PHRM MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

What is an antibacterial?

A

A substance that destroys bacteria or suppresses bacterial growth or reproduction

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2
Q

What is a microbial?

A

Substances that destroy microorganisms and suppress microbial growth or reproduction

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3
Q

What is the difference between an antimicrobial and an antibiotic?

A

Antibiotics are produced naturally (e.g. from mould). Antimicrobials may be produced from synthetic or biological material

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4
Q

What is antimicrobial resistance? (AMR)

A

AMR is a microorganisms ability to grow and reproduce or to survive exposure to an antimicrobial.

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5
Q

When does AMR occur?

A

It occurs when an antimicrobial that was previously effective is no longer effective. AMR is exaberated by human factors e.g. too much antimicrobial use.

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6
Q

What is antimicrobial stewardship?

A

A systematic approach to optimising antimicrobial therapy.

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7
Q

What are bacteria?

A

One of the major groups of microoraganisms, some of which can infect and cause disease in humans and animals.

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8
Q

What are Critically Important Antimicrobials?

A

Last resort antimicrobials for human infection

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9
Q

What is empiric treatment?

A

Treatment given without confirmation of the cause of disease and based on clinical judgement.

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10
Q

What are microorganisms or microbes?

A

Microscopic living organisms e.g. bacteria, viruses, protozoa, parasites, some fungi.

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11
Q

What is One Health?

A

A concept that recognises that the health of people is connected to the health of animals

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12
Q

What is susceptibility testing?

A

Used to determine if a microorganism is susceptible or not to a selection of antimicrobial agents

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13
Q

Abbreviation: AHI

A

Animal Health Ireland

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14
Q

Abbreviation: AMS

A

Antimicrobial stewardship

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15
Q

Abbreviation: AMR

A

Antimicrobial resistance

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16
Q

Abbreviation: AMU

A

Antimicrobial use

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17
Q

Abbreviation: BSI

A

Bloodstream infection

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18
Q

Abbreviation: CIDR

A

Computerised infectious disease reporting

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19
Q

Abbreviation: DDD

A

Defined daily dose

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20
Q

Abbreviation: DoH

A

Dept. of health

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21
Q

Abbreviation: EARS-Net

A

European antimicrobial resistance surveillance network

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22
Q

Abbreviation: FAO

A

Food and agriculture organisation

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23
Q

Abbreviation: HCAI

A

Healthcare assocaited infection

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24
Q

Abbreviation: HPRA

A

Health products regulatory authority

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25
Q

Abbreviation: ID

A

Infectious disease

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26
Q

Abbreviation: MDR

A

Multi drug resistance

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27
Q

Abbreviation: MDRO

A

Multi drug resistance organism

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28
Q

Abbreviation: OIE

A

World organisation for animal health

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29
Q

Abbreviation: PVP

A

Private veterinary practitioner

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30
Q

Abbreviation: RVL

A

Regional veterinary laboratory

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31
Q

Is penicillin more commonly used in humans or animals?

A

Humans

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32
Q

What is the most common causative pathogen of BSI in humans?

A

E.coli

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33
Q

Name two types of zoonotic bacteria

A

Salmonella

Campylobacter

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34
Q

Abbreviation: iNAP

A

Ireland’s National Action Plan

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35
Q

Where does Ireland rank in terms of antimicrobial use in animals?

A

17th / 30 (2016)

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36
Q

How long have antimicrobials been in use for animals?

A

since 1950s

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37
Q

Why is AMU in animals of concern to humans?

A

Passed on through consumption of products, contact with treated animals, the environment. This can affect effective treatment of infections in humans.

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38
Q

What is the role of the HPRA?

A

Approve veterinary drugs. Gather information nationally on the consumption of veterinary antimicrobial drugs

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39
Q

Where does Salmonella live?

A

In the GI tract of domestic and wild animals

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40
Q

How is Salmonella transmitted?

A

Direct contact with infected animals or humans, contact with faecally contaminated environments, ingestion of faecally contaminated food or beverages.

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41
Q

Are E.coli normally found in the body?

A

Yes, in the gut flora of healthy animals

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42
Q

What are Carbapenems?

A

Antimicrobials licensed exclusively for humans

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43
Q

Are tetracyclines more commonly used in humans or animals?

A

Animals

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44
Q

What drug classes are used in veterinary?

A

Usually older drug classes compared with human medicine. 88% are from classes such as penicillins and tetracyclines.

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45
Q

List 7 risk factors for the development of AMR

A

Too low dosage, too short duration, too long duration, too often, blanket measure in an untargeted manner, treatment of bacteria that are not susceptible to antibiotics, treatment of diseases caused by viruses or other germs not susceptible to antibiotics.

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46
Q

Abbreviation: EMA

A

European Medicines Agency

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47
Q

Who publishes advice regarding antibiotics?

A

HPRA

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48
Q

What does the European Surveillance of Veterinary Antimicrobial Consumption (ESVAC) do?

A

Gathers information on the consumption of antimicrobial drugs for veterinary use anually

49
Q

Explain AMR

A

Once bacteria becomes resistant, antimicrobials are no longer effective, meaning they can no longer help to control or treat diseases.

50
Q

Why should we prevent AMR?

A

To ensure the efficacy of antimicrobials is preserved.

51
Q

Abbreviation: MRL

A

Maximum residue limit

52
Q

What is a residue?

A

The small amount of agricultural and veterinary chemicals, or their breakdown products, that remain in or on an agricultural product. Can be described as a contaminant if it causes health, safety, or cleanliness concerns.

53
Q

Give some examples of residues

A

Antibiotics, anthelmintics, fungicides, fumigants, hormonal growth promotants

54
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

Medicines that have anti-bacterial properties

55
Q

When might AMR be suspected?

A

When an AM appears to have failed to work

56
Q

When should a vet report a lack of efficacy and who to?

A

When an AM appears to have failed. Report to HPRA or to company responsible for marketing the product.

57
Q

What factors will a vet assess before prescribing AM to dairy cows? (6)

A

previous culture results and antibiotic responses on the farm
claimed cure rate of product for existing infections, claimed period of protection for new infections
required minimum dry period milk withdrawl periods
option of using a combination of tea sealer and antibiotic dry cow treatment.

58
Q

When can a product be used off-label?

A

By veterinarians only in specific circumstances

59
Q

What should farmers be aware of when using AM in dairy cows?

A

Cow must be clearly marked so milk is not used for human consumption, adhere to withdrawl periods, may interact with other drugs e.g. steroids which can affect withdrawl period, some have a long withdrawl period (gentamicin = 214 days for meat), can transfer AMR to calves, dispose of in slurry tank!

60
Q

Why must sheep dips be diluted?

A

They are concentrated chemicals that are hazardous to farmers.

61
Q

What is the only authorised way to administer a sheep dip in Ireland?

A

Plunge dipping baths

62
Q

Why should sheep baths be calibrated?

A

To ensure operator uses correct quantity of dip concentrate

63
Q

How can a farmer protect themselves when using sheep dip?

A

Proper planning
good dipping facility design
PPE e.g. rubber gloves, wellington boots, apron, waterproof trousers or leggings, face shield.

64
Q

Why is there a limit of veterinary medicines in Ireland?

A

Small market size

65
Q

List 5 aims of the European Commisions proposal to regulate veterinary medicines

A
Increase availability
reduce administrative burden
stimulate competetiveness and innovation
improve function of internal market
address AMR
66
Q

How does the HPRA improve veterinary medicine availability

A

Enable companies to have common packaging
Medicines with limited but important use and no alternative are termed service items- a fee category at a fraction of the cost

67
Q

What is the temperature requirement for heat-sensitive medicines e.g. vaccines

A

2-8 degrees celcius

68
Q

Why is proper storage important

A

stability can be affected by adverse storage conditions which may impair product quality, safety or efficacy.

69
Q

What should you do when you receive a heat-sensitive medicine?

A

Verify conditions have been met by supplier.

Put in fridge.

70
Q

How to monitor heat-sensitive medicine?

A

Identify hot/cold spots in fridge
No contact with water, moisture or ice
Back up plan if fridge fails
Monitor temperature with logger

71
Q

Why has worm resistance developed in sheep?

A

Worming sheep year on year with wormers that contain chemicals of the same chemical class. Out of date system. Practice of treating all sheep in a farm at the same time with the same wormer.

72
Q

3 signs of worm resistance in sheep

A

Live weight gain is failing year on year, individual animals failing to thrive despite nutrition and no disease, animals scour even with treatment

73
Q

Explain worm resistance

A

Once worms are killed in the sheep, they can no longer shed eggs. This means coast is clear for eggs from resistant worms to take over. The resistant worms lay eggs that contain the genes coding for resistance to the class of wormer being used.

74
Q

List 4 ways to prevent worm resistance

A

Targeted treatment
Biosecurity measures (eg quarantine)
Monitoring health and production of flock
Managing pasture

75
Q

How does the HPRA help in choosing an appropriate wormer?

A

Labelling chemical class. There are 5 chemical groups.

76
Q

Abbreviation: SCOPS

A

Sustainable control of parasites in sheep

77
Q

List ways to prevent worm resistance

A
Only treat affected animals.
Use appropriate chemical class.
Weigh animals to ensure correct dose.
Rotate chemical classes.
Monitor productivity of flock.
78
Q

What is effective protocol for introducing new sheep?

A

Worm them and leave them to stand for 24 hours in a concrete stall. Use a newer-class wormer.

79
Q

Abbreviation: o.d.

A

once daily

80
Q

Abbreviation: s.i.d.

A

once daily

81
Q

Abbreviation: b.d. or b.i.d

A

twice daily

82
Q

Abbreviation: t.i.d.

A

three times daily

83
Q

Abbreviation: t.d.s.

A

three times daily

84
Q

Abbreviation: q.i.d

A

four times daily

85
Q

Abbreviation: e.o.d.

A

every other day

86
Q

Abbreviation: q12h

A

every 12 hours

87
Q

Abbreviation: cap.

A

capsule

88
Q

Abbreviation: susp.

A

suspension

89
Q

Abbreviation: tab.

A

tablet

90
Q

Abbreviation: ng

A

nanograms

91
Q

Abbreviation: µg

A

micrograms

92
Q

Which is larger, a nanogram or a microgram?

A

Nanogram

93
Q

When can a repeat prescription be given out?

A

When the prescription specifically states that it is acceptable

94
Q

What is an acceptable time between consultations on an animal’s records for repeat prescriptions?

A

About 3 months, but varies!

95
Q

Abbreviation: MA

A

marketing authority

96
Q

What must all authorised products display?

A

A VM or EU code

97
Q

Abbreviation: VMP

A

Veterinary Medicinal Products

98
Q

What are the 6 categories of authorised veterinary medicines?

A
VPO-1 : veterinary practioner only
Prescription only: POM
Prescription only exempt: POM(E)
Pharmacy only: PS
Licensed merchant: LS
Companion animal medicines: CAM
99
Q

Who can dispense a VPO?

A

can only be sold or supplied by a vet

100
Q

Who can dispense POM?

A

A pharmacist

101
Q

Who can dispense POM(E)?

A

May be sold by a pharmacy but sale must be personally made by a pharmacist

102
Q

Who can dispense PS?

A

Pharmacy only

103
Q

Who can dispense LM?

A

From a pharmacy, without prescription, under supervision of a pharmacist. Also available from places like co-ops.

104
Q

Who can dispense CAM?

A

Pharmacies under supervision of pharmacist, pet shops

105
Q

What is the cascade system?

A

Prescription of human drugs for animals where there is no alternative

106
Q

What is a Schedule 1 drug?

A

Little or no therapeutic value, e.g. cannabis

107
Q

What is a Schedule 2 drug?

A

Much therapeutic value but highly addictive e.g. fentanyl

108
Q

What is a Schedule 3 drug?

A

records required eg. ketamine

109
Q

What is a Schedule 4 drug?

A

-pam or -lam drugs e.g. diazepam

110
Q

What is a Schedule 4 part 2 drug?

A

anti-epileptics e.g. phenobarbitone

111
Q

What is a Schedule 5 drug?

A

low strength preparations e.g. paracetamol. No CD requirements except keep invoice 2 years.

112
Q

What schedule is Ketamine?

A

Schedule 3 in Ireland, 2 in Northern ireland

113
Q

What schedule is buprenorphine?

A

2 in ireland, 3 in UK

114
Q

What must be included in the controlled drugs register?

A

Details regarding dispensing and purchasing

115
Q

What drug is commonly dispensed to cats to administer at home?

A

Transmucosal buprenorphine

116
Q

What is a side effect?

A

An expected but unwanted effect of normal drug therapy

117
Q

What is an adverse reaction?

A

And undesired occurrence that results from taking medication correctly.

118
Q

What is pharmacovigilance?

A

A monitoring system based on reports of suspected adverse reactions