kinesthetic
3) Musical
4) Interpersonal
5) Intrapersonal
6) Naturalistic (added by Gardner later, some texts report only seven intelligences)
7) Linguistic
8) Logical-Mathematical

Question 150

Galton’s theory of intelligence:

coined phrase Nature vs nurture, correlations

Answer 150

Nature, NOT Nurture. Despite his twin studies providing groundbreaking evidence for nurture, Galton leaned toward a stronger genetic component.
Eugenics supporter.

Question 151

Spearman:

Answer 151

Introduced the concept of General Intelligence—often called the “g factor” and assigned a lowercase variable, g. Spearman argued that general intelligence was the
bedrock intellect from which all other forms of intelligence are developed.

Question 152

Binet:

Answer 152

First to develop an intelligence scale, the Binet-Simon Intelligence Scale, and the concept of mental age vs. chronological age. Binet’s purpose was to identify children who needed extra educational help or attention in school. Adapted by a Stanford professor to create the Stanford-Binet IQ Test widely in use today.

Question 153

Dyssomnias:

Answer 153

Difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or avoiding sleep.
 Insomnia: Difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep.
 Sleep Apnea: Difficulty breathing while asleep.

Question 154

Physiological effects of chronic sleep deprivation:

Answer 154

Positively correlated with decreased cognitive functioning, depression, and multiple chronic diseases including: heart disease, high blood pressure, obesity, and diabetes.

Question 155

Psychoanalytic theory: (freud)

Answer 155

Dreams are expressions of unconscious desires,
thoughts and motivations. Dreams can serve
as a virtual form of wish fulfillment.

Question 156

Cognitive theory: (Hall)

Answer 156

Dreams are a conceptualization of our experiences; they are visualizations of our thoughts and perceptions
about five concepts: our self, others, the
world around us, morals, and conflict.

Question 157

Information processing theory:

Answer 157

Memories and information accumulated during the day are consolidated during sleep. Dreaming is the cerebral cortex associating images or meaning with this consolidation process.

Question 158

Problem solving theory:

Answer 158

Dreams are a way for the mind to solve problems
encountered while awake. Some proponents suggest the unconscious dreaming mind is better suited or more capable of solving problems than the awake mind—unrestricted by reality or more sensitive to subtle clues.

Question 159

Activation synthesis theory:

Answer 159

Dreams are a way for the mind to solve problems
encountered while awake. Some proponents suggest the unconscious dreaming mind is better suited or more capable of solving problems than the awake mind—unrestricted by reality or more sensitive to subtle clues.

Question 160

Phonology:

Answer 160

focuses on the phonemes (sound units within a given language) and how they can be combined in meaningful ways.

Question 161

Morphoemes:

Answer 161

(the smallest units of language that carry meaning) can be used by combing one or more phonemes together, and morphology involves focusing on how
words are formed from combinations of morphemes

Question 162

Syntax:

Answer 162

refers to the rules that govern how words are ordered into meaningful sentences. Colloquially, we refer to syntax as the rules of grammar

Question 163

Semantics:

Answer 163

deal with the meaning of language and involve issues about how meaning is changed as a function of the relationship among the words that are used

Question 164

Pragmatics:

Answer 164

refers to the ability to competently use language appropriately in any given social context.

Question 165

Behaviorist or learning theory for language development:

Answer 165

asserts that we are born without any knowledge of language and that we learn language through classical learning mechanisms (e.g., being reinforced for engaging in linguistic behavior) and through observational learning.

Question 166

The nativist or psycho linguistic theory:

Answer 166

asserts that humans are prewired for language at birth

and that language will naturally emerge as we grow and interact with our environments.

Question 167

The interactionist theory of language development:

Answer 167

asserts that language acquisition occurs in

predictable, fixed stages of development.

Question 168

Broca’s Area:

Answer 168

Motor aspects of speech (e.g., moving your mouth and tongue)

Question 169

Arcuate fasciculus:

Answer 169

Broca’s Area and Wernicke’s Area communicate via a bundle of axons called the arcuate fasciculus. This connection allows integration of language comprehension and speech.

Question 170

3 Components of emotion:

Answer 170

▪ Subjective Experience (a.k.a., Cognitive Response) = The subjective interpretation of the mood or feeling experienced by the individual.
▪ Physiological Response = Physiological changes in heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, and skin temperature observed in the individual experiencing the emotion.
▪ Behavioral Response = Facial expressions or body language that accompany the expression of emotion

Question 171

Ekman’s 7 universal emotions;

Answer 171

▪ Fear
▪ Anger
▪ Happiness
▪ Surprise
▪ Joy
▪ Disgust
▪ Sadness

Question 172

James Lang theory of emotion:

Answer 172

emotions arise from physiological arousal. In other words, we only experience fear because of the activation of the sympathetic nervous system upon encountering a threatening stimulus.

Question 173

Cannon Bard theory of emotion:

Answer 173

asserted that the physiological arousal and emotional experience occur at the same time. In other words, fear is felt at the exact same time that sympathetic nervous system activation occurs. However, research indicates that if signals of physiological arousal are blocked, then the emotional experience is blunted.

Question 174

Schachter singer theory of emotion:

Answer 174

posits that emotions are composed of 2 factors: a physiological component and a cognitive component. Here, physiological arousal is interpreted in context which leads to the emotional experience.

Question 175

The limbic system:

Answer 175

Region of the brain most directly tied to the emotion. The ventral prefrontal cortex is also involved. Research suggests the LEFT prefrontal cortex processes
positive emotions and the RIGHT prefrontal cortex processes negative emotions.

Question 176

Functions of the limbic system:

Answer 176

 Amygdala (implicit emotional memory)
 Thalamus
 Hypothalamus
 Hippocampus (explicit emotional memory)
 Corpus Callosum
 Fornix
 Septal Nuclei
 Cingulate Gyrus

Question 177

(Nature of stress) Primary Appraisal:

Answer 177

= Initial evaluation of the potential threat. It is suggested that we judge the potential threat to be either: irrelevant (unimportant), benign-positive (good), or stressful (bad).

Question 178

(Nature of stress) Secondary Appraisal:

Answer 178

= If the threat is determined to be stressful, the individual next judges whether he or she has the resources to cope with the stress.

Question 179

General Adaptation Syndrome

Answer 179

describes three stages in one’s response to stress:

1) Alarm Stage
2) Resistance Stage
3) Exhaustion Stage

Question 180

managing stress:

Answer 180

▪ Problem-Solving Approach: Find solutions, obtain help, stress prevention plan, etc.
▪ Emotional Approach: Change how you feel about the stressor through positive thinking, taking
personal responsibility, internal locus of control, etc.
• Proven Tools for Stress Management = Exercise, relaxation, spirituality.

Question 181

Theories of motivation:

Answer 181

o Instinct Theory = Behavior is motivated by evolutionary instincts.
o Arousal Theory = Behavior is motivated by a desire to maintain an optimum level of physiological arousal. That optimum level varies among individuals. People seek new interests, action, or stimuli when arousal is low to increase arousal. When arousal is too high (hyperstimulation) they reduce activity or seek more relaxing activities to reduce the level of arousal.
o Drive Reduction Theory = Behavior is motivated by the desire to reduce or eliminate an uncomfortable or undesirable internal state.

Question 182

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs:

Answer 182

(Bottom to top): Physiological-breathing, food, sex
Safety-security of body, health, family Love/belonging-friendship, family, intimacy Esteem- confidence, respect, achievement Self Actualization-morality, creativity, spontaneity

Question 183

The ERG theory of needs:

Answer 183

existence needs, relatedness needs, and growth needs. The existence needs combine Maslow’s physiological and safety needs into one category. Relatedness needs combine portions of Maslow’s love/belonging needs and esteem needs. Growth needs combine portions of Maslow’s esteem needs and self-actualization needs.

Question 184

Self determination theory of needs:

Answer 184

• Autonomy (i.e., a sense that one is in control of one’s own life choices)
• Competence (i.e., feeling capable at a task; the ability to excel at something)
• Relatedness (i.e., a sense of being accepted in social settings or relationships)

Question 185

Cognitive theory:

Answer 185

Behavior is motivated by thinking; including plans, goals, expectations, perceptions and attributions.

Question 186

Expectancy value theory;

Answer 186

An aspect of Cognitive Motivational Theory. The magnitude of one’s motivation to engage in a behavior is a function of an interplay between an individual’s 1)
expectation of success and 2) perception of the relative value of the rewards associated with success.

Question 187

Opponent-process theory

Answer 187

is centered on homeostatic principles. Whenever we take some substance this creates a physiological and psychological state that pushes us away from the
norm

Question 188

Three Primary Components of Attitude

Answer 188

▪ Cognitive = How you THINK about something or somebody.
▪ Affective (Emotional) = How you FEEL about something or somebody.
▪ Behavioral = How you BEHAVE toward, or with respect to, somebody or something.

Question 189

Functional attitudes theory:

Answer 189

▪ Knowledge: Attitudes give us valuable information about other people, events, and the likelihood of outcomes.
▪ Ego-Expressive: Attitudes are one route through which we express our self identity.
▪ Adaptive: Socially-acceptable attitudes provide an adaptive advantage in society much like certain random mutations provide an evolutionary advantage.

Question 190

Self perception theory:

Answer 190

Suggests that actions influence attitudes because people infer their attitudes by observing their own behavior.

Question 191

Foot in the door phenomenon:

Answer 191

People are more likely to agree to a larger or more difficult request if they first agree to a smaller request. In this case, the behavior of the person making
the request changes the attitude of the person being asked to do something.

Question 192

Role playing effects: (Stanford prison experiment)

Answer 192

A person acting out a role is likely to internalize the attitudes associated with that role. In this case, one’s own behavior (acting a part) directly impacts, almost
determines, the attitudes they will hold.

Question 193

Cognitive dissonance theory:

Answer 193

A state of unpleasant psychological tension experienced when one holds two attitudes or beliefs that are in conflict with one another. A person is likely to ease the tension by changing their attitude or belief to remove the conflict. This case illustrates that our
behaviors are often in conflict with our attitudes.

Question 194

When is cognitive dissonance least likely to be expressed?

Answer 194

When a person:
• Holds the attitude as the result of personal experience
• Is an expert in the subject
• Frequently expresses the attitude
• Expects a favorable (i.e., positive) outcome
• Has a risk of gaining or losing something based on the outcome

Question 195

Learning theory of attitude change:

Answer 195

Attitudes can be changed by learning. This includes classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and observational learning.

Question 196

Dissonance theory of attitude change:

Answer 196

People change their attitudes because they feel cognitive dissonance, as a method to reduce that discomfort.

Question 197

The elaboration likelihood model:

Answer 197

how attitudes are formed and changed
and is often discussed in the context of persuading someone to change their attitudes about a
given situation. The Central route involves thoughtful
consideration of information that is being presented (Person must have an open mind). The peripheral route: can be used when the person who is
being persuaded has very little interest in the topic at hand. ( short lived)

Question 198

Characteristics model:

Answer 198

▪ Target = Person receiving/processing the message. Higher intelligence = Less likely to be persuaded by shallow or one-side messages, more likely to respond to reason and logic. Moderate self-esteem = Most likely to be persuaded. High/Low self-esteem = Less likely to be
persuaded. Mood and mind-frame of the target alters the likelihood of persuading them.
▪ Source = Person or source delivering the message. Attractiveness, expertise, and trustworthiness = Increased likelihood of persuading target. Credibility = Strong positive correlation with successful target persuasion.
▪ Message = The actual words, images, or other information presented to the target. Balance (presentation of both sides of an issue) = Increased likelihood of persuasion.
▪ Cognitive Routes = The nature of the approach to persuasion. Main Route = Presentation of data/information to target and asking them to change their mind after evaluating the information. Peripheral Route = Suggesting the target ignore data/information and decide based upon the reliability of the source (Celebrity endorsements utilize this approach)

Question 199

Self esteem:

Answer 199

Relatively stable and enduring, Answers the questions: “How do I feel about myself?”; “Why am I of worth?”

Question 200

Self image:

Answer 200

My mental picture of my own characteristics, ▪ Answers the questions: “How do I see myself?”; “How do others see me” (In ways I’ve internalized); “How do I perceive that others see me?”

Question 201

Self identity:

Answer 201

Those descriptive characteristics, qualities, and abilities that people use to define themselves. Answers the question: “Who do I think that I am?”

Question 202

Identity:

Answer 202

how I am defined by myself, by others, AND
in various situations: “I am a leader. I am a pre-med student. Answers the questions: “Who am I?”; “Who am I in various social roles or settings?”

Question 203

Self Schemas:

Answer 203

A pre-existing, organized pattern of thought (i.e., cognitive framework) about oneself that is used to categorize or process information. my cognitive framework about myself: “I am an athlete; therefore, I make friends who are also athletic.”
▪ Answers the questions: “What does this mean [based on my schemas]?” “How will I act [based on my schemas].”

Question 204

Self efficacy:

Answer 204

The strength of a person’s belief in their own abilities. self-evaluation of one’s ability: “I am confident I can accomplish anything.” ▪ Answers the question: “What am I capable of doing?”

Question 205

Self concept:

Answer 205

A collection of beliefs and self-perceptions about one’s own nature, unique qualities, and typical behavior. Self-Schemas + Self-Esteem + Self-Image + Self-Identity + Past Self + Present Self + Future Self. Is a collective mental picture of oneself.

Question 206

Kohlbergs theory of moral development:

Answer 206

1) Pre-conventional Morality (pre-adolescence) = Obedience, Self-Interest
2) Conventional Morality (adolescence to adulthood) = Conformity, Law and Order
3) Post-conventional Morality (adulthood, if achieved) = Social Contract, Universal Human
Ethics

Question 207

Erickson’s theory of psychosocial development:

Answer 207

1) Trust vs. Mistrust
2) Autonomy vs. Shame & Doubt
3) Initiative vs. Guilt
4) Industry vs. Inferiority
5) Identity vs. Role Confusion
6) Intimacy vs. Isolation
7) Generativity vs. Stagnation
8) Integrity vs. Despair

Question 208

Freuds’ theory of psychosexual developoment:

Answer 208

1) Oral
2) Anal
3) Phallic
4) Latency
5) Genital

Question 209

Social Identity:

Answer 209

A person’s sense of who they are based on the groups to which they belong.

Question 210

Social identity theory:

Answer 210

A theory suggesting that individuals derive significant pride and self esteem from their group memberships. As a result, individuals always strive to INCREASE the
status of the group to which they belong (i.e., their IN-GROUPS), and will discriminate and hold prejudices against other groups to which they do not belong (i.e., their OUT-GROUPS).

Question 211

Influence of individuals on identity formation:

Answer 211

▪ Imitation: Especially in children, modeling and imitation of others influences identity formation.
▪ Role-Taking = Adopting and acting out a particular social role. This could be as simple as a child playing “cops and robbers,” or the more complex types of
role-taking that help adults feel empathy for others (i.e., “put yourself in someone else’s shoes”).
▪ Looking-glass Self = A theory suggesting that a person’s self-concept is largely determined by how they believe others see them. From this perspective, the self is not a function of what we are, but what others think we are.

Question 212

Influence of groups on identity formation:

Answer 212

▪ GROUP MEMBERSHIP: One’s identity is tightly associated with the groups to which one belongs.
Religion, nationalism, and ethnicity all directly favor the creation of an identity that matches other members of one’s group.
▪ CULTURE AND SOCIALIZATION: The expectations and norms of one’s culture, along with the socialization processes to which one is subject, provide a strong driving force during identity formation. Certain identities may be encouraged, or discouraged by different cultures.
▪ Reference Group = Any group to which a person usually compares him or herself.

Question 213

Object permanence:

Answer 213

the cognitive ability associated with knowing that when an object/person is out of sight, it does not disappear from existence

Question 214

Cerebral cortex:

Answer 214

reasoning and problem solving

Question 215

Drive reduction theory:

Answer 215

Suggests that reducing unpleasant internal subjective feelings of stress and bolstering self esteem with a therapeutic intervention would reduce compulsive needs.

Question 216

Expectancy violation theory:

Answer 216

describes how we react when our expectations are violated.

Question 217

Weber’s law:

Answer 217

the just noticeable difference is a constant ratio of the stimulus.

Question 218

Social cognitive theory:

Answer 218

(or known as social learning theory), learning through observation and external factors.

Question 219

Psychoanalytical theory:

Answer 219

Focusses on childhood experiences and repressed desires

Question 220

Psychosocial development theorists:

Answer 220

Focus on developmental milestones and overall progression from less advanced states or cognitive abilities to more advanced states or cognitive abilities.

Question 221

Erickson’s theory of psychosocial development:

Answer 221

in childhood most individuals pass through a period of conflict between intimacy and isolation that must be resolved successfully. Associated with love, intimacy, and the forming of relationships.

Question 222

An emic approach:

Answer 222

one that takes the interpretations of situations by the individuals under study as matters of fact,

Question 223

Spreading activation:

Answer 223

The essential process to memory performance is the retrieval operation. It is proposed that the cognitive units form an interconnected network and that retrieval is performed by spreading activation throughout the network.

Question 224

Three parts of short term memory:

Answer 224

phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, which are both part of the central executive.

Question 225

Structural functionalism or functionalism theory:

Answer 225

sees society as being a complex system made up of
interdependent institutions that work together to promote stability and the status quo. Any change is seen as dysfunctional. Members of society have generally reached consensus on what is right and wrong, good and bad. Functionalists are interested in the social system as a whole, how it operates, how it changes, and the consequences produced.

Question 226

Conflict theory:

Answer 226

sees social life as characterized by inequality where groups and individuals compete for scarce resources. This results in various levels of wealth, power and prestige across society. Social inequality effects everyday interaction at the micro level and more macro
phenomena (race and ethnicity, social class, sexuality). This perspective is interested in how inequality is reproduced. Typically, those who are advantaged want to stay advantaged, whereas those disadvantaged continue to struggle to get more for them.

Question 227

Symbolic interactionism:

Answer 227

sees society as the product of everyday interactions among Individuals. Unlike functionalism and conflict theories that take a macro approach, symbolic interactionism is a micro level theory meaning that its focus is on social interaction in specific situations. It
focuses on three main principles:
1) Humans act toward things on the basis of the meanings they have for them
2) The meanings arise from the interactions with others.
3) The meanings are changed through interaction.

Question 228

Social constructionism:

Answer 228

is also known as phenomenology or phenomenological sociology. It is the study of human experience in everyday life. The theory is interested in how individuals
perceive, think and talk about social life. Central to the theory is the concept of the social construction of reality – how individuals assign meaning to perceptions and experiences through interaction. Consequences follow from the construction of reality. Another central concept is the life-world. This is the everyday routines and experiences that are taken for granted. These routines and experiences are the source of individual experiences and they help to shape groups and societies.

Question 229

Exchange theory:

Answer 229

explains that people act rationally to get what they need by exchanging goods and services with others. Relationships continue with others (or not) based on a simple calculation of rewards minus costs equal outcome. If the outcome is either neutral or positive,
meaning the individual gets more from the interaction that it costs, the relationship is likely to continue. If, however, the outcome is consistently negative, this theory predicts the relationship is likely to end as the relationship costs more than the individual benefits from it.

Question 230

Rational Choice theory:

Answer 230

sees all actions as fundamentally rational and people ascertain the costs and benefits of any action prior to acting. Actions are rationally motivated, despite appearing otherwise. It is related to social exchange theory including the same sort of cost benefit
analysis, but differs with its emphasis on the individual acting rationally

Question 231

George Herbert Mead: Symbolic interactionist that proposed I and Me. What are they?

Answer 231

“I” = The active, spontaneous, autonomous self

“me” = Socialized, sense of self is derived from others

Question 232

Difference between segregation and stratification in schools:

Answer 232

Segregation: separation based on race, socioeconomic status
Stratification: EX would be schools that have curriculum of stratified difficulty, or remedial vs normal classes

Question 233

Modernization:

Answer 233

A societal transformation away from a traditional, rural, agrarian society, and toward a secular, urban, industrial society.

Question 234

Secularization:

Answer 234

A societal transformation away from close identification with religious values or institutions, and toward non-religious, secular values or institutions.

Question 235

Fundamentalism:

Answer 235

Religious movements focused on “returning to” or “preserving” pure, original, or unchanged values, teachings or behaviors. This is often a direct reaction to social change, especially modernization and secularization.

Question 236

Medicalization:

Answer 236

The process by which all human illness, disability, discomfort, or related problems, are assumed to
have a medical or clinical cause and/or solution. Usually has a negative connotation.

Question 237

The “Medical Model” of understanding illness and disability:

Answer 237

sees the illness or impairment as the problem. The illness or disability is the target of cure and the individuals are the passive receivers of services. Diagnosis and treatment is the primary approach. Often these individuals receive more health care than they need, receiving one expensive diagnostic test after another

Question 238

The “Social Model” of understanding illness and disability:

Answer 238

sees the structures within a society as the problem. The ill or people with disability are active participants working in partnership with others. Prevention and integration rather than treatment is the primary
approach. The team approach is emphasized, shifting medical care from expensive medical specialists to less expensive nurse practitioners and physician assistants. This approach benefits everyone, pushing society to evolve.

Question 239

INcidence:

Answer 239

incidence is the number of newly diagnosed cases of a disease. An incidence rate is the number of new cases of a disease divided by the number of persons at risk for the disease.

Question 240

Prevelence:

Answer 240

Therefore, the number of prevalent cases is the total number of cases of disease existing in a population. A
prevalence rate is the total number of cases of a disease existing in a population divided by the
total population.

Question 241

Morbitity:

Answer 241

is another name for illness. (amount sick)

Question 242

Material vs Symbolic (Non-material) Culture:

Answer 242

Material: includes all of the physical artifacts created by members of society.
Symbolic: includes the ideas created by members of
society. Sociologists are principally interested in studying non-material culture. Symbols, language, norms, values and beliefs are all types of non-material culture.

Question 243

Culture Lag:

Answer 243

refers to the fact that some cultural elements change more quickly than others causing conflict with the cultural system. An example of this is the use of drones. The technology outpaced the public policy, resulting in
policymakers trying to play catch up in creating laws governing the use of these unmanned aerial vehicles

Question 244

Multi-Culturalism:

Answer 244

is a perspective recognizing the cultural diversity of the United States and promoting equal standing for all cultural traditions. This is in opposition to the concept of the melting pot, where everyone becomes like one another.

Question 245

Counterculture:

Answer 245

A secondary culture that is antagonistic toward mainstream culture and has the overt goal of changing it. Countercultures are often political in nature because they are focused on enacting change

Question 246

Cultural Transmission VS Cultural Diffussion:

Answer 246

Cultural Transmission: also known as cultural learning, is the way a group of people within a society or culture learns and passes on new information.
Cultural Diffusion: is the spread of cultural beliefs and social activities from one group to the next, like how we’ve picked up slang words from other languages.

Question 247

What is the factor that most directly drives human evolution?

Answer 247

CULTURAL CHANGE

Question 248

Gerontology:

Answer 248

The scientific study of the biological, psychological, and social aspects of aging.

Question 249

Age cohorts:

Answer 249

Generational segments of society that share common characteristics or life experiences because of the time period in which they were born: Baby Boomers, Gen-X,
Millennials, etc.

Question 250

Ageism:

Answer 250

stereotyping or discrimination based on one’s age

Question 251

Difference between sex and genter:

Answer 251

Sex is biological matter. Gender refers to the personal traits and social positions that members of a society attach to being male or female.

Question 252

Race:

Answer 252

NOT genetic or directly measurable. It is inferred or determined subjectively based on a certain set of phenotypic traits, such as facial features and skin color.

Question 253

Racialization:

Answer 253

ascribing a racial or ethnic identity to a group that does not self-identify as that race or ethnicity.

Question 254

Racial formation:

Answer 254

racial categories are not permanent or easily defined, but are constructed by various forces in history and society. Racial identities can be created, strengthened, and destroyed, and are always fluid

Question 255

Demographic shift:

Answer 255

a change in the makeup of a population over time as measured by demographic factors such as age, population size, diversity, etc.

Question 256

The Malthusian theory of Population:

Answer 256

was developed in response to a spike in the population
growth. Thomas Robert Malthus was an English economist who warned that unbridled population growth would lead to chaos. That we’d grow faster than food can grow so would overpopulate.

Question 257

Demographic transition: (name the 4 stages)

Answer 257

▪ Stage 1: Pre-industrial society; high fertility; high mortality.
▪ Stage 2: Still pre-industrial; Decreasing mortality as a result of societal improvements (e.g., sanitation, healthcare, nutrition).
▪ Stage 3: Shift from agricultural toward industrial; Decreasing fertility as a result of contraception, women’s rights, and smaller family size.
▪ Stage 4: Industrial society; low fertility; low mortality.

Question 258

Relative depraviation:

Answer 258

the experience of being deprived of something to which one feels entitled. It is said to be relative because it usually arises from comparing one’s own situation to
that of others and feeling that one has less than what one deserves. Is considered a potential cause of social movements anddeviance

Question 259

Globalization:

Answer 259

integration of individual economies and cultures into a more unified global economy and culture.

Question 260

Hyperglobalization perspective on globalization:

Answer 260

globalization is a major new epoch in human history,

national boundaries will be dissolved. CAUSE = economic logic of a global economy.

Question 261

Skeptical perspective on globalization;

Answer 261

current globalization is fragmented and regionalized. The peak of globalization occurred in the 19th century and nationalism is now on the rise. CAUSE = N/A,
because globalization isn’t really occurring—it is a myth.

Question 262

Transformationalist perspective on globalization:

Answer 262

globalization may be occurring, but the degree to

which it is, and its eventual outcomes is undetermined. CAUSE = no single cause is known.

Question 263

World System’s Theory:

Answer 263

Theory emphasizing a global inequality that is similar to the stratified inequality present in individual societies

Question 264

Urbanization:

Answer 264

The tendency of population to move away from rural or agricultural settings and be concentrated in urban settings—usually because of the lure of economic opportunity.

Question 265

Environmental Justice:

Answer 265

A state in which the benefits and burdens of interacting with the environment are equally distributed among all people independent of race, ethnicity or class.

Question 266

Cultural capital:

Answer 266

consists of ideas and knowledge people draw upon as they engage in social life. Examples of cultural capital include being able to speak in public to using
the correct utensils at the dinner table.

Question 267

Social Captial:

Answer 267

is the expected collective or economic benefits derived from the preferential treatment and cooperation between individuals and groups. An example of social capital is the individual who belongs to a fraternity or sorority and upon graduation is hired by an alumnus from the same fraternity or sorority

Question 268

Social Reproduction:

Answer 268

is the process through which entire societies and their cultural, structural and ecological characteristics are reproduced

Question 269

Intergenerational VS Intragenerational Social Mobility:

Answer 269

• Intergenerational = change in social class by one or more members of a family between generations.
• Intragenerational = change in social class by an individual within their lifespan

Question 270

Vertical vs Horizontal mobility:

Answer 270

• Vertical = a change in social status or class (e.g., poor individual marries into a rich family).
• Horizontal = a change in position within a class that does not result in a change in social status (e.g., a working-class man gets a new job with a small pay raise; the job comes with no new status or significant increase in wealth).

Question 271

Relative vs Absolute Poverty:

Answer 271

• Relative = low income compared to other individuals.
• Absolute = income too low to provide life necessities, persisting for a period long enough to cause harm or endanger life.

Question 272

The Neighborhood effect:

Answer 272

Segregation of the elderly, disabled, minorities, or the
poverty-stricken into neighborhoods or housing projects can lead to social exclusion and even social isolation—an extreme case where a person has no contact, or nearly no contact, with society.

Question 273

Frontal Lobe:

Answer 273

Conscious movement (motor cortex), executive functions, language [1] (Broca’s area), reasoning, judgment, problem-solving, etc

Question 274

Parietal Lobe:

Answer 274

Tactile sensation, spatial reasoning, some language [2]

Question 275

Occipital lobe:

Answer 275

Vision (primary visual cortex)

Question 276

Cerebral cortex:

Answer 276

Executive functions, complex perception

and cognition

Question 277

Thalamus:

Answer 277

Consciousness (sleep/wake), relay

between subcortical areas and cerebrum

Question 278

Hypothalamus:

Answer 278

Hunger, thirst, emotion (2°); major endocrine f(x) via releasing hormones to the pituitary gland

Question 279

Limbic system:

Answer 279

Emotion (1°), memory

Question 280

Basal Ganglia:

Answer 280

Voluntary motor control, procedural memory

Question 281

Superior Colliculi:

Answer 281

Visual motor reflexes

Question 282

Inferior Colliculi:

Answer 282

Auditory center, hearing reflexes

Question 283

Medulla Oblongata:

Answer 283

Breathing, heart rate, digestion

Question 284

Pons:

Answer 284

Sensory and motor tracts between the medulla and the cortex

Question 285

Cerebellum:

Answer 285

Balance, refined motor movements

Question 286

Reticular Formation:

Answer 286

States of consciousness (sleep  wake)

Question 287

Spinal Cord:

Answer 287

Reflexes, bundled tracts to and from

peripheral nervous system

Question 288

Pineal Gland (forebrain):

Answer 288

= Secretes melatonin, regulates sleep, receives input from retina regarding circadian rhythms.

Question 289

Amygdala: (forebrain, lymbic system)

Answer 289

Emotion, motivation, implicit emotional memory

Question 290

Hippocampus;

Answer 290

Memory consolidation (short-term  long-term)
and explicit emotional memory.

Question 291

Posterior Pituitary:

Answer 291

Secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH: a.k.a., vasopressin)

and oxytocin.

Question 292

Anterior Pituitary:

Answer 292

Secretes FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin and GH

mnemonic: FLAT PiG

Question 293

Acetocholine:

Answer 293

found in both the CNS and the PNS. In the CNS, acetylcholine is involved in arousal and attention. Depletion of acetylcholine centrally is associated with the memory deficits that characterize Alzheimer’s disease. In the PNS, acetylcholine is the primary
neurotransmitter of the neuromuscular junction and is also found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Question 294

Epinephrine (AKA Adrenaline)

Answer 294

is found primarily in the PNS and is associated with the stress response elicited by activation of the
sympathetic nervous system

Question 295

Norepinephrine:

Answer 295

is found in both the CNS and PNS. Centrally, norepinephrine is associated with attention and emotional processing. Anxiety disorders and depression are associated with decreased norepinephrine activity. Peripherally, norepinephrine contributes to the stress response associated with activity of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

Question 296

Dopamine:

Answer 296

is found in the CNS and is associated with
sensorimotor integration and in reward processing. Parkinson’s disease, Tourette’s syndrome, Huntington’s chorea, and Schizophrenia are all associated with abnormal activity in the dopamine system.

Question 297

Serotonin:

Answer 297

is found in the CNS and is associated with the homeostatic regulation of sleep and appetite. Serotonin is also involved in regulation of mood. Lowered
serotonin levels are associated with depression.

Question 298

GABA:

Answer 298

is the chief inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS.

Question 299

Neurotransmitters VS Neuropeptides:

Answer 299

neurotransmitters = faster, shorter-lived effects; neuropeptides= slower, longer-lasting effects.

Question 300

Innate behavior:

Answer 300

Behavior thought to be predominantly genetic and present regardless of environmental influences

Question 301

Learned behavior:

Answer 301

Behaviors thought to be predominantly environmental (i.e., learned via experience), and independent of heredity.

Question 302

Adaptive value:

Answer 302

The degree to which a behavior increases evolutionary fitness

Question 303

Twin Studies: Monozygotic:

Answer 303

Genetic influence is CONTROLLED (same); Studies examine twins raised in different homes so that environmental influence is VARIABLE (different)

Question 304

Twin Studies: Dizygotic:

Answer 304

Genetic influence is VARIABLE (different); Studies examine twins in the same home, so that environmental influence is CONTROLLED (same)

Question 305

Regulatory genes:

Answer 305

: Regulatory genes are genes that code for a substance that regulates the transcription of another gene (up or down, promotion or inhibition).

Question 306

Familial concordance:

Answer 306

Behaviors shown to run in families or be more frequent among children of parents with that behavioral trait.

Question 307

Borderline personality disorder:

Answer 307

Characterized by pervasive instability in interpersonal
relationships, self-image, and behavior. This instability often disrupts the individual’s sense of self-identity and leads to extreme fears of abandonment.

Question 308

Difference between OCD and OCPD:

Answer 308

OCD does it to alleviate anxiety, is more of a way of dealing with the challenges of life they expect perfection in all of their things.

Question 309

Biological markers of schizophrenia:

Answer 309

▪ Strongly associated with increased dopamine levels in the brain.

Question 310

Biological markers of depression:

Answer 310

Decreased monoamine levels in the brain (i.e., the neurotransmitters: serotonin, dopamine, and
norepinephrine). Increased cortisol level and glucose metabolism in the amygdala.

Question 311

Biological markers of bipolar disorder:

Answer 311

Increased monoamine levels in the brain

Question 312

Biological markers of Parkinson’s disease:

Answer 312

Parkinson’s is a neurodegenerative disease
characterized by slow, halting movements, tremors, muscle rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Dementia
and language difficulties are common, but not always present.
▪ Decreased stimulation of the motor cortex by the basal ganglia due to a decrease in dopamine
production by the substantia nigra

Question 313

Sigmund Freud ID

Answer 313

 100% UNCONSCIOUS
 Responsible for all instinctive and primitive behaviors.
 The only one of the three components present from birth.
 Primary or most important component of personality, the “source of all psychic energy.”

Question 314

THe primary process of the personality’s “ID”

Answer 314

would be a way that the id deals with the frustration of delayed gratification because it serves as a memory of the object needed for gratification until the gratification could actually be realized.

Question 315

Wish fulfillment:

Answer 315

As the ego and superego come online and actively suppress some of the id’s demands, a person
might experience dreams that serve as wish-fulfillment. Denied its demands, the id seeks to satisfy them through unconscious thought processes.

Question 316

Libido:

Answer 316

The “psychic energy” created by the survival and sexual instincts. It is part of the Id, and was considered by Freud to be the driving influence of all behavior.

Question 317

Freud’s EGO:

Answer 317

 Operates in the conscious, PRE-conscious and UNCONSCIOUS realms.
 Responsible for helping the desires of the Id to be realized in a way acceptable in reallife scenarios. Also helps balance the perfectionist tendencies of the Superego.
 NOT present at birth; develops from the Id

Question 318

Secondary Process:

Answer 318

is the ego’s attempt to satisfy the demands that are represented by the primary process.

Question 319

Reality principle of the EGO:

Answer 319

Because the id’s demands would often be inappropriate, the ego operates on the reality principle to delay the id’s gratification until a more appropriate time.

Question 320

Freud’s SUPEREGO:

Answer 320

 Operates in the conscious, PRE-conscious and UNCONSCIOUS realms.
 Responsible for judging action based on internalized moral standards obtained from parents and society. Often called the “perfectionist” portion of Freud’s personality theory. Further suppresses impulses of the Id and influences the Ego to be more idealistic than realistic.
 Develops around age five

Question 321

Displacement (defense mechanism)

Answer 321

involves diverting unacceptable feelings onto someone or something other than their source. For example, a child who is angry at her parents for disciplining her may bite her little sister

Question 322

Sublimation: (defense mechanism)

Answer 322

involves channeling unacceptable thoughts or urges into something that is more acceptable. Sublimation might be used by artists who use some personal
tragedy to energize them to create a new work of art

Question 323

Reaction Formation (defense mechanism)

Answer 323

involves behaving in ways that are in direct contradiction to one’s true feelings. a teacher who resents a student yet bends over backwards to provide an unfair advantage to that student would be
using reaction formation as an ego defense mechanism

Question 324

Jung’s view of the personal Unconcious:

Answer 324

those parts of our minds that we are not consciously
aware of but that affect our behavior and can be revealed to us in our dreams. In this way, Jung’s view of the personal unconscious was very similar to Freud’s ideas about the unconscious mind.

Question 325

Jung’s view of the collective unconcious:

Answer 325

the portion of the unconscious mind that is inherited and contains universal themes through all of our lives. The personal unconscious is what allows us
to be creative and original in our thoughts.

Question 326

Jung’s Archetypes:

Answer 326

Unique to Jung, nothing comparable from Freud. Images and thoughts that have universal meaning across cultures. Perhaps arising from our shared ancestral past.
 Persona-is how one presents themselves to the world and is often represented by the symbol of a mask.
 Anima: represents the female in a male
 Animus: represents the male in a female
 Shadow (similar to Freud’s Id): an archetype that embodies uncertainty and danger and it is often alluring in some way

Question 327

Jung’s 8 cognitive processes: (personalities)

Answer 327

 Extroverted-Sensing, Introverted-Sensing
 Extroverted-Intuiting, Introverted-Intuiting
 Extroverted-Thinking, Introverted-Thinking
 Extroverted-Feeling, Introverted-Feeling
**Basis for Myers-Briggs Type Inventory test, (personality test)

Question 328

Humanistic personality theories:

Answer 328

: Personality consists of the conscious feelings we have for ourselves as we strive to reach our individual needs and goals (i.e., self-actualization). Fundamental to humanism is the idea that people are inherently good.

Question 329

Psychoanalytic vs Humanistic perspectives:

Answer 329

• THINK of Psychoanalytic as: Psychoanalytic = Patients are “sick”, repressed, or have other troubles in need of treatment. A person is DEFINED by their neuroses.
• THINK of Humanistic as: Humanistic = How healthy individuals strive toward selfrealization; HOLISTIC view of the person, as more than the sum of their neuroses.

Question 330

MAX WERTHEIMER: Gestalt Therapy

Answer 330

A humanist approach to therapy emphasizing the
treatment of the individual as a whole, rather than reducing the person to a sum of their individual behaviors, drives, or neuroses.

Question 331

KURT LEWIN: Field Theory

Answer 331

Focuses on the state-of-mind of the patient as the sum of interactions between their individual personality and the “total field” (environment).

Question 332

GEORGE KELLY: Personal Construct Theory:

Answer 332

Personality is composed of the various mental constructs through which each person views reality.

Question 333

Carl Rogers: Client centered therapy:

Answer 333

In CCT, therapists should not direct the therapy or offer
solutions. This is a MAJOR DEPARTURE from psychoanalysis, in which the therapist actively drives the interpretation of patient behaviors, dreams, etc. In CCT, the client directs the discussion. Further, the therapist must always be empathetic, genuine and show
unconditional positive regard for the client, regardless of circumstance.

Question 334

Trait personality theories:

Answer 334

Personality is the sum of broad, relatively-stable characteristics or dispositions, called traits. More focused on unique differences between individuals, whereas psychoanalytic or humanistic perspectives focus more on commonalities among all people

Question 335

Type theorist view: (of personality)

Answer 335

Personality characteristics exist as discrete, fixed

categories. Most people will fit into one category or another (e.g., Introverts and extroverts are two types of people).

Question 336

Trait theorist view: (of personality)

Answer 336

Personality characteristics are part of a larger continuum of personality (e.g., Introversion and extroversion are traits describing one’s position along a
continuum. Individuals can be at either end, or anywhere in the middle).

Question 337

Five factor model of personality:

Answer 337

 Openness to Experience
 Conscientiousness
 Agreeableness
 Extraversion
 Neuroticism

Question 338

Social cognitive personlity theories:

Answer 338

Personality is the result of observational learning, self efficacy, situational influences and cognitive processes.

Question 339

Albert Bandura’s (ex of social cognitive theory) reciprocal determination:

Answer 339

An individual, their behavior, AND their environment interact, rather than the environment exclusively influencing behavior. This suggests that individuals
can mold the environment that influences their development.

Question 340

Biological personality theory:

Answer 340

Personality is predominantly the result of the expression of genes. Personality traits are the result of heritable biological characteristics.

Question 341

Behavioral personality theory:

Answer 341

Personality is the sum of those behaviors that have been reinforced over time.

Question 342

Situational personality theory:

Answer 342

Personality (and behavior generally) is the result of external, situational factors rather than internal traits or unconscious motivations.

Question 343

What is a PET scan used for?

Answer 343

mapping specific regions of the brain.

Question 344

3 components of emotion;

Answer 344

physiological arousal (how your body reacts to emotions, emotional information or stimuli), expressive displays (how you express your emotions), and subjective experiences (how you feel and interpret your emotions, which is extremely personal and subjective).

Question 345

The stroop effect;

Answer 345

The Stroop effect describes the phenomenon in which it is harder for an individual to reconcile different pieces of information relating to colors than to reconcile similar pieces of information.

Question 346

Iconic memory:

Answer 346

Visual sensory memory that is incredibly short lived, believed to last for only a few milliseconds.

Question 347

What does “ quasi” mean?

Answer 347

Usually referencing the lack of randomness in a study.

Question 348

Continuity theory of aging:

Answer 348

States that older adults will usually maintain the same activities, behaviors, personality traits, and relationships as they did in earlier phases of life.

Question 349

Stereo blindness:

Answer 349

The inability to use retinal disparity as a cue for seeing depth.

Question 350

What is second shift?

Answer 350

the tendency of employed women to do a substantial amount of household chores that may account for up to a full second shift of work

Question 351

Self Reference effect:

Answer 351

The tendency of persons to encode and recall information more efectively when the information has more relevence to themselves personally

Question 352

World systems theory:

Answer 352

There are significant economic and social differences across countries based on their economic abilities and global positioning.

Question 353

Rumination:

Answer 353

continuously thinking about or replaying in ones mind aspects of a situation that are upsetting. Thought to maintain negative emotions and lead to depressive symptoms.