Philosophy of Mind Flashcards
What is meant by a mind?
The element in an individual which gives the ability to think and feel, it’s the faculty of consciousness and thought
What is meant by phenomenal properties ?
is the quality within a mental state that refers to what it actually feels like to experience something
What is the definition of qualia?
is an intrinsic and non-intentional phenomenal property that is introspectively accessible
What is meant by an intentional property?
mental representations about contents outside of the mind. Intentionality points to a relationship the mental state has to something beyond the mind. For example, when we have the mental state of desire, we are desiring something in the material world – the world outside of our minds
What is the definition of Substance dualism?
The belief that minds exists and cannot be reduced down to our bodies
What are the two substances present in substance dualism?
The physical – the material part of us. It has location, it is tangible, extendable, etc.
The mental – relating to the mind. It isn’t material; it is thought.
What is the indivisibility argument for substance dualism?
P1: all physical objects are divisible as I can imagine them being divided up further, no matter how small the object gets. For example, cutting an apple into segments.
P2: Minds / mental states are not divisible because I cannot imagine them being divided. For example, dividing the mental state of hope.
P3: two things cannot be identical if they do not share all the same properties – Leibniz’s indiscernibility of identical law.
C1: Therefore, the mind and body cannot be the same thing, as they do not share the property of divisibility.
What is the criticism to the indivisibility argument, stating the mental is in fact divisible?
Some philosophers believe the mind is best understood as a bundle of mental events (like perception, memories, emotions) and we can divide these qualities into categories. Therefore, the mind has been divided in some sense. Secondly, some parts of our mind are not available to us in the same sense other parts are (Like subconscious thought) therefore we can imagine it being divided through this line of reason also.
What is the response to this criticism?
How is this countered?
we mustn’t mistake properties of the mind as its ability to be divided. The mind does not have location in the same sense physical objects do. So, although we may be able to loosely place certain mental states into categories, we cannot imagine breaking off one of these categories from the concept of the mind itself. For example, breaking off perception from the rest of the mind. It appears they are all so tightly connected and interlinked, that we still cannot truly conceive of the mind being divided, even when we do imagine these different categories, as these categories cross into other categories and they are reliant on one another to build the concept of the mind itself.
yet if we have been able to identify different properties, it is a leap to assume that this process could not go any further and be able to conceive more clearly of the mind being divided in the future. In actual fact, the only reason why we cannot conceive of the mind being divided as clearly as we’d like, is most of us are uncertain of what we are even meant to be thinking of when we think of “a mind”. If we had more clarity on what a mind was, it may be easier to conceive of its divisibility clearer.
What is the criticism to the indivisibility argument, stating not everything physical is divisible?
Physical objects on face value seem easy to divide, yet once we imagine them in motion/in activity, we cannot conceive of its divisibility. For example, someone throwing a punch. The punch is entirely physical in its nature. Yet it is not clear how to divide a punch into parts/segments. Therefore, it seems there are in fact ways of talking about the physical world where it is not clear that division is possible.
What is the response to this criticism?
There are ways we can conceive of a physical object in action being divided. For example, the speed and force of the punch. It also remains true that we can still imagine the physical object in action being divided regardless of whether in activity or not.
What is the conceivability argument for substance dualism?
P1: I can clearly and distinctly conceive of my mind existing without my extended body
P2: anything that is conceivable is metaphysically possible
^Therefore it is metaphysically possible for my mind to exist without my body
P3: if it is metaphysically possible for two things to exist without one another, then those two things cannot be identical – due to Leibniz’s indiscernibility of identical law
C1: Therefore, my mind is not identical to my extended body
C2: Therefore, there are two types of substances
What is the criticism to the conceivability argument, stating a mind without a body isn’t truly conceivable?
When we imagine a mind without a body, it still appears to be doing physical things, that would still require a body. Even a disembodied mind appears to have location and take a certain perspective and be able to take in physical information (like sound waves, light waves, etc). All of which seems to require a physical body. Thus, we’re actually just imagining a body with different restrictions and limitations than our current body – yet a body, nevertheless.
What is the response to this criticism?
Just because the thing we’re imagining leaving the body has some body-like properties (like location) doesn’t mean that it is a body itself. It also has non-body like properties, like not being subject to gravity. The mind in reality is a very complex concept, and it shouldn’t come as a surprise that it may share some qualities with different multiple concepts.
What is the criticism to the conceivability argument, stating what is conceivable may not be metaphysically possible ?
Conceivability (especially in areas we are not cot absolutely clear in our thinking) is not a sure guide to metaphysical possibility. For example, if you’re not fully comfortable with the theory of Pythagoras theorem, then it seems possible to conceive of mathematical truths that go against this theorem. Yet the underlying truth behind Pythagoras theorem remains, despite how we may conceive it. Thus, if we don’t know something for certain, we may conceive of stuff differently – showing how conceivability is not a good guide to possibility.
What is this criticism response?
What is its counter-response?
this counter example shows a case of ignorance tainting conceivability. conceivability remains a good guide to metaphysical possibility when we use the tool correctly. Modern philosopher David Chalmers draws the distinction between “prima facie” conceivability which is conceivability without much rational reflection and “ideal” conceivability – conceivability with ideal rational reflection. If we were to rationally reflect on what we we’re conceiving, then we’d realize we don’t know enough about Pythagoras theorem to trust such conception. If this is a case of ideal conceivability, then issues that arise in cases of prima facie conceivability are not relevant to it.
yet sometimes we feel like we have clarity, or we feel justified in our rational reflection, yet it still turns out we were wrong. In this case we are not ignorant as we have done all the rational reflection we can, we’re just simply wrong regarding what we we’re conceiving. Thus, it is hard to weigh up or measure ignorance in order to justify using conceivability as a tool t metaphysical possibility, therefore we cannot rely on this distinction made by Chalmers.
What is the criticism to the conceivability argument, stating what is metaphysically possible tells us nothing about the actual world?
Something maybe metaphysically possible in this world and yet not tell us anything more about reality. for example, it is metaphysically possible that I could be American, yet this tells us nothing about reality, as I’m actually British.
Descartes argument relies on the conceivability argument – stating what is conceivable is metaphysically possible. Yet we can conceive of lots of truths that would contradict substance dualism. For example, “the mind and the body are identical” is conceivable. So, under Descartes own premise of conceivability, we can use it to equally justify alternative theories, like physicalism. If both dualism and physicalism pass the test of conceivability, we are no closer to knowing which one is the true theory. Thus, his argument only supports the possibility of dualism, nothing else.
What is this criticisms response?
David Chalmers draws the distinction between negative and positive conceivability. Something is negatively conceivable if it does not entail a contradiction, yet positively conceivable if it involves picturing a scenario using “modal imagination”. He states negative conceivability is more binding on metaphysical truths. In this sense, we may argue that given Descartes previous indivisibility argument and conceivability argument, he has given enough proof to show how his methods are not mere modal imaginations, as it remains true that the mind and the body do seem to have different properties, so we cannot rule off substance dualism under this criticism alone.
What is property dualism?
There are at least some mental properties that are not reducible nor reliant on physical matter.
How is property dualism different to substance dualism?
substance dualism states there are non-physical substances out in the world. Whereas property dualism states there aren’t any non-physical substances, instead there are non-physical properties of physical things.
What is a philosophical zombie?
a being that is physically identical to a conscious being yet is not conscious themselves. They can emote and behave in the same way humans can. If they were to be ‘hurt’ they would respond in the same way a conscious being would, yet they don’t actually feel pain.
What is the philosophical zombie argument?
The philosophical zombie argument is an argument against physicalism and in favour for property dualism: the view that although there is only one substance (the physical), mental properties are not identical to physical properties.
If mental states were identical to physical properties, it would not be metaphysically possible for something with these physical properties to not have the mental states as well. The philosophical zombie shows how mental states cannot be deduced to physical properties.
P1: if phenomenal properties were identical to physical properties (physicalisms claim), then it would be metaphysically impossible for a being to have one without the other. The physical properties could not exist without the mental properties also existing.
P2: What is conceivable is metaphysically possible
P2: A philosophical zombie is conceivable, and thus possible
C1: phenomenal properties are therefore distinct from physical properties
C2: Property dualism must be true, as the two are distinct concepts
What is the criticism to the philosophical zombie argument, stating a philosophical zombie is not actually conceivable?
Consciousness / qualia appears to be a necessary condition for us to conceive of a being who can emote, respond, etc.
Thus when we are conceiving of this philosophical zombie, we are actually just ignoring all of the mental properties and mental states that must be present for this human.
Therefore, the philosophical zombie argument assumes that we can conceive of such reality in the first place. in reality, this appears impossible once we really dissect what it is were meant to be thinking of right now.
What is the response to this criticism?
However, now we are stuck in an awkward situation where some are claiming that they can conceive of such zombie, and some are claiming that they cant.
In order to sway the argument, we may look at the supporting evidence for either side.
There appears to be modern examples which we can use to better support the philosophical zombie argument as being conceivable.
For example: if modern AI were to be taken one step further. If an AI algorithm in a replica body were to exert all the same behaviours and characteristics as a human, then this would be an example of a lack of consciousness / qualia, and yet still identical physical behaviours / traits.
Therefore, it appears that such scenario is conceivable, as it is starting to happen in modern day science.
What is the criticism to the philosophical zombie argument, stating what is conceivable may not be metaphysically possible?
Conceivability (especially in areas we are not cot absolutely clear in our thinking) is not a sure guide to metaphysical possibility. For example, the masked man fallacy. Let’s imagine that a man who was wearing a mask robbed a bank. I conceived that it is not my father under the mask. Yet if it was actually my father, then it’s impossible for it to not had been my father. Yet this is contradictory to what I conceived – showing how we can conceive of the impossible. There is too big of a grey area between possibility and conceivability. Thus, if we don’t know something for certain, we may conceive of stuff differently – showing how conceivability is not a good guide to possibility.
What is the response to this criticism?
What is its counter response?
the masked man fallacy only shows how we can conceive of the impossible when under complete ignorance. Descartes would argue there is no room for ignorance when conceiving of our own mind, if we understand it clearly and distinctly. Clear and distinct ideas are reliable and therefore we can draw conclusions from conceivability, as we’re just using these reliable previous thoughts.
Descartes assumes here however, how the mind appears to the mind, is an accurate representation of the mind itself. Yet neuroscientific discoveries show how we are very ignorant of the state of our own mind – for example subconscious mental states, etc. Thus, when we conceive of our mind separate from our body, we maybe conceiving of the impossible, under ignorance, as we would no longer usually claim that we are fully aware of all of the contents of our minds, especially the drivers behind our choices, actions and feelings.
What is the criticism to the philosophical zombie argument, stating What is metaphysically possible tells us nothing about the actual world?
Even if Descartes shows how the mind being separate is conceivable and possible, we do not have to accept that this must be the case.
Something maybe metaphysically possible in this world, and yet still not tell us anything more about reality. For example, it is metaphysically possible that I could be American, yet this tells us nothing more about reality, as I’m actually British.
Equally, there are lots of possibilities in this world, that aren’t actually the case. Therefore, although a philosophical zombie maybe possible, it doesn’t tell us anything informative about THIS world.
It is possible minds are identical to the physical, and it is possible that they’re not - he has only shown metaphysical possibility; not certainty, or even likelihood.
What is the Mary’s room argument, in support for property dualism?
Marys room looks to prove how there is other properties that are not physical ones in the world. It is an argument against physicalism – as if physicalism argues all properties are physical and thus we can only have knowledge on physical things. The argument is used to show how Mary does not have all the knowledge about colour, despite having all the physical knowledge.
P1: Mary is a top neuroscientist, and knows all the physical facts there are to know about colour
P2: Mary has however never seen colour herself
P3: When viewing colour for the first time, Mary doesn’t gain any new physical knowledge about colour, instead she gains phenomenal knowledge about colour
P4: phenomenal facts are not identical to physical facts
C1: physicalism is false, and property dualism is true
Physicalism is taken to be false due to the existence of non-physical facts. These non-physical facts are about non-physical properties – qualia. If such non-physical properties exist, then property dualism is true.
What is the criticism to the Mary’s room argument, stating that Mary does not gain new propositional knowledge, instead she gains ability knowledge?
Ability knowledge is the knowledge of how to do something - I know how to ride a bike. When Mary views color for the first time, she doesn’t gain any new propositional knowledge as she already knows it all, however she does gain ability knowledge – like the ability to imagine now the color red. She also gains the ability to distinguish red sensory experiences from green sensory experiences, and so on.
What is the response to this criticism?
However, Mary is still a human being – she has a functioning brain, functioning senses, nervous system, eyes, etc. She has always had the ability to see color, she just simply hasn’t used that ability yet. She therefore doesn’t gain a new ability, as she has always been able to do this, just has never been given the opportunity. Thus, this does not explain the new knowledge she has gained.
What is the criticism to the Mary’s room argument, stating that Mary does not gain new propositional knowledge, instead she gains acquaintance knowledge ?
Acquaintance knowledge is the knowledge of something - I know of Fred. Mary knows all the propositional facts there are about red – without being acquainted with the knowledge of redness. Mary is not acquainted with the knowledge of redness because her brain has never seen red before. But when she sees red, the property of redness becomes acquainted to all her other propositional knowledge of red. For example, you can know all the physical facts there are about your celebrity crush. You can know where they live, what they do, what they like, etc. Yet you cannot say that you know them, until you have met them. The same way of thinking applies here.
What is the response to this criticism?
it appears she gains both types of knowledge – not just acquaintance. In seeing red, she can now form new propositional statements that she knows to be true – for example knowing “the property of redness feels like this”. Whilst these new positional facts are only known subjectively (due to the nature of qualia) they are still in addition to the physical facts.
What is the criticism to the Mary’s room argument, stating that Mary gains new positional knowledge, but this is new knowledge of physical facts that she already knew in a different way – the new knowledge, old fact argument?
There is more than one way to know the same fact. Yet it is possible to know one way of knowing this fact, and not the other ways. For example: “I know there is water in this glass” and “I know there is H20 in this glass” are the same fact. Yet I can know there is water in the glass, without knowing its elements are H20. I gain nothing new when I find out water’s elements are H20, instead I just gain a new way of knowing this same old fact. The same logic can be applied for Mary’s case. Before she saw the color, Mary knew all the physical facts about color there is to know. She doesn’t gain any new facts when she sees color, she just gains a different way of knowing these facts.
Thus the fact pile remains unchanged - nothing new has been added to it. but there’s now new routes to understand the same fact you already knew.